Hats off to blog regular Maroun for citing a great argument of this sort in an open forum combox, from St. John Chrysostom, who wrote:
Of what honor, of what blessedness are these words? And He said not, Take, but, “Inherit,” as one’s own, as your Father’s, as yours, as due to you from the first. For, before you were, saith He, these things had been prepared, and made ready for you, forasmuch as I knew you would be such as you are.
And in return for what do they receive such things? For the covering of a roof, for a garment, for bread, for cold water, for visiting, for going into the prison. For indeed in every case it is for what is needed; and sometimes not even for that. For surely, as I have said, the sick and he that is in bonds seeks not for this only, but the one to be loosed, the other to be delivered from his infirmity. But He, being gracious, requires only what is within our power, or rather even less than what is within our power, leaving to us to exert our generosity in doing more.
But to the others He saith, “Depart from me, ye cursed,” (no longer of the Father; for not He laid the curse upon them, but their own works), “into the everlasting fire, prepared,” not for you, but “for the devil and his angels.” For concerning the kingdom indeed, when He had said, “Come, inherit the kingdom,” He added, “prepared for you before the foundation of the world;” but concerning the fire, no longer so, but, “prepared for the devil.” I, saith He, prepared the kingdom for you, but the fire no more for you, but “for the devil and his angels;” but since ye cast yourselves therein, impute it to yourselves. And not in this way only, but by what follows also, like as though He were excusing Himself to them, He sets forth the causes.
(Homily 78 on Matthew 25:1-30; NPNF 1-10]
This put in my head the idea of doing a Scripture study of “prepare” and “called” and “predestined” and other similar terms, in relation to heaven, to see if these are ever used in a parallel fashion of hell as well, so that there is an equivalence: “prepared (etc.) for heaven” / “prepared for hell.” Matthew 25 shows that this is not the case. What do other related passages teach us about this?
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[all Bible passages: RSV]
Green highlighting = allusions to heaven or election
Blue highlighting = “prepared” or “called” motifs
Red highlighting = hell or damnation motifs
Matthew 25:34, 41 Then the King will say to those at his right hand, ‘Come, O blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world’;. . .  Then he will say to those at his left hand, ‘Depart from me, you cursed, into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels’;
Matthew 20:23 He said to them, “You will drink my cup, but to sit at my right hand and at my left is not mine to grant, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared by my Father.”
Mark 10:40 but to sit at my right hand or at my left is not mine to grant, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared.
John 10:27-28 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me;  and I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish, and no one shall snatch them out of my hand.
John 14:2-3 In my Father’s house are many rooms; if it were not so, would I have told you that I go to prepare a place for you?  And when I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again and will take you to myself, that where I am you may be also.
John 17:2-3 since thou hast given him power over all flesh, to give eternal life to all whom thou hast given him.  And this is eternal life, that they know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent.
Acts 13:46, 48 And Paul and Barnabas spoke out boldly, saying, “It was necessary that the word of God should be spoken first to you. Since you thrust it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of eternal life, behold, we turn to the Gentiles. . . .  And when the Gentiles heard this, they were glad and glorified the word of God; and as many as were ordained to eternal life believed.
This contradicts Calvinism all over the place (a very fitting thing for the first Catholic pope to do!). If these are people who never were saved (as a Calvinist would say), then how can it be stated that Jesus “bought them”? That would refute Limited Atonement, since Jesus only “buys” those who are indeed saved and of the elect, and Perseverance as well, since they were bought by Jesus but yet later denied Him. Secondly, they are here sentencing themselves and in effect casting themselves into hell (with free will and post-Fall rebellion against God), rather than God decreeing and ordaining and predestining and deciding that from all eternity.
They were once “in” the “right way,” otherwise they could not be described as “forsaking” it. Nor can one go “astray” from a state one was never in. Peter states in 2:17 that “for them the nether gloom of darkness has been reserved,” but this is not the same as saying it was predestined for eternity that they should go there. This is one of many many cases where the Bible teaches one thing, Calvinism another. Later in the chapter, Peter makes a very strong denial of Perseverance of the Saints and Irresistible Grace:
These people escaped “the defilements,” meaning they were in good graces with God by means of Jesus’ work. They went from a “bad” state to a “good” one. They left their “vomit” but then later returned to it. When Peter says “they are again entangled in them and overpowered,” it is yet more proof that they were in the pool of the saved and the justified, but went back to their old ways. If indeed this was not possible: that no one can ever go from one state to the other, then the very words “again” and “escaped” and “turned back” comparisons of one state over against another (with these folks having been in both camps) would be perfectly senseless; literally nonsense. But we can’t accuse inspired Scripture of that, so it must be Calvinism that is the nonsense.
While we’re on the theme of additional disproofs of Calvinism, here is another refutation of Limited Atonement:
Revelation 17:8 . . . the dwellers on earth whose names have not been written in the book of life from the foundation of the world . . .(cf. 17:14: “called and chosen and faithful”)
There is no “book of death,” as if that were predestined from all eternity, too. There is only a “book of life”: positive predestination for the elect, but not predestined reprobation, or negative predestination (or, double predestination).
See also the biblical use of “elect” — referring to those who will be eschatologically saved and attain heaven, but never applied to the damned (Matt 24:22, 24, 31; Mk 13:20, 22, 27; Lk 18:7; Rom 8:33; 11:7; 2 Tim 2:10; Titus 1:1; 1 Pet 1:10).
There are only a few passages I could find in my fairly comprehensive scriptural survey that imply that God predestines the damned to their fate:
This language of “hardening,” I have explained adequately, I think, in several past papers, showing that it is pungent Hebraic idiomatic language for God’s Providence. He utilizes men’s sin for His purposes and plan, but it doesn’t follow that He Himself hardens anyone apart from their own previous free will decision (or that He ever is the author of sin and evil).
Even beyond the argument from use of biblical language and anthropomorphic language with reference to God, this cannot logically apply to predestination from eternity anyway, unless it is applied to a supralapsarian scenario, whereby God predestined even the fall of man (rather than it being a free choice). Supralapsarianism is rejected by the majority of Calvinists throughout history. Many Calvinists claim that even John Calvin rejected it (my position is that he was indeed a supralapsarian).
If it is an eternal decree of hardening, it had to apply to the state of man before the fall, because at that time he was good, since God created him good. But this would entail a good God after a good creation deliberately decreeing that certain of his good created men would be damned. They were created to be damned. This would clearly make God the author of evil and cast serious doubts on His character as a loving, merciful God and His justice. That is supralapsarian, and we can readily see why even most Calvinists, historically, and presently, reject it.
The same Scripture cannot apply to infralapsarianism because after the fall, the whole of humanity was in sin and fallen; therefore, men (all men) already were hardened and He couldn’t have chosen from the whole group to harden some. If they already were in such a state, then God couldn’t have decreed that some should attain to that, unless He had in fact decreed it before the fall ever took place, or (more accurately, if we want to get technical) as applied logically to pre-fallen man.