Jesus obeys, therefore God highly exalted him. This is what Paul says in Philippians 2:6-11. How does this relate to his frequent assertions that God accepts human beings on the basis of grace and not works? Does it lend support to the interpretation that Paul\u2019s focus is not in fact good works or obedience as Luther thought, but \u201cworks of the Law\u201d in the sense of the specific requirements that separate Jews from Gentiles, such as circumcision, kosher food laws, and Sabbath observance? Might it even be that Jesus\u2019 own case contributed to Paul\u2019s reasoning about and formulation of his position on what saves \u2013 faithfulness like that of Jesus, rather than being part of the Jewish people? If so, this would have relevance not only to our understanding of \u201cworks\u201d in Paul, but also the \u201cfaith(fulness) of Jesus\u201d and Christology.<\/p>\n
In light of this, how might we render Galatians 3:26? We could understand it to be saying that \u201cthrough faithfulness,\u00a0 you are all children of God in Christ\u201d (or perhaps, not only depending where one places a comma, but also how one views certain technical phrases of Paul\u2019s, \u201cyou are all in Christ, [and thus] children of God, through faithfulness.\u201d There is no need to decide whether that faithfulness is Jesus\u2019 or that of his followers to whom Paul is writing. For Paul, it may have been both: Jesus\u2019 faithfulness creates the new covenant opening the door to welcoming in Gentiles, and those Gentiles enter by believing that God has accepted Jesus\u2019 faithfulness and by offering themselves to God in faithfulness like that of Jesus.<\/p>\n
What do you think? Does this understanding of what Paul wrote fit?<\/p>\n
Elsewhere on related topics:<\/p>\n
Works of the Law in the Second Century<\/a><\/p><\/blockquote>\n