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{"id":61536,"date":"2024-01-09T01:31:21","date_gmt":"2024-01-09T06:31:21","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.patheos.com\/blogs\/bibleandculture\/?p=61536"},"modified":"2024-01-01T09:35:07","modified_gmt":"2024-01-01T14:35:07","slug":"son-of-man-the-dialogue-part-six","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.patheos.com\/blogs\/bibleandculture\/2024\/01\/09\/son-of-man-the-dialogue-part-six\/","title":{"rendered":"‘Son of Man’– The Dialogue– Part Six"},"content":{"rendered":"\n<\/head>

$\"\"$ <\/a><\/p>\n

\u00a0<\/p>\n

A. To say that \u201cson of man\u201d is simply a Semitic idiom for \u201chuman\u201d is uncontroversial. There are many examples in the Hebrew Bible. The phrase in the Parables is usually, as you say, not \u201cthe son of man,\u201d but \u201cthat son of man,\u201d i.e. \u201cthat man.\u201d It is a reference back to the human figure that Enoch had seen in his vision of a human figure in heaven with God. Sometimes the phrase is \u201cthe son of man who \u2026\u201d where the qualifying phrase specifies which man is referred to. Therefore the phrase is not a title. It belongs to the literary context of the Parables of Enoch. Outside \u201cthat son of man\u201d would make no sense. I do not mean that there is no allusion to Daniel 7, but the phrase \u201cthat son of man\u201d alludes to Daniel 7 only indirectly, by way of 1 Enoch 46, where Enoch sees a figure whose \u201cface was like the appearance of a man\u201d with \u201cthe Head of Days\u201d in a scene clearly modelled on Daniel 7. Incidentally, it is not the fact that \u201ca son of man\u201d is equivalent to \u201da human\u201d that means it cannot be a title. It is conceivable that \u201cthe Man\u201d could be a title (as I think William Horbury has suggested), but one would need some way of identifying it as such. The important point is that \u201cson of man\u201d is not USED AS A TITLE in the Parables of Enoch or anywhere else that I can see.<\/p>\n<\/body><\/html>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"