This column at BarbWire is so inane that no one wanted to claim credit for writing it. It’s credited only to “anonymous” and you can certainly understand after you read it. It’s a pretty common argument based on a complete misunderstanding of evolution and homosexuality.
So what would it look like if there were a genetic variation among some people causing them to be attracted to and to sexually desire members of the same sex instead of the opposite sex? How can we tell?
To create a “gay gene,” some genetic variation (anomaly) would have occurred at some point in time. The theory of evolution claims that genetic mutations occur regularly, possibly due to cosmic or other radiation or simply due to transcription errors in the cellular processes of DNA replication during cellular mitosis (division).
As a result, homosexuality would be more frequent in the geographic region where the variation originated and among the ethnic group in which the genetic variation first occurred. A genetic basis for homosexuality would have had to have started somewhere, among someone, at some point in time. It could have spread from there to other geographic regions and people groups. But the concentration would be higher where the genetic variation started, and lower elsewhere in the human race.
Of course, we do not see anything of the sort. We see a very small but uniform incidence of homosexual orientation spread evenly throughout the globe and across all ethnic groups. This is consistent with a development disorder, not a genetic basis, for same-sex attraction.
Furthermore, because reproduction by homosexuals must be – almost by definition – less frequent than heterosexuals, we would see incidence of homosexual orientation declining over time. Although we have only anectodal records across human history, homosexuality appears to be consistent throughout history. The percentage of people who are homosexual is very, very small, despite advocacy arguing the opposite. But the percentage appears to remain constant. We do not go back in time reading history and see a much larger presence of homosexuality thousands of years ago.
And if, as the anonymous author claims, homosexuality is a choice, why would it follow that therefore we should see uniform percentages from society to society? Isn’t the opposite true? And isn’t that the usual argument we hear from the religious right, that more tolerance for homosexuality will lead to more people being gay? I don’t think the author understands their own position any better than they understand the one they’re attempting, weakly, to argue against.