After the Lesson: “God Is No Respecter of Persons”

Most scholars accept that the author of the Gospel of Luke is also the author of the Book of Acts.  In this post, I will refer to the author of the Gospel of Luke and Book of Acts as Luke.  All scriptures are from the New Revised Standard Version.

Some time ago I was sitting in Sunday School and the lesson (New Testament Lesson 30) covered Acts 10.   As I read Acts, something about the Lukan account of Peter bothered me.  Luke has Peter relate to Cornelius and those that were with him the details of his ‘trance’ and subsequent understanding of its meaning.

But Peter said, ‘By no means, Lord; for I have never eaten anything that is profane or unclean.’ The voice said to him again, a second time, ‘What God has made clean, you must not call profane.’ (Acts 10:14-15).

You yourselves know that it is unlawful for a Jew to associate with or to visit a Gentile; but God has shown me that I should not call anyone profane or unclean. (Acts 10:28).

Did not Jesus already provide this kind of instruction to the apostles?  For example, Mark and Matthew have Jesus tell the apostles:

And he said to them, ‘Go into all the world and proclaim the good news to the whole creation. The one who believes and is baptized will be saved. (Mark 16:15-16a).

Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit. (Matthew 28:19).

Neither Mark nor Matthew record the apostles as resisting or questioning this injunction.  Going to all the world, would include teaching, consorting, and baptizing Gentiles.

Furthermore, Mark provides a radical depiction of Jesus as challenging Jewish dietary law, which plays a prominent role in Peter’s vision.

Then he called the crowd again and said to them, ‘Listen to me, all of you, and understand: there is nothing outside a person that by going in can defile, but the things that come out are what defile.’ When he had left the crowd and entered the house, his disciples asked him about the parable. He said to them, ‘Then do you also fail to understand? Do you not see that whatever goes into a person from outside cannot defile, since it enters, not the heart but the stomach, and goes out into the sewer?’ (Thus he declared all foods clean.) (Mark 7:14-19).

While one might argue that the context only supports deviation from washing one’s hands before eating, Mark’s language makes it clear that he understands Jesus to be directly overturning Leviticus 11 by his commentary: “Thus he declared all foods clean.”[1]

How does Matthew retell this story?

Then he called the crowd to him and said to them, ‘Listen and understand: it is not what goes into the mouth that defiles a person, but it is what comes out of the mouth that defiles.’ Then the disciples approached and said to him, ‘Do you know that the Pharisees took offence when they heard what you said?’ He answered, ‘Every plant that my heavenly Father has not planted will be uprooted. Let them alone; they are blind guides of the blind. And if one blind person guides another, both will fall into a pit.’ But Peter said to him, ‘Explain this parable to us.’ Then he said, ‘Are you also still without understanding? Do you not see that whatever goes into the mouth enters the stomach, and goes out into the sewer? But what comes out of the mouth proceeds from the heart, and this is what defiles. For out of the heart come evil intentions, murder, adultery, fornication, theft, false witness, slander. These are what defile a person, but to eat with unwashed hands does not defile.’ (Matthew 15:10-18).

Matthew incorporates Peter into the story and highlights the expected reaction by the Pharisees, who are understandably offended by Jesus’s apparent rejection of Leviticus 11.  But Mathew stops short of Mark’s interpretation by concluding “These are what defile a person, but to eat with unwashed hands does not defile.“  Matthew does not repeat Mark’s commentary “Thus he declared all foods clean.”

How does Luke tell the story?

He doesn’t. We know that Luke had access to Mark’s account.  While Matthew retells the story in a way not to make Jesus a heretic of Jewish law in the sense Mark does, Luke decides to omit the story altogether.  Nor does Luke tell the story of the Great Commission the same:

“Then he opened their minds to understand the scriptures, and he said to them, ‘Thus it is written, that the Messiah is to suffer and to rise from the dead on the third day, and that repentance and forgiveness of sins is to be proclaimed in his name to all nations, beginning from Jerusalem. You are witnesses of these things.” (Luke 24:45-48).

Luke downplays the Great Commission to baptize the Gentile nations.

If Luke had incorporated the Markan tradition, then his account in Acts would lose its dramatic effect.  God’s vision to Peter would be less potent if Jesus had already “declared all foods clean.”  Luke makes deliberate decisions as to what to include in his narrative, always monitoring the internal coherency of his account.

It is possible Luke could have solved the problem as Matthew did, by preserving the account, but retooling it as limited to the washing of hands and not as a rejection of Leviticus 11.  In fact, it may have fit nicely since this would have been the second time that Peter would be questioning Leviticus 11.  Thus, Luke could have solved the issue by introducing Peter’s concern twice, the first as preparatory to the second.  Luke could have even had Peter recall the words of Jesus perhaps unlocking its meaning and finally understanding that Jesus was preparing him for a future mission.  However, this is not the tradition we have received.  Rather we have a Jesus who declares all foods clean (Mark), a Jesus whose teachings were misunderstood by the Pharisees but were not intended to reject Leviticus dietary law (Matthew), and a Jesus who never said any such thing (Luke).

At any rate, we can learn much from the difference between the Gospel accounts.    It is important for Matthew and Luke to depict Jesus and his disciples as law abiding Jews.  In fact, this is a constant concern of the Gospel writers, and each author varies in how much Jesus and his disciples depart from Jewish piety.

Finally, I feel we need to be more sympathetic to how the changes were perceived by the Jewish Christians.  Most people tend to hear the phrase “God is no respecter of persons” and immediately agree with it.  It fits with our modern sensibilities of equality and emotions concerning racism.  Yet, it completely rejects the God’s instruction in Leviticus.

I am the Lord your God; I have separated you from the peoples. You shall therefore make a distinction between the clean animal and the unclean, and between the unclean bird and the clean; you shall not bring abomination on yourselves by animal or by bird or by anything with which the ground teems, which I have set apart for you to hold unclean. You shall be holy to me; for I the Lord am holy, and I have separated you from the other peoples to be mine.  (Leviticus 20:24b-26).

Because God made a distinction between his people and other people, the Jews were to make a distinction between the clean and unclean.  When Peter reveals this is no longer the case, does this mean that the Jews are no longer separated by God to be his?  Peter’s revelation is inextricably linked to a loss of Jewish identity.

The Book of Acts continually illustrates the tension and concern among the Christian leadership not to alienate the Jewish Christians who are zealous for the law (see Acts 21:20), and not to burden Gentile Christians (see Acts 15:6-21).  It’s a difficult balance.  The Book of Acts details the growing pains of the early Church and how they dealt with being faithful to their religious tradition, the teachings of Jesus and the radical new revelations that sought to overturn their very identity.
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[1] For a helpful overview of the issues see James D.G. Dunn, “Jesus and Purity: An Ongoing Debate,” New Testament Studies 48 (2002): 449-67.

  • http://thegooddemocrat.wordpress.com Dan

    Fantastic thoughts. I hadn’t considered that Luke didn’t make clear in his own record of Jesus’s teachings that Jesus had already instructed Peter that nothing is no longer unclean. I had assumed that the reason Peter remarked that he would not eat anything unclean is the same reason he went back to fishing just after the Lord’s resurrection: that’s what he was used to. Clearly, from Acts 11, the rest of the Christian Jews were quite shocked that Peter baptized a non-Jew. Thus even if they all had heard Jesus say there is no more unclean, they probably needed to hear it “three times.”

  • J. Stapley

    Luke probably didn’t have the ending of Mark, right? So he wouldn’t have had that account of Jesus’ comission.

  • http://rameumptom.weebly.com Rameumptom

    I think Jesus’ commission to teach and baptize “all the world” would have been understood by the apostles as meaning Jews that were scattered in the Diaspora. Luke notes that Paul and others first went among the Jews in most cities to preach, prior to teaching the Gentiles (and this after Peter’s vision and Cornelius).

    In Mark 7 and Matthew 15, we see that Jesus sees the Gentiles as unclean, comparing them to the dogs in the house. Matthew 10:5-6 shows that the preaching in all the world meant to preach to the “lost sheep of the House of Israel”. So, to me it looks like Luke’s teachings, especially in Acts were in keeping with these concepts.

  • http://www.faithpromotingrumor.com TT

    “Luke downplays the Great Commission to baptize the Gentile nations.”

    This doesn’t make sense to me since the passage you quote from Luke explicitly says: “that repentance and forgiveness of sins is to be proclaimed in his name to all nations, beginning from Jerusalem.”

    The narrative of Acts begins from this presupposition, and follows a kind of geographical teleology, where in Acts 1:8 the plot of Acts is laid out. The gospel will start in Jerusalem and spread outward to the whole world.

  • http://thepierianspring.wordpress.com/ aquinas

    Thanks for the comments everyone.

    Dan ~ Thanks for the comment. Glad you found the post interesting.

    J. Stapley ~ We know Luke had Mark, but you are right that he may have not had the version of Mark that included some of the additional verses. However, Luke suggests he knew of various sources. In addition, many scholars accept the proposition that these narratives existed in oral form before being written down, in which case, Luke could have still known about this tradition, even without Mark.

    Rameumptom ~ I appreciate the comments. I’m not sure I accept the notion that “Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit” could be interpreted as “Go therefore and make disciples of Jews that are scattered in the Diaspora.” But I do think this is a tantalizing interpretation. Are there scholars who argue along such lines? I do agree with you that Mark does retain some harsh treatment of Gentiles by Jesus. I still don’t think I would go as far as to say that Matthew 10 can be semantically connected to the phrase “all the world.”

    I would argue that the Gospels are written after Christianity already went to the Gentile nations, and thus, the Gospel writers have to find a way to tell the story of Christianity and they may actually be anachronistically portraying Jesus as telling the disciples to go to all the world and all nations and baptize all nations. One argument is that this was not the original teaching of Jesus but its a gloss by later Gospel writers. Else why should Peter be so shocked in Acts? At the very least we have a blend of two contradictory traditions in the Gospels and Acts.

    TT ~ Luke is not explicit about baptizing all nations. Proclaiming his name to all nations is not the same as baptizing all nations. I’m making an observation about the relative intensity of these passages. I think Luke’s account is more muted. And my theory is that if Luke depicts Jesus as telling the disciples to baptize all nations, then it doesn’t make any sense for Peter to be shocked when God tells him to baptize all nations. This is the tension I’m putting out there.

    I do agree that the Gospel writers can resolve this problem by proposing a kind of order of missionary work. That is, the Gospel will first be preached among the Jews and then later the Gentiles. But if you think about it, if that was the case, it still doesn’t explain Peter’s resistance and reaction. If Jesus explained to the disciples that they would preach the Gospels to the Jews first and then to the Gentile second, we should expect to see some concern by the apostles. We would also expect to see some narrative about the apostles waiting or anticipating the moment when the Gospel is to be preached to the Gentiles. We see none of that. The Christian community has absolutely no expectation that this would happen. This still cannot be resolved by proposing a ordered development of missionary work.

  • http://www.faithpromotingrumor.com TT

    Ah, I see the distinction you are making. Thanks for the clarification!

  • DavidH

    I thought the significance of Cornelius coming into the church was not that a gentile could become a Christian, but that a gentile could become a Christian without becoming a Jew first or as part of the conversion. http://lds.org/scriptures/bd/gentile?lang=eng&letter=g If that is correct, then Peter could have advocated satisfying the command of preaching the gospel to all the world by preaching Judaism and Christianity together, i.e., Christianity as a part of Judaism or both.

  • http://ethesis.blogspot.com/ Stephen M (Ethesis)

    It is another excellent example of a message that may have been delivered but not received/understood for a while, despite how obvious it seems to us.

    I always use such as a time to reflect on just what messages are obvious, but I am missing.

  • http://ethesis.blogspot.com/ Stephen M (Ethesis)

    DavidH also makes an excellent point in that baptizing all nations, after making Jewish proselytes of them first is a consistent interpretation of the first address, but not the later revelation.

    Again, the one interpretation seems obvious to us, the other was probably implicitly understood by the listeners who needed a later course correction/clarification. ;)

  • http://thepierianspring.wordpress.com/ aquinas

    DavidH ~ Thanks for the comments. Whether and to what extent Gentile converts should be required to adhere to Jewish law was definitely an issue before the early Church. My post, however, is less about investigating that question, and more about exploring why Peter reacted so strongly to the new revelation, if we assume Peter knew what Mark claimed that Jesus taught. Mark’s Jesus clearly overturns Jewish dietary law. Luke’s Peter is shocked and claims that never has he eaten anything unclean. My post is examining these two issues.

    Stephen ~ One way to interpret these problems is to assume that the early Christians were in fact told that they would preach the Gospel to the Gentiles, but simply failed to comprehend the message. However, another way to interpret these problems is conclude that the early Christians were never actually told that the Gospel would be preached to the Gentiles. The authors of the Gospels consistently tell the readers when people or the disciples misunderstand Jesus. If we are to assume the authors felt that people misunderstood this teaching of Jesus, we would expect to see the authors provide some statement: “And the disciples misunderstood the words of Jesus, not understanding that the Gospel would go to the Gentiles.” If we were to find such commentary, then we could know that it was the author’s intent to highlight such a problem in the early Christian community.

    The point that I’m suggesting is that Luke’s Jesus never tells Peter that the apostles would be baptizing Gentiles. In contrast, Mark’s Peter would have been taught by Jesus that all foods are clean.

  • D Will

    I think this whole discussion provides greater insight into the 1978 Priesthood revelation. It’s not uncommon to try to explain the previous priesthood ban by analogizing to the “first to the Jews and then to the Gentiles” story of Acts. But assume for a moment that (a) Jesus told the disciples that the law of Moses no longer applied (which is supported by the biblical texts and also by the Book of Mormon), and which seems to be a fundamental point that would have been worth pointing out both in the mortal ministry and the post-resurrection instruction; and (b)that the disciples nevertheless needed a subsequent revelation in order to actually implement a doctrine that they already had in place.

    Why would Peter have needed a subsequent revelation if the doctrine was already there? It could have been too much too soon for him to understand or for the infant, Jewish Church to swallow due to their own cultural/racial biases and doctrinal misunderstandings. Acts and Galatians seem to tell that story. Acts and Galatians both present Peter as having difficulty with this doctrine sinking in.

    Pre-1978 when President Kimball asked some of the apostles to provide their thoughts for a doctrinal basis for lifting the ban, Elder McConkie explained that the doctrine was already there in the Book of Mormon and NT passages of equality as well as (to the extent it mattered if one believed there was a doctrinal basis for the ban) the concept of adoption into the Abrahamic Covenant. For whatever reason, a revelation was necessary to apply the doctrine that was already in place. Or to put it another way, the revelation was necessary to remove a non-doctrinal exception (the ban) to the doctrine that God is no respecter of persons.