A question…

about scriptural inerrancy is asked over at the Register.

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  • Kirt Higdon

    With respect to the question of polygenism, I was under the impression that this had been discredited by genetic research, that science was pretty much of the opinion that all human beings were descended from one first couple. Polygenism seemed to be a much more widespread view 50 years or so ago when I was in high school/college. But if all are descended from one man, but not just one man, how would that work with respect to original sin? Obviously we are all descended from Adam and Eve’s descendents, but polygenism supposes ancenstors of the same generation as Adam and Eve and lateral to them. If so, were these humans also guilty of original sin? That would make Adam and Eve more or less symbolic of a sinful first generation rather than actual individual people. Or would it be the case that the co-progenitors were sinless, but their progeny contracted original sin by intermarrying with the progeny of Adam and Eve? Would that view be compatible with Christian doctrine?