Let me be crystal clear. I don’t care what the legislature’s intentions were in passing this law ; I am only concerned with what it literally says. In other words, in judging its rightness or wrongness (morally) we can’t take into account unstated intentions–e.g., that it not be enforced this way or that. My concern is how it MIGHT be enforced given WHAT IT SAYS.
Now, if someone can come forth and show me that the law explicitly includes exclusions for people aiding illegal immigrants with basic human needs such as shelter, food, transportation to the doctor, etc., I’ll apologize and back down. I didn’t find those exclusions anywhere in the bill as I was able to read it online. But I realize sometimes online versions are not complete.
Someone has commented here that such exclusions exist in the law, but it was not clear to me whether they exist in the Oklahoma law or in the federal law it is intended to mimic. IF they exist in the Oklahoma law, fine. Then I retract what I said about the legislators–at least those who put in the exclusions.
But I read Roman Catholic bishops’ and archbishops’ reactions to the law and they said the law would make them criminals.
I said in my post that I am open to correction if the law is not as I understand it to be. I don’t have direct access to the state code (so far as I know). I am relying on the numerous quotations of the law on the internet and reactions to it by religious leaders.
So please, if you know that the law does not say what I said, provide proof and I’ll gladly retract…provided the proof demonstrates that the law DOES NOT POSSIBLY criminalize Christian aid to illegal immigrants in need of basic human services.