In a couple of weeks I am gearing up to teach NT Greek. I have generally just defaulted to the Mounce approach to keep things simple when it comes to the meaning and significance of tense, but the whole Porter-Fanning Debate has attracted my interest in the last few years. I am curious how all of you approach and think about the tense-form issues. Take the poll and let’s see where folks stand.
Which of the following best represents the significance of (indicative) tense-forms in Greek? (the poll below is modified from a table by Andrew Naselli, “A Brief Introduction to Verbal Aspect in NT Greek,” Detroit Baptist Seminary Journal 12  17-28, at 20)[polldaddy poll=8043810]