which he understands be be not a reference to Jews.
\n<\/em><\/p>\n For Dalton\u2019s argument, since \u201cthose who are circumcised\u201d (6:13) are not Jews and since they did not observe the law, the Jews are all the more distant from the mind of the Christian Galatian congregation as they heard Paul\u2019s letter read aloud. According to Dalton, at least, when Paul uses \u201cwe\u201d in the letter, we are justified in thinking that he is identifying himself with these Pagan Christian hearers unless we have good cause for taking another meaning (37).<\/p>\n
Dalton believes there is only one passage in the letter that can be shown to be a case for an ethnic \u201cwe\u201d, Gal 2:15-17. He comes to this passage eventually after showing the use of \u201cwe\u201d elsewhere: Gal 3:1-14, 23-29; and 4:1-5. In each of these Dalton believes that a plain reading of the text reveals that Paul is identifying himself with his Gentile hearers without any reference to Jews. As an example he draws attention to Gal 4:1-5 and 4:7. In the former the \u201cwe\u201d not only does not refer to pious Jews both \u201cunder the law\u201d and the \u201celementary spirits of the universe\u201d, but also those who have \u201creceived the status as sons\u201d. These are Gentile pagan Christians. So when in 4:7 Paul uses the singular form of \u201cyou\u201d, \u201cyou are no longer a slave but a son\u201d, it is not a different group of people. \u201cFrom all this, it is clear that the \u2018we\u2019 and the \u2018you\u2019 refer to the same people through the text\u201d. This certainly sounds convincing and for most it indeed is.<\/p>\n
My Response<\/em>
\nBut I think Dalton\u2019s reading actually misses the key point. I\u2019m convinced that Paul maintained a consistent ethnic distinction with the first person pronouns throughout the whole of the letter<\/strong><\/em>, a distinction which may even be discernible at the beginning in the very introduction (1:4 \u2013 \u201cto rescue us\u201d), although this minority position has very vocal critics (e.g. Schreiner, Das).<\/p>\nPaul<\/strong> does use the first person pronoun (\u201cwe\u201d\/\u201cus\u201d) to refer to both ethnic groups, Jew and Gentile, on occasion particularly in the latter portion of the letter (e.g. 5:1), but because the distinction is maintained when he does so the first person pronoun carries the freight of his argument in the letter.<\/strong><\/p>\nSo the ethnic distinction between Jew and Gentile, contained in the use of pronouns,\u00a0 is one of the key features, of an element of Paul\u2019s argument. To ignore it accidentally or worse to intentionally erase it, is to surely miss the main point of Paul\u2019s central section, Gal 3:1\u20144:11. <\/em><\/strong><\/p>\nThis section, flowing from Gal 2:11-22, makes the point that both the Jew and the Gentile are interdependent\u2014the benefits of Jesus\u2019 work are mutual confirmed by the other.<\/strong><\/p>\nThe sonship of Jews is confirmed on the basis<\/em> of the sonship of Gentiles. The reception of the Spirit by Gentiles is confirmed on the basis<\/em> of the reception of the Spirit by Jews. The freedom of the Jew from its pedagogos means freedom for the Gentile from the elementary powers of the world.<\/p>\nThis argument is directed against the teaching that a Gentile needs to become Jewish through circumcision. From Paul\u2019s perspective that\u2019s an attach at the very heart of the gospel because, following his logic, if the Gentiles as gentiles are not receiving sonship, the Spirit and freedom, then<\/em> neither is he as a Jew. It is a way to support his central contention that Gentiles should by no means undergo circumcision.<\/p>\n<\/body><\/html>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"William Dalton (\u201cThe Meaning of \u201cWe\u201d in Galatians.\u201d ABR 38 (1990): 33-44) studies the use of \u201cwe\u201d in Galatians within a new interpretive framework of Paul that represents a \u201cre-appraisal . . . [of] his relationship with Israel\u201d (35). His interpretation begins with the assumption that Paul\u2019s audience is pagan Gentile Christian with absolutely no […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":195,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"footnotes":""},"categories":[1],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-2270","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry","category-uncategorized"],"yoast_head":"\n
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![\"\"](\"https:\/\/wp-media.patheos.com\/blogs\/sites\/34\/2012\/02\/galatians_title.jpg\" "\\"galatians_title\\"")
<\/a><\/strong>William Dalton (\u201cThe Meaning of \u201cWe\u201d in Galatians.\u201d ABR<\/em> 38 (1990): 33-44) studies the use of \u201cwe\u201d in Galatians within a new interpretive framework of Paul that represents a \u201cre-appraisal . . . [of] his relationship with Israel\u201d (35). His interpretation begins with the assumption that Paul\u2019s audience is pagan Gentile Christian <\/em>with absolutely no<\/em> Jewish representation among the recipients. This assumption is based on two even more basic assumptions. First, he assumes that Acts is unreliable as a source for Paul\u2019s apostolic practices (see footnote 18). Second, he thinks that it is natural for a Jew to refer to Gentiles as \u201cunder the law\u201d by which according to Dalton, they mean under the curse of the law. Now, both assumptions are debatable. The first, while having merits, overstates the point. The second is just wrong as Donaldson has shown (Paul and the Gentiles<\/em>, pgs. 146-47; 181-82). Paul never uses the phrase \u201cunder law\u201d for non-Jews.\u00a0 Also Dalton\u2019s conclusions rest on the highly unlikely\u00a0 interpretation (e.g. Gager) of the term \u201cthose of the circumcised\u201d in 6:13 which he understands be be not a reference to Jews.