As I read those words, I almost immediately wondered whether such an assumption is justified. We know that Paul’s letters were composed by Paul but not, as a rule at least, written by him. Perhaps merely on the basis of the content and style, we could draw conclusions about Paul’s literacy. However, Mark’s Gospel is characterized by features typical of oral storytelling. Is it not a genuine possibility that its author was only fluent as a composer and teller of orally-transmitted materials, and in order to compose a book, needed to employ a scribe?