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How does God\u2019s covenant with Israel bind generations that did not consent to the covenant? asked Isaac Abravanel in his 15th-century Commentary on the Pentateuch <\/em> . This problem was raised in particular by a rabbinic claim that \u201cA person can be benefited without being present, but cannot be obligated without being present.\u201d His answer to his question was that through the exodus Yahweh acquired Israel as His property, as His slaves. He acquired their bodies as slaves, their souls by granting them \u201cspiritual perfection through giving them His Torah,\u201d and their land through the gift of land. <\/p>\n A couple of other possible answers to Abravanel\u2019s question are possible. One, that personal consent is not a necessary element of obligations; two, that the obligation is less one of law and slavery than of gift. At least the first part of the rabbinic claim correct \u2013 benefits obligate those who are not present. The covenant at Sinai thus binds future generations as a covenant of grace. If the second part of the rabbinic dictum is correct (a debatable point), then the covenant at Sinai binds future generations only as a covenant of grace, and would not bind future generations if it were a covenant of works. <\/p>\n<\/body><\/html>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":" How does God\u2019s covenant with Israel bind generations that did not consent to the covenant? asked Isaac Abravanel in his 15th-century Commentary on the Pentateuch . This problem was raised in particular by a rabbinic claim that \u201cA person can be benefited without being present, but cannot be obligated without being present.\u201d His answer to […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":3021,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"footnotes":""},"categories":[60],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-1461","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry","category-theology-covenant"],"yoast_head":"\n