\u2026as I see it, the verb in question is a wayyiqtol. And the wayyiqtol is *never* (to my experience and understanding) used for information off of the main, foregrounded timeline: that is, it is a *sequential* past tense verb form, and would not be used to accomplish what English accomplishes using the pluperfect.<\/p>\n
For me, then, this would be a particularly egregious example of NIV harmonization (making the second creation story match the first, by having the beasts created before humanity).<\/p><\/blockquote>\n
I appeal to my readers who specialize more in Hebrew and\/or Semitic linguistics to chime in about this. Thanks in advance for doing so!<\/p>\n
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I recently mentioned that two ways of translating the Hebrew verbs in Genesis 2:19 might, in theory, both be legitimate. A comment on that post raised the question whether one of them was in fact not justifiable: \u2026as I see it, the verb in question is a wayyiqtol. And the wayyiqtol is *never* (to my […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":136,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"footnotes":""},"categories":[1],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-2110","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry","category-uncategorized"],"yoast_head":"\n
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