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{"id":61584,"date":"2024-01-16T01:02:18","date_gmt":"2024-01-16T06:02:18","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.patheos.com\/blogs\/bibleandculture\/?p=61584"},"modified":"2024-01-01T10:03:28","modified_gmt":"2024-01-01T15:03:28","slug":"son-of-man-the-dialogue-part-thirteen","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.patheos.com\/blogs\/bibleandculture\/2024\/01\/16\/son-of-man-the-dialogue-part-thirteen\/","title":{"rendered":"‘Son of Man’– The Dialogue: Part Thirteen"},"content":{"rendered":"\n<\/head>

$\"\"$ <\/a><\/p>\n

\u00a0<\/p>\n

A. Even if the Parables is earlier than I have argued, the most important point is that there is no title \u201cthe Son of Man: in the book. The phrase \u201cthat son of man\u201d is fraed in order to refer back to a figure already encountered in the visions, and so it cannot be taken out of its literary context and used as a recognizable title for a known figure. This conclusion should be taken along with the fact that no other Jewish literature ever calls the figure in Dan 7:13 \u201cthe son of man.\u201d (4 Ezra has \u201cthat man\u201d [Latin] \u2013 just like the Parables\u2019 \u201cthat son of man\u201d.) So we have to explain Jesus\u2019s usage in some other way.<\/p>\n<\/body><\/html>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"