To the many exegetes, M-Div, pastorate, theologian etc… on this blog, how might one extrapolate, from the verses below, that Jesus (aka The Trinity) had nothing to say about sexual deviance: “Behold, I am making all things new.” Also he said, “Write this down, for these words are trustworthy and true.” 6 And he said to me, “It is done! I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end. To the thirsty I will give from the spring of the water of life without payment. 7 The one who conquers will have this heritage, and I will be his God and he will be my son. 8 But as for the cowardly, the faithless, the detestable, as for murderers, the sexually immoral, sorcerers, idolaters, and all liars, their portion will be in the lake that burns with fire and sulfur, which is the second death.” What might Jesus’ understanding have been of the term ‘sexual immoraility’? Would it not have been based on the OT/Law that he referenced elsewhere? Would it have been a completely new redefinition? If so where is that redefinition found? It seems to me that he would have had to redefine it for it to exclude homosexuals/lesbians/gays etc.. Thanks.