{"id":18838,"date":"2017-11-28T01:50:22","date_gmt":"2017-11-28T06:50:22","guid":{"rendered":"http:\/\/admin.patheos.com\/blogs\/bibleandculture\/?p=18838"},"modified":"2017-11-09T21:52:36","modified_gmt":"2017-11-10T02:52:36","slug":"reading-paul-reformers-part-thirteen-2","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.patheos.com\/blogs\/bibleandculture\/2017\/11\/28\/reading-paul-reformers-part-thirteen-2\/","title":{"rendered":"Reading Paul with the Reformers&#8211; Part Thirteen"},"content":{"rendered":"<!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC \"-\/\/W3C\/\/DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional\/\/EN\" \"http:\/\/www.w3.org\/TR\/REC-html40\/loose.dtd\">\n<html><head><meta http-equiv=\"content-type\" content=\"text\/html; charset=utf-8\"><meta http-equiv=\"content-type\" content=\"text\/html; charset=utf-8\"><\/head><body><p><a href=\"https:\/\/wp-media.patheos.com\/blogs\/sites\/55\/2017\/11\/51Rh9TmwjnL.jpg\" rel=\"attachment wp-att-18796\" class=\" decorated-link\" target=\"_blank\"><img loading=\"lazy\" decoding=\"async\" src=\"https:\/\/wp-media.patheos.com\/blogs\/sites\/55\/2017\/11\/51Rh9TmwjnL.jpg\" alt=\"51Rh9TmwjnL\" width=\"333\" height=\"500\" class=\"aligncenter size-full wp-image-18796\"><\/a><\/p>\n<p>Ben.  The discussion by Luther and Melanchthon on the meaning of \u2018en auto\u2019 in 2 Cor. 5.21 is interesting.  \u2018en\u2019 (plus the dative) can mean many things other than \u2018in\u2019.  It can mean for example \u2018by\u2019. Furthermore, \u2018auto\u2019 can mean it rather than him.  So for example in Rom. 1.17 it probably means the righteousness of God is revealed in it (i.e. in the Gospel), not \u2018in him\u2019.  And in 2 Cor. 5.21 it could certainly read \u2018and the one not knowing sin was made sin for us in order that we might become the righteousness of God \u2018by it\u2019 or even \u2018in it\u2019 (with \u2018it\u2019 in this case referring to the atoning death of Christ). And again, the assumption that dikaiosune tou theou refers not to the righteousness of God, as it clearly does in Rom. 1, but to the righteousness of Christ is dubious.  <\/p>\n<p>In other words, much hangs for both these Reformers on a certain kind of reading both of the prepositions involved with dative objects and the phrase itself which is assumed to refer to Christ not God\u2019s righteousness.  But nowhere in the Corinthian correspondence does Paul call Christ God or God\u2019s righteousness if not in the above reference, and the only reference to Christ as God in Romans is in the debatable doxological in Rom. 9.5.  The first-time listeners in Rome to Rom. 1 would never guess Rom. 1.16-17 refers either to Christ\u2019s righteousness or to \u2018God\u2019s covenant faithfulness\u2019.<br>\nOne more thing, the other supposed reference to Christ as our righteousness in 1 Cor. 1.30 isn\u2019t\u2014 it reads as follows \u2018But from Him (the antecedent is theou) you are, in Christ Jesus (who is our Wisdom from God), righteousness and holiness and redemption.\u2019 Clearly, Christ is called our wisdom here, but the diagraming of the sentence shows that you is the subject, are is the verb, and the object of the main clause is righteousness etc.  In other words, this is not about Christ being something for us, it\u2019s about what we become when we are in Christ, in his body.  <\/p>\n<p>Note, \u2018he was made sin\u2019 does not mean \u2018he was made a sinner\u2019 (and so us) so that we might become Him through union with him.  \u2018He became sin\u2019 likely refers to his becoming the sin bearer who takes away the sins of the world (ala scapegoat), or it refers to his taking the punishment for our sins in our place.<br>\nThis very sort of argument shows up on pp. 279ff. of your book between Erasmus and Calvin. Erasmus, focusing on the Greek of Rom. 6.11 quite rightly insists that \u2018en\u2019 there likely means by or through, whereas Calvin, following the Vulgate insists it means \u2018in Christ Jesus\u2019 because he sees the discussion as about ingrafting into Christ.  The same problem crops up with their discussion of 2 Cor. 5.21 where Erasmus says we become the righteousness of God thru Christ, and Calvin says \u2018in Christ\u2019.  Both renderings of the preposition are quite feasible, but Calvin\u2019s turns the righteousness of God the Father into the righteousness of Christ.  He makes the same mistake with 1 Cor. 1.30, quite against the flow of the grammar and syntax of the main clause of that sentence which reads \u201cfrom God you are\u2026.righteousness etc.\u201d There is no way one can render that sentence Christ is our wisdom and our righteousness etc. and do justice to the grammar. There is no \u2018kai\u2019 after the subordinate clause which ends with the phrase \u2018our wisdom from God\u2019.    Comments?  Here I part company with this major part of what some of the Reformers seem to be insisting on.<\/p>\n<p>Stephen. I think I might have to write a monograph adequately to answer this question! This is an important debate. On 2 Cor 5:51 I think that translating en auto as \u201cby it\u201d would be odd given that that the main verb in the sentence \u2013 \u201che made\u201d \u2013 is clearly describing a divine action of which Christ is the object. If Paul intended to say that we become the righteousness of God \u201cby it\u201d then he did not make himself very clear. An instrumental reading \u201cby him\u201d is certainly possible, but I agree with Con Campbell in Paul and Union with Christ (Zondervan, 2012), pp. 186-87 that the internal logic of the verse supports the idea that believers share in the righteousness of Christ. There is a symmetry to Paul\u2019s argument: since Christ, who knew no sin, was made sin and so shared in the plight of the sinful, sinners are made righteous by sharing in his righteousness.<\/p>\n<p>On 1 Cor 1:30, I would think that if \u201crighteousness, holiness, and redemption\u201d refer to believers and not to Christ then we might expect these attributes to be described as \u201cof God\u201d as at 2 Cor 5:21. Also, while I think I can see how it might be managed without detracting from the finished work of Christ on the cross, is it a likely thing for Paul to describe believers as \u201cthe redemption of God?\u201d Are there any parallels to this? Further, if Paul intended to communicate what you propose, he muddied the waters by interrupting his main point to describe Christ as our wisdom from God, whereas if it is correct to see all the nouns as speaking of Christ and who he is for us then the renewed mention of wisdom (see 1:24) makes good sense.<\/p>\n<\/body><\/html>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"<p>Ben. The discussion by Luther and Melanchthon on the meaning of \u2018en auto\u2019 in 2 Cor. 5.21 is interesting. \u2018en\u2019 (plus the dative) can mean many things other than \u2018in\u2019. It can mean for example \u2018by\u2019. Furthermore, \u2018auto\u2019 can mean it rather than him. So for example in Rom. 1.17 it probably means the righteousness [&hellip;]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":91,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"footnotes":""},"categories":[1],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-18838","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry","category-uncategorized"],"yoast_head":"<!-- This site is optimized with the Yoast SEO plugin v21.1 - https:\/\/yoast.com\/wordpress\/plugins\/seo\/ -->\n<title>Reading Paul with the Reformers-- Part Thirteen<\/title>\n<meta name=\"description\" content=\"Ben. 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