2023-09-04T12:02:01-04:00

[see book and purchase information]

Francisco Tourinho is a Brazilian Calvinist apologist. He described his theological credentials on my Facebook page:

I have the respect of the academic community for my articles published in peer review magazines, translation of unpublished classical works into Portuguese and also the production of a book in the year 2019 with more than 2000 copies sold (with no marketing). In addition I have higher education in physical education from Piauí State University and theology from the Assemblies of God Biblical Institute, am currently working towards a Masters from Covenant Baptist Theological Seminary, and did post-graduate work at Dom Bosco Catholic University. Also, I am a professor in the Reformed Scholasticism discipline at the Jonathan Edwards Seminary in the postgraduate course in Philosophical Theology. [edited slightly for more flowing English]

My previous replies:

Justification: A Catholic Perspective (vs. Francisco Tourinho) [6-22-22]

Reply to Francisco Tourinho on Justification: Round 2 (Pt. 1) [+ Part 2] [+ Part 3] [7-19-22]

Biblical Justification: vs. Francisco Tourinho (Round 3, Pt. 1) [10-20-22]

This is an ongoing debate, which we plan to make into a book, both in Portugese and English. I use Google Translate to render his Portugese text into English. Francisco’s words will be in blue. Mine from my previous installment will be in green. I will try very hard to cite my own past words less, for two reasons: 1) the sake of relative brevity, and 2) because the back-and-forth will be preserved in a more convenient and accessible way in the book (probably with some sort of handy numerical and index system).

In instances where I agree with Francisco, there is no reason to repeat his words again, either. I’ll be responding to Francisco’s current argument and noting if and when he misunderstood or overlooked something I think is important: in which case I’ll sometimes have to cite my past words. I use RSV for all Bible passages (both mine and Francisco’s) unless otherwise indicated.

His current reply is entitled, Justificação pela fé: perspectiva protestante (contra Armstrong): Rodada 3. Parte 2. [Justification by Faith: Protestant Perspective (Contra Armstrong): Round 3. Part 2] (8-12-23). Note that he is replying only to Part II of my previous Round 2 reply. When he writes his replies to my Round 2, Part III and I counter-reply, the debate will be completed, by mutual agreement, except for brief closing statements. I get the (rather large) advantage of “having the last word” because Francisco chose the topic and wrote the first installment.

First, thanks again to Mr. Armstrong for the opportunity for the debate. Mr Armstrong begins this second round with a few short remarks, directing the reader to other parts of the debate, I suggest the reader take the advice if he so chooses. The first substantive argument is against my interpretation of James 2:1. He says:

James 2:1 is not about proving our faith to other persons by works, but about treating people equally, as classic Protestant commentaries agree:
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Bengel’s Gnomen: The equality of Christians, as indicated by the name of brethren, is the basis of this admonition.
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Ellicott’s Commentary for English Readers: “Ye know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ,” wrote St. Paul to the proud and wealthy men of Corinth (2 Corinthians 8:9), “that, though He was rich, yet for your sakes He became poor, that ye through His poverty might be rich;” and, with more cogent an appeal, to the Philippians (James 2:4-7), “In lowliness of mind let each esteem other better than themselves: look not every man on his own things, but every man also on the things of others. Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God”i.e., Very God, and not appearance merely—nevertheless “thought not His equality with God a thing to be always grasped at,” as it were some booty or prize, “but emptied Himself” of His glory, “and took upon Him the shape of a slave.” Were these central, nay initial, facts of the faith believed then; or are they now? If they were in truth, how could there be such folly and shame as “acceptance of persons” according to the dictates of fashionable society and the world? “Honour,” indeed, “to whom honour” is due (Romans 13:7).
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Meyer’s NT Commentary: In close connection with the thought contained in chap. Jam 1:27, that true worship consists in the exhibition of compassionate love, James proceeds to reprove a practice of his readers, consisting in a partial respect to the rich and a depreciation of the poor, which formed the most glaring contrast to that love. . . . their faith should not be combined with a partial respect of persons.
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Calvin’s Commentaries: [H]e does not simply disapprove of honor being paid to the rich, but that this should not be done in a way so as to despise or reproach the poor; and this will appear more clearly, when he proceeds to speak of the rule of love. Let us therefore remember that the respect of persons here condemned is that by which the rich is so extolled, wrong is done to the poor, which also he shews clearly by the context . . .
It is clear that there is no contradiction between the two statements. Why would treating all people equally nullify that a Christian must necessarily have a good report before men?
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Good works are directly in play in James 2:1, as opposed to trying to bolster one’s reputation. It’s not contradictory to having a good report, etc., but the latter notion is not to be found directly in the text. It’s not the main thought, and the essence of James 2 is what we are debating.
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Furthermore, the text cannot be analyzed in isolation, as a connection was made with verse 7 which says: “Are they not the ones who slander the good name that was invoked upon you?” James 2:7,
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I replied to that last time. 
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and further on in the same chapter, Saint James says, “But someone will say, “You have faith; I have works”. Show me your faith without works, and I will show you my faith by works.” James 2:18. Note the emphasis on the word “show”, that is, what is the use of showing a faith that does nothing?
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It’s the emphasis in that verse (as a sort of sub-topic derived from the main topic), but not of the entire chapter.
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What’s the use of SAYING to have faith and not to have works? See how the whole event is directed to “one another”, the apostle places himself as a human being, limited in knowledge about the hearts of other people and provides us with a tool to know if someone who claims to have faith, really has a faith. True, namely, what is manifest by his works, by what is visible, for faith is not the work itself, nor can it be, but the way in which invisible faith can be seen before men. Mr. Armstrong is focusing on the prescribed good work itself, which is to treat everyone equally, but he forgets that in verse 18 St. James teaches us to demand that a person without works show his faith through works, and that we ourselves do so.
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Again, I feel that I have already adequately answered: particularly in my section below, starting withJames, just like Paul, . . .”
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This extends the same thought expressed in James 2:1-6: preferential treatment of the rich over the poor. Hence, James 1:6 (RSV, as throughout) states: “But you have dishonored the poor man. Is it not the rich who oppress you, is it not they who drag you into court?” The point is about Christian ethical hypocrisy and double standards, not about proving the validity of one’s faith to men, as if James supposedly isn’t talking about faith like Paul and Jesus do.
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I repeat the previous argument, one thing does not cancel the other, in fact, the act of treating everyone equally is already a demonstration of true faith through good works.
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If good works are this organically connected to faith (which is what James is plainly teaching), then how is it that Protestants try to separate what the New Testament does not separate? It reminds me of Matthew 19:6, where Jesus says: “What therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder.”
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The Bible is always very condemning of two-faced hypocrisy. I don’t see how this proves that James is operating with an entirely different conception of works (“before men only, and not before God”). It doesn’t logically follow. To the contrary, James, just like Paul, ties both faith and works into salvation, not just flattering and God-honoring appearances before men. They are connected to salvation itself (1:12, 21-22; 2:14) as well as to justification (2:21, 24-25); both things directed “Godward” and not merely towards other persons.
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In Mr. Armstrong’s conception, justification is the very process of salvation, for man, through good works, gradually becomes righteous. In the Reformed conception man is justified before God by a single work, the work of Christ, and good works are the effects of divine grace and a means of salvation, but not its cause.
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We’ve been through this over and over. Catholics believe in an initial monergistic justification, just as Protestants do. But unlike them, we think there is a continuing sense of the word, too, and when the process continues, works are necessarily present and part and parcel of justification, since faith without works is dead (per James). In this way, good works cannot be abstractly separated from faith, according to the Bible. In other words, the grace-filled and grace-enabled works have something directly to do with salvation, too, as I have shown again and again throughout this debate, with tons of biblical indications provided.
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But no matter how much clear scriptural support we provide (mine add up to 200 at least), Protestants continue to argue that sanctification and works are optional in terms of supposedly not being inherently tied to eschatological salvation. 
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Having said that, it is important to note that these two assumptions are at issue when analyzing these verses, for when I say that I am justified by the work of Christ and not by my work, it does not make sense that a work, even if seen by God as good, can justify myself before Him, for the justifying work was Christ’s. I do not deny that good works must be done for God, not to boast of one’s deeds before men, but I do say that good works justify us in man’s sight, and are a proper means of salvation, but are not the cause of it, nor even justifies man before God, for we have the righteousness of Christ in us who believe.
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It’s interesting to me to see the phrase,
a proper means of salvation, but . . . not the cause of it.” This is close to the Catholic position and a place where perhaps significant common ground can be found. If we say that good works are a “means of salvation,” then they are not  separated from salvation altogether. “Means” in English (at Dictionary.com) is defined as “the medium, method, or instrument used to obtain a result or achieve an end.” We can wholeheartedly agree that God’s grace and His death on the cross on our behalf are the ultimate causes (or “means”) of our salvation; yet if works are one of the “means” then they are included in the entire process. And that’s what Catholics are saying. I see at least two instances where the New Testament uses the word “means” in this sense:
John 11:4 But when Jesus heard it he said, “This illness is not unto death; it is for the glory of God, so that the Son of God may be glorified by means of it.”
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1 Corinthians 9:22 To the weak I became weak, that I might win the weak. I have become all things to all men, that I might by all means save some.
A lot (if not most) of “all things” that Paul became in order to save others, were good works. Hence, he wrote, “by the grace of God I am what I am, and his grace toward me was not in vain. On the contrary, I worked harder than any of them, though it was not I, but the grace of God which is with me” (1 Cor 15:10). He doesn’t separate faith and works or grace and works. To him they are organically intertwined. Paul does the work but at the same time it was “by the grace of God” which was “with” him (ultimate cause). It’s biblical / Hebraic paradox. Paul, in the same context, referred to his own good works not only helping to save others, but also to save himself:
1 Corinthians 9:27 . . . I pommel my body and subdue it, lest after preaching to others I myself should be disqualified.
Compare:
2 Timothy 4:5-7 As for you, always be steady, endure suffering, do the work of an evangelist, fulfil your ministry. [6] For I am already on the point of being sacrificed; the time of my departure has come. [7] I have fought the good fight, I have finished the race, I have kept the faith.
Paul didn’t just abstractly believe in the faith; he kept it, which is good works. He did “the work of an evangelist,” just as he is exhorting Timothy to do in his footsteps. The “good fight” and finishing “the race” are also good works. I wrote:
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Just because God knew what would happen (being omniscient and timeless), it doesn’t follow that Abraham didn’t prove himself. To say that the “the test was not in relation to God, but in relation to men” makes little sense, seeing that no one was else was around at the time, and likely would not have even been told by Abraham what happened. Moreover, it’s very likely very few if any knew about it until Moses recorded the incident several hundred years later. Thirdly, does the immediate text indicate what Francisco claims? No. It indicates a relationship of his action to God, not other men:
Genesis 22:15-18 And the angel of the LORD called to Abraham a second time from heaven, [16] and said, “By myself I have sworn, says the LORD, because you have done this, and have not withheld your son, your only son, [17] I will indeed bless you, and I will multiply your descendants as the stars of heaven and as the sand which is on the seashore. And your descendants shall possess the gate of their enemies, [18] and by your descendants shall all the nations of the earth bless themselves, because you have obeyed my voice.” [my bolded and red emphases]
This action of Abraham — far from being simply a witness before men — is made the very basis upon which God makes a covenant with Abraham, and makes him the father of three major world religions, and the exemplar ever-after of faith itself.
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First, I never said that Abraham was not tried by God, on the contrary, I said that Abraham was indeed tried, but in relation to himself, because for God there is no test, what test can there be for Abraham if God already knows if Abraham will pass or not?
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God all through Scripture tests and tries and refines His followers (see many verses about that) and all the while He knows everything, including the future. So yes, there can indeed be a divine test, which remains true alongside the fact that God always knows what will be the result.
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To say that a public justification makes little sense because no one was around is not a good argument, for there was Abraham, there was Isaac,
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Abraham didn’t need to justify himself before Isaac, who already had full trust in him.
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and there is God himself who anthropopathically acts like a man when he says, “Now I know that you fear God.” (Gn 22.12),
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Yes, it is anthropopathism, but then this proves my point. Abraham didn’t have to prove anything to God. He simply had to be obedient and do the works that he was called to do, including moving to where God told him to go and being willing to sacrifice Isaac if indeed God commanded him to do that. And so the Bible says,
James 2:20-26 Do you want to be shown, you shallow man, that faith apart from works is barren? [21] Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he offered his son Isaac upon the altar? [22] You see that faith was active along with his works, and faith was completed by works, [23] and the scripture was fulfilled which says, “Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness”; and he was called the friend of God. [24] You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone. [25] And in the same way was not also Rahab the harlot justified by works when she received the messengers and sent them out another way? [26] For as the body apart from the spirit is dead, so faith apart from works is dead.
This directly ties works inexorably into faith, as part and parcel of it, complete with a rather delightful express condemnation of “faith alone” (2:24). Man can and should be justified by works as well as faith. The two cannot be separated. And this is Catholic, biblical teaching. None of this is simply showing men that we have faith, which is rather elementary Christianity. In fact, Jesus condemns acts of piety for the sole purpose of impressing other men:
Matthew 6:1-6 “Beware of practicing your piety before men in order to be seen by them; for then you will have no reward from your Father who is in heaven. [2] “Thus, when you give alms, sound no trumpet before you, as the hypocrites do in the synagogues and in the streets, that they may be praised by men. Truly, I say to you, they have received their reward. [3] But when you give alms, do not let your left hand know what your right hand is doing, [4] so that your alms may be in secret; and your Father who sees in secret will reward you. [5] “And when you pray, you must not be like the hypocrites; for they love to stand and pray in the synagogues and at the street corners, that they may be seen by men. Truly, I say to you, they have received their reward. [6] But when you pray, go into your room and shut the door and pray to your Father who is in secret; and your Father who sees in secret will reward you.”

We simply do our good works in faith, and God, Who sees all, rewards us accordingly (which is merit).

and most importantly, we have this testimony today, without this proof, we would know an unbelieving Abraham, as described in the moment when the angel announces Sarah’s pregnancy.

Abraham proved that he feared God and believed. But it was not “before men.” It was a thing that was in and of itself, whether anyone saw it or not, and before God (for His sake, not God’s). But referring to works as a “means of salvation” offers hope that we can fundamentally agree on a key point in this vexed debate.
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Francisco continues his answer to my biblical argument above:
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We know that theologically it is impossible for God to have any cause outside of himself, as that would make him imperfect. The text has an anthropopathic character, as when God says that he repents or suggests an ignorance of information (Gen 3.9). Abraham’s action cannot be the basis for a divine action, but it certainly serves as a means to the fulfillment of a promise. The point is that in this particular verse, the author is not referring to justification, but to the moment when a covenant is made. Abraham justified only himself, as the covenant is for the blessing of all his offspring. Furthermore, the covenant or a covenant is also a public testimony of what has already been wrought spiritually, so that there being a covenant does not alter the fact that there was justification before men and that this attitude serves as a witness for us, since God cannot be caused, nor be surprised. After that I stated that: “Men who were ignorant of Abraham’s faith were given evidence that he was a righteous man.”
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Francisco says that Genesis 22:15-18 does not refer to justification and tries to make it merely a thing having to do with God’s covenant with Abraham. The big problem with this is that it is explicitly contradicted by James 2:21-24, which states in no uncertain terms that Abraham was “justified by works, when he offered his son Isaac upon the altar” (2:21) and that this extraordinary work was precisely what proved that Abraham “believed” and that the working out of his faith “was reckoned to him as righteousness” (2:22-23). Then, if the reader has still not grasped what is being taught, James reiterates: “You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone” (2:24).
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Francisco claims that Genesis 22 isn’t about justification, but Scripture elsewhere states plainly that it is. In those cases, I go by the principle of “clear related passages interpret the less clear” rather than an unbiblical notion (justification merely before men).
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Then why is it that the text that James refers to, doesn’t express that thought. Rather, it states that “because you have done this, and have not withheld your son, your only son, I will indeed bless you, . . . And your descendants shall possess the gate of their enemies, and by your descendants shall all the nations of the earth bless themselves, because you have obeyed my voice” (Gen 22:16-18) [my bolded emphases].
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As so often, the Catholic interpretation is far more grounded in the Bible.
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Mr. Armstrong forgets that if the testimony were not public, it would not have reached us, in fact, once again Mr. Armstrong’s interpretation places divine attitudes based on human attitudes, which is theologically and philosophically impossible.
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This confuses two things: supposed justification before men only, and public revelation. The first is an unbiblical falsehood and the second a great gift and necessary blessing.
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The text takes on an anthropopathic character, just like the test that Abraham passed. Certainly, before a predicamental order (of creatures) it is correct to say that God blessed Abraham for his test of faith, but this is not the same transcendental angle, because in the angle of creatures, our attitudes precede grace, in the angle of God, grace precedes our attitudes.
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In Catholic theology, all good things must be precede and caused by God’s grace, too.

Francisco then takes on my citations of James 2:14, 17, 20, 24, 26:

I have already touched on this and it proves my point, as Mr. Armstrong arbitrarily refused to comment on the highlighted parts where the heart of the matter it is not only an admonition to be holy, but also a public profession of faith.

I have addressed this repeatedly, including in my present reply.

Let’s see the verses that Mr. Armstrong quotes and pay attention to the highlighted parts:

Let’s!

[2:14, 17, 20] Note that St. James admonishes us to demand visible proof from those who believe. Believing is subjective, it cannot be proved, but the work is objective, although it is not an absolute proof, it is a proof superior to speech alone.
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I say that this is not James’ point (which is that faith without works is dead). The only one that needs to be “shown” anything is the one described by James as a “shallow man” (2:20). Humorously (given the historic debate), James, throughout the passage, defines the shallow person as the one who believes in “faith alone” (the standard Protestant position). I can certainly understand how it would be embarrassing to have one’s position described in the Bible as “shallow”. Christians must always — we are duty-bound to — follow the Bible wherever it leads, whether it follows our predispositions and preferences or not. The latter must be guided by the Bible.
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Francisco says, “St. James commands us to observe this detail.” He sure does. He’s referring to James 2:24: “You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone.” That’s Catholic theology, folks.
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This verse [James 2:26] has already been commented on by me, and I repeat my comment, I repeat:
“Does anyone see the spirits? We do not see the spirits (God does; men do not), but we know that someone is alive by his body through his movements, and the same is true of faith: we only know that it is there by works of piety.”
Mr Armstrong avoided commenting on my argument.
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There was no need to, since it’s self-evident and we agree, as far as it goes.
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[I also sadly note again at this point that Francisco decided in his prior reply to ignore many parts of my reply, which went against our initial agreement: which I lamented and protested]
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James states: “I by my works will show you my faith” (2:18). It’s not our dispute, which is, rather, whether works are to be considered as necessary for salvation alongside faith: both caused by grace.
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My opponent again quotes several verses, however, all of them dealing with sanctifying regeneration, and for this to speak in his favor, he must first prove that sanctification and justification are the same things, which he has already admitted to have his distinction.
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Having just noted again that my opponent chooses to ignore portions of my argument (all of which I believe are important, or else I wouldn’t have written them!), he goes on to do this very thing, by choosing to ignore and not respond to no less than 18 passages (!!!). The whole point of them was to show that works were directly tied to salvation, and sanctification to justification and/or salvation (precisely what we are presently debating). Here are the portions that most clearly show that:
Acts 26:18 . . . those who are sanctified by faith in me. [Phillips: “made holy by their faith in me”]
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Romans 6:22 But now that you have been set free from sin and have become slaves of God, the return you get is sanctification and its end, eternal life.

1 Corinthians 1:30 . . . our righteousness and sanctification and redemption;

1 Corinthians 6:11 And such were some of you. But you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God.

2 Thessalonians 2:13 . . . God chose you from the beginning to be saved, through sanctification by the Spirit and belief in the truth. [perhaps the clearest verse in the New Testament that directly connects sanctification to salvation itself: contrary to Protestant teaching]

Hebrews 10:10 And by that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all. [cf. 10:14]

Since Francisco chose to ignore 18 passages last time, I suppose he will again ignore the selected six best ones above in his next reply. I don’t see how that shows that he has a superior case to mine. But his practice of ignoring whatever he wants to ignore (making out that it is off-topic or whatever . . .) violates the third of four principles we agreed to abide by in our first round (I wrote them; he agreed):

3) Both of us should try to actually interact point-by-point rather than picking and choosing; a serious debate where all the opponent’s arguments are grappled with.

He just did it again, folks.

I began this debate by affirming this connection between faith and works, citing the example of light and heat, an analogy praised by Mr. Armstrong himself. Of course, I assert again, faith is absolutely not to be separated from good works, for both faith and good works are an effect of regenerating grace. Whoever has faith must have good works, but good works and faith are different things, so we can indicate different effects without entering into contradiction.

I understand that Protestants think good works must follow from faith, lest it be a counterfeit faith. I posted articles — years ago — documenting how both Luther and Calvin taught that. That’s all water under the bridge. What I am discussing and seeking to prove from Scripture is that works cannot be totally separated from salvation.

We may put Mr Armstrong’s proposition as follows: Faith is never alone, therefore it does not justify alone. To which we reply, that it does not follow, for it would be like saying that the eye is never alone in the head, and therefore does not see alone, which is absurd. While as far as substance is concerned the eye is never alone, as far as vision is concerned it is alone. And so, although faith does not subsist without God’s love, hope, and other graces, yet, so far as the act of justification is concerned, it is unique.

This is an articulate description of the Reformed position, but it doesn’t disprove all the Bible passages I have set forth in favor of Catholic soteriology.

There is indeed a sense in which we prove the genuineness of our faith in the world and the Church, and provide a good witness. But this sense doesn’t exclude the organic connection between faith and works / justification and sanctification: directly tied to salvation:

That was my introduction to the 18 Bible passages that he chose to ignore, against our initial agreement. Instead of grappling with those, he made the following reply:
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I repeat that I agree that there is a relationship between faith, good works, justification, sanctification and salvation, but this relationship is not always causal. We Reformed understand that there are multiple causes of salvation, but works are not included, as John Calvin states:

“If, however, we pay attention to the four types of causes that philosophers prescribe that must be considered in the effectuation of things, none of them will be found to fit works so that our salvation is consummated. For the Scripture everywhere proclaims that the heavenly Father’s mercy and gracious love to us are the Efficient Cause for purchasing us eternal life; the Material Cause is through Christ with his obedience, whereby he purchased righteousness for us; and what shall we say is the Formal Cause, or also instrumental, if not faith? And John understands these three at once in one sentence, when he says, ‘God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life’ (John 3 :16).

The problem is that the Bible also states (at least fifty times) that works are directly tied to ultimate salvation, eternal life, and entrance into heaven (as a “formal” or “instrumental” cause). St. Paul ties grace, faith, and works together in a harmonious whole: fifty times. All of that simply can’t be ignored. Scripture speaks too loudly.
“But the Apostle testifies that the Final Cause is not only the manifestation of divine justice, but also the praise of his goodness, where he also brings to remembrance, in eloquent terms, the other three. For thus he speaks to the Romans: ‘All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God; but they are justified freely by his grace’ (Rom 3:23,34)” (John Calvin, Institutes 3.15.17)
As we can see, the same thing can be seen from several angles. No Reformed teaches that only faith, without works, can save, because if you have faith, you will have works, but we deny that good works are causes of salvation, but a consequence of it. Faith alone justifies, but faith in action is sanctification. I ask Mr. Armstrong, what are the efficient, material, formal, and final causes of man’s salvation? Where can good works be properly placed? Anxious for the answer.
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They are placed alongside faith because faith without works is dead. It’s as simple as that. Scripture (fifty times) shows that they play a crucial role in man’s salvation.
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Mr Armstrong, after citing several verses on sanctification, makes an interesting observation:
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The word for “cleanse” in 1 John 1:7, 9 is katharizo, which is used to describe the cleansing of lepers throughout the Gospels (e.g., Matt. 8:3, 11:5; Mark 1:42; Luke 7:22). This is indisputably an “infused” cleansing, rather than an “imputed” one. Why should God settle for anything less when it comes to our sin and justification? 
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The text mentioned is this:
1 John 1:6-8 If we say we have fellowship with him while we walk in darkness, we lie and do not live according to the truth; [7] but if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus his Son cleanses us from all sin. [8] If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
This is an interpretative error, because St. John is dealing with people already converted who need to sanctify themselves. Justification takes place at the moment of conversion through faith. The greatest proof that this text does not deal with a justification along the Roman Catholic lines, is that in the theology of Rome, a person who is actually justified is someone who is completely free of sins, however, the text itself states that it is impossible to be in this world completely sinless, for if it were possible, why would it be forbidden to say that he has no sin (verse 8), if that were true?
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It’s a process. We fail, repent, confess, and try to do better, then fail and sin again, etc. But we can seek by God’s grace to do better and better. The sin that remains when we die gets cleansed in purgatory. The very next verse (1:9) says that we can at least potentially and/or temporarily be totally righteous: “he . . . will forgive our sins and cleanse us from all unrighteousness.”
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In my favor I invoke the XV Council of Carthage, begun on May 1, 418, convened to refute the heresies of the Pelagian Celestius, when interpreting the text quoted by Mr. Armstrong, it says:
“Can. 6. It was also decided, with regard to the passage of Saint John the Apostle: “If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us” [1 Jn 1,8]: Whoever judges can interpret this in the sense that out of humility it is necessary to say that we have sinned, not because it is true, it is anathema. The Apostle, in fact, goes on to argue: “If we have confessed our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all iniquity” [1 Jn 1:9]. Here it appears quite clearly that this is not said merely out of humility, but in the true sense. The Apostle, indeed, might have said, “If we said that we had no sin, we would exalt ourselves, and there is no humility in us.” But as he says, “We deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us,” it is clear enough that he who says he has no sin, speaks not what is true, but what is false.
Then he continues, now defending my interpretation of the text of James, where he presents himself as imperfect, even though he is a saint:
“Can. 7. It was also decided: Whoever claims that the saints, when in the Lord’s prayer they say: “Forgive us our debts” [Mt 6,12], say no in favor of themselves, since for them this prayer already it is not needed, but for the rest of your people, who are sinners; and that every saint does not say: “Forgive me my sins”, but “Forgive us our sins”, so that it may be understood that the just person asks this for others rather than for himself, it is anathema. Holy and righteous indeed was the Apostle James when he said: “We all err in many things” [James 3:2]. For why was “all” added, if not because this statement also agrees with the Psalm where it reads: “Do not enter into judgment with your servant, for not one living person will be justified in your sight” [Ps 143,2] ? And in the prayer of the most wise Solomon: “There is no human being who has not sinned” [1 Kings 8:46]. And in the book of holy Job: “In every man’s hand he puts a mark, that every man may know his weakness” [Job 37:7]. Therefore, also the holy and just Daniel says, in the prayer in plural form: “We have sinned, we have committed iniquity” [Dn 9,5.15] and the other things that he confesses with truth and humility; <and> Lest it be thought, as some understand, that he had spoken of his sins and not of those of the people, he says further on: “While I… was praying and confessing my sins and the sins of my people” [Dan 9 ,20] to the Lord my God; he did not mean “our sins,” but spoke of the sins of his people and his own, for as a prophet he foresaw that there would be those who misunderstood him so.”
Canon 8. It was also decided: Whoever claims that the words of the Lord’s prayer, when we say “Forgive us our debts” [Mt 6,12], are uttered by the saints in the sense of humility, not of truth, let him be anathema. For who could bear a person praying who lies, not to men, but to God himself, when with his lips he says that he wants to be forgiven, but with his heart that he has no debts to be forgiven him?” (XV Synod of CARTHAGE (others: XVI), started 1 May 418. Denzinger 0043-0090)

These things are true in a general sense, but can have exceptions. See my related article:

Sinless Creatures in the Bible: Actual & Potential (Including a Listing of Many Biblical Passages About Sin, Holiness, Blamelessness, Righteousness, Godliness, Perfection, and Sanctity) [10-20-22; greatly expanded on 7-27-23]

If Mr. Armstrong invokes some biblical commentators, I invoke the interpretation of a Synod of several Bishops of Carthage of the ancient Church. The Synod anathematizes the idea of Christian perfection as taught by Roman Catholics today, and therefore by Mr. Armstrong. The Council ratifies Augustine’s ideas against Celestius, a famous Pelagian of the time, and reveals to us where the origin of this idea of justification is a process of improvement. I can also invoke the greatest theologian of the Christian Church – Saint Augustine, who teaches that it is impossible for anyone to reach a state of Christian perfection:
“Dearest son Marcellin, I have recently prepared, at your request, works on infant baptism and the perfection of holiness in man. It seems that no one reached this perfection or will reach it in this life, with the exception of the only Mediator, who, immune from all sin, experienced human frailty in the likeness of the flesh of sin. After having read the aforementioned treatises, you wrote to me again confessing that what I said in the second of them caused you concern about the possibility of a human being living without sin, if he does not lack the will and divine help. However, this perfection did not and will not have any human being here in the world, except the one in which all will receive life (1 Cor 15,22).” (The Spirit and the Letter. Chapter 1.1.)
When Catholics talk about justification, we don’t talk about being perfect or free from absolutely any sin. This is quite obvious, in, for example, the section in the Catechism of the Catholic Church, on justification (#1987-1995). Likewise, Servant of God Fr. John A. Hardon, S. J., defined justification similarly in his Pocket Catholic Dictionary (New York: Doubleday Image, 1980, 214-215):

Justification is a true removal of sin, and not merely having one’s sins ignored or no longer held against the sinner by God . . .

An infant is justified by baptism and the faith of the one who requests or confers the sacrament. Adults are justified for the first time either by personal faith, sorrow for sin and baptism, or by the perfect love of God . . . Adults who have sinned gravely after being justified can receive justification by sacramental absolution or perfect contrition for their sins.

“Perhaps you will answer me that these facts mentioned, which did not happen, but which could happen, would be divine works. But the fact that the human being lives without sin belongs to the human sphere and is the most excellent action, since through it full and perfect holiness is realized in its maximum expression. Therefore, it is unbelievable that there has been or could be someone who has performed this action, assuming that a human being can perform it.” (Augustine, The Spirit and the Letter. Chapter 2.2.)

The same St. Augustine also wrote about infused justification as follows:
Certainly this renewal does not take place in the single moment of conversion itself, as that renewal in baptism takes place in a single moment by the remission of all sins; for not one, be it ever so small, remains unremitted. But as it is one thing to be free from fever, and another to grow strong again from the infirmity which the fever produced; and one thing again to pluck out of the body a weapon thrust into it, and another to heal the wound thereby made by a prosperous cure; so the first cure is to remove the cause of infirmity, and this is wrought by the forgiving of all sins; but the second cure is to heal the infirmity itself, and this takes place gradually by making progress in the renewal of that image: which two things are plainly shown in the Psalm, where we read, Who forgives all your iniquities, which takes place in baptism; and then follows, and heals all your infirmities; and this takes place by daily additions, while this image is being renewed. (On the Trinity, xiv, 17, 23)
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These are the diseases of a man’s old nature which, however, if we only advance with persevering purpose, are healed by the growth of the new nature day by day, by the faith which operates through love. (The Spirit and the Letter, 59)
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[I]t is that we may cleave to Him, that we are cleansed from all stain of sins and evil passions, and are consecrated in His name. (City of God, x, 3)
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[I]t is our duty at once to be thankful for what is already healed within us, and to pray for such further healing as shall enable us to enjoy full liberty, in that most absolute state of health which is incapable of addition, the perfect pleasure of God. For we do not deny that human nature can be without sin; nor ought we by any means to refuse to it the ability to become perfect, since we admit its capacity for progress—by God’s grace, however, through our Lord Jesus Christ. By His assistance we aver that it becomes holy and happy, by whom it was created in order to be so. (On Nature and Grace, 68 [LVIII] )
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If God wished not that man should be without sin, He would not have sent His Son without sin, to heal men of their sins. This takes place in believers who are being renewed day by day, [2 Corinthians 4:16] until their righteousness becomes perfect, like fully restored health. (On Man’s Perfection in Righteousness, 3, 7)
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[H]e has kept God’s ways who does not so turn aside as to forsake them, but makes progress by running his course therein; although, weak as he is, he sometimes stumbles or falls, onward, however, he still goes, sinning less and less until he reaches the perfect state in which he will sin no more. For in no other way could he make progress, except by keeping His ways. (On Man’s Perfection in Righteousness, 11, 27)
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“And every man that has this hope towards Him purifies himself, even as He is pure,” [1 John 3:3] — purifies himself, not indeed by himself alone, but by believing in Him, and calling on Him who sanctifies His saints; which sanctification, when perfected at last (for it is at present only advancing and growing day by day), shall take away from us for ever all the remains of our infirmity. (On Man’s Perfection in Righteousness, 18, 39)
If Francisco wants to “cherry-pick” Augustine, to find what sounds at first glance most “Protestant” I’ll be more than happy (as an editor of a book of his quotations) to fill out the fuller picture of his teaching on infused justification and actual righteousness (not merely declared). Francisco cited two Augustine statements from one book. I cite him once from the same book and six more times from four other of his books.
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If justification is a process of gradual improvement to perfection, the only solution for the Roman Catholic is despair, for there would be no salvation for him, since such perfection is impossible, if such perfection is impossible, we are left with that perfection is not ontological, but imputed on us. The text invoked by Mr Armstrong, 1 John 1:6-8, actually teaches the exact opposite of Roman Catholic doctrine.
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Purgatory takes care of that. There is no despair here. The Lord chastens and refines those whom He loves. The real despair lies in those whom supralapsarian Calvinists claim are predestined to hell from all eternity, by God’s decree, or whom infralapsarian Calvinists declare predestined to damnation in light of the fall of man. Don’t just take my word for that. Read what John Calvin himself wrote:
The human mind, when it hears this doctrine, cannot restrain its petulance, but boils and rages as if aroused by the sound of a trumpet. . . . there could be no election without its opposite reprobation. . . . Those, therefore, whom God passes by he reprobates, and that for no other cause but because he is pleased to exclude them from the inheritance which he predestines to his children. (Institutes, III, 23:1)
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[T]he Lord has created those who, as he certainly foreknew, were to go to destruction, and he did so because he so willed. Why he willed it is not ours to ask, as we cannot comprehend, nor can it become us even to raise a controversy as to the justice of the divine will. (Institutes, III, 23:5)
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Now, since the arrangement of all things is in the hand of God, since to him belongs the disposal of life and death, he arranges all things by his sovereign counsel, in such a way that individuals are born, who are doomed from the womb to certain death, and are to glorify him by their destruction. (Institutes, 23:6)
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Nor, indeed, is there any probability in the thing itself—viz. that man brought death upon himself merely by the permission, and not by the ordination of God; as if God had not determined what he wished the condition of the chief of his creatures to be. (Institutes, III, 23:8)
If my efforts and decisions are causes of justifying grace, that is, if good works produce justification before God and not just for men, it follows that something in God is caused by these works, therefore ignorant of what would happen, for a cause always grants to the caused something that the caused does not have, therefore every cause perfects the caused. If it is true, not only from the creaturely point of view, but also from the divine point of view, that it was Abraham’s attitudes that caused the divine attitude to bless him; if it is true that there has been a true test concerning God, as Mr Armstrong claims, then, however much my opponent may deny it, he cannot escape the logical consequence that his argument presupposes divine ignorance, hence passive potency in God. It will take much more than a mere assertion to prove that Mr. Armstrong’s argument does not make God passive.
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This doesn’t follow. God ordains from all eternity the fact that a person will respond to His grace and perform works in order to merit salvation, in conjunction with grace and his faith. Augustine famously stated that merit was “God crowning His own gifts.” None of that entails any change, limitation, or ignorance in God. It was all in His providence from all eternity (see Gen 50:20; Ezra 6:22). Francisco is confused in his theology proper and thinks that human free will would actually limit God.
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St. Paul concludes that Abraham cannot boast precisely because he was not justified by any work. Mr Armstrong cannot agree with St. Paul’s conclusion without agreeing with its premise, which he does. If no one can boast before God, then there is no merit in good works. The answer that logically follows from God’s mercy being our all is that nothing comes from us that causes salvation. In the process of salvation, man enters with sin and God with mercy.
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Paul didn’t think there was nothing he could boast about. He teaches that we can boast about our works and that they are simultaneously caused by the grace of God. He doesn’t play the “either/or” and false dichotomy game:
Romans 15:17 In Christ Jesus, then, I have reason to be proud of my work for God.
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2 Corinthians 1:12 For our boast is this, the testimony of our conscience that we have behaved in the world, and still more toward you, with holiness and godly sincerity, not by earthly wisdom but by the grace of God. (cf. 1:14; 5:12)
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2 Corinthians 7:14 For if I have expressed to him some pride in you, I was not put to shame; but just as everything we said to you was true, so our boasting before Titus has proved true. (cf. 10:8, 13; 11:10; 12:9)
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Galatians 6:4 But let each one test his own work, and then his reason to boast will be in himself alone and not in his neighbor.
Our good works enabled by God’s grace are equated with God’s own works. It’s for this reason that they are meritorious and put us in good stead with God:
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I want to explain the reasons why it is impossible for there to be merit before God in any good human work. The great Francis Turretin lists five conditions for one to have merit, they are:
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1 – that the “work is undue” – for no one deserves, upon payment, what he owes (Luke 17.10), he only satisfies;
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2 – let it be ours – because it cannot be said that someone deserves what belongs to another;
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3 – that it be absolutely perfect and free from all stain – for where sin is, there can be no merit;
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4 – that it is equal and proportionate to the reward and payment; otherwise it would be a gift, not merit;
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5 – that reward is due to that work on the basis of justice – hence an “undue work” is commonly defined as one that “makes a reward due in the order of justice”
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After listing these five conditions, he explains why good human works do not fit the aforementioned conditions:
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1 – They are not undue, but due; for all that we are and can do, all this we owe to God, to whom we are, for that reason, called debtors (Luke 17:10; Romans 8:12).
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Of course we owe it all to God, but we still get credit for such works (biblical “both/and” paradox):
Matthew 6:6 But when you pray, go into your room and shut the door and pray to your Father who is in secret; and your Father who sees in secret will reward you. (cf. 6:1, 4, 18)
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Matthew 10:41-42 He who receives a prophet because he is a prophet shall receive a prophet’s reward, and he who receives a righteous man because he is a righteous man shall receive a righteous man’s reward. [42] And whoever gives to one of these little ones even a cup of cold water because he is a disciple, truly, I say to you, he shall not lose his reward. (cf. Mk 9:41)
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Matthew 25:20-21 And he who had received the five talents came forward, bringing five talents more, saying, `Master, you delivered to me five talents; here I have made five talents more.’ [21] His master said to him, `Well done, good and faithful servant; you have been faithful over a little, I will set you over much; enter into the joy of your master.’
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Mark 10:29-30 Jesus said, “Truly, I say to you, there is no one who has left house or brothers or sisters or mother or father or children or lands, for my sake and for the gospel, [30] who will not receive a hundredfold now in this time, houses and brothers and sisters and mothers and children and lands, with persecutions, and in the age to come eternal life.
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Luke 6:35 But love your enemies, and do good, and lend, expecting nothing in return; and your reward will be great, and you will be sons of the Most High; for he is kind to the ungrateful and the selfish.
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Luke 14:13-14 But when you give a feast, invite the poor, the maimed, the lame, the blind, and you will be blessed, because they cannot repay you. You will be repaid at the resurrection of the just.
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Romans 2:10 . . . glory and honor and peace for every one who does good . . .
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1 Corinthians 3:14 If the work which any man has built on the foundation survives, he will receive a reward
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1 Corinthians 15:10 . . . I worked harder than any of them, though it was not I, but the grace of God which is with me.

The Bible repeatedly states that God even shares His glory with His creatures.

2 – None is ours, but they are all gifts of grace and fruits of the Spirit (James 1:17; Phil 2:13; 2Co 3:5).

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A gift, by definition, becomes ours, once we receive it. If I get a gift of a new suit for my birthday, it’s mine after my birthday party is over. This is simply more Protestant unbiblical “either/or” reasoning. Accordingly, Paul writes, “Having gifts that differ according to the grace given to us, let us use them: if prophecy, in proportion to our faith” (Rom 12:6). We make these gratuitous divine gifts our own and appropriate them, and do something with them:
Philippians 2:12-13 . . . work out your own salvation with fear and trembling; [13] for God is at work in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure.
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1 Timothy 4:14-16 Do not neglect the gift you have, which was given you by prophetic utterance when the council of elders laid their hands upon you. [15] Practice these duties, devote yourself to them, so that all may see your progress. [16] Take heed to yourself and to your teaching; hold to that, for by so doing you will save both yourself and your hearers.
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1 Peter 4:1 As each has received a gift, employ it for one another, as good stewards of God’s varied grace:
3 – They are not perfect, but are admitted despite their various impurities (Rm 7.18; Gl 5.17,18; Is 64.6).
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Of course; no one ever said otherwise.
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4 – They are not equal to future glory, because there is no proportion between the finite and temporal and the infinite and eternal (Rm 8.18; 2 Co 4.17).
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People receive differential rewards in heaven (just as we receive differing levels of grace):
Daniel 12:3 And those who are wise shall shine like the brightness of the firmament; and those who turn many to righteousness, like the stars for ever and ever.
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Matthew 6:20 but lay up for yourselves treasures in heaven, where neither moth nor rust consumes and where thieves do not break in and steal.

Matthew 16:27 For the Son of man . . .  will repay every man for what he has done.

Romans 2:5-6 But by your hard and impenitent heart you are storing up wrath for yourself on the day of wrath when God’s righteous judgment will be revealed. [6] For he will render to every man according to his works: (cf. Prov 24:12)
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2 Corinthians 5:10 For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, so that each one may receive good or evil, according to what he has done in the body.

5 – The reward promised by them is merely free and undue and is to be expected not on the basis of the internal merit of the work and its intrinsic dignity, but solely on the very free esteem of it by him who crowns it (Rom 6.23; 4.4; 11.6 ). Hence also it appears, that there is no merit, properly so called, of man before God, no matter what state he may be in. Thus Adam himself, if he had persevered, would not have merited life in strict justice, though (by a certain condescension [synchatabasin]) God covenantally promised him life on condition of perfect obedience (which is called meritorious on that ground). covenant in a wider sense, because it was to be, as it were, the foundation and meritorious cause in view of which God had bestowed upon him life).

Once again, Francisco ignored commenting upon the six passages I provided, that back up my last-cited statement above. My general answer to this argument that merit is unbiblical are the following articles:

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Given the above reasons, human works cannot match divine work.
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No one ever said they could!
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In short, if there is no merit, it also does not justify.
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In short, there is such a thing as merit, as I have shown with tons of Scripture, and it plays a role in justification and salvation.
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Mr. Dave Armstrong has spared himself from commenting on the several parallel verses I have used in which I abundantly prove that the term can be properly used of a justification before men, as, when I said that St. Luke narrates that, after hearing Christ, the people justified to God (Luke 7:29).

I have covered that topic in great depth; surely a sufficient answer.

St. Luke never meant that the people impute or infuse justice to God, which would be absurd, since God is justice itself, but they have given God and his doctrine the praise they deserve.

Amen!

Mr. Armstrong does not attack the relationship I make with the use of the term, he diverts the focus and uses a quotation that does not contradict what I say, but that makes a more pastoral analysis of 2.24. He writes:
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Kittel’s Theological Dictionary of the New Testament (one-volume edition, pp. 172-173) disagrees as to the meaning of James 2:24:

How we can be righteous before God is dealt with in 2:23-24. The concern here is to combat a dead orthodoxy that divides faith and works. The works that justify are not legalistic observances but the works of loving obedience that Paul calls the fruit of the Spirit. Abraham was justified by a faith which found fulfillment in works. . . . the practical concern, namely, that the only valid faith is one that produces works, is very much in line with the total proclamation of the NT, including that of Paul himself.

After that, I quote Luke 16.15, with proof that there is a justification before men: “You are those who justify yourselves before men, but God knows your hearts; for what is exalted among men is an abomination before God.”

Francisco wants to argue that there is a positively encouraged justification before men, but here Jesus is condemning (not commending) the Pharisees for wanting to do this, as I elaborated upon last time (I won’t repeat it).

Mr Dave Armstrong did not understand the crux of the matter. When I say that the text proves that there is justification before men (something that even Mr. Armstrong assumes exists), I do not cite as an example of someone who succeeded in trying to do so, but I say that the text presents someone who tries to do so. doing it precisely because it is true, but doing it the wrong way. And the reason is what I mentioned in the previous article: the Pharisees tried to show works without faith, that is, they tried to justify themselves before men for their own ego, not to glorify God.I claim that the text proves that Scripture teaches both justifications, as Dave Armstrong himself has already confirmed.

Fair enough, but this isn’t the same dynamic as in James 2, which is the case Francisco was trying to make: to try to differentiate that from what Protestants regard as “standard” Pauline soteriology. They have to do so because James includes works in the equation. But of course, Paul also teaches the same thing, many times.

After that, I quote Hebrews 11 to prove that there is a need for a public testimony of faith, a justification before men, but that the works quoted there do not justify before God.

To the contrary, the writer states that “by it [faith] the men of old received divine approval” (11:2) and that “Abel offered to God a more acceptable sacrifice than Cain, through which he received approval as righteous, God bearing witness . . .” (11:4) and that “Enoch . . . was attested as having pleased God” (11:5). We “please” God by means of faith (11:6) and works of faith, just as these heroes of the faith did.

The ancient Hebrews and biblical writers thought in both/and terms and, often, paradoxical terms. God saves us, but we save ourselves and others (many passages). We work together with God and His work is ours in a sense. He blesses us with His grace to do good works, and then gives us credit for it. God even shares His glory with us, and the Bible makes the extraordinary statement that we “suffer with” Christ (Rom 8:17) and “become partakers of the divine nature” (2 Pet 1:4).

I agree that divine action does not destroy the nature of the second cause, but when the same work is attributed to God and men, it is never in the same sense, it is never taken univocally. If God does good and man does good, the two works have different meanings, since God acts as the First Cause and man acts as the Secondary Cause.

We totally agree. But by the same token, Francisco is in effect granting the presence of merit on man’s part; just in a far lesser sense than what God does for us, in enabling us to be able to achieve merit and reward in the first place.

It is true that according to the angle of creatures, we have merits, we can be good and receive credit for it, because in this vector, good works precede grace, so we have merits, but it is not the same from the angle of God, except when Scripture presents Him in an anthropopathic way, because in this vector, grace precedes good works, so we have no merits.

Francisco makes this statement, but I have contradicted it over and over with explicit Scriptural counter-arguments. Readers must choose what they prefer: Francisco’s assertions, or my contentions that I massively back up with Holy Scripture at every turn.

Francisco replied to my extended commentary on Hebrews 11 in my previous reply, as follows:

Certainly, when we work faith through good works, because it is a commandment, God is pleased with those who fulfill it, but it does not follow that God justifies that person through these works.

Alert for the following point: we are talking about justification before God. We are talking about the work of God towards man and from the divine perspective. In all texts, in addition to presenting a perspective of creatures, it does not report God justifying a man because of his work.

James disagrees:

James 2:21-25 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he offered his son Isaac upon the altar? [22] You see that faith was active along with his works, and faith was completed by works, [23] and the scripture was fulfilled which says, “Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness”; and he was called the friend of God. [24] You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone. [25] And in the same way was not also Rahab the harlot justified by works . . . 

This doesn’t fit with Protestant soteriology, so they try to reinterpret the passage, but it doesn’t fly, as I have been showing. The language is too clear. I have often noticed (to my delight) that God makes passages very clear and straightforward when it comes to refuting Protestant errors. God knew these errors would arise fifteen centuries after Christ, so He provided the refutations and remedies in crystal clear Bible passages. Nothing is more clear than “a man is justified by works and not by faith alone” or “faith by itself, if it has no works, is dead” (Jas 2:17).

In Hebrews 11.4, quoted by Mr. Armstrong, the text says that by faith Abel’s sacrifice was greater than that of Cain, and therefore he obtained testimony that he was righteous, faith was the great driving force of justification.

He made a “sacrifice” by “faith” and the combination (not faith alone) was what brought about his “approval as righteous” by God. Once again, it’s faith and works: precisely as in the Catholic understanding. See how the work was directly involved and not secondary and optional? Otherwise, the sacrifice wouldn’t be mentioned. Abel would simply be described as having faith in God, by which he was made righteous.

Throughout the 11th chapter the testimony is unanimous that however good the works of the saints were, it was by faith that they gained their value, their dignity, and all their excellencies; hence it follows, that the fathers pleased God by faith alone, for the work of Cain and Abel were the same, but the difference was faith. In addition, the text says that Abel is dead, but speaks, that is, because of his faith, although he is dead “he is still spoken”, his testimony remained for generations as a public example of faith.

Faith is clearly the focus of the chapter, but it’s not separated from works. This is always the Catholic point in this debate, and what we relentlessly, ubiquitously see in Scripture. I already proved this from Hebrews 11 last time, as far as I am concerned, and to a lesser extent again this time.

Francisco discusses Galatians 2:21: “I do not nullify the grace of God; for if justification were through the law, then Christ died to no purpose.”

There is a disagreement on the meaning of “law” used in the verse, which changes a lot. For Mr. Armstrong, the law mentioned by St. Paul is the Mosaic sacramentalist laws, it is not a matter of every good work, as repeated several times by him. So what I mean is that no good work, none at all, can justify it. What Mr. Armstrong means is that no works of the Mosaic ceremonial law can justify, but that such good works as love, hope, and righteousness can justify. For this he used the text of Galatians 5:6: “For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision avails, but faith working through love.” with faith.

This is true. I agree with the “new perspective on Paul,” which is a Protestant trend in theology, that corresponds nicely with traditional Catholic teaching. See N. T. Wright’s in-depth exposition on that topic.

To refute the first part, I will once again invoke the greatest of all theologians, Saint Augustine of Hippo, as he says about the separation between Mosaic law and the law of love:

“But say the Pelagians, “We praise God, the author of our justification, acknowledging that he has given us the law, under the view of which we know how to live.” They do not pay attention to what they read: For in his sight no man will be justified by the deeds of the Law (Rm 2,20). This justification can be given before men, but not before God, who searches hearts and the most hidden will, in which he sees what he would like, if it were lawful, he who fears the Law, although he practices something else. . And, to avoid a distorted interpretation, stating that the Apostle was referring in that sentence to that law which in the ancient sacraments included in figure many precepts, among which the circumcision of the flesh that children should receive on the eighth day after birth (Lev. 12,3), adds in the continuation to which law he was referring and said: For by the Law is the knowledge of sin (Rm 20,22). Therefore, it is a question of that Law of which he later said: For I did not know concupiscence except through the Law. I would not have known concupiscence, if the Law had not said: You shall not covet (Rm 7,7). What else does it mean, Through the law comes only the knowledge of sin?” (The Spirit and the Letter. Chapter 8.14)

I thoroughly documented St. Augustine’s Catholic view of infused justification above; no need to repeat that. I have many passages from Augustine (who Francisco calls “the greatest of all theologians”) about the falsity of faith alone and faith without works, and how works ties into salvation, in my book, The Quotable Augustine. For the sake of brevity and readers’ patience, I’ll cite only some of the most clear ones:

Who is he that believes not that Jesus is the Christ? He that does not so live as Christ commanded. For many say, “I believe”: but faith without works saves not. Now the work of faith is Love, . . . (Homilies on the First Epistle of John, 10, 1)

What the Lord Himself, to pass over other things, when that rich man sought of Him, what good thing he should do, that he might attain life eternal, let them call to mind what He answered; If thou wilt come, said He, unto life, keep the Commandments. [Matthew 19:17] But he said, What? Then the Lord made mention of the Commandments of the Law, Thou shall not kill, Thou shall not commit adultery, and the rest. Whereupon when he had made answer that he had performed these from his youth, He added also a Commandment of perfection, that he should sell all that he had, and give in alms unto the poor, and have treasure in heaven, and follow the same Lord. Let them then see that it was not said unto him that he should believe and be baptized, by the aid of which alone those men think that a man comes unto life; but commandments of morals were given unto the man, which certainly without faith cannot be guarded and observed. Neither, however, because in this place the Lord appears to have been silent as to the suggestion of faith, do we lay down and contend, that we are to state commandments of morals alone to men who desire to attain unto life. For both are connected the one with the other, as I said before; because neither can the love of God exist in a man who loveth not his neighbour, nor the love of his neighbour in him who loveth not God. And so at times we find that Scripture makes mention of the one without the other, either this or that, in place of the full doctrine, so that even in this way we may understand that the one cannot exist without the other: because both he who believes in God ought to do what God commands; and he who therefore does it because God commands it, must of necessity believe in God. (On Faith and Works, 20)

And the apostle himself, after saying, “By grace are you saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God: not of works, lest any man should boast;” [Ephesians 2:8-9] saw, of course, the possibility that men would think from this statement that good works are not necessary to those who believe, but that faith alone suffices for them; and again, the possibility of men’s boasting of their good works, as if they were of themselves capable of performing them. To meet, therefore, these opinions on both sides, he immediately added, “For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God has before ordained that we should walk in them.” [Ephesians 2:10] . . . Now, hear and understand. “Not of works” is spoken of the works which you suppose have their origin in yourself alone; but you have to think of works for which God has moulded (that is, has formed and created) you. For of these he says, “We are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works.” (On Grace and Free Will, 20)

Let us therefore not flatter the Catholic who is hemmed in with all these vices, nor venture, merely because he is a Catholic Christian, to promise him the impunity which holy Scripture does not promise him; nor, if he has any one of the faults above mentioned, ought we to promise him a partnership in that heavenly land. (On Baptism, Against the Donatists, iv, 19, 27)

He wills not to distinguish faith from work, but declared faith itself to be work. For it is that same faith that works by love. [Galatians 5:6] (Lectures on the Gospel of John, 25, 12)

[B]y means of the free-will naturally implanted within him, he enters on the way which is pointed out to him, and by persevering in a just and pious course of life, deserves to attain to the blessedness of eternal life. (On the Spirit and the Letter, 4)

I have written a book on this subject, entitled Of Faith and Works, in which, to the best of my ability, God assisting me, I 98 have shown from Scripture, that the faith which saves us is that which the Apostle Paul clearly enough describes when he says: “For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision avails anything, nor uncircumcision, but faith which works by love.” [Galatians 5:6] But if it works evil, and not good, then without doubt, as the Apostle James says, “it is dead, being alone.” [James 2:17] The same apostle says again, “What does it profit, my brethren, though a man say he has faith, and have not works? Can faith save him?” [James 2:14] And further, if a wicked man shall be saved by fire on account of his faith alone, and if this is what the blessed Apostle Paul means when he says, “But he himself shall be saved, yet so as by fire;” [1 Corinthians 3:15] then faith without works can save a man, and what his fellow-apostle James says must be false. And that must be false which Paul himself says in another place: “Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners; shall inherit the kingdom of God.” [1 Corinthians 6:9-10] For if those who persevere in these wicked courses shall nevertheless be saved on account of their faith in Christ, how can it be true that they shall not inherit the kingdom of God? (Enchiridion: Handbook on Faith, Hope, and Love, 67)

St. Augustine also firmly held to the notion of merit (which Calvin, Calvinists, Protestants, and Francisco vehemently deny). I have compiled no less than 25 of his statements about that, but I’ll restrict my citation here to the crystal-clear, undeniably “Catholic” portions:

We disapprove the error of those, who think that there are no merits of souls before You. (The Soliloquies, i, 3)

And according to the cleanness of My deeds He will recompense Me, who has given Me to do well by bringing Me forth into the broad place of faith. (Explanations of the Psalms, 18:20 [18:21] )

[N]ot only for the breadth of faith, which works by love; but also for the length of perseverance, will the Lord reward Me according to My righteousness. (Explanations of the Psalms, 18:24 [18:25] )

. . . cures more frequent by the merits of Martyrs. (Explanations of the Psalms, 119:157 [119, 155] )

The personal merit . . . was different in the two cases. (Against the Letters of Petilian the Donatist, ii, 47, 110)

For I would ask whether you use the Lord’s prayer in your devotions? For if you do not use that prayer, which our Lord taught His disciples for their use, where have you learned another, proportioned to your merits, as exceeding the merits of the apostles? (Against the Letters of Petilian the Donatist, ii, 104, 237)

For if the sanctity of baptism be according to the diversity of merits in them that administer it, then as merits are diverse there will be diverse baptisms; . . . (Lectures on the Gospel of John, 6, 8)

Merit is accumulating now to the believer, and then the reward is paid into the hand of the beholder. . . . As far as each one has been a partaker of You, some less, some more, such will be the diversity of rewards in proportion to the diversity of merits . . . (Lectures on the Gospel of John, 68, 3)

. . . persons whose merits are so good, . . . (On the Care of the Dead, 2)

Therefore, it is in this life that all the merit or demerit is acquired, which can either relieve or aggravate a man’s sufferings after this life. (Enchiridion: Handbook on Faith, Hope, and Love, 110)

The good, indeed, shall receive their reward according to the merits of their own good-will, but then they received this very good-will through the grace of God . . . (Epistle 215 [1]: to Valentinus [426] )

“I am now ready to be offered, and the time of my departure is at hand. I have fought a good fight; I have finished my course; I have kept the faith.” [2 Timothy 4:6-7] He enumerates these as, of course, now his good merits; so that, as after his evil merits he obtained grace, so now, after his good merits, he might receive the crown. . . . (On Grace and Free Will, 14)

If, then, your good merits are God’s gifts, God does not crown your merits as your merits, but as His own gifts. (On Grace and Free Will, 15)

[S]ince even that life eternal itself, which, it is certain, is given as due to good works, is called by so great an apostle the grace of God, although grace is not rendered to works, but is given freely, it must be confessed without any doubt, that eternal life is called grace for the reason that it is rendered to those merits which grace has conferred upon man. (On Rebuke and Grace, 41)

So — sorry to inform Francisco — Augustine is not some sort of proto-Calvin. He’s a thoroughgoing Catholic.

Augustine attributes to the Pelagians the interpretation that deduces from Paul’s texts a separation between sacramental/preceptual Mosaic law and the good work, whatever it may be, since adultery, covetousness and all sin comes through the knowledge of the law, and not doing good works is sin, therefore it is also part of the law. St. Augustine’s thinking refutes Mr. Armstrong on several fronts, supporting my thinking about justification before men and not before God through good works, it also supports my interpretation that good works belong to what St. Paul calls “works of the law” ”which do not justify, which can be applied to the texts of Romans, James and Galatians. Now Mr. Armstrong’s whole argument rests on this distinction between the Mosaic law and the good work, where he sets good works apart from the Mosaic law in every text where St. Paul says that the works of the law do not justify. By proving this distinction to be exegetically impossible, every one of Mr Armstrong’s arguments fall down like a house of cards. Unless Mr. Armstrong proves that he has a better interpretation of these texts than St. Augustine, I would not need to write another line in this debate.

Jason A. Myers, author of the article, “Law, Lies and Letter Writing: An Analysis of Jerome and Augustine on the Antioch Incident (Galatians 2:11–14)”, Scottish Journal of Theology, published by Cambridge University Press, 10 April 2013, disagrees with Francisco’s interpretation of Augustine:

[C]ritics of the NPP [“New Perspective on Paul”] often turn to the reformers such as Calvin and Luther to defend the traditional reading of Paul and trace this traditional reading back to Augustine. For the critics, church tradition stands on the side of the traditional reading.

This article seeks to highlight an often neglected early church view on one aspect of the NPP, that of Paul and the Law. This article highlights one of the fiercest exchanges between two church fathers. Through a series of letters, Jerome and Augustine corresponded on Jerome’s interpretation of Galatians 2 and the Antioch incident. For Augustine the pastor, nothing less than the veracity of scripture was at stake and Augustine mounts a defence of Paul’s actions in Galatians 2 in response to Jerome’s insistence of an agreed-upon lie between Peter and Paul. In the process of Augustine’s rebuttal of Jerome, he notes that Paul followed the law without ‘pretence’ and that there was a period in early Christianity where Jewish Christians practised law observance. Augustine highlights the divine origin of the Mosaic law, which renders a positive role for the law in early Christianity, and notes that the negative critique of the law comes within the context of a Gentile audience, but did not have implications for Jewish Christians. Augustine rightly notices and raises the important context of Paul’s negative statements on the law and offers a nuanced discussion of Paul’s treatment of the law.

Augustine notes some of the important conclusions drawn by the NPP, namely a positive view of the law and its practice by Paul and other Jewish Christians. He also notes the various ways the law functions in Jewish and Gentile contexts. Such a positive view of Paul and the law may appear striking to many, but must be considered by those who are otherwise critical of the NPP. This article shows that there was at least one voice, among others, within the early church which advocated for a positive reading of Paul and the law. The history of interpretation of Galatians 2 offers many insights for contemporary Pauline scholars which ought to be heeded in future discussions. This article, by highlighting the exchange between Jerome and Augustine, seeks to give the NPP a historical ‘rootedness’ and placement within the history of interpretation.

My argument, still unanswered, is that knowing that justification, according to the Church of Rome, is an infusion of righteousness and the merits of Christ, and, if there is a distinction between good work and the works of the law, and if the works of the law cannot justify, that is, it cannot merit Christ’s merits, but other good works are justifying, therefore they can merit Christ’s merits, then Christ’s work would become imperfect. I explain: justification is not only an improvement, but also a process of removal of blame.

I answered this last time by stating: “They can merit reward” (as opposed to “meriting Christ”). Here is a further reply, from the article “Merit” in the Catholic Encyclopedia (1911):

Christian faith teaches us that the Incarnate Son of God by His death on the cross has in our stead fully satisfied God’s anger at our sins, and thereby effected a reconciliation between the world and its Creator. Not, however, as though nothing were now left to be done by man, or as though he were now restored to the state of original innocence, whether he wills it or not; on the contrary, God and Christ demand of him that he make the fruits of the Sacrifice of the Cross his own by personal exertion and co-operation with grace, by justifying faith and the reception of baptism. It is a defined article of the Catholic Faith that man before, in, and after justification derives his whole capability of meriting and satisfying, as well as his actual merits and satisfactions, solely from the infinite treasure of merits which Christ gained for us on the Cross (cf. Council of Trent, Sess. VI, cap. xvi; Sess. XIV, cap. viii).

Trent specifically denied that we could “merit Christ’s merits.” So this whole line of argument is a straw man and non sequitur.

If even after we have Christ in our heart, the guilt remains in us, having to be expiated through our good works, this makes the work of Christ imperfect, for it was not able to expiate all the guilt and make me righteous before God in the moment I receive it. Either we have Christ, or we don’t have Christ. That is the argument, and it remains unanswered.

Servant of God Fr. John A. Hardon, S.J. (died 2000), who received me into the Church, wrote the Foreword of my first book, and baptized my first two sons, wrote about what Catholics believe baptism does:

The first and most practical effect of Baptism is to remove the guilt of original sin and restore the corresponding title to heavenly glory. What does this mean? It means that all the guilt of all the sin a person may have on his soul is taken away. A baptized child who has not reached the age of reason, if it dies, has an immediate title to the beatific vision. After the age of reason, a baptized person is freed not only from original sin but all the sins committed, and all the punishment due to even a lifetime of personal sins. (“The Sacraments of Baptism and Confirmation,” 1998)

That sounds quite identical to Francisco’s description of howthe work of Christ” is “able to expiate all the guilt and make [us] righteous before God in the moment [we] receive it.” We simply place this event at baptism. Any guilt after that is the result of actual sin, and St. John addresses that, and its remedy:

1 John 1:8-10 If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. [9] If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just, and will forgive our sins and cleanse us from all unrighteousness. [10] If we say we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.

1 John 2:1-2 My little children, I am writing this to you so that you may not sin; but if any one does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous; [2] and he is the expiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

Francisco then cites verses I set forth, as follows:

It [righteousness] ultimately and always comes from Christ alone and then we also make it our own as well (both/and):

Mark 16:20 And they went forth and preached everywhere, while the Lord worked with them . . .

Romans 15:17-19  In Christ Jesus, then, I have reason to be proud of my work for God. [18] For I will not venture to speak of anything except what Christ has wrought through me to win obedience from the Gentiles, by word and deed,

1 Corinthians 1:21 . . . it pleased God through the folly of what we preach to save those who believe.

1 Corinthians 3:5 What then is Apol’los? What is Paul? Servants through whom you believed, as the Lord assigned to each.

1 Corinthians 3:9 . . . we are God’s fellow workers . . . (KJV: “labourers together with God”)

1 Corinthians 15:10  But by the grace of God I am what I am, and his grace toward me was not in vain. On the contrary, I worked harder than any of them, though it was not I, but the grace of God which is with me.

2 Corinthians 6:1 Working together with him, then, we entreat you not to accept the grace of God in vain.

2 Corinthians 13:3 . . . Christ is speaking in me . . .

Philippians 2:13 for God is at work in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure.

1 Timothy 4:16 Take heed to yourself and to your teaching: hold to that, for by so doing you will save both yourself and your hearers.

James 5:20 . . .  whoever brings back a sinner from the error of his way will save his soul from death . . .

Now let’s see how many of these passages he will address and deal with.

I disagree and reject the charge that we are doing an unnecessary either/or. Dichotomies exist in Scripture, but this is not the case. While I do not interpret it in the same way as Mr Armstrong does, this does not mean that I am excluding any part of any verse from my explanations.

Good and fair enough; duly noted. Then I will look closely to see exactly how you interpret these passages.

When Mr. Armstrong says that righteousness “ultimately and always comes from Christ alone and then we also make it our own as well (both/and)”, I see no reason to disagree with this sentence, for indeed, through faith we appropriate the works of Christ , but this requires further explanation, it is obvious that there are differences between what I am saying and what Mr Armstrong has in mind.

Glad to hear it. We do differ somehow, though, and whatever the difference is will be examined now.

First, that there is cooperation between God and man, that is a fact, but creatures are like subordinate agents, men subordinate to God, not like equal agents with God.

We completely agree.

I have already explained and I repeat, there is human merit when we look only to men, but none of the apostles dare, at any time, to boast before God.

To the contrary, Paul wrote:

Galatians 6:4 But let each one test his own work, and then his reason to boast will be in himself alone and not in his neighbor.

This is simply a man examining himself. It has nothing to do with other men observing. He is testing his own work, which value God will judge, as Paul notes three verses later:

Galatians 6:7-9  Do not be deceived; God is not mocked, for whatever a man sows, that he will also reap. [8] For he who sows to his own flesh will from the flesh reap corruption; but he who sows to the Spirit will from the Spirit reap eternal life. [9] And let us not grow weary in well-doing, for in due season we shall reap, if we do not lose heart.

So it’s all before God, and Paul stated that it was a legitimate reason for him to “boast.”

If anyone is proud, it is in front of other men,

That’s not always true, either:

Philippians 2:16 holding fast the word of life, so that in the day of Christ I may be proud that I did not run in vain or labor in vain.

Hebrews 3:6 . . . And we are his house if we hold fast our confidence and pride in our hope.

Romans 15:17 In Christ Jesus, then, I have reason to be proud of my work for God.

but always emphasizing that his works would not be possible without God.

As Paul does in the next verse, in the following example:

Romans 15:18 For I will not venture to speak of anything except what Christ has wrought through me to win obedience from the Gentiles, by word and deed,

If the apostles cannot and do not boast of such works,

But they do, so the premise is wrong.

neither can they say that these works are causes of justification.

I’ve gone over this subject matter many times by now. The Bible teaches (as I have shown more than hundred times now) that works contribute as the cause of our justification, alongside grace and faith.

Francisco cites 1 Corinthians 15:10 and comments:

It is clear that Paul ascribes nothing to himself in regard to this work, though he may do it before men, but in relation to God he claims to have done nothing. At the same time, in which he works, this work is as if it were not him.

He does say that he did something, in asserting, “I worked harder than any of them.” If in fact he thought that he did absolutely nothing, the verse would be half as long as it is, and would read, “But by the grace of God I am what I am, and his grace toward me was not in vain.” There would be no reason whatsoever to include the clause I just noted. It would confuse readers. But it’s “both/and” biblical paradox. Paul reiterates that he did something; that he was not passive or without free will, in the next verse, too: “so we preach and so you believed.” That is not ascribing nothing to himself”; sorry!

Francisco then decided (thank you kind sir!) to address another of my passages, Philippians 2:13 (for God is at work in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure”):

this verse shows us, contrary to what Mr. Armstrong tries to insinuate, not a synergism in which there is cooperation between two equal parts, but a subordinate synergism, in which human cooperation generates an effect in reality, but only because God operated the will and the doing, that is, everything comes from God to man, nothing goes from man to God, the cause is God

We largely agree, but we disagree with Calvinists (as do most Protestants and the Orthodox) that man has no free will. I didn’t do it in this specific context, but I have, many times, noted that man is a totally inferior, subordinate cooperator with God. It’s self-evident, I would say, but we must often point this out, so we don’t get falsely accused of making man equal to God.

human works are an effect of the divine operation, how can they be causes of justification, which is a divine act, “from above downwards”, from God to man?

They can because the inspired revelation of the Bible says that they do. We must adjust our theologies accordingly.

it can be argued a partial operation on the part of God, due to the previous verse that says: “Work out your salvation with trembling” (verse 12), which, I think, is a thought which may properly be attributed to Mr. Armstrong.

Indeed, here’s a classic case where context helps explain the meaning of the verse.

However, St. Paul does not speak here of a collaboration of partial causes, synergistic, where God plays a part and the creature another, as complementary, which would be appropriate for the work of man to be meritorious and could be the cause of justification.

“work out your own salvation with fear and trembling” sure sounds to me like the man is doing something and that it will be meritorious if he does end up saved and in heaven.

The reason is that while in Phil 2:13 the word used for operate is “energeo”, while the word used for “cooperate” is the Greek word synergeo (Strong’s 4903), and in the same letter, in the same chapter, in Philippians 2:25, Paul uses the word synergeo for cooperating: “Nevertheless, I think it will be necessary to send back to you Epaphroditus, my brother, fellow worker (synergeo) and fellow soldier, the messenger whom you sent to minister to my needs” (Philippians 2:25). If, in Philippians 2.13, St. Paul wanted to convey an idea of cooperating, as partial causes, he would know very well what word to use, it would not be energeo, but synergeo. We then affirm that both the primary cause and the secondary cause are total during the event that happened, and that they collaborate, but not as partial and simultaneous causes, but as total causes, the primary being prior to the secondary. The second cause is always subordinate, therefore, it cannot cause a divine attitude, however much it collaborates subordinately.

Here, Francisco gets an “E” for effort, but he proves too much. If synergeo is the word that would signify cooperating, and God can supposedly never do that with man, then we need merely find it in other similar verses where God and man are working together (superior and subordinate, but still together). If we can do that, Francisco’s attempted linguistic argument would be seen to be self-refuting. There are in fact such verses, found under a web page on the word. One was the first example I provided:

Mark 16:20 And they went forth and preached everywhere, while the Lord worked [synergeo] with them . . .

A second verse from my list is also included:

2 Corinthians 6:1 Working together [synergeo] with him, then, we entreat you not to accept the grace of God in vain.

The same page cites Thayer’s Greek Lexicon, commenting on the above passage: “to work together, help in work, be a partner in labor.” And regarding Mark 16:20, it states that the word means “to put forth power together with and thereby to assist.” Case closed, and I heartily thank Francisco for providing Catholics with one of the many hundreds of scriptural and linguistic arguments that we can bring to bear.

As St. Paul states: “And there are diversities of operations, but it is the same God who works (energeo) all in all” (1 Cor 12:6).

Absolutely; He certainly does, but this is not the same thought as my passages, which are about man cooperating with God as an infinitely lesser partner, but still a partner.

Mr. Armstrong’s proposal runs into not only exegetical errors, but metaphysical ones.

Well, it doesn’t, because I just produced two verses that did what Francisco just argued could and would never happen. We must follow inspired, inerrant biblical teachings as our “master”. Catholics never have a problem doing that because our teachings are always in harmony with Scripture. I know, and am in a position to make such a summary statement, because “biblical evidence for Catholicism” has been my biggest emphasis in my Catholic apologetics, these past 33 years.

The other verses follow the same line of what has already been explained.

Note again that this is — sadly – Francisco’s technique to ignore my other biblical evidences with a line (one of the oldest evasive tactics in the book). He chose to deal with two of the eleven verses (18%) that I presented. I counter-answered the two that he cherry-picked to discuss (because he thought he had a good argument for them). If he is so confident in his case, then surely he could have refuted my contentions about the other nine. As it is, he again broke our agreed-to rules at the outset of this debate: “3) Both of us should try to actually interact point-by-point rather than picking and choosing; a serious debate where all the opponent’s arguments are grappled with.”

If Mr. Armstrong says that the answer to my argument is the explanation of his model of justification, then I will give more reason for the reader to be convinced that the Roman Catholic model of justification is biblically false.

But that’s not all that Armstrong does, of course. Armstrong also provides exponentially more biblical passages in support of Catholic theology than Francisco does for his theology, that Francisco then decides to ignore, as we just saw in the latest example: just one of many. It’s disappointing and bad for the debate, but hey, if he wishes to in effect concede the argument in this way (by not addressing large chunks of my presentation), that only helps our side and doesn’t provide much support for his. You readers out there who may be on the fence, or willing to look at both sides (especially former Catholics who have become Protestant), pay close attention in your determination of which view is more biblical and sensible!

For Mr Armstrong, as I understand it from his explanations, before justification there is an operation of the Holy Spirit which is a preparation for justification, wrought in part by divine power, and in part by the power of human free will, by which a man disposes itself for its own future justification.

The Council of Trent, on the other hand, taught (more precisely):

If any one saith, that without the prevenient inspiration of the Holy Ghost, and without his help, man can believe, hope, love, or be penitent as he ought, so as that the grace of Justification may be bestowed upon him; let him be anathema. (Canon III on Justification)

This is also taught in the Decree on Justification: chapter 5:

The Synod furthermore declares, that in adults, the beginning of the said Justification is to be derived from the prevenient grace of God, through Jesus Christ, that is to say, from His vocation, whereby, without any merits existing on their parts, they are called; that so they, who by sins were alienated from God, may be disposed through His quickening and assisting grace, to convert themselves to their own justification, by freely assenting to and co-operating with that said grace: in such sort that, while God touches the heart of man by the illumination of the Holy Ghost, neither is man himself utterly without doing anything while he receives that inspiration, forasmuch as he is also able to reject it; yet is he not able, by his own free will, without the grace of God, to move himself unto justice in His sight.

The rest of his description of our view is adequate.

An important point is that Mr. Armstrong concedes that the first, or initial, justification is the fruit of God’s mercy alone through the merit of Christ, without human work.

It’s not a “concession.” The Catholic Church has always taught this. Protestants, as a result, received it from us.

And this is where the question I asked comes in: “What exactly is it that makes a man stand right with God and be accepted into eternal life?” I replied that nothing but the righteousness of Christ, which consists partly in His sufferings and partly in His active obedience in carrying out the strictness of the law, hence we call it Solus christus (Christ alone).

Christ ultimately is the cause. No one disagrees with that. But in terms of the immediate instrumental cause, I devoted a paper to just that question. According to Holy Scripture, the following things are what causes God to declare that human beings are saved and worthy of heaven. Our answer to Francisco’s question and to God when we stand before Him, could incorporate any one or all of the following fifty responses: all perfectly biblical, and straight from the words of God Himself:

1) I am characterized by righteousness.

2) I have integrity.

3) I’m not wicked.

4) I’m upright in heart.

5) I’ve done good deeds.

6) I have good ways.

7) I’m not committing abominations.

8) I have good conduct.

9) I’m not angry with my brother.

10) I’m not insulting my brother.

11) I’m not calling someone a fool.

12) I have good fruits.

13) I do the will of God.

14) I hear Jesus’ words and do them.

15) I endured to the end.

16) I fed the hungry.

17) I provided drink to the thirsty.

18) I clothed the naked.

19) I welcomed strangers.

20) I visited the sick.

21) I visited prisoners.

22) I invited the poor and the maimed to my feast.

23) I’m not weighed down with dissipation.

24) I’m not weighed down with drunkenness.

25) I’m not weighed down with the cares of this life.

26) I’m not ungodly.

27) I don’t suppress the truth.

28) I’ve done good works.

29) I obeyed the truth.

30) I’m not doing evil.

31) I have been a “doer of the law.”

32) I’ve been a good laborer and fellow worker with God.

33) I’m unblamable in holiness.

34) I’ve been wholly sanctified.

35) My spirit and soul and body are sound and blameless.

36) I know God.

37) I’ve obeyed the gospel.

38) I’ve shared Christ’s sufferings.

39) I’m without spot or blemish.

40) I’ve repented.

41) I’m not a coward.

42) I’m not faithless.

43) I’m not polluted.

44) I’m not a murderer.

45) I’m not a fornicator.

46) I’m not a sorcerer.

47) I’m not an idolater.

48) I’m not a liar.

49) I invited the lame to my feast.

50) I invited the blind to my feast.

Where all this comes from is Bible passages: documented in my article, Final Judgment in Scripture is Always Associated with Works and Never with Faith Alone (50 Passages). So once again, I answer the probing question of my opponent with fifty passages directly cited from the Bible.

Mr. Armstrong answers that the thing which makes us right with God, and leads us to be accepted into eternal life, is the remission of sins, and the habit of inward righteousness, or charity with the fruits thereof.

Exactly! And why do I believe that? It’s because the Bible (oftentimes, God Himself speaking) explicitly states it, at least fifty times that I have found. The Bible asserting a proposition fifty times is pretty compelling evidence for any Christian looking for an answer to some theological question. What more could we expect or demand, pray tell?

I grant that there is a habit of righteousness, but I call it sanctification

Whatever someone wants to call it, it’s necessary for salvation and eternal life and entrance into heaven, per the Bible.

I also grant that it is an excellent gift of God, with its reward on his part, but I maintain that this justification is before man alone, because it serves to declare that we are reconciled to God.

The fifty passages I produced are not just “before man alone.” So, for example, we have the passages in Matthew 25:

“When the Son of man comes in his glory, and all the angels with him, then he will sit on his glorious throne. Before him will be gathered all the nations, and he will separate them one from another as a shepherd separates the sheep from the goats, and he will place the sheep at his right hand, but the goats at the left. Then the King will say to those at his right hand, `Come, O blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world; for I was hungry and you gave me food, I was thirsty and you gave me drink, I was a stranger and you welcomed me, I was naked and you clothed me, I was sick and you visited me, I was in prison and you came to me.’ . . . And they will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.”

See the bolded, italicized word “for” there? It indicates cause and means “because.” These people are allowed to enter heaven because (or, “for”) they did all these good works (six different ones mentioned). That’s what the Bible teaches, recording the words of our Lord and Savior and Redeemer Jesus, at the Last Judgment. It couldn’t be any more clear than it is. The word “faith” never even appears. But I’m not saying that faith isn’t part of it. I’ve never ever argued that. I’m saying that the fact of works also playing a key role cannot possibly be denied without rejecting plain biblical teaching.

However, I do not concede that the habit of righteousness and good works changes us from sinners to good men.

He doesn’t have to because we don’t believe that. We believe that both initial justification and baptism are monergistic.

The main reason I have given, to which, I insist, I have not received a proper answer, though Mr. Armstrong says otherwise, is this, based on the following verse: “He who knew no sin was made sin for us, that we might be made righteousness. of God which is in him” (2 Corinthians 5:21). From this it is easily deduced that as Christ was made sin for us, so we also are made the righteousness of God in Him. But Christ was made sin, or, a sinner by the imputation of our sins, He being in Himself most holy; therefore, a sinner is justified before God because the righteousness of Christ is imputed and applied to him.

Exactly. That’s what happens in initial justification and baptism. If we fall into sin, then we have to repent and confess, be granted absolution, and get back in right relationship with God. The Bible teaches that we have to be vigilant and make sure that we don’t fall from grace and salvation.

For although Mr. Armstrong agrees that both righteousness and forgiveness of sins come from Christ alone, this applies only to the initial justification, but does not apply to the permanence of that state of righteousness, namely, the second justification.

This is incorrect. It applies to any instance of justification, whether initial or subsequently after losing it through sin and rebellion. But the difference is that we are — after initial justification — commanded to do good works, which play into the determination of our ultimate salvation.

If justification has to do with having peace with God, as St. Paul says, “Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ;” Rm 5.1, when will we have peace with God if Christian perfection is something unattainable?

I’ve already addressed the question of perfection, holiness, righteousness, etc.

And even if we understand the Roman Catholic view of the possibility of Christian perfection,

Not just our view, but the biblical view, which we merely follow.

it doesn’t solve the problem, for we know that Christian perfection is extremely difficult, so that only a very few people would be endowed with the true justification that bestows peace. The logical consequence is that the work of Christ is imperfect, as it does not forgive all human sins, which depend on good works, penances and a series of additional ones to obtain the benefits of the work that Christ conquered on the cross.

I’ve dealt with this, too, It’s merely repeating, which doesn’t advance the discussion.

Francisco then addresses Philippians 3:11-14, which is one of nine passages I present in favor of the view that justification is a process.

In this case, Mr. Armstrong mutilates the text to appear to agree with his arguments, omitting verse 9, where St. Paul says: “And be found in him, not having my righteousness which is of the law, but that which is by faith.” in Christ, that is, the righteousness which is from God by faith;”

I didn’t “mutilate” anything (nice try). I simply didn’t cite that portion (every biblical citation has to “cut off” somewhere). And I didn’t, because Catholics and Protestants agree about that, and it has nothing directly to do with the question of whether justification is instant or ongoing. It’s a non sequitur: outside of the topic immediately under consideration. Verses 11-14, on the other hand, make it undeniably clear that justification (prior to its initial phase) is a process.

St. Paul certainly excludes any and all work when he says that righteousness comes from faith, not from the law. There is no distinction here between Mosaic law and good work, for as Augustine says, this is a distortion of the apostle’s words, for if it were true, sin would no longer exist, since it is through the law that we know sin, therefore, all sin it involves the transgression of the law, so if not to love is a sin, then all good works are included in the law to which St. Paul refers.

I’ve dealt with this over and over, but again, it’s not the immediate topic at this point, which is whether justification is a process and whether it can be lost.

But St. Paul seems to anticipate Mr. Armstrong’s argument when he says, “Not that I have already attained it, or that I am perfect; but I press on to obtain what I was also arrested for by Christ Jesus.” Philippians 3:12, adding that he himself, an apostle of Christ at the end of his life, had not reached perfection, yet St. Paul considers himself justified, for it is simply possible to be perfect in the merits of Christ and not to be ontologically perfect.

He is talking about initial justification, which he probably had never lost up to that point. But then he talks about how he might lose it if he isn’t vigilant. That possibility means that it’s a process, without yet a known outcome. Even the holy Paul thinks so. He ends the passage by asserting, “let us hold true to what we have attained” (3:16). In other words, it could possibly be lost; otherwise it makes no sense to referring to holding “true” to it.

It’s like saying to one’s spouse: “I’ll be true to you forever.” That’s the stated goal, but no one knows whether it will be carried out until the time passes (up until death) and the spouse is still there, being true. If justification couldn’t possibly be lost, it makes no sense whatsoever for Paul to exhort his followers to “hold true” to it. This wasn’t even in my original argument, but since Francisco wants to disagree, now my argument has become stronger.

Francisco then decided to tackle a second of my nine proofs for the process of justification: Colossians 1:21-23, which states in part:  “. . . provided that you continue in the faith, stable and steadfast, not shifting from the hope of the gospel . . .”

Here Mr Armstrong errs again in confusing the transcendental order with the predicamental order. Now, one thing is the way in which creatures are spoken of, another is the way in which God sees these same creatures. An admonition about the loss of salvation rests on ignorance either of the hearer, or of the speaker and hearer, for it is obvious that it is extreme absurdity to apply to God a particle of indeterminacy, as if God were ignorant. How can the phrase be applied univocally to God and man: “IF you persevere to the end, you will be saved”, if in God there is no particle of indeterminacy, therefore there is no “IF”?

It’s not applied to God at all. It’s a conditional warning, expressing the thought: “if you [a human being] don’t continue in the faith and shift away from the gospel you have received, you won’t be saved.”

Now, here it is not up to Mr. Armstrong to simply state that he does not deny divine omniscience, but he must, for the sake of the debate and the coherence of his argument, under penalty of not sustaining it, explain how this text can be explained without using anthropopathy, therefore, of a metaphorical language for God, although real for man, cannot be used as a base text for justification, since justification is not a human work, but a divine one.

The passage has to do with man’s responsibility to persevere. Of course, one of the false Calvinist dogmas holds that God will always make a Christian persevere. I’ve refuted that in several ways elsewhere. This passage is talking precisely about man’s part in justification (which I’ve already massively proven from the Bible), and his responsibility to hold firm.

The next passage of mine that he addresses is this one:

1 Timothy 4:1 Now the Spirit expressly says that in later times some will depart from the faith by giving heed to deceitful spirits and doctrines of demons.

This text does not even speak of the faith that saves, but of faith as a doctrine.

Christian faith entails belief in a system of doctrines or theology, which can be rejected and “fallen away from” just as one can reject and fall away from God Himself. If someone ceases to believe in the Holy Trinity or the redemptive death of Jesus on the cross he or she is not a Christian and can’t be saved; and if not saved; not justified, either. Therefore, this passage is perfectly relevant to our discussion. 

He then addresses 2 Timothy 2:12: “if we endure, we shall also reign with him; if we deny him, he also will deny us;”:

Note that St. Paul poses as ignorant of the facts of the future.

He didn’t know the future any more than anyone else did (unless God revealed it to him, as with the prophets). He is saying that salvation is conditional upon our endurance.

This only proves that Mr. Armstrong regards God as ignorant, as a consequence, although he denies this fact, he still needs to explain how God does not become ignorant if we apply this text in a transcendental view.

The passage and my use of it has nothing whatsoever to do with some supposed blasphemous notion that God is “ignorant” of anything. God warns us out of love, through the inspired writing of Paul, that we must be vigilant and persevering if we are to be saved in the end. We can lose our salvation and heaven through sin and rebellion and disobedience. It’s as obvious as the nose on one’s face.

I commend Francisco for at least making some attempt to refute my use of each of these Bible passages. Bravo! He did make some response for all of them.

Next, he addresses Hebrews 3:14: “For we share in Christ, if only we hold our first confidence firm to the end.”

Same as above. Conditionals do not exist for God, for God does not ignore future acts in order for a condition to exist outside Him, to be actualized, this destroys divine simplicity.

The conditional in the passage is not about God at all. Francisco simply assumes the Calvinist view. That’s not the same as defending it and showing that it follows from biblical texts. Then he tackles Hebrews 6:15: “. . . Abraham, having patiently endured, obtained the promise.” He does so by reiterating the previous “argument” which is simply an irrelevant non sequitur.

Here’s his reply to Hebrews 10:39: “But we are not of those who shrink back and are destroyed, but of those who have faith and keep their souls”:

Paul is asserting that he and others do not lose their salvation, for they are not backsliding people. The text states the opposite of what Mr. Armstrong intends.

Of course, my argument flows from the fact that Paul casually asserts that there are those who “shrink back”; that is, leave the faith and the God they once believed in. This means that they exist; the thing exists (those who fall away). The fact that Paul and his followers are not (at least at the time he wrote) part of that crowd is irrelevant to my argument.

Francisco then addresses my prooftext Revelation 3:11: “I am coming soon; hold fast what you have, so that no one may seize your crown” with his by now common obscurantist philosophical analysis, which again goes down the rabbit trail of discussing God’s attributes (already wholeheartedly agreed-upon) rather than exegeting the text in question:

An admonition is a will of sign, not of consent. The will of a sign is proper to the human being, not to God. It is an admonition based on human ignorance, the hidden mysteries of God for us are not being taken into account, his plans and desires that only he himself knows and that he will make happen regardless of our works, because God does not depend on men to carry out his plans . The logical consequence of Mr. Armstrong’s arguments is to make God a great human being, a kind of superman, while God is Pure Act, the most perfect, therefore lacking nothing, not even the attitudes of creatures.

There is nothing to say in reply here because it has nothing to do with the verse I brought up as proof of the ongoing nature of justification and the possibility of losing it. Francisco is in an impenetrable Calvinist bubble: apparently unable to conceive of anything different from it.

Nor does the text of Galatians 5:6 prove justification by works and faith. Faith in Christ in its very beginning is justifying. The growth or formation of faith through love is about sanctification, not justification.

The clause “faith working through love” is a clear description of the organic relationship of faith and works. Francisco simply plays the abstract game of separating the “working” part into a separate non-salvific category of sanctification. This won’t do, because the Bible itself doesn’t make this arbitrary distinction.

I have already proved with various analogies that if one thing is with another, it does not mean that the two produce the same effect. I have already cited the example of light and heat, also of the eye and the head.

That’s not biblical evidence, like my argumentation always involves.

The curious thing here (for the Protestant), is the seemingly instantaneous change of sanctification, which would accompany justification. If “all things are new” (as in the King James Version), how does this square with mere declaratory, forensic, extrinsic justification? The whole drift of the passage seems to be actual transformation in the person now in Christ, whereas in Protestant justification only the individual’s “legal” standing with God is changed. In fact, justification and sanctification are intimately related aspects of our ultimate salvation.

In the same way that when we look at sunlight, we cannot see it without heat, however, can I really say that they are the same things or that light and heat generate the same effects? Now light illuminates and heat warms, it is not appropriate to say that light warms and heat illuminates, just because the two are always together. Mr Armstrong’s syllogism does not work, in fact his syllogism is fallacious, as it does not necessarily follow from the premises.

Again, Tourinho doesn’t directly grapple with the text (i.e., do exegesis), but merely descends to philosophy. This is a theological and exegetical debate.

Galatians 5.6 does not deal with justification before God.

It sure does, because it refers to what happens “in Christ Jesus” and (in the previous verse) “through the Spirit, by faith.” That is a “Godward” perspective, not man-to-man comparisons. The larger context refers to “walk by the Spirit” (5:16, 25) and “those who belong to Christ Jesus” (5:24).

When the text says “in Christ Jesus”, it is talking about someone holy, who is in Christ, and who works love through faith, this is not about justification, but about sanctification.

Again, this involves the sub-discussion of whether justification is ongoing, and the relationship of faith and works. I’ve addressed this over and over, but Tourinho usually ignores my biblical evidences and resorts to Protestant slogans and mere philosophy. The debate is winding down and we are mostly just “spinning our wheels” at this point.

Here, we must consider that we have different concepts of justification, and that we are using these optics to interpret the texts.

Exactly right. That’s what everyone does, so entire systems have to be compared.

In my favor, I say that the text does not cite justification, it does not cite the good work as the source or cause of a justification, it points to the perfecting of a man’s faith through love, but through love in the right object, which is Christ.

Now he is actually directly addressing the text. Good! Protestants say that faith is what brings about justification. Initially it does. But later, works are also involved, and that’s what this verse shows. It’s not necessary for the word “justification” to appear because we are dealing in biblical concepts. In using the phrase, “faith working through love” Paul connects the two things, so that no one can attempt to separate them and argue that they produce different effects. It’s like a scrambled egg, which has eggs and milk, which cannot be separated again, after the scrambling. As for works being a cause of justification, I have already directed readers several times to fifty biblical passages that teach that, and fifty more from St. Paul that teach the organic relationship of grace, faith, and works. Those are the proofs of our position.

St. Paul himself, at the end of his life, says that he did not obtain perfection, but continued to achieve it, however, the same man says in Romans 5:1 that he is justified and has peace with God.

The first thing is ongoing justification and striving after holiness; the second is initial justification.

“Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ;” (Romans 5:1), even without having reached perfection, it follows that justification coexists with imperfections

We have never claimed otherwise.

and that the process of personal improvement does not justify, but sanctifies.

If a person has fallen into mortal sin (which is an explicit biblical concept), separating them from God, then they have to be justified again. Obviously, since the Calvinist denies that a believer can ever fall away from God and from grace, to them this notion is meaningless, and they can’t allow it into their thinking and belief-system as a result. But they have a false, unbiblical premise, which is the root of their problem in this respect.

If you want to use the word justify in the sense of sanctifying, I am not against it, as long as you specify the meaning and do not remove its forensic meaning.

It has two aspects, as I have shown.

I have to not reply to some of the material that Francisco brings up at this point, not because I am ignoring it, but because I have already dealt with it, and we risk alienating readers with extreme repetition and tedium.  We still have part 3 of this round to go. I am trying to bring in fresh biblical passages, so the debate continues to move forward, and so readers can see how deep and rich and eminently biblical the Catholic position is. 

Tourinho notes that justification can’t be “increased.” Catholics are saying, rather, that it can be lost and regained, which is different from saying that it is (potentially or actually) constantly increased. The question comes down to whether justification can be lost. If it can, then it can and should rightly be seen as ongoing or lifelong, in the sense that we don’t know if we will never fall away, and therefore must be vigilant, as Paul constantly warns (and which makes no sense if we can never lose our justification and right relationship with God).

Catholics believe in a category of sanctification as well, which is not all that different from the Protestant conception of it, in its main outlines. We agree on much. But unlike them, we connect it directly with justification. Servant of God Fr. John A. Hardon S.J. defined it as follows:

Being made holy. The first sanctification takes place at baptism, by which the love of God is infused by the Holy Spirit (Romans 5:5). Newly baptized persons are holy because the Holy Trinity begins to dwell in their souls and they are pleasing to God. The second sanctification is a lifelong process in which a person already in the state of grace grows in the possession of grace and in likeness to God by faithfully corresponding with divine inspirations. The third sanctification takes place when a person enters heaven and becomes totally and irrevocably united with God in the beatific vision. (Pocket Catholic Dictionary, New York: Doubleday Image, 1980, 393)

I have, elsewhere, noted (back in the early 90s) Protestant definitions of sanctification and of justification, by the Reformed Baptist Augustus Strong and Reformed Presbyterian Charles Hodge. We must correctly understand them, just as Protestants must accurately understand our definitions. Then we can each defend them from Scripture.

Assuming it to be true that Christ never said that faith alone saves, and that absence proves that faith alone does not save.

He said that belief in Him would save (and that the Eucharist also saved), but it must be interpreted in conjunction with scores of passages where He said that works also play a role in salvation. He never cited belief or faith in the sense of being utterly alone, as pertaining to salvation.

I can argue that Jesus never called Mary mother, how strange, isn’t it? Does it follow that the Lord Jesus did not have her for a mother? Let’s see how far Mr. Dave Armstrong will be consistent with his own argument.

This is just silly and a very bad and ineffective attempted analogy. The Bible happens to not have a passage where He called her “mother” (because it doesn’t include much discourse with her at all), but He certainly did so in His 33 years or so: the first thirty living with her. No one would foolishly argue that He never called her “mother” or “mom” or whatever the Aramaic address was, in all that time.

On the other hand, with the issue of salvation and faith we are dealing with one of the “pillars” of the so-called “Reformation”: “faith alone.” If it is supposedly so central to soteriology and theology, and so important, certainly we should reasonably expect Jesus to explicitly teach it. But He never does; nor does Paul or anyone else. And they explicitly deny it.

Now, I do not agree that Mr Armstrong’s statement is true. The Lord Jesus does not mention any work for those who have actually been saved, but only faith. . . . The right question is, When were works cited as meritorious or as the cause of salvation during Christ’s ministry? Answer: never.

That’s simply false, and rather spectacularly so. Jesus spoke the following words to His disciples, who were presumably saved (minus Judas):

John 14:12 . . . he who believes in me will also do the works that I do; and greater works than these will he do, because I go to the Father.

John 14:15 If you love me, you will keep my commandments.

John 14:21 He who has my commandments and keeps them, he it is who loves me; and he who loves me will be loved by my Father, and I will love him and manifest myself to him. [here, the questions of who loves Jesus, and even the indwelling (cf. 16:7, 13) are dependent upon not just faith, but on whether one keeps the commandments]

John 15:4-6, 8 Abide in me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit by itself, unless it abides in the vine, neither can you, unless you abide in me. [5] I am the vine, you are the branches. He who abides in me, and I in him, he it is that bears much fruit, for apart from me you can do nothing. [6] If a man does not abide in me, he is cast forth as a branch and withers; and the branches are gathered, thrown into the fire and burned. . . . [8] By this my Father is glorified, that you bear much fruit, and so prove to be my disciples. [“fruit” is, of course, good works]

John 15:10 If you keep my commandments, you will abide in my love . . . [note the conditional, implying a state of affairs where they could cease abiding in His love, and being justified and eschatologically saved. Judas was, in fact, an example of this happening (see 17:12). Jesus alluded to such a possibility also when He said, “I have said all this to you to keep you from falling away”: 16:1]

John 15:12 This is my commandment, that you love one another as I have loved you. (cf. 15:17)

John 15:14 You are my friends if you do what I command you.

To be sure, in the same discourse at the Last Supper (John 14-17), Jesus also said “believe also in me” (14:1; cf. 16:27, 30-31; 17:8), but eleven verses later, He coupled this belief with inexorable good works: “he who believes in me will also do the works that I do; and greater works than these will he do, because I go to the Father” (14:12). So again, Francisco’s “universal negative” (and his overall soteriology) is shown to be incorrect. I think he could have figured this out without my help, but he went ahead and made the statement. I’m delighted to have the opportunity to be able to refute it from Jesus’ own words. 

Moreover, Jesus, in praying to the Father at the Last Supper, says, “they have kept thy word” (17:6).

Mr. Armstrong did not understand that Christ knew the rich young man’s heart, and knew that he was possessed of the Pharisaic spirit of good works. Jesus challenges him, showing him his inability to be saved through good works.

This is the very opposite of what the passage teaches. Asked by the rich young ruler how he could attain eternal life, Jesus’ answer was two kinds of works: keeping the commandments and giving all his money to the poor. He said not a word about faith, let alone, faith alone. This was how he would be saved; clear as day! Then Francisco comes along and says (in direct opposition to what Jesus stated) that the passage supposedly teaches theinability to be saved through good works.” Wow! Such brazen opposition to Jesus’ plain teaching is downright frightening and even close to blasphemous.

It’s fascinating, also, in light of what I have just shown from the Last Supper Discourse, that Jesus says the same thing to His disciples, in His last major teaching to them (i.e., that we know of)  before He was crucified. They had already given up “everything” to follow Him (Mt 19:27), so He didn’t need to mention that. But He told them no less than six times (14:15, 21; 15:10, 12, 14, 17) to keep His commandments. Talk about “repetition” being a good teacher! Therefore, He taught the same thing to both non-believers and believers / followers. He also said to the masses in His Sermon on the Mount: 

Matthew 5:16-20 “Let your light so shine before men, that they may see your good works and give glory to your Father who is in heaven. [17] Think not that I have come to abolish the law and the prophets; I have come not to abolish them but to fulfil them. [18] For truly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the law until all is accomplished. [19] Whoever then relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but he who does them and teaches them shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven. [20] For I tell you, unless your righteousness exceeds that of the scribes and Pharisees, you will never enter the kingdom of heaven.”

On the other hand, He never mentions belief in Him during the Sermon, or faith, excepting His statement, “O men of little faith” (6:30). But there are all kinds of works mentioned and urged. Jesus showed Himself to be quite the “legalistic, Pharisaical ‘Catholic'” didn’t He?!

He pulled the same stunt at the Final Judgment in Matthew 25: talking only about works and never about faith in Him, when the biblical text is specifically teaching how one enters into heaven. As I’ve said many times, Jesus would have flunked out of any Protestant seminary, with His worst grades achieved in classes on soteriology (D at best, but more likely an E).

But faith is cited, always omitting the work: “Then Jesus said to him, “Get up and go! Your faith has saved you.” The Coming of the Kingdom of God” Luke 17:19 “Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life, does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life.” John 5.24 It is important to note that the Reformed do not defend that a person can enter heaven being a wanton, but that the saved person will remain in good works, sanctify himself through them, but will not be saved by them.

Faith in Jesus is mentioned many times, and is crucial. But Jesus (like Paul and James and Peter) also teaches that works are involved in salvation. Catholics fully accept the “faith” passages” but we don’t ignore the works passages that tie works into salvation, too (scores and scores of which I have repeatedly  presented in this debate). That’s the thing. All of the relevant biblical teachings need to be taken into account, not just a few selected “pet” verses. A half-truth is no better than a lie.

Francisco alluded to and cited our previous discussion on the rich young ruler and then added more analysis:

The young man thought he was good before God because he did a lot of good work, and in that sense, no one is good.

He was right about that (as Jesus affirmed, by saying, “If you would enter life, keep the commandments”: Mt 19:17), except that he rebelled against the notion of doing the most important work in his own case,: giving up all that he had (precisely necessary because his idol was riches).

The young man comes to Christ full of self-righteousness, and Christ, knowing his heart, converses with the intention of showing that this righteousness will not take him to heaven,

Again, this is the opposite of what Jesus said. I just showed how Jesus tied keeping the commandments with [eternal] “life.” The man had asked, remember, about how to attain “eternal life” (19:16). Then He said that if he gave away all of his possessions, he would “have treasure in heaven” (19:21). So yes, righteousness plays a key, indispensable role in attaining heaven and salvation, according to Jesus.

putting him in a situation of inability to keep the law.

Jesus never said that He was unable to keep the law. He merely noted that he was unwilling to fully follow one aspect of it: not having an idol (riches) in place of God. Jesus assumes in the Sermon on the Mount (my citation not far above) that the law could not only be kept, but that it was necessary to “enter the kingdom of heaven.” He employs the same exact reasoning with the rich young ruler, as He does with His disciples at the Last Supper and with those who stand at the Last Judgment.

Christ shows that the young man’s heart is evil, even though he boasts of doing so many good works.

He didn’t “boast” as far as we can determine from the text); he simply stated that he had “observed” the Ten Commandments. As the old 1930s baseball pitcher Dizzy Dean said, “it ain’t braggin’ if you can do it.” Nor does Jesus imply that he is evil through and through. But he had an idol. Many of us have an idol, whether it be riches, or sex, or pride, or fame, or any number of other things. It was the primary sin of Israel all through the Old Testament.

Even though Christ fulfilled all the law, he still claims not to be good, this shows that fulfilling the law or good works does not make us good

Of course Christ is totally good. His statement, “Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone” (Mk 10:18) was obvious rhetorical. He can’t be literally saying He isn’t good because He is God the Son.

In fact it is impossible for a camel to pass through the eye of a needle, just as how impossible it is for a man to be saved by his good works.

Jesus was specifically talking about how riches are so commonly regarded as an idol by rich people; hence, their difficulty in being saved. He wasn’t making a general statement against good works as a means to salvation, too (which is what Francisco wrongly injects — or eisegetes – into the text because of his prior dispositions).

Jesus non-hostility to works and “Catholic” soteriology is in fact stated five verses later, when He said that good works will lead to eternal life (precisely as He had told the rich young ruler):

Matthew 19:29 And every one who has left houses or brothers or sisters or father or mother or children or lands, for my name’s sake, will receive a hundredfold, and inherit eternal life. 

The disciples had given up everything, thus proving that their attachment to material goods — and even family (see Mt 10:37) — were not  idols and more important than following Christ, which they were called to. As a result, they received eternal life, as we know from Christ’s express statement that this gave them eternal life (or at the very least played a role among other things in that salvation). But the rich young ruler refused to do the same thing, so it’s strongly implied in Jesus’ comment on it, that he wouldn’t attain eternal life as a result. Thus, we rightly conclude that a good work that the disciples performed, in leaving their families and jobs, led them to eternal life, while the refusal to do the same good work led to the loss of eternal life for the rich young ruler (unless, of course, he later changed his mind).

The text does show human inability to enter heaven through his works,

Quite the contrary, as just proven.

The conclusion drawn from this text by Mr. Armstrong would lead us to believe that a person can be saved by works alone.

Nonsense. I have reiterated over and over (in this debate and in my Catholic apologetics for 33 years) that grace and faith are also necessarily involved in salvation. But at the same time, the scores and scores of striking, clear passages about works also playing a role simply cannot be dismissed. I’m not minimizing faith and grace at all; not one iota. But I am not ignoring works, as Francisco vainly and foolishly attempts to do, in the face of the overwhelming biblical data. I have the biblical “both/and” view; he takes “either/or” unbiblical, Protestant view in these matters. False dichotomies rule the day for him.

If he becomes a Catholic he can get out from under that burden and strain of unbiblical and illogical false teaching. I hope and pray that he — and many readers of this debate — will do just that, by God’s grace. We Catholics want to share the fullness of the faith and the “pearl of great price” that we have found with others. so that they can share in the joy, peace, and truth of the teachings of Holy Mother Church.

What I said was that if faith and works are necessary to inherit eternal life, and if Jesus really intended to teach the rich young man how to inherit eternal life, then he should have cited faith. But if he does not cite faith,

For whatever the reason, Jesus tends to speak of each factor alone, rather than together. But there were a few times when He spoke of both things in the same context or sentence. In John 14:15, 21 and 15:14 He connected love for Him with works, as proof of that love. And (also seen above), He connected belief in Him and works in John 14:12. And He said:

Matthew 7:17-21, 24 So, every sound tree bears good fruit, but the bad tree bears evil fruit. [18] A sound tree cannot bear evil fruit, nor can a bad tree bear good fruit. [19] Every tree that does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire. [20] Thus you will know them by their fruits. [21] “Not every one who says to me, `Lord, Lord,’ shall enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.. . . [24] “Every one then who hears these words of mine and does them will be like a wise man who built his house upon the rock;”

Note here that He rebuked faith alone, or faith without the requisite, required works, as He also did when he stated: “Why do you call me ‘Lord, Lord,’ and not do what I tell you?” (Lk 6:46). In the same context, He went on to also rebuke works alone for salvation, which is the heresy of Pelagianism:

Matthew 7:22-23 On that day many will say to me, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and do many mighty works in your name?’ [23] And then will I declare to them, ‘I never knew you; depart from me, you evildoers.’

They didn’t “know” Him because that is done by grace through faith, So Jesus — when His whole teaching is understood — taught faith alongside the inevitable works or “works of faith” that make faith alive, for salvation. He had a Catholic soteriology, not a Protestant one. Works cannot be separated from faith, as Protestants try to do by making all works strictly optional with regard to salvation itself. And both flow from God’s amazing and enabling grace.

The real kicker for Francisco and Calvinists to explain is how it is that it’s “the doers of the law who will be justified” (Rom 2:13)? If no work whatever has anything to do with any kind of justification, how in the world can Paul write this? It’s devastating to the Protestant soteriological position. According to Francisco and Calvinist theology, Paul should have written “saved” in Romans 2:13 instead of “justified.” 

Here, Mr Armstrong has isolated the text from its context. The previous verses say the following:

Romans 2:4-13 Or do you presume upon the riches of his kindness and forbearance and patience? Do you not know that God’s kindness is meant to lead you to repentance? [5] But by your hard and impenitent heart you are storing up wrath for yourself on the day of wrath when God’s righteous judgment will be revealed. [6] For he will render to every man according to his works: [7] to those who by patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and immortality, he will give eternal life; [8] but for those who are factious and do not obey the truth, but obey wickedness, there will be wrath and fury. [9] There will be tribulation and distress for every human being who does evil, the Jew first and also the Greek, [10] but glory and honor and peace for every one who does good, the Jew first and also the Greek. [11] For God shows no partiality. [12] All who have sinned without the law will also perish without the law, and all who have sinned under the law will be judged by the law. [13] For it is not the hearers of the law who are righteous before God, but the doers of the law who will be justified.

I see nothing there that is in conflict with Catholic soteriology at all. Works again play a crucial role in achieving eternal life (2:6-10 and again in 2:13). It’s expressed very eloquently and forcefully, so that no one can possibly deny it.

The text deals with the day of judgment. The text does not deal with justification by faith that happens in time, but with the judgment of the last day in which God will give his sentence and his reward. From verse 5, the apostle Paul talks about current virtues and sins and how people who do good and evil will be judged on the last day.

Whether it has to do with the Day of Judgment or not is secondary to the concepts that are taught, and how works are regarded. The Last Day does have to do with eschatological salvation, so it is very relevant to our present discussion. And we see again here that it is all works which are mentioned.: “works” (2:6), “well-doing” leading to “eternal life” (2:7), “not obey” (2:8), “does evil” (2:9), “does good” (2:10), “sinned” 2:12), and “doers of the law” who are “justified” (2:13). “Faith” and “belief” are never mentioned. How this in any way, shape, or form supports Francisco’s position, is, I confess, a great mystery.

It’s not mainly about the law, but about good works, generally speaking. This is shown in two ways: the reference to “every man” (2:6)
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I agree.
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“Faith” is never mentioned in Romans 2, but several times in chapter 3, so we know he is not excluding it in chapter 2.

That’s the same point I made about Jesus. Paul is here basically doing the same thing: centering on works in one long passage and faith in another; the conclusion being that neither is optional in salvation.

Here [Eph 2:8-10] Paul asserts the necessity of faith in salvation (we agree), and the inadequacy of works salvation (again we agree). He then proceeds to present the Catholic both/and view. God preordains works, and we walk in them. Works are necessary (and in many other Pauline passages, central in the equation of salvation). Thus, faith and works, just as we have maintained all along . . .

Notice how Mr. Armstrong simply did not address the argument. It is true that Paul speaks of the necessity of faith in salvation, but what he says right after is devastating for the theology of Rome, he states: “Not of works, lest anyone should boast”. St. Paul is clear, salvation it does not come from good works, but from faith alone, and Mr. Armstrong simply ignored my argument in this regard. The text says that it is by faith and not by works,

We agree that salvation is ultimately by grace through faith; we deny that works alone save (Eph 2:9), but that post-initial justification, post-regenerative good works are essential in the whole process (Eph 2:10): always joined to grace and faith. There is no falsely perceived “problem” here at all, let alone some supposed scenario of this being devastating for the theology of Rome.” Francisco still has to explain why Romans 2 is so different, with Paul talking all about works (and why Jesus makes a very strong emphasis on works as well). Obviously, works are in play along with grace and faith. Our theology takes into account both motifs; his does not, and it does so by attempting to ignore works in the salvific process, which won’t do. The Bible is too clear to allow that ploy.

We have no difference as to prayer and how God treats us when we pray, so no need to further address that, and it’s not the topic, anyway (justification is).

I pass over a lot of Francisco’s text — again — not because I am trying to avoid it (against our agreed-to rules), but because it is either off-topic (e.g., God’s nature, which Francisco for some unknown reason keeps repeating even though we are in total agreement) or has already been dealt with and answered (usually many times over). If we do publish a successful book of this debate, the now extreme repetition will have to be helpfully dealt with by an editor. I’m trying to do my part to make that editor’s job easier, by refusing to endlessly repeat myself.

And it is God who saves, we do not save ourselves,

No; we participate as lesser causes alongside God, the primary cause:

Matthew 10:22 . . . he who endures to the end will be saved. (cf. 24:13; Mk 13:13)

Acts 2:40 And he testified with many other words and exhorted them, saying, “Save yourselves from this crooked generation.” 

1 Corinthians 7:16 Wife, how do you know whether you will save your husband? Husband, how do you know whether you will save your wife?

Philippians 2:12 . . . work out your own salvation with fear and trembling;

1 Timothy 2:15 Yet woman will be saved through bearing children, if she continues in faith and love and holiness, with modesty.

1 Peter 3:1 Likewise you wives, be submissive to your husbands, so that some, though they do not obey the word, may be won without a word by the behavior of their wives,

Francisco responded to my use of 2 Peter 2:15, 20-21 as proof of the possible loss of salvation:

2 Peter 2:22 It has happened to them according to the true proverb, The dog turns back to his own vomit, and the sow is washed only to wallow in the mire.

After describing all their attitudes, he now shows us what the events reveal, that they were not sheep, but he says that the DOG RETURNED to his vomit, . . . The text is clear, these men went astray, but none of them left a dog or a pig, which, according to Jewish tradition, were filthy animals, that is, they never ceased to be filthy, a washed pig only disguises its bad smell, but doesn’t become pure. The text is a description of earthly events and an admonition for the same to not happen to others, but it does not prove loss of salvation from the divine perspective, as it is revealed to us that these false prophets were washed pigs, that is, they were never pure, therefore, they were never justified or sanctified before God, though they appeared so before men. God always knew they were pigs and dogs, men didn’t, so St. Peter, who was a man, describes the events as a detour and a loss.

This is desperate special pleading, and illogical. First of all, the man described by St. Peter clearly was a Christian, since he is described as having “escaped the defilements of the world through the knowledge of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ” (2 Pet 2:20). One can’t be described as having escaped a thing if in fact they never left it. That makes no sense at all. But it’s what Francisco wants to argue. 2 Peter 2:20 then states that “they are again entangled in them,” which means that they once were, then they were not (the preceding clause) and then were again, as opposed to never leaving their first state. The text then reiterates this by referring to a “last state” and a “first”: as opposed to one continual state.

In 2 Peter 2:21 Peter states that “it would have been better for them never to have known the way of righteousness.” Quite obviously, then, they must have known it because Peter is saying that it would have been “better” (i.e., a different scenario from what actually happened: a compare and contrast) if they never had. Ergo: they did indeed experience being a Christian and being in Christ. He expresses this in another way by writing that “after knowing it” they decided “to turn back” (to their unsaved, unjustified prior state). In 2:22 he wraps it up by noting that they turned “back” to their “own vomit”: not that they never left it. Yet Francisco pretends that the opposite scenario from what is presented is what actually happened. It’s a sad case study of textbook eisegesis.

Philippians 1:6 And I am sure that he who began a good work in you will bring it to completion at the day of Jesus Christ.

Of course He is able to do so. But this doesn’t wipe out human free will and rebellion against God’s will, that will always be carried out, provided we accept it and conform our will to His.

If Mr. Armstrong is right, St. Paul is lying in assuming that he who begins a good work in us, what Armstrong would call initial justification, will complete it until the last day, and who would dare not believe in the power of God? Who can doubt if God himself says that the work he started he will finish? Now, God is able to deliver us from all temptations and stumbling blocks, “Now to him who is able to keep you from stumbling, and to present you blameless before his glory with joy,” (Jude 1:24). Speaking of loss of salvation from the divine perspective is the same as saying that God is not powerful to deliver man from stumbling blocks, to keep us, and that he is flawed in his work. Therefore, Reformed theologians see the loss of salvation only from a human perspective, but we declare and believe in the sovereignty of God and his omnipotence, something that all other traditions declare only with their mouths, but deny with their hearts.
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As always, we must take into consideration all of the relevant biblical texts on a given topic (which is systematic theology). And these include several where God’s will is opposed by man: which God allows because He willed that men — and angels — had free will, which included the possibility of rebellion, which in turn goes back to the rebellion of Satan and his demons, and Adam and Eve’s rebellion, and in them, the whole human race (1 Cor 15:22). Here are two of those passages:
Matthew 23:37 “O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, killing the prophets and stoning those who are sent to you! How often would I have gathered your children together as a hen gathers her brood under her wings, and you would not!”
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John 17:12 While I was with them, I kept them in thy name, which thou hast given me; I have guarded them, and none of them is lost but the son of perdition, that the scripture might be fulfilled.

Man can either serve God or reject Him:

Deuteronomy 30:15, 19 . . .I have set before you this day life and good, death and evil. . . . [19] . . . I have set before you life and death, blessing and curse; therefore choose life, that you and your descendants may live, 

Joshua 24:15 “And if you be unwilling to serve the LORD, choose this day whom you will serve, whether the gods your fathers served in the region beyond the River, or the gods of the Amorites in whose land you dwell; but as for me and my house, we will serve the LORD.”

God doesn’t predestine anyone to hell, since the Bible states: 

1 Timothy 2:3-6 . . . God our Savior, [4] who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. [5] For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, [6] who gave himself as a ransom for all, . . .

2 Peter 3:9 The Lord is . . . not wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance.

Yet they don’t all repent. Therefore, the cause is their own rebellion, which God allowed, and it follows that God didn’t predestine them to hell because inspired revelation informs us that this is not His desire or wish, which is that all be saved.

Psalm 51:12 [RSV] Restore to me the joy of thy salvation, and uphold me with a willing spirit.

How could King David ask to have the joy of a salvation he did not yet have?

I previously replied: It can just as easily be interpreted as “give me back the salvation that included joy.”

No. It couldn’t be interpreted that way, because that’s not what the text says. That simple. Language is not like mathematics, because in mathematics the order of the factors does not change the product, but in language the order of the factors can change the product.

First of all, for the OT Jew, joy and salvation went hand-in-hand (see seven examples in the Protestant OT). Secondly, we must take into consideration the dramatic context of Psalm 51. David had had a man killed so he could commit adultery with his wife, and the prophet Nathan confronted him with his sin, leading David to repent: which he expressed in Psalm 51. So if ever a man had lost salvation and fallen from grace, it was David at that time. 

But David repented and wanted to be back in the fold with God. This is the Catholic view of loss of initial justification and regaining it by repentance and confession (51:3-4) and forgiveness (throughout the Psalm). We could, therefore, plausibly interpret David as saying “please restore to me your salvation, which brings about joy.” David fell away, repented, and was brought back into justification and right relationship with God. The prophet Samuel had described David as “a man after” God’s “own heart” (1 Sam 13:14). God Himself referred to “my servant David, who kept my commandments, and followed me with all his heart, doing only that which was right in my eyes,” (1 Kgs 14:8). And the author of the book referred to “the heart of David” as being “wholly true to the LORD his God” (1 Kgs 15:3). Yet he sinned and fell and had to be restored.

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Summary: This is my reply (3rd round, part 2) in an in-depth debate on justification and comparative soteriology, with Brazilian Reformed Presbyterian apologist Francisco Tourinho.

2023-09-26T09:09:18-04:00

Refuting a Distortion of What St. Alphonsus de Liguori Actually Teaches in The Glories of Mary

Timothy F. Kauffman was raised Catholic, converted to Protestantism in 1990, and is now a Presbyterian (PCA). He has written“I was saved out of Roman Catholicism, and into Christianity, . . . Roman Catholicism was out of accord with the Gospel of Jesus Christ.” Timothy is author of the books, Quite Contrary: Biblical Reconsiderations of the Apparitions of Mary (1994), Graven Bread: The Papacy, the Apparitions of Mary, and the Worship of the Bread of the Altar (1995), and is co-author with Robert M. Zins, of A Gospel Contrary!: A Study of Roman Catholic Abuse of History and Scripture to Propagate Error (April 24, 2023). He has been blogging about theology (mostly Catholicism) since 2014. His words will be in blue.

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I will be responding to one portion of Timothy’s article, ” ‘We Don’t Worship Mary’ Part 2″ (6-15-14).

Do Roman Catholics acknowledge Mary as Creator?

This ought to be the easiest charge to refute, for Mary is herself created, and therefore came after the first moment of creation. Yet this has been no barrier to the remarkable ingenuity of Rome’s passionate Marian devotees. It begins with Mary’s universal motherhood, which  Pope Leo XIII affirmed in his encyclical Adiutricem, saying that Mary became the mother of “the whole human race” at the foot of the cross.

That has nothing whatsoever to do with some reputed Catholic claim that Mary is “Creator.” So why is it brought up? It’s a perfect example of a non sequitur. When God through the prophet Samuel said that King David was “a man after his own heart” (1 Sam 13:14, RSV), did that raise David to the level of the Holy Trinity too? Maybe David — so the sort of reasoning Timothy applies here would claim — has as much love and mercy and compassion as God because this was stated? Or how about “the LORD used to speak to Moses face to face, as a man speaks to his friend” (Ex 33:11)? Now Moses is equal to God, too, since he was on such intimate terms with God? We have to be careful in drawing conclusions that don’t follow at all. Protestants must work a little bit to understand Catholic language (sometimes very different and much more wide-ranging than their own), just as all of us must do our best to understand biblical language.

But her motherhood is necessarily elastic, according to apologist, Fr. Donald Calloway, because Mary’s spiritual motherhood stretches all the way back to Adam and Eve:

“Mary’s spiritual maternity is elastic, stretching all the way back to the beginning of time, because God made her the spiritual mother of all in light of the fact that she is the original intention of motherhood in the divine plan. … Yes, even Adam and Eve call her mother.”

I think it’s quite odd and a bit humorously ironic that a Presbyterian would object to an eternal decree of predestination made by God: being the folks who especially stress predestination and God’s sovereignty and providence (which we also believe in!). In any event, for God to so act in Mary’s case is not at all the same as her supposedly being eternal, not a creature, and, rather, a co-Creator with him. So this is just another way of expressing the same non sequitur. It may impress some uncritical readers already “in the choir” who mistakenly think it has some relevance to the sub-topic . . .

Yet even before Adam and Eve, Mary was yet a mother, taught St. Chrysologus, . . . 

In God’s plan of predestination and election (He being outside of time), yes she was. Since she didn’t yet exist, this had to be only in God’s mind and will.

But Fr. William Most takes it back even further, defending the titleEternal Mother,” because “her Motherhood … was planned from all eternity.”

Exactly. This is what I just expressed. It has nothing to do with Mary being a “co-Creator.” God decreed her life and calling from all eternity just as He does with all who decide to serve Him. Note there that “eternal” is not referring to Mary never having a beginning in time, but only to God’s eternal decree. Those who don’t read carefully enough may have gotten that impression.

Such adulation is then increased by St. Thomas of Villanova, who observes that while it was by God’s Word, His fiat, that all things were brought into existence,

How is that consistent with Mary being a co-Creator? “All”: means all. A=a. If God created “all things” that would include Mary.

yet, when Mary gave her permission for God to become Man, her fiat was even more powerful, more efficacious than God’s, and is to be venerated above even His:

“O powerful Fiat!” exclaims St. Thomas of Villanova; “O efficacious Fiat!  O Fiat to be venerated above every other Fiat!  For with a fiat God created light, heaven, earth; but with Mary’s fiat,” says the saint, “God became man, like us.” (Liguori, the Glories of Mary)

It’s dramatic language (especially to Protestant ears), but in the end, all this is saying in its essence is that Mary consented to being the mother of Jesus, the incarnate God, and so played a very real and commendable part of the incarnation and the resulting salvation that flowed from it. That’s very praiseworthy indeed, and so St. Thomas of Villanova praised her decision at the Annunciation. Catholics — as Timothy well knows — don’t venerate God. We adore and worship Him. The veneration here has to do with what Mary did. It’s the sort of perfectly biblical praise that the author of Hebrews gushed out:

Hebrews 11:32-38 And what more shall I say? For time would fail me to tell of Gideon, Barak, Samson, Jephthah, of David and Samuel and the prophets — [33] who through faith conquered kingdoms, enforced justice, received promises, stopped the mouths of lions, [34] quenched raging fire, escaped the edge of the sword, won strength out of weakness, became mighty in war, put foreign armies to flight. [35] Women received their dead by resurrection. Some were tortured, refusing to accept release, that they might rise again to a better life. [36] Others suffered mocking and scourging, and even chains and imprisonment. [37] They were stoned, they were sawn in two, they were killed with the sword; they went about in skins of sheep and goats, destitute, afflicted, ill-treated — [38] of whom the world was not worthy — wandering over deserts and mountains, and in dens and caves of the earth.

All this, yet no Christian must ever dare offer Mary praise or veneration for agreeing to bear God the Son in her own womb?! That makes no sense whatsoever. God even shares His glory with His creatures, as Holy Scripture makes abundantly clear.

When we consider that Mary’s powerful fiat is greater even than that of God, it is no wonder then that St. Bernard concludes the obvious: that Mary was there even earlier than Genesis 1:10. She must have been there at Genesis 1:1, with God, forming all things:

“St. Bonaventure… says, addressing her, The world which thou with God didst form from the beginning continues to exist at thy will, O most holy virgin;” the saint adhering in this to the words of Proverbs applied by the Church to Mary: I was with Him forming all things.” (Liguori, the Glories of Mary).

Do Roman Catholics acknowledge Mary as Creator? Yes, they certainly do, and Rome’s saints are the very model Roman Catholics are to imitate. Once this is established, the rest of the components of latria, or worship, flow from it with epistemological certainty.

How are we to understand (and explain) this? How do St. Bonaventure and St. Alphonsus get to or arrive at this conclusion about the Blessed Virgin Mary? Taken literally, or prima facie, don’t words like the above imply that Mary was literally creating with God, akin to Jesus’ role as co-creator with His Father, stated in very similar Bible passages?

It’s certainly — agree or disagree — a complex theological topic, so I thought it would be helpful to consult the opinion of my friend, Dr. Robert Fastiggi, who is a Catholic theologian (Sacred Heart Seminary, Detroit), one of the editors and translators of the latest (43rd) version of Denzinger’s Enchiridion (2012), and editor and translator also of the revised version of Ludwig Ott’s Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma (2018). In other words, he is exactly the sort of person who has the credentials to discuss a matter like this. He wrote the following in personal correspondence with me:

The teaching of St. Alphonsus Liguori in Discourse IV of The Glories of Mary must be understood within the doctrine of the predestination of the Incarnation, which also involves the predestination of Mary his Mother. Actually, many Catholics are unaware of the doctrine of Mary’s predestination. Bl. Pius IX, in Ineffabilis Deus (1854) teaches that Mary was chosen to be the Mother of God’s only begotten Son “from the beginning and before the ages” (Denz.-H 2800). Lumen Gentium [LG] 61 of Vatican II teaches that Mary was “predestined from eternity to be the Mother of God by that decree of divine providence which also determined the Incarnation of the Word.” The Franciscans of the Scotist school teach that God, from all eternity, decided to become incarnate regardless of the Fall.
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God’s free decision to create the world was eternally linked to his free decision to become incarnate. But to become incarnate requires a predestined Mother. When this was revealed to the angels, a portion of them rebelled out of pride and envy. This  is the reason for the rebellion of the angels according to the Jesuit, Francisco Suárez (1548-1617), and the Franciscan mystic, Ven Maria of Agreda (1602-1665). The Thomists don’t deny the predestination of Mary and the Incarnation, but they say this was motivated by God’s eternal foreknowledge of Adam and Eve’s sin (which actually Bl. Pius IX mentions in Ineffabilis Deus in a passage left out in Denz.-H., 2800).
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For God to become incarnate and be conceived by a woman requires, according to God’s will, the predestined Mother’s free consent. This is taught in Lumen Gentium, 56, but it is affirmed by many Church Fathers and St. Thomas Aquinas who says that Mary gave her consent “in the place of all human nature” (ST III, q. 30, a. 1; quoted by Leo XIII in Denz.-H., 3274). Because the creation of the world is linked to God’s free decision to become incarnate, we can affirm with St. Bernard of Clairvaux, that “on account of this (Propter hunc) the whole world was made” The propter hunc in the quoted line is better translated as “on account of this.” The passage cited by St. Bonaventure in “Dispostione tua Virgo” would be better translated as “By your disposition, O Virgin.”   Moreover, the line in Latin ” mundus, quem et tu cum Deo fundasti ab initio”   should, I think,  be translated as “the world, which was formed from the beginning by God with you.” The “cum” in Latin means “with” not “by.” God is the Creator but Mary was with Him in the beginning in a predestined sense.
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This line is not putting Mary in the role of the Creator. It is simply acknowledging that God’s free decision to create the word was, according to his providence, linked to his decision to become incarnate, which involved the free consent of the Mother. In this sense, Mary’s free consent was predestined when the world was created at the beginning. The free consent of Mary to become the Mother of the Incarnate Word was insured by her Immaculate Conception which guaranteed she would be “impeded by no sin” (LG, 56). All of this is according to God’s free decision. As St. Louis de Montfort says, God did not have any absolute need of Mary (cf. True Devotion to Mary, 14). God also did not have any absolute need to create
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Mary’s predestination in no way involves a claim that she was the Creator. Mary, in fact,  had to be created in order for the Word of God to assume flesh from her virginal womb and enter into creation. At best, the claim that Roman Catholics acknowledge Mary as the Creator is due to ignorance. At worst, it is slander.
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Is there any biblical warrant for this Catholic understanding? Yes, according to Col 1:15-16, the Incarnate Word is the “firstborn of all creation ….[and] all things were created through him and for him.” If all things were created “for him,” then, in a true sense, they were also created “on account of” (propter) his Mother. Without the Mother, there would be no Incarnate Word for whom “all things in heaven and on earth” (Col 1:16) were created.
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Another point to make is that Catholic teaching must be known by magisterial statements, not those of individual theologians and saints (who sometimes contradict each other). In this respect, LG, 62 is clear that Mary is a creature. I don’t think the Church has ever taught anything else. If the anti-Catholic claims otherwise, let him produce the evidence from magisterial documents.
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I wrote back, observing that the likely response to this would be one of two things: 1) “if that was the intended meaning, why didn’t they make it clear, instead of seeming to say — by a plain and straightforward reading — that Mary was creating the universe with God?”, or 2) “if it takes you this much work to defend what was said, it sounds to me like rationalizing or special pleading; jesuitical casuistry . . .” Dr. Fastiggi then replied to that:
When certain passages are taken out of their historical and theological context they can be misunderstood. But the same can be said about certain Scriptural texts. When Jesus says, “the Father is greater than I” in Jn 14:28, the prima facie meaning seems to be that He is less than the Father (i.e. not fully God). It would take centuries for the Church to overcome those, like the Arians, who deny the full divinity of Christ. In the 5th century, we have the Pseudo-Athanasian Creed and St. Pope Leo I explaining that  Jn 14:28 means that Jesus is less than the Father according to his humanity but equal to the Father according to his divinity” (cf. Denz. H. 76 and 295). But “if that was the intended meaning of Jn 14:28, why didn’t Jesus make it clear?” And why does the meaning of Jn 14:28 take so much jesuitical casuistry to explain it? I think you get my point. People who don’t want to understand the meaning of various texts within their proper context will always have objections.
In the past with this sort of “flowery” Mariology I sought other passages in the same book about Jesus and God the Father where it made clear what wasn’t being denied and what was being asserted, following the same method as in biblical hermeneutics: “interpret the less clear by the more clear.” Hence if we can find other passages about creation in The Glories of Mary that make it clear beyond all doubt that Mary is a creature and God the only Creator, then these prima facie “difficult” texts above can be better understood within the context of the overall book.
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When I did that, I quickly discovered that St. Alphonsus did indeed make it very clear what he was not asserting: some notion of Mary being co-Creator. He even discussed some aspects that Dr. Fastiggi brought up:
[W]hether she be the first-born inasmuch as she was predestined in the divine decrees, together with the Son, before all creatures, according to the Scotists; or the first-born of grace as the predestined Mother of the Redeemer, after the prevision of sin, according to the Thomists; nevertheless all agree in calling her the first-born of God.  This being the case, it was quite becoming that Mary should never have been the slave of Lucifer, but only and always possessed by her Creator; (2nd Part, Discourse I: Mary’s Immaculate Conception, I; my bolding and italics for emphasis)
Note that St. Alphonsus calls God “her [Mary’s] Creator.” If He is her Creator, then she can’t be a co-Creator. The “difficult” words had to do with her predestination, not with some imagined ontological status as an eternal Being equal to the Holy Trinity, who therefore creates everything, too. Nor is this a one-time occurrence. Mary is called a “creature” many many times in the book. In the 2nd Part alone, in Discourse I, he calls her (or cites someone else calling her, in agreement) “creature” twice. Beyond the example above, He uses “Creator” or “created” in a way perfectly in accord with what Protestants also believe, seven more times:
St. Bernard says, “that the Creator of men becoming man, must have selected himself a Mother . . .
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. . . he created her spotless.
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. . . truly God created Mary such . . .
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. . . in the words of St. Illdephonsus, “Suckle, O Mary, thy Creator, give milk to him who made thee, and who made thee such that he could be made of thee”
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Ah, my Immaculate Lady!  I rejoice with thee on seeing thee enriched with so great purity.  I thank, and, resolve always to thank, our common Creator . . .
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. . . the beloved of thy Creator.
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. . . the Church celebrates the first moment in which her soul was created and infused into her body . . .
This is all in one Discourse only. Examples could easily be multiplied, and anyone can do a word-search to verify it, if I’m not believed. We need not go through the entire book to prove this point and refute Timothy’s groundless claims. Let’s take a look just at Discourse IV in the 2nd Part, where the citation that Timothy produced and critiqued appeared. Mary is called a “creature” sixteen times (if my count is right). How about the terms “Creator” and “created”? Here are the six appearances (minus the one in one of the citations):
. . . to become the Mother of her Creator.
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She was troubled; for, being so full of humility, she abhorred every praise of herself, and her only desire was that her Creator, the giver of every good thing, should be praised and blessed.
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This Mary herself revealed to St. Bridget, when speaking of the time in which she became Mother of God: “I desired not my own praise, but only that my Creator, the giver of all, should be glorified” . . .
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. . . God created light, heaven, earth . . .
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Father Suarez traces the reason for which “the dignity of Mother of God in above every other created dignity;” . . .
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Our Lord himself also revealed to St. Bridget that the beauty of his Mother surpassed that of all men and angels.  Allowing the saint to hear him addressing Mary, he said: “They beauty exceeds that of all angels, and of all created things” . . .

In a small portion of the entire book, ten “clear clarifications” of the matter of Who created all things (and it doesn’t include Mary) occur in Discourse I and 22 more in Discourse IV, which is immediate context, for a total of 32 instances. So what are we arguing about? Did Timothy not consult this context? Did he not make the easy searches that I made? How is it good research, then, if he failed to do so, as seems to be the case? He linked to a good online copy of the work. He could have easily searched it, and this would have refuted the contention that he put into print, that I now have to take time refuting.

I reiterate that it’s useful to apply the method of “interpreting the less clear by the more clear” in questions of Catholic Mariology, just as it’s very helpful in biblical hermeneutics.

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ADDENDUM: Timothy has “replied” (if indeed one can call it that) on his blog.

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Photo credit: [public domain / PXFuel]

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Summary: I reply to the serious accusation made by Presbyterian Timothy Kauffman that Mary is “Co-Creator” according to what the Catholic Church supposedly teaches.

2023-09-26T09:10:28-04:00

Timothy F. Kauffman was raised Catholic, converted to Protestantism in 1990, and is now a Presbyterian (PCA). He has written, “I was saved out of Roman Catholicism, and into Christianity, . . . Roman Catholicism was out of accord with the Gospel of Jesus Christ.” Timothy is author of the books, Quite Contrary: Biblical Reconsiderations of the Apparitions of Mary (1994), Graven Bread: The Papacy, the Apparitions of Mary, and the Worship of the Bread of the Altar (1995), and is co-author with Robert M. Zins, of A Gospel Contrary!: A Study of Roman Catholic Abuse of History and Scripture to Propagate Error (April 24, 2023). He has been blogging about theology and Catholicism since 2014. His words will be in blue.

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I will be responding to one portion of Timothy’s article, ” ‘We Don’t Worship Mary’ Part 1″ (6-8-14).

The commandment in the Scripture identifies visible exterior actions that go along with idolatrous worship—namely, making graven images, and bowing down to and serving them—and those visible external actions are just as forbidden as murder:

Thou shalt have no other gods before me. Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth: Thou shalt not bow down thyself to them, nor serve them… (Exodus 20:3-5)

. . . Even the Roman Catholic Catechism extolls the virtue of martyrs who would not even go through the motions of idolatry, “refusing even to simulate such worship,” irrespective of interior dispositions (paragraph 2113). 

This is a legalistic, external-only definition of idolatry, which goes against the biblical definition of it. See my article: Biblical Idolatry: Authentic & Counterfeit Conceptions (2015). But that is a deeper issue, apart from my immediate reason for this response. Timothy starts from a flawed definition of idolatry (according to the biblical standard). Therefore, the argument he builds upon it is also flawed and its substance false.

He would make out (as far as I can tell from his remarks here) that all bowing before any images whatsoever is an act of idolatry. In effect, he makes all images “graven images.” But this, too (if indeed he holds to it), is a falsehood. See:

“Graven Images”: Unbiblical Iconoclasm (vs. John Calvin) [Oct. 2012]

Was Moses’ Bronze Serpent an Idolatrous “Graven Image?” [National Catholic Register, 2-17-20]

But even John Calvin didn’t oppose all religious images whatsoever.

There are many directions to go in such discussions. Rest assured, I have written about all of the main aspects of the broader controversy about the communion of saints and images. But again, I am centering one one thing at present, as will shortly be made clear. The quickest refutation of Timothy’s contention is to cite Holy Scripture (which I always love to do, and have a reputation for doing!):

The ark of the covenant — the most sacred item to the ancient Israelites — had cherubim carved on top of it: on both sides of the “mercy seat” (Ex 25:22; Num 7:89; Heb 9:5). Additionally, when the ark was put into its permanent place in the Holy of Holies in the temple, giant carved cherubim covered it as well (1 Kgs 6:23 ff.; 8:6-7; 1 Chr 28:18; 2 Chr 3:11 ff.;  5:8). The cherubim were angels. They guarded the Garden of Eden after Adam and Eve rebelled against God (Gen 3:24; cf. Ezek chapters 1 and 10).

We know that cherubim represented (and in carved images portrayed) angels. We know that they were on top of the ark of the covenant itself (Ex 25:18-22; 37:7-9; Num 7:89; 1 Sam 4:4; 2 Sam 6:2), and also in larger form, present in the temple, outside of the Holy of Holies (1 Kgs 6:22-35; 7:29, 36; 2 Chr 3:7-14; Ezek 41:18, 20, 25). And they were also previously present in the tabernacle, the original prototype of the temple (Ex 26:1, 31; 36:8, 35).

[see also an illustration of Solomon’s temple and what the ark of the covenant may have looked like]

This being the case, we know that wherever there is bowing, prayer, and/or worship in Scripture, as related to the ark of the covenant either outside the temple or tabernacle, or in them, that statues (of cherubim / angels) were present. And this is also true of any bowing, prayer, and/or worship in or near the temple. That’s an awful lot of statuary or other images! Yet we are to believe that these most sacred acts of the ancient Jews were fundamentally idolatrous, and that anything even approximating these actions in Christianity is also idolatrous? It strains credulity to the breaking point. Here are the actual relevant biblical passages:

Bowing and Praying Before the Ark of the Covenant (Including Cherubim)

Joshua 7:6-7 (RSV) Then Joshua rent his clothes, and fell to the earth upon his face before the ark of the LORD until the evening, he and the elders of Israel; and they put dust upon their heads. [7] And Joshua said, “Alas, O Lord GOD, why hast thou brought this people over the Jordan at all, to give us into the hands of the Amorites, to destroy us? Would that we had been content to dwell beyond the Jordan!

Worship and Praise Before the Ark of the Covenant (Including Cherubim)

1 Kings 3:15 . . . Solomon . . . came to Jerusalem, and stood before the ark of the covenant of the LORD, and offered up burnt offerings and peace offerings . . .

1 Kings 8:5 And King Solomon and all the congregation of Israel, who had assembled before him, were with him before the ark, sacrificing so many sheep and oxen that they could not be counted or numbered. (cf. 2 Chr 5:6)

1 Chronicles 16:4 Moreover he appointed certain of the Levites as ministers before the ark of the LORD, to invoke, to thank, and to praise the LORD, the God of Israel. (cf. Deut 10:8)

1 Chronicles 16:37 So David left Asaph and his brethren there before the ark of the covenant of the LORD to minister continually before the ark as each day required,

2 Chronicles 5:6 And King Solomon and all the congregation of Israel, who had assembled before him, were before the ark, sacrificing so many sheep and oxen that they could not be counted or numbered.

Bowing Towards the Temple (Which Included Carved and Painted Cherubim), and Worshiping and Giving Thanks

2 Chronicles 7:3 When all the children of Israel saw the fire come down and the glory of the LORD upon the temple, they bowed down with their faces to the earth on the pavement, and worshiped and gave thanks to the LORD, saying, “For he is good, for his steadfast love endures for ever.”

Psalm 138:2 I bow down toward thy holy temple and give thanks to thy name for thy steadfast love and thy faithfulness; for thou hast exalted above everything thy name and thy word.

Praying and Sacrificing and Worshiping in or Near the Temple (Which Included Carved and Painted Cherubim) or Tabernacle (Embroidered Cherubim)

2 Chronicles 6:20 that thou mayest hearken to the prayer which thy servant offers toward this place. [temple]

2 Chronicles 6:26-27 When heaven is shut up and there is no rain because they have sinned against thee, if they pray toward this place, and acknowledge thy name, and turn from their sin, when thou dost afflict them, [27] then hear thou in heaven, and forgive the sin of thy servants, thy people Israel, when thou dost teach them the good way in which they should walk; and grant rain upon thy land, which thou hast given to thy people as an inheritance. [temple]

2 Chronicles 6:29-30 whatever prayer, whatever supplication is made by any man or by all thy people Israel, each knowing his own affliction, and his own sorrow and stretching out his hands toward this house; [30] then hear thou from heaven thy dwelling place, and forgive, and render to each whose heart thou knowest, according to all his ways (for thou, thou only, knowest the hearts of the children of men); [temple]

2 Chronicles 6:32-33 Likewise when a foreigner, who is not of thy people Israel, comes from a far country for the sake of thy great name, and thy mighty hand, and thy outstretched arm, when he comes and prays toward this house, [33] hear thou from heaven thy dwelling place, (cf. 1 Ki 29-30,35,42) [temple]

Psalm 5:7 . . . I will worship toward thy holy temple in the fear of thee.

Psalm 28:2 Hear the voice of my supplication, as I cry to thee for help, as I lift up my hands toward thy most holy sanctuary. [tabernacle]

Psalm 134:2 Lift up your hands to the holy place, and bless the LORD! [tabernacle or temple]

Luke 2:37 . . . She did not depart from the temple, worshiping with fasting and prayer night and day.

Acts 3:1 Now Peter and John were going up to the temple at the hour ofprayer, the ninth hour.

Acts 22:17 . . . I had returned to Jerusalem and waspraying in the temple . . .

Hebrews 9:2-7 For a tent was prepared, the outer one, in which were the lampstand and the table and the bread of the Presence; it is called the Holy Place. [3] Behind the second curtain stood a tent called the Holy of Holies, [4] having the golden altar of incense and the ark of the covenant covered on all sides with gold, which contained a golden urn holding the manna, and Aaron’s rod that budded, and the tables of the covenant; [5] above it were the cherubim of glory overshadowing the mercy seat. Of these things we cannot now speak in detail. [6] These preparations having thus been made, the priests go continually into the outer tent, performing their ritual duties; [7] but into the second only the high priest goes, and he but once a year, and not without taking blood which he offers for himself and for the errors of the people.

Are these all “graven images” too? Are all these instances or prayer, worship, and sacrifice in conjunction with images (cherubim, palm trees, etc.) idolatrous? According to the Bible, obviously not. In the Bible, God was worshiped even in direct association with created matter: a burning bush, a cloud, and fire (as well as in conjunction with the cherubim on top of the ark, where He stated that He was especially present):

Exodus 3:2, 4-5 And the angel of the LORD appeared to him in a flame of fire out of the midst of a bush; and he looked, and lo, the bush was burning, yet it was not consumed. . . . [4] When the LORD saw that he turned aside to see, God called to him out of the bush, “Moses, Moses!” And he said, “Here am I.” [5] Then he said, “Do not come near; put off your shoes from your feet, for the place on which you are standing is holy ground.”

Exodus 33:9-10 When Moses entered the tent, the pillar of cloud would descend and stand at the door of the tent, and the LORD would speak with Moses. [10] And when all the people saw the pillar of cloud standing at the door of the tent, all the people would rise up and worship, every man at his tent door.

2 Chronicles 7:3-4 When all the children of Israel saw the fire come down and the glory of the LORD upon the temple, they bowed down with their faces to the earth on the pavement, and worshiped and gave thanks to the LORD, saying, “For he is good, for his steadfast love endures for ever.” [4] Then the king and all the people offered sacrifice before the LORD.

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Practical Matters: Perhaps some of my 4,300+ free online articles (the most comprehensive “one-stop” Catholic apologetics site) or fifty-three books have helped you (by God’s grace) to decide to become Catholic or to return to the Church, or better understand some doctrines and why we believe them.
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Or you may believe my work is worthy to support for the purpose of apologetics and evangelism in general. If so, please seriously consider a much-needed financial contribution. I’m always in need of more funds: especially monthly support. “The laborer is worthy of his wages” (1 Tim 5:18, NKJV). 1 December 2021 was my 20th anniversary as a full-time Catholic apologist, and February 2022 marked the 25th anniversary of my blog.
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PayPal donations are the easiest: just send to my email address: [email protected]. You’ll see the term “Catholic Used Book Service”, which is my old side-business. To learn about the different methods of contributing, including 100% tax deduction, etc., see my page: About Catholic Apologist Dave Armstrong / Donation InformationThanks a million from the bottom of my heart!

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Photo credit: Moses and Joshua in the Tabernacle, c. 1896-1902, by James Tissot (1836-1902) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

Summary: I object to Presbyterian apologist Timothy F. Kauffman’s argument that all bowing to any religious objects whatsoever is rank idolatry. The Bible states otherwise.

2023-05-12T10:27:03-04:00

Gallicanism, Ultramontanism, and Petrine Primacy in the New Testament

The book, The Infallibility of the Church (1888) by Anglican anti-Catholic polemicist George Salmon (1819-1904), may be one of the most extensive and detailed — as well as influential — critiques of the Catholic Church ever written. But, as usual with these sorts of works, it’s abominably argued and relentlessly ignorant and/or dishonest, as the critiques listed below amply demonstrate and document.
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The most influential and effective anti-Catholic Protestant polemicist today, “Dr” [???] James White, cites Salmon several times in his written materials, and regards his magnum opus as an “excellent” work. In a letter dated 2 November 1959, C. S. Lewis recommended the book to a reader, Michael Edwards, who was “vexed” about papal infallibility (see: The Collected Letters of C. S. Lewis, Volume 3: Narnia, Cambridge, and Joy, 1950 – 1963, edited by Walter Hooper, New York: HarperCollins, 2007, p. 1133, footnote 24). Russell P. Spittler, professor of New Testament at Fuller Theological Seminary, wrote that “From an evangelical standpoint,” the book “has been standard since first published in 1888” (Cults and Isms, Baker Book House, 1973, 117). Well-known Baptist apologist Edward James Carnell called it the “best answer to Roman Catholicism” in a 1959 book. I think we can safely say that it is widely admired among theological (as well as “emotional”) opponents of the Catholic Church.
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Prominent Protestant apologist Norman Geisler and his co-author Ralph MacKenzie triumphantly but falsely claim, in a major critique of Catholicism, Roman Catholics and Evangelicals: Agreements and Differences (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Books, 1995, 206-207, 459), that Salmon’s book has “never really been answered by the Catholic Church,” and call it the “classic refutation of papal infallibility,” which also offers “a penetrating critique of Newman’s theory.”
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Salmon’s tome, however, has been roundly refuted at least twice: first, by Rev. Dr. Jeremiah Murphy in The Irish Ecclesiastical Record (March / May / July / September / November 1901 and January / March 1902): a response (see the original sources) — which I’ve now transcribed almost in its totality: adding up to more than 73,000 words, or approximately 257 pages (last two installments abridged a bit); secondly, by Bishop Basil Christopher Butler (1902-1986) in his book, The Church and Infallibility: A Reply to the Abridged ‘Salmon’ (New York: Sheed & Ward, 1954, 230 pages). See all of these replies — and any further ones that I make — listed under “George Salmon” on my Anti-Catholicism web page.
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See also my thorough refutation of Salmon’s false and scurrilous accusation of St. Cardinal Newman, regarding papal infallibility: John Henry Newman’s Alleged Disbelief  in Papal Infallibility Prior to 1870, and Supposed Intellectual Dishonesty Afterwards [8-11-11]
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Bishop Butler’s book is partially available (8 chapters of 11) in old Internet Archive files (see chapters one / two / three / four / five / six / seven) and another web page with Chapter Ten. Most of these files will eventually be inaccessible, so I have decided to select highlights of all of these chapters, and also from chapters eight, nine, and eleven, from my own hardcover copy of the book.  The words below are all from Bishop Butler, edited and abridged by myself. I will indicate which chapter excerpts are from, but not page numbers. Subtitles are not Salmon’s own. George Salmon’s words will be in blue; St. Cardinal Newman’s words in green.
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See other installments of this series:
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Chapter Six: The Vatican Council
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I do not know anything in the teaching of the modern Church which suggests that an Ecumenical Council (which requires papal acceptance as such for its claim to the title) is any less of a “main organ” than is the Pope, defining a doctrine (as recently that of the Assumption) without the formality of a Council. The country can be governed by Order in Council (a direct act of superior authority) or by Act of Parliament (and a Bill only becomes an Act when it receives the royal signature), but it would be rash to assume that the claim of Parliament to be the “main ” organ of government is not upheld. Similarly, it is of course simply a mistake to say, as Salmon himself does, (S, page 109) that “modern Catholics seek to show that infallibility does not reside in Councils.” The Church recognizes about twenty [now 21] Ecumenical Councils, and all their doctrinal definitions are accepted as infallible.

Chapter 10 of the Abridgement is devoted to the Vatican Council [1870], at which the Pope’s infallibility was defined and the old theological controversy between Gallicans (who thought a Council superior to a Pope) and Ultramontanes was thus terminated by a conciliar act. Salmon’s main source for his sharply critical account of the Council was apparently “Quirinus,” and this means that it was largely Dollinger, whom Mr. Woodhouse describes as “The great R.C. historian.” It is true of course that Dollinger was a great historian, and that he had been a Catholic. But for ten years before the Council he had been moving towards what in modern jargon might be called the “left” of the theological world, and he left the Church as a result of the Council and its decisions. He is therefore a partial witness.

[see my related article, Döllinger & Liberal Dissidents’ Rejection of Papal Infallibility (11-28-04) ]

There had been in antiquity what amounted to a traditional recognition that the Church of Rome had always been a citadel of orthodoxy, that its “line” on any doctrinal issue might be presumed to be correct, and that the infallible Peter spoke in the official utterance of the bishop who, as Bishop of Rome, inherited his “apostolic chair” (sedes apostolica). There had further been, and especially in the West, a practical recognition of Rome’s de jure leadership of the Catholic Church. Broadly speaking, these ideas met no serious and persistent opposition from orthodox ecclesiastical quarters either before 1054 (when, under Michael Caerularius, the Eastern Churches drifted into separation from the West) or, in the West, after that date, until the scandals of the Western schism and the period of the anti-Popes shook the prestige of the Roman See.

The Council of Constance (1414-17), in an endeavour to bring the Western schism to an end, declared that

a General Council, as representing the Universal Church, held its power immediately from Jesus Christ…and that every one, even the Pope, was bound to obey the Council in matters concerning the faith, the extinction of the schism, and the reform of the Church in its head and members; and that the Council had authority over the Pope as well as over all Christians.

This is the theory of theological (as distinct from political) Gallicanism, and the acts of this Council were approved by the Pope “saving the rights, dignity, and pre-eminence of the Apostolic See.” Theological Gallicanism found a home in France, where the great Bossuet (17th century) was one of its spokesmen, and though its famous “Four Articles” had in 1690 been declared by the Pope to be “null and void,” . . .

Meanwhile, the other, and ultimately victorious explanation of the relation of bishops (or Council) and Pope, had been systematically set forth by St. Robert Bellarmine in 1586. This is the theory known as Ultramontanism:

The Pope is the supreme judge in deciding controversies on faith and morals. When he teaches the whole Church in things pertaining to faith, he cannot err.

The nineteenth century, however, witnessed the rise of a movement of thought to which the name New Ultramontanism, or “Neo-Ultramontanism,” has been applied. [T]he school of thought opposed to the New Ultramontanism came to be described as “Gallican.” But, says [Cuthbert] Butler, “the liberal Catholics were not, as such, Gallicans” — that is, they did not, as such, maintain the theological Gallicanism of Bossuet. Their great leader was Montalembert, who declared that he detested Gallicanism and its official formularies; . . .

In England, Ullathorne may be taken as a typical case of a man educated on the lines of the old theological Gallicanism who, by the date of the Vatican Council, had evolved into a supporter of the moderate Ultramontanism canonised in that Council’s definition of faith. Cardinal Newman, the greatest of the Oxford converts, stated after the Council, as we have seen, that he had held this theological opinion ever since his conversion a quarter of a century earlier. But the great layman convert W. G. Ward, editor of the Dublin Review since 1863, was an ardent advocate of extreme theological Neo-Ultramontanism:

He held that the infallible element of bulls, encyclicals, etc., should not be restricted to their formal definitions, but ran through the entire doctrinal instructions; the decrees of the Roman Congregations, if adopted by the Pope and published by his authority, thereby were stamped with the mark of infallibility, in short, ‘his every doctrinal pronouncement is infallibly directed by the Holy Ghost’…Ward’s attitude to encyclicals and allocations was much like the Protestant attitude to the Bible…He insisted…that his view was the only Catholic one…only invincible ignorance excusing [those who rejected it] from mortal sin. [Cuthbert Butler, The Life and Times of Bishop Ullathorne, vol. 2, 41-44]

It can be well understood that such as extreme position, advocated with force and ability, by a theologian like Ward, aroused the greatest anxiety in more moderate men such as Newman, with a deep knowledge of Christian history and a sense of those “fine distinctions” which looked like treachery to Ward, and like special pleading to Salmon.

It will thus, I take it, be seen that it is altogether mistaken to suppose that the line which separates the minority at the Council from the majority must be the same as the line dividing those who held, from those who rejected, the opinion that the Pope as pastor of the flock of Christ is superior to any Council lacking his ratification, and that he is therefore infallible. There were those who held this opinion as theologically true, but feared either the extreme position of the Neo-Ultramontanes or the effect of even a moderate definition upon governments and upon non-Catholics, and the danger that it would lead to an undesirable “centralization” and a diminution of the rights and status of the other diocesan bishops. In fact, as we can now see, the Neo-Ultramontanes did not prevail at the Council, democratic governments have found it possible to maintain diplomatic relations with the Holy See, and the bishops had their authority secured to them in the Canon Law of the Latin Church. Unfortunately, many non-Catholics continue, like Salmon, to imagine that Neo-Ultramontanism is now the official creed of the Catholic Church.

Chapter Seven: St. Peter’s Primacy

The course of Salmon’s argument now takes him back from the Vatican Council to the origins of Christianity, and in the eleventh chapter of the Abridgement the “Petrine texts” and St. Peter’s position as deducible from the New Testament are investigated; and the claim is made that whatever special prerogatives Christ gave to the first among his Apostles, still no provision was made whereby these prerogatives should be transmitted to a line of individual successors of St. Peter.

Before descending into the detail of these discussions, there is a point which I think it legitimate to make here. The foundation of the Church’s “case against Protestantism” is that Christ entrusted his truth and grace to a visible society of human beings, the perpetuity of which society on earth is assured by divine Providence; and such a society does in fact appear to be the one direct outcome in history of Christ’s life on earth. Approaching the New Testament documents as historians, we see in them the evidence of that Church’s existence and activity in the apostolic generation. The books of the New Testament were written by and for members of that society. When we come to the second and subsequent centuries of our era the “Great Church” is indeed flanked by other more or less Christian bodies, and Christian influence makes itself felt beyond the limits of any social incorporations of Christianity. But these other bodies, in so far as they are (imperfectly) Christian, and these influences, all derive from the “Great” or “Catholic” Church. And so it has been ever since.

The story of Christianity has been, in fact, the story of a great central body known to itself and to the non-Christian world as the “Catholic Church,” and alongside it of other bodies and influences derived historically from it. I know that all Christians see things in this light. But no unprejudiced person will deny that this is at least a reasonable way of looking at the “Christian fact” in history, somewhat as the Copernican hypothesis is a reasonable way of looking at the phenomena relating to what we now call the solar system. Moreover, for a Christian who believes that something called “the Church” was established by Christ as an essential part of his work for all mankind, this way of looking at the Christian story makes sense of the New Testament evidence on this subject.

Now there is one text, and only one, in the Gospels, in which Christ’s intention to found such a “Church” is expressed in language incorporating the actual word “Church” (ecclesia). It is the famous words of Christ in the middle of St. Matthew’s Gospel:

Blessed art thou, Simon Bar-jonas, because flesh and blood hath not revealed it [viz. the fact that Jesus is ‘Christ the Son of the living God’] to thee, but my Father who is in heaven. And I say to thee: That thou art Peter; and upon this rock will I build my church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. And I will give to thee the keys of the Kingdom of heaven. And whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven; and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth, it shall be loosened also in heaven. (Matthew 16:17-19)

This passage has, of course, and for obvious reasons, been the storm-centre of controversies, literary, historical, exegetical, and theological. All I want to do here, however, is to emphasize that the passage does stand there, in the New Testament, and in a prominent position in the New Testament.

The text cries out across the centuries to the contemporary fact and the contemporary fact harks back to the original commission. I venture to think that to anyone who believes in divine Providence; and especially to anyone who already believes, or inclines to believe, that the divine entered into the texture of human history in a unique and supreme way in the Person of Jesus of Nazareth; and above all to anyone who believes that Christ founded a visible society that was to represent him on earth till the end of history, this correspondence between the beginning and the end of the Christian story, so far as that story has yet been unrolled, is profoundly moving, claims the most earnest and prayerful attention, and is an invitation to faith.

The correspondence can, of course, more or less, be “explained away,” just as a believing Jew will “explain away” the correspondence between Old Testament Judaism’s messianic hope and the Christian message. The method of explaining away is to concentrate attention on the human and other creaturely causes which have influenced and in some measure affected the development of the Church. This is the method adopted by Salmon, and to a discussion of his use of it we must shortly turn.

It is surely no great straining of this text, to see in it the bestowal on Peter, for transmission to those who should succeed in his see, of the powers and privileges which Catholics believe that the Pope possesses. But even one who does not see this in the text, must surely admit that the scriptural evidence is not demonstrably inconsistent with the Catholic belief; and this is all we need. And so, too, with the evidence of subsequent history.

A Catholic does not yield religious faith to the Vatican definition because he thinks that the truth of the definition can be historically proved without appeal to the authority of the Church that holds its teaching commission from Christ. It may be difficult for a western non-Catholic to believe in the Papacy; but the difficulty will be principally caused by the fact that the non-Catholic does not yet believe in the Church as a visible association of baptized believers.

What, in fact, is contained in the passage of St. Matthew’s Gospel quoted above? It is desirable to read the passage in its context, and I suggest that we thus get the following as a probable exegesis.

St. Peter has confessed, on behalf of the other Disciples, that Jesus is “the Messiah, the Son of the living God.” In reply Christ first “congratulates” him on having learned this truth (the cardinal Christian truth when it is a question of distinguishing Christianity from Judaism) not by human means but by divine revelation. He then echoes St. Peter’s words to him; “[As thou hast said that I am Christ, the son of the living god] I in my turn say to thee, Thou art Kepha [the Aramaic for Rock].” The parallelism with Peter’s confession (which was not “Thou art Jesus,” but “Thou art the Messiah…”) indicates that Kepha is here not simply a personal name but a name denoting a function or office; and the nature of that function is at once made clear: “Thou art Rock, and upon this Rock I will build my Church.”

Peter then, in his official or functional capacity, is to be the firm substructure (not a foundation stone but the Rock on which the foundation stones will rest) of the Church which Christ will “build” as a builder builds a temple or a house. “Upon this Rock I will build my Church, and the gates of Sheol [i.e. the might of the city of the powers of evil] will not prevail against it [i.e. the Church, not I think, the Rock].” Thus the Church will have a stability that will make it at all times and for ever victorious over the worst assaults of the evil that is ever conspiring against the divine cause and purpose in history. And the source of this stability will be the Rock on which the Church is built.

We naturally compare the implied simile with that which terminates the Sermon on the Mount:

Every one therefore that heareth these my words and doth them, shall be likened to a wise man that built his house upon a rock, and the rain fell, and the floods came, and the winds blew, and they beat upon that house, and it fell not, for it was founded on a rock. (Matthew 7:24f)

We note Christ’s great concern for “stability.” It is stable perseverance that counts, not a “flash-in-the-pan” enthusiasm. So too he contrasted, in the parable of the Sower, the seed sown on good ground with, for instance, that which “endured only for a season.” So, too, he promised that “he who endured to the end” should be “saved.” The man whose character survives all the storms and stresses of natural life is he who rests his behaviour permanently on a permanent adhesion to Christ’s teaching.

An individual Christian may fail and fall, as Judas did. But Christ’s promise for his Church is that it will not fail or fall. The “gates of Sheol” will not prevail against it. And the reason is that it is built upon Peter, the Rock. I will point out, in passing, that the stability of the building obviously depends upon the persistence, and persistent functioning, of the Rock. To suggest that the Church can survive and outlive the office or function signified by Peter’s “official” name, is like suggesting that the “wise man,” having once accepted and acted upon Christ’s teaching, could thereafter dispense with that “rock” and yet hope to withstand the rain and floods and winds. If the Church is to persist — and Christ assures us that it will — then the Petrine function must a fortiori persist.

We may now continue with our text. “And I will give to thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven.” The “kingdom of heaven” is the Reign of God, and the “keys” are the outward sign of investiture as the major-domo, the “second-in-command” and representative of the King himself — compare the prophecy addressed to Sobna:

I will drive thee out from thy station, and depose thee from the ministry. And…I will call my servant Eliacim the son of Helcias, and I will clothe him with thy robe, and will strengthen him with thy girdle, and will give thy power into his hand; and he shall be as a father to the inhabitants of Jerusalem, and to the house of Juda. And I will lay the key of the house of David upon his shoulder: and he shall open, and none shall shut: and he shall shut, and none shall open. (Isaiah 22:19-22)

The conclusion to be drawn from this comparison is that in the Christian dispensation, which is the historical anticipation, the realisation “in a mystery,” of the post-historic Reign of God, Peter is to have the supreme authority as the “vicar” of the heavenly King. Finally, he is told that “whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven” etc. “Binding” and “loosing,” in the rabbinical usage, would mean excluding from, and granting readmission to, the community; or declaring the existence or the non-existence of a legal obligation. The phrase therefore seems to imply that Peter is to exercise a juridical function in the religious sphere, and his juridical decisions in this sphere will have divine sanction (“bound or loosed in heaven“).

This last sentence of the saying (“Whatsoever thou shalt bind” etc.) is repeated (with a change from the singular “thou” to the plural “you”) in a saying addressed to the Disciples in Matthew 18 (where the juridical meaning is suggested by the context, which deals with “excommunication”), and it has been argued that therefore nothing is given by it to Peter that is not given to each of the Apostles. But

  1. the plural reference in Matthew 18 may indicate that jurisdiction is there given to the Church as a whole, not (except by derivation) to each Apostle severally.
  2. The promise of the keys, in the preceding sentence, must be something peculiar to Peter, since there is no room for more than one Major-Domo in a household, one Grand Vizier in a realm. Nor is it enough to say that each Apostle (and bishop) will wield the power of the keys in his own sphere of jurisdiction or local Church; since there is no evidence to suggest that Christ ever represented himself as founding a plurality of Churches. “My Church” is to be conceived as a continuation on a higher plane of the divine theocracy of Israel, and this was (in idea) a single polity centering in the Temple, the Sanhedrim and the High Priest.
  3. The attempt to reduce Peter to the same level as the other Apostles breaks down most manifestly in the first of these three promises: “Thou art Rock, and upon this Rock I will build my Church.” Besides the fact that a single building will not require more than one rock to rest upon, the conclusive consideration here is that Simon Bar-jonas was the only one of the Disciples to whom the functional name Kepha (Rock) was given by Christ.

Thus we must give up the attempt to argue from the third promise (and its similarity to the promise of Matthew 18) that Peter is promised, in all this section, only equal authority with the other Apostles; and it is more reasonable to infer, from the uniqueness of the first promise, that special authority is given to him in the second; and that in the third he is given a power equivalent to that which in Matthew 18 is given to the Church as a whole.

From the Matthean passage we may now turn to John 21:13-17, with the twice-repeated injunction to Peter to “feed my lambs,” and a third bidding to “feed my sheep.” The comparison of the followers of Christ to a “flock” of which he is the shepherd occurs more than once in the Gospels. It seems reasonable to turn for illustration of John 21 to an earlier passage in the same Gospel (chapter 10) where the comparison occurs, and the unity of the flock is emphasized — “there shall be one flock and one shepherd.” With this passage in mind, I take it as the most probable interpretation of the triple injunction in John 21 that Christ is solemnly handing over the Christian flock to Peter as his own vicegerent, now that his own visible presence is about to be removed. Salmon indeed points out that the “office of tending Christ’s sheep” is not peculiar to St. Peter; the same duty is enjoined upon the Ephesian elders (Acts 10:28) and upon the elders addressed in 1 Peter 5:2. But the unity of the flock will depend upon there being one shepherd or “pastor” whose control is superior to that of any other: “one flock” requires “one shepherd.”

[Footnote: Of course, in John 10 the “one shepherd” is Christ himself. But the problem is, how the pastoral function is to be exercised in Christ’s “absence.” If one vice-pastor is not required for the one flock, there seems no reason why there should be any pastors at all other than Christ himself, and this is refuted not only by John 21 but Acts 10:28, and 1 Peter 5:2.]

And it is noteworthy that this appears to be St. Cyprian’s interpretation of the passage; while Cyprian is clear that each bishop is a “shepherd of the flock,” he describes St. Peter, and him alone among the Apostles, as him “to whom the Lord entrusts his sheep to be fed and guarded, upon whom he set and founded the Church.” If any uncertainty still remains, it should be remembered that the Johannine passage can be illustrated from the Matthaean passage, and vice versa. It is not quite natural to take the “keys” as nothing more than is given to each of the Apostles; nor is it quite natural to take the pastoral investiture of John 21 as nothing more than the apostolate to which each of the Eleven could lay claim; it is most unnatural to adopt both of these rather strained interpretations; and if a special function is intended in either case, it is probably intended in both cases.

Thirdly, there is Luke 22:32, “Satan hath desired to have you [plural, i.e. the Disciples] that he may sift you [plural]; but…thou [singular, i.e. Peter], being converted, establish thy brethren.” The passage, taken by itself, could not, as Salmon points out, be suspected to contain “a revelation concerning the Church’s appointed guide to truth in all time.” But Salmon’s principle in exegesis appears to be the (secular) Roman one: Divide and master, divide et impera. When it is recognized that Peter had been designated as the Rock and Viceroy, and was to be appointed the pastor, of Christ’s Church, Kingdom and Flock; and when it is remembered, in particular, that the function of the rock is to give stability to the superstructure, it is possible to hold that in this Lucan passage Peter is being bidden to exercise the stabilising function (establish, make firm, confirm) implied by his new name of Rock (though the name used in the Lucan context is not Peter or Kepha, but Simon). As Simon, Peter is a prey to temptation like his brethren; but as Peter he is called upon to impart to them a (supernatural) stability.

These four Gospel passages have of course to be seen against the general background of the New Testament; in which the primacy of Peter stands out so clearly, as is recognized perhaps by modern non-Catholic scholarship more fully than in Salmon’s day.

But Salmon tries to diminish the weight of the New Testament evidence in two ways.

(1) He argues that the Fathers of the Church did not find the papal primacy in these passages; and indeed that patristic exegesis often finds a different original meaning, or no special significance at all, in the texts which are adduced by Catholics in support of the primacy. We may reply

  1. the Fathers have a way of finding in a given text of Scripture just so much as is relevant to their interest at the moment — thus Origen can argue, for moral reasons, that (in a sense) each Christian is a “Peter” on which the Church is built. But they do not always mean to exclude other possible interpretations. They regarded the words of Scripture as full of unfathomable mysteries, and would take that aspect of truth which helped their immediate purpose.
  2. Salmon would hardly have objected to our preferring the real and full meaning of the New Testament passages to the meanings put upon them by individual Fathers.
  3. Dom John Chapman has a remarkable essay on St. John Chrysostom’s references to St. Peter, and to this article I refer anyone who wishes to know what one of the greatest ancient exegetes thought of the New Testament evidence in regard to Peter: “the first of the Disciples,” “the unshaken foundation,” “who was entrusted with the keys of heaven,” who did not receive the see of Jerusalem (given to St. James) because Christ “made Peter the teacher not of that see but of the world.”
  4. As the Church’s consciousness of the special role of the Church and See of Rome developed, so her exegesis developed too; and as her articulate view of the Papacy approximated gradually to that defined by the Vatican Council, so her interpretation of the Petrine texts came to approximate to what, I have argued, is their real meaning.

(2) Salmon writes:

[I]t seems to me the most obvious and natural way of understanding our Lord’s words (Matthew 16:17f) to take them as conferring a personal honour in reward for [Peter’s] confession. Thy name I have called Rock: and on thee and on this confession of thine I will found my Church. For that confession really was the foundation of the Church. Just as in some noble sacred music, the strain which a single voice has led is responded to by the voices of the full choir, so that glorious hymn of praise, which Peter was the first to raise, has been caught up and re-echoed by the voices of the redeemed in every age….Jesus fulfilled His promise by honouring [Peter] with the foremost place in each of the successive steps by which the Church was developed [first Pentecost, mission to Cornelius]. Thus the words of Christ were fulfilled in that Peter was honoured by being the foremost among the human agents by which the Church was founded. But I need not say that this was an honour in which it was impossible he could have a successor. We might just as well speak of Adam’s having a successor in the place which he occupied in the founding of the Christian Church.

Some comment on this passage seems to be called for. Peter is the Rock; and on him and on his confession [or having made his confession of faith] would the Church be founded. It is the confession that leads to Salmon’s discourse on sacred music; but in point of fact Christ does not promise to found his Church on Peter’s confession, but on Peter.

We can therefore dismiss the idea that Peter is being promised the honour of being the first of a vast succession of believers taking their cue from his confession of faith. But, indeed, the idea of “honour” seems strangely out of place in the Gospel. Christ warned his disciples against Pharisaic love of outward marks of honour, and there is literally nothing to suggest that he is here conferring “honour” on Peter. (Was Salmon misled by St. Cyprian, who speaks of the Apostles as having “parem honorem” ? But honos in Latin means an office — cf. cursus honorum, the scale of successive offices in the Republican magistracy.) He is “blessed,” just as the Disciples’ eyes are “blessed” because they see (Matt 13:16), but this blessedness is a supernatural grace, not an honour, it is a noblesse which confers no outward dignity but a frightening responsibility and a vocation to the Cross. “Peter was honoured by being the foremost among the human agents by which the Church was founded.” But to be one of the agents of the founding of the Church is not the same thing as being the Rock upon which Christ, the divine Builder, constructs his Church. It is true that, after Christ, the Apostles were, in a unique and unbequeathable sense, the Church’s “founders” — but this idea is in no way present in, or to be inferred from, the passage of which Salmon here presents himself as interpreter. His exegesis seems to me completely to miss the mark.

It would be rather strained to call the first notes of a concert, as such, the rock on which the concert is built. No-one would call a builder the rock which someone else builds the edifice. On the contrary, Peter is, not in his person but in his function, the Rock which gives stability to the structure of the Church (just as obedience to Christ’s teaching is the rock on which the Christian moral life is built), and whereas Adam’s race can survive Adam’s death, the structure will collapse if at any time the underlying rock is removed. I need hardly add that Salmon’s interpretation must break down still more obviously if it is sought to apply it to the promise of the keys of the Kingdom of Heaven.

But though Salmon’s explanation of Matt 16:18 seems quite untenable, the question whether Christ intended Peter to have a successor in his special functions remains to be considered on its own merits. Here it is to be remarked that there may be an aspect of these functions which was to be handed on, and another aspect that was incommunicable. There is an analogous distinction in the relationship of the episcopate to the Apostles. It is the teaching of the Church that the bishops inherit their office from the Apostles. Yet apostleship, in certain important aspects, was incommunicable. To have “seen the Lord” and to have received a commission immediately from him were essential to being an “Apostle of Christ” (Acts 1:20ff; Matt 10:2ff; 1 Cor 9:1; Rom 1:1; etc); and these privileges were incommunicable. But a mediated commission from Christ could be received by others from the Apostles, and this, we believe, is the origin of the episcopal authority. Similarly, Peter — not unlike Abraham the “father of faith” (cf. Isaiah 51:1-2) before him — had the unique and incommunicable privilege of being the first to have confessed Jesus as “Christ, the son of the living God”; but in another aspect his rocklike function may have been intended to have its abiding place in the Church — by transmission — as the Law of Moses had its abiding function in the Old Dispensation.

I assume that, as Christians, we believe that Christ intended his Church to continue to function as such till the end of history (“Lo, I am with you all the days even until the consummation of the age” — Matthew 28:20). We have, then, simply to ask: is it credible that Jesus gave to this Church a structure, an anatomy, which was to survive only for one generation? If the apostolic age of the Church required the guidance and governance of “hierarchy,” is it conceivable that the need would grow less as new generations were born and died?

And in particular, if the Kingdom required a Grand Vizier, the sheep a shepherd, in the few years following the Ascension, is it conceivable that this was regarded by Christ as a purely transitional requirement? If in the great “eschatological” discourse of Matthew 24 and 25, the prophetic gaze of Christ is directed over a remote vista of the future course of the Church in the world, was that Church to face wars and rumour of wars, persecution, treachery, and the “growing cold” of love, with no “vicar” of Christ such as himself provided for its triumphant beginnings? And to those who value the episcopacy but do not accept the Papacy, we may legitimately put the question: Why should the “college” of the ruling Twelve be perpetuated in bishops if the presidency of the college is not perpetuated in the successor of Peter?

It will be objected that at least there is no positive evidence in the New Testament of such an intention on the part of Christ. I suggest, in reply, that this is to misunderstand what Christ did when he not only “built” but gave authority to his Church. It is not only the ministry, but the Church, which we confess to be “apostolic” (“one, holy, catholic and apostolic”). Now apostleship connotes possession of transmitted authority — as an ambassador re-presents the authority of his sovereign. And the New Testament shows us the gift of this authority by Christ:

All authority hath been given [by my heavenly Father] unto me in heaven and on earth. Go ye therefore, and make disciples of all the nations…” (Matt 28:18-19); “As the Father hath sent me, even so send I you.” (John 20:21); “He that receiveth you, receiveth me; and he that receiveth me receiveth him that sent me. (Matt 10:40)

How had the Father sent Christ? He had sent him, as Christ’s words prove, with transmissible authority. If, then, Christ “sent” his Apostles as his Father had sent him, he sent them with an authority similarly transmissible. He empowered the infant Church to prolong its own life, and we must reasonably assume that he empowered it to perpetuate, or himself perpetuated in it, the features which his own action showed that he deemed necessary to it.

At the end of this wearisome investigation of the “Petrine texts,” let us return to the point at which this chapter started. The astonishing thing about the religion inaugurated by the humble Carpenter of Nazareth, the victim, as he might seem, of an enthusiasm little to the taste of those who held power in the Judaism of his day, is that this religion has survived, not as a mere flavouring in the hotch-potch of man’s inheritance from the distant past, as Stoicism may be said to survive in a vague kind of way in our European moral outlook, but as a recognisable and distinct entity, in the world, challenging the world, riding the storms of the breakdown of cultures, and still the one hope of a world which needs religion but cannot invent a religion by itself. That it has thus survived is due, humanly speaking, to the fact that that religion has from the first been a polity, a society, possessing a centre — as human associations must — which, since the death of St. Peter, has in fact been at Rome. The society is still with us; Rome is still its centre; and again we ask ourselves, is it not by the positive will of Providence that Rome’s centrality claims to be the fulfilment of the promise and commission to “Simon, Bar-jonas” ?

Additional Note[s]

It has been suggested that one of the factors leading in patristic times to a diversity of interpretation of the “Thou art Peter” saying, is that in Greek and Latin the name Peter has a masculine termination, while the word for rock (petra) has a feminine one. (The New Testament [e.g. Paul’s epistles] shows that almost certainly the name given to “Simon Bar-jonas” by Christ was Kepha. In Aramaic, the language in which Christ will have uttered the famous promise, it would run: “Thou art Kepha, and upon this Kepha will I build my Church.” It is hardly disputed among scholars today that Petros (the Greek for Peter) is meant not to distinguish Peter from petra (the rock) but to identify him with it.

The Apostles are foundation stones of the Church (cf. 1 Peter 2:4-5; Eph 2:19-20; Rev 21:14); Peter is the Rock on which these foundation-stones are laid.

Professor Cullmann on St. Peter. The eminent Lutheran scholar, Dr. Oscar Cullmann, has recently (1952) published an important work: Saint Pierre, Disciple, Apotre, Martyr (Delachaux et Niestle, Neuchatel). In it he maintains that the promises to Peter in Matthew 16 are an authentic part of that Gospel. He interprets the promise of the keys as a promise that Peter will be Christ’s commissioned manager (intendant) of the Church, and points out that the power of “binding and loosing” given to all the Apostles at a later point in this Gospel, is given to Peter in a special way. Similarly, the purport of the Johannine text “Feed my sheep” is, in his opinion, that Peter is to be the shepherd of the one flock of Christ. And he points out that Peter was in fact (and, he maintains, in consequence of Christ’s commission) the head of the Church of Jerusalem at a time when that Church was the whole Church. He thinks it probable that Peter died at Rome as a martyr in the Neronian persecution. But he argues that in the latter part of his life Peter put himself, as head of the Jewish Christian mission, under the leadership of St. James of Jerusalem. And he entirely denies that Peter’s primacy, though established by Christ, has been inherited exclusively by the Bishops of Rome. Peter was the Rock of the Church’s foundation, but none other has been, or could be, Rock in that sense.

Dr. Cullmann’s position seems to be one of “arrested development.” He fails to go all the way with Catholic thought and belief because (in consequence of certain views of his own on the character of New Testament “time,” but yet surely rather unreasonably) he denies to the post-apostolic Church’s authority that power of representing Christ which he acknowledges in the Church’s two great sacraments. He also parts company with Catholicism because he does not see that the Church is by nature an association and therefore incapable of existing in separate parts; he thus finds it possible to view the development of the Papacy as something to which the “Church” as a whole is not fully and finally committed.

But his book represents an important and promising approximation to the Catholic position.

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Go to Part 4

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Photo credit: book cover of Butler’s The Church and Infallibility, from its Amazon page.
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Summary: Bishop B. C. Butler critiqued the anti-infallibility arguments & rampant misrepresentations & quotes out of context, of anti-Catholic George Salmon, in 1954.

2023-04-20T10:09:23-04:00

Thus far, in my articles and my 2023 book, The Word Set in Stone: How Archaeology, Science, and History Back Up the Bible, I have documented archaeological confirmation — of one sort or another — for kings of the United Monarchy (Saul, David, and Solomon), and kings in the period of the divided kingdom of (southern) Judah (931-586 B.C.) and (northern) Israel (931-722 B.C.). These include Hezekiah, Ahaz, Jotham, Pekah, Jehoiachin, Zedekiah, Jehoiakim, Manasseh, Rehoboam, Ahaziah of Judah, Jehoram I of Israel, and Ahab (with Queen Jezebel).

That’s already fifteen kings out of a total of 23 kings in Judah, and 19 kings in northern Israel (= 42 total). Now I shall document the same sort of evidence for ten more kings, which means that I now have extrabiblical documentation for 25 out of 42 kings (60%). It all adds up to the Bible being relentlessly historically accurate.

2 Chronicles 26:1, 3 (RSV) And all the people of Judah took Uzziah, who was sixteen years old, and made him king instead of his father Amazi’ah. . . . Uzziah was sixteen years old when he began to reign, and he reigned fifty-two years in Jerusalem.

Uzziah, king of Judah (aka Azariah in 1 Kings 15:1-7), according to Encyclopedia Britannica reigned from 791-739 B.C. (1) Bryan Windle (2) details some of the evidence for his historicity:

Two seals which once belonged to officials in his court mention him by name.  One reads, “belonging to Abiyau, servant of Uzziah.” (3)  . . . The second seal is made of red limestone and reads, “Belonging to Sebnayau, servant of Uzziah.” (4) . . . Based on the shapes of the letters and the styles of the seals, both date to the time of King Uzziah.

Windle continues,

A fragmentary inscription from the Assyrian king, Tiglath-Pileser III mentions “Azariah of Judah” (Uzziah’s other name) several times.  In one part, Tiglath-Pileser writes: “19 districts of Hamath, together with the cities of their environs, on the shore of the sea of the setting sun, who had gone over to Azariah in revolt and contempt [of Assyria].” (5) While this event is not known in Scripture, it would be consistent with Uzziah’s influence as he expanded his control in the region . . . (6)

Encyclopedia Britannica (7) dates the reign of Tiglath-Pileser III to 745-727 B.C., which overlaps that of Uzziah by some six years.

Uzziah was a prolific builder:

2 Chronicles 26:6, 9-10 . . . he built cities in the territory of Ashdod and elsewhere among the Philistines. . . . Moreover Uzziah built towers in Jerusalem at the Corner Gate and at the Valley Gate and at the Angle, and fortified them. And he built towers in the wilderness, and hewed out many cisterns, . . .

A fortress dated to Uzziah’s time-period has been discovered by archaeologists at Ain el-Qudeirat (or Kadesh Barnea). It had eight rectangular towers and a large cistern. (8) Archaeologists Negev and Gibson wrote about it:

A completely new fortress was built in the 8th century BC (Stratum II) . . . [with] three projecting towers on each side. . . . This fortress was probably erected by Uzziah . . . Its destruction is ascribed to the Assyrians. (9)

Moreover, Stratum III at Lachish, from Uzziah’s time, “was strongly fortified and surrounded by a double wall . . . further strengthened by buttresses and towers . . . a formidable shaft measuring 75 feet by 75 feet by 66 feet . . . was probably intended to provide the city with a safe water supply . . .” (10)

Beth Shemesh (Stratum II), has been dated to the 9th-7th centuries B.C., and among the many finds there included “a large plastered water reservoir.” (11)

Manasseh, king of Judah, reigned from c. 686-642 B.C. (12) The Bible states that he reigned fifty-five years (2 Kings 21:1), but this likely includes eleven years of co-regency with his father, Hezekiah. (13) A seal has been discovered that may be one that Manasseh used during his co-regency with his father.  In a book about such seals, Nahman Avigad concluded,

a thorough microscopic examination of the stone revealed that the engraving does not give the impression of being recent. Moreover, the script, showing a fluent classic Hebrew hand, appears to be authentic in form and spirit. (14)

Bryan Windle adds,

Interestingly, it bears the same iconography – the Egyptian winged scarab – as that of numerous seals attributed to King Hezekiah.  While some may be surprised to see an Egyptian symbol on a Hebrew king’s seal, it must be noted that Hezekiah established an alliance with Egypt against the Assyrians (2 Ki 18:21; Isaiah 36:6). (15)

In the annals of Assyrian king Esarhaddon (r. 680-669 B.C.) (16), Manasseh was named as a mere vassal, conscripted to deliver wood for the construction of Esarhaddon’s palace. (17) Windle continues,

Esarhaddon’s son and successor, Ashurbanipal, also mentions “Manasseh, King of Judah” in his annals, which are recorded on the Rassam Cylinder, named after Hormuzd Rassam, who discovered it in the North Palace of Nineveh in 1854.  This ten-faced, cuneiform cylinder includes a record of Ashurbanipal’s campaigns against Egypt and the Levant. (18)

This cylinder states in part,

During my march (to Egypt) 22 kings from the seashore, the islands and the mainland, Ba’al, king of Tyre, Manasseh (Mi-in-si-e), king of Judah (la-ti-di)…[etc.]…servants who belong to me, brought heavy gifts (tdmartu) to me and kissed my feet. (19)

The dates of reign for Ashurbanipal are 668-627 B.C. (20), so we see that 26 of those years are contemporaneous with Mannaseh.

2 Kings 14:23 In the fifteenth year of Amaziah the son of Joash, king of Judah, Jeroboam the son of Joash, king of Israel, began to reign in Samaria, and he reigned forty-one years.

Jeroboam II ruled from c. 791-c. 750 in Israel (21). Bryan Windle (22) summarizes a key evidence for his historicity,

The “Megiddo Seal,” as it called, was discovered in excavations at Megiddo in the early 1900’s.  The seal was made of jasper, and depicted a crouching lion, along with the inscription, “(belonging) to Shema, Servant of Jeroboam.” (23)

Archaeologist Kenneth A. Kitchen observes,

The famous seal of ‘Shema servant [=minister of state] of Jeroboam’ is almost universally recognized to belong to the reign of Jeroboam II of Israel . . . attempts to date it to Jeroboam I’s reign are unconvincing. (24)

In 2020, archaeologist Yuval Goren of Ben-Gurion University claimed to have proven the authenticity of a bulla (clay seal impression) bearing the image of a roaring lion and a paleo-Hebrew inscription, “(Belonging) to Shema, Servant of Jeroboam.” (25)

2 Kings 17:6 In the ninth year of Hoshea the king of Assyria captured Samaria, and he carried the Israelites away to Assyria, . . .

Hoshea was the final king of Israel, and reigned from 731-722 B.C. (26) Windle (27) noted,

An ancient seal, bearing the paleo-Hebrew inscription, “Belonging to Abdi, servant of Hoshea” was purchased at a Sotheby’s auction in 1993 for $80,000. . . . At the bottom is an Egyptian winged sun disk, an image that is common on prominent Hebrew seals, such as that of King Hezekiah. In ancient seals, the servant’s title, ’ebed, indicates that the master was a king, (28) . . . Moreover, epigrapher André Lemaire notes, “The paleo-Hebrew writing on this seal fits very well with other dated inscriptions from the last third of the eighth century B.C.E.” (29) Even though the seal was purchased on the antiquities market, most experts support its authenticity.

2 Kings 15:29-30 In the days of Pekah king of Israel Tiglath-pileser king of Assyria came and captured Ijon, Abel-beth-maacah, Jan-oah, Kedesh, Hazor, Gilead, and Galilee, all the land of Naphtali; and he carried the people captive to Assyria. Then Hoshea the son of Elah made a conspiracy against Pekah the son of Remaliah, and struck him down, and slew him, and reigned in his stead, in the twentieth year of Jotham the son of Uzziah.

Along these same lines, Hoshea appears in the royal inscriptions of the Assyrian king, Tiglath-Pileser III (r. 745-727).  Summary Inscription No. 4 reads:

The land of Bit-Humria [literally Omri-Land, that is Israel]…all of its people […to] Assyria I carried off Pekah, their king, [I/they ki]lled…and Hoshea [as king] I appointed over them. (30)

2 Kings 17:3, 5-6 Against him came up Shalmaneser king of Assyria; and Hoshea became his vassal, and paid him tribute. . . . Then the king of Assyria invaded all the land and came to Samaria, and for three years he besieged it. In the ninth year of Hoshea the king of Assyria captured Samaria, and he carried the Israelites away to Assyria, . . .

This biblical account of the fall of the northern kingdom of Israel is corroborated by the Babylonian Chronicle ABC 1 (BM 92502) which states, “On the twenty-fifth of the month Tebêtu, Šalmaneser in Assyria and Akkad ascended the throne. He ravaged Samaria.” (31) Shalmaneser V reigned from 726-721 B.C. (32)

1 Kings 16:23 In the thirty-first year of Asa king of Judah, Omri began to reign over Israel, and reigned for twelve years; . . .

Omri was king of Israel from 886/885-875/874. (33) He is referred to several times in the Mesha Stele (34) (or Moabite Stone), dated to 840 B.C., in which King Mesha of Moab describes his exploits. He’s also mentioned on the Black Obelisk of Assyrian king Shalmaneser III (r. 858-824 B.C.) (35) Even a hundred years after Omri’s reign, Israel was referred to by Assyrian kings as “Omri-land”: by Tiglath-Pileser III (r. 745-727 B.C.) in his Annalistic Records (36) and by Sargon II (37) (r. 721-705) (38).

2 Kings 10:36 The time that Jehu reigned over Israel in Samaria was twenty-eight years.

Jehu reigned over Israel in the general period of c. 842-815 B.C. (39) or 841-814/813 (40). Bryan Windle (41) sums up the archaeological evidence supporting the biblical record with regard to this king:

Jehu’s reign corresponded with that of Shalmaneser III [r. 858-824 B.C.], . . . One of the longest versions of Shalmaneser III’s annals . . . records the various campaigns he took through the first 21 years of his reign. (42)  In his 18th year, Shalmaneser . . . wrote, “I received tribute from Ba’ali-manzeri of Tyre and from Jehu of the house of Omri.” (43) Other copies of Shalmaneser’s annals have been discovered with the same description of Jehu’s tribute.  These include inscriptions on two monumental bulls discovered at Nimrud (ancient Calah), (44) in an annalistic tablet, (45) as well as on the Kurba’il statue of Shalmaneser III. (46) . . .

It should be noted that, in Assyrian records, Jehu is often associated with the “house of Omri” or described as the “son of Omri.”  Jehu was not a descendant of Omri; rather he was the successor to the Omride dynasty.  The Assyrians often referred to successive rulers in relation to the name of the ruler of the country with whom they had first contact. (47)

2 Kings 13:10 In the thirty-seventh year of Joash king of Judah Jehoash the son of Jehoahaz began to reign over Israel in Samaria, and he reigned sixteen years.

Jehoash II, Or Joash (2 Chron. 25:17), was king of Israel from 806/805-791/790. (48) Bryan Windle describes the primary extrabiblical evidence in his case (49):

Shortly after Jehoash began to reign, the Assyrian king, Adad-Nirari III [r. 810-783 B.C.] (50) invaded the western lands. A victory stele (monument) was discovered in 1967 during excavations at Tell al-Rimah which contains a record of Adad-Nirari III’s campaign. While its date is unknown, many scholars associate it with Adad-Narari III’s expedition westward in 796 BC. (51) It reads:

. . . I received the tribute of Jehoash the Samarian, of the Tyrian ruler and of the Sidonian ruler. (52)

2 Kings 15:17, 19 In the thirty-ninth year of Azariah king of Judah Menahem the son of Gadi began to reign over Israel, and he reigned ten years in Samaria. . . . Pul the king of Assyria came against the land; and Menahem gave Pul a thousand talents of silver, that he might help him to confirm his hold of the royal power.

Menahem reigned in Israel from 749/748-739/738 (53). Assyrian king Tiglath-Pileser III (r. 745-727 B.C.) invaded Samaria in 743 B.C. and boasted, “As for Menahem I overwhelmed him like a snowstorm and he . . . fled like a bird, alone, and bowed to my feet. I returned him to his place and imposed tribute upon him: gold, silver, linen garments with multicolored trimmings…” (54) In another inscription, “Menahem of Samaria” is named — with sixteen other kings — as having paid tribute to Tiglath-Pileser III. (55).

2 Kings 22:1 Josiah was eight years old when he began to reign, and he reigned thirty-one years in Jerusalem. . . .

Josiah was king of Judah from c. 640-609 (56). Kitchen writes,

Ostracon Mousaieff 1, . . . required payment of three shekels of silver to “the House [= temple] of the LORD [YHWH] “in the name of ‘Ashiah/’Oshiah the king, via a man [Z]echariah. The script is either eighth . . .. or seventh century . . . In the former case, ‘Ashiah/’Oshiah is a variant of Joash, king of Judah; in the latter case, of Josiah, which is the latest date possible. In Josiah’s time a Levite named Zechariah was concerned with repairs to the Jerusalem temple (cf. 2 Chron. 34:12), . . . (57)

Sure enough, after Kitchen wrote the above (in 2003), further evidence of King Josiah has surfaced. A signet ring was discovered in the ancient City of David in Jerusalem which features the name of one of King Josiah’s officials, Nathan-melech, a “chamberlain” named in 2 Kings 23:11. The inscription of the ring says, “belonging to Nathan-Melech, Servant of the King” (58). Sixteen years’ time in biblical archaeology is more than enough for all kinds of new exciting discoveries to be made. They literally arrive every few months. This find is a classic case, and not in the least surprising. Also, a seal with the text “Asayahu servant of the king” probably belonged to “Asaiah the king’s servant” (2 Kings 22:12). (59)

2 Kings 8:16-17 In the fifth year of Joram the son of Ahab, king of Israel, Jehoram the son of Jehoshaphat, king of Judah, began to reign. He was thirty-two years old when he became king, and he reigned eight years in Jerusalem.

Jehoram II reigned in Judah from 849/848-842. (60) He is mentioned on the Tel Dan stele (61), a Canaanite artifact discovered in 1993 — most notable for its reference to the “House of David.” The prevailing opinion as to its date is the second half of the ninth century B.C.: precisely when Jehoram II reigned. He’s referred to as the father of Ahaziah of Judah (see 2 Kings 8:24-25).

Kenneth Kitchen explains the absence in extrabiblical sources of most of the rest of the kings of Judah and Israel, and the overall extraordinary accuracy of the biblical accounts:

Here the evidence began with Omri and Ahab, coming up to the mid-ninth century. Before that time, no Neo-Assyrian king is known to have penetrated the southwest Levant, to gain (or record) knowledge of any local king there. And it was not Egyptian custom to name foreign rulers unless they had some positive relationship with them (e.g., a treaty). Foes were treated with nameless contempt. . . .

But from 853 onward we do have some data. Some nine out of the fourteen Israelite kings are named in external sources. Of the five missing men, three were ephemeral (Zechariah, Shallum, Pekahiah) and two reigned (Jehoahaz, Jeoboam II) when Assyria was not active in the southwest Levant. And one of these (Jeroboam II) is in any case known from a subject’s seal stone. Judah was father away than Israel, so the head count is smaller: from Jehoram I to Zedekiah we have currently mention of eight kings out of fifteen. Of the seven absentees, Uzziah . . . is known from his subjects’ seals. Amaziah reigned during Assyrian absence from the southwest Levant; Jotham . . . is known from a bulla of Ahaz. Amon and Jeho-ahaz were ephemeral, while Josiah reigned during the Assyrian decline, without documentation by them of Levantine kings. But seal impressions and possibly an ostracon come from his time. . . .

The time-line order of foreign rulers in 1-2 Kings, etc. is impeccably accurate, as is the order of the Hebrew rulers, as attested by the external sources. (62)

The basic presentation of almost 350 years of the story of the Hebrew twin kingdoms comes out under factual examination as a highly reliable one, with mention of own and foreign rulers who were real, in the right order, at the right date, and sharing a common history that usually dovetails together well, when both Hebrew and external sources are available.  Therefore we have no valid reason to cast gratuitous doubt on other episodes where comparable external data are currently lacking . . . (63)

This concludes our survey. As I already mentioned, I’ve now presented extrabiblical documentation for 25 out of 42 kings of Judah and Israel (60%). As Dr. Kitchen mentioned in the preceding citation, five of the remaining kings were “ephemeral” (i.e., ruled for a very short time). If we don’t include them, it’s 25 out of 37, or 68%. Plausible, feasible explanations for most or all of the remaining dozen not being mentioned are provided by Kitchen as well. The Bible, in this historical respect, as in many others, is, as Dr. Kitchen asserted, “impeccably accurate” and “highly reliable.”

FOOTNOTES

1) “Uzziah,” Encyclopedia Britannica. https://www.britannica.com/biography/Uzziah.

2) Bryan Windle, “King Uzziah: An Archaeological Biography,” Bible Archaeology Report, August 7, 2020. https://biblearchaeologyreport.com/2020/08/07/king-uzziah-an-archaeological-biography/.

3) Amahai Mazar, Archaeology of the Land of the Bible (London: Yale University Press, 1990), 519.

4) Clyde E. Fant and Mitchell G. Reddish, Lost Treasures of the Bible. (Grand Rapids: William B. Eerdmans Publishing Company, 2008), 143.

5) D. D. Luckenbill. “Azariah of Judah.” American Journal of The Semitic Languages and Literatures. Vol. 41, No. 4 (July 1925), 220.

6) Windle, ibid.

7) Donald John Wiseman, “Tiglath-pileser III,” Encyclopedia Britannica. https://www.britannica.com/biography/Tiglath-pileser-III.

8) Catherine L. McDowell, study note on 2 Chronicles 26:10, in ESV Archaeology Study Bible (ed. John Currid and David Chapman; Wheaton: Crossway, 2018), 632.

9) Avraham Negev & Shimon Gibson, eds., Archaeological Encyclopedia of the Holy Land (New York: Continuum, revised ed., 2003), “Kadesh Barnea,” 277.

10) Negev & Gibson, “Lachish,” 289.

11) Ibid., “Beth Shemesh . . .,” 88.

12) “Manasseh,” Encyclopedia Britannica. https://www.britannica.com/biography/Manasseh-king-of-Judah.

13) Ewin R. Thiele, The Mysterious Numbers of the Hebrew Kings, (Grand Rapids: Zondervan Publishing House, 1983), 174-176.

14) Nahman Avigad and Benjamin Sass, Corpus of West Semitic Stamp Seals (Jerusalem: The Israel Academy of Sciences and Humanities, Israel Exploration Society, and The Hebrew University of Jerusalem, The Institute of Archaeology, 1997), 55.

15) Bryan Windle, “King Manasseh: An Archaeological Biography,” Bible Archaeology Report, February 12, 2021. https://biblearchaeologyreport.com/2021/02/12/king-manasseh-an-archaeological-biography/.

16) “Esarhaddon,” Encyclopedia Britannica. https://www.britannica.com/biography/Esarhaddon.

17) James B. Pritchard, Ancient Near Eastern Texts Relating to the Old Testament (New Jersey: Princeton University Press, 1969), 291.

18) Windle, “King Manasseh . . .”

19) Pritchard, 294.

20) Donald John Wiseman, “Ashurbanipal,” Encyclopedia Britannica. https://www.britannica.com/biography/Ashurbanipal.

21) Kenneth A. Kitchen, On the Reliability of the Old Testament (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing Co., 2003), 31.

22) Bryan Windle, “King Jeroboam II: An Archaeological Biography,” Bible Archaeology Report, March 4, 2021. https://biblearchaeologyreport.com/2021/03/04/king-jeroboam-ii-an-archaeological-biography/.

23) David G. Hansen, “Megiddo, the Place of Battles,” Bible and Spade Vol. 23, No. 2 (Spring 2010).  https://biblearchaeology.org/research/chronological-categories/conquest-of-canaan/3084-megiddo-the-place-of-battles.

24) Kitchen, 19.

25) Amanda Borschel-Dan, “2,700 years ago, tiny clay piece sealed deal for Bible’s King Jeroboam II,” Times of Israel, December 10, 2020. https://www.timesofisrael.com/2700-years-ago-tiny-clay-piece-sealed-deal-for-bibles-king-jeroboam-ii/.

26) Kitchen, 31.

27) Bryan Windle, “King Hoshea: An Archaeological Biography,” Bible Archaeology Report, October 8, 2021. https://biblearchaeologyreport.com/2021/10/08/king-hoshea-an-archaeological-biography/.

28) Lawrence J. Mykytiuk, Identifying Biblical Persons in Northwest Semitic Inscriptions of 1200-539 B.C.E. (Boston: Brill, 2004), 65.

29) André Lemaire, “Royal Signature: Name of Israel’s Last King Surfaces in a Private Collection,” Biblical Archaeology Review 21:6, (November/December 1995), 51.

30) Mordecai Cogan, The Raging Torrent: Historical Inscriptions from Assyria and Babylonia Relating to Ancient Israel (Jerusalem: Carta, 2015), 73.

31) A. K. Grayson, Assyrian and Babylonian Chronicles (Locust Valley: J.J. Augustin Publisher, 1975), 73. https://www.livius.org/sources/content/mesopotamian-chronicles-content/abc-1-from-nabu-nasir-to-samas-suma-ukin/.

32) “Shalmaneser V,” Encyclopedia Britannica. https://www.britannica.com/biography/Shalmaneser-V.

33) Kitchen, 30.

34) “Mesha Stele,” New World Encyclopedia. https://www.newworldencyclopedia.org/entry/Mesha_Stele.

35) “Shalmaneser III,” Encyclopedia Britannica. https://www.britannica.com/biography/Shalmaneser-III.

36) A. Leo Oppenheim, “Babylonian and Assyrian Historical Texts,” in Ancient Near Easter Texts Relating to the Old Testament, ed. James B. Pritchard (New Jersey: Princeton University Press, 1969), 284.

37) Jorgen Laessoe, “Sargon II,” Encyclopedia Britannica. https://www.britannica.com/biography/Sargon-II.

38) Oppenheim, ibid., 285.

39) “Jehu,” Encyclopedia Britannica. https://www.britannica.com/biography/Jehu.

40) Kitchen, 30.

41) Bryan Windle, “King Jehu: An Archaeological Biography,” Bible Archaeology Report, October 9, 2020. https://biblearchaeologyreport.com/2020/10/09/king-jehu-an-archaeological-biography/.

42) Albert Kirk Grayson,  Assyrian Rulers of the Early First Millennium BC: II (858-745 BC) (Toronto: University of Toronto Press, 1996), 50.

43) Ibid., 54.

44) Ibid., 48.

45) Pritchard, 280.

46) Grayson, 60.

47) Randall Price and H. Wayne House, Zondervan Handbook of Biblical Archaeology (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Zondervan, 2017), 135.

48) Kitchen, 31.

49) Bryan Windle, “King Jehoash: An Archaeological Biography,” Bible Archaeology Report, August 13, 2021. https://biblearchaeologyreport.com/2021/08/13/king-jehoash-an-archaeological-biography/.

50) “Sammu-ramat,” Encyclopedia Britannica. https://www.britannica.com/topic/Sammu-ramat#ref258856.

51) Linda S. Schearing, “Joash,” in D. N. Freedman, ed., The Anchor Bible Dictionary (New York: Doubleday, 1992), 4473.

52) “The Tell al-Rimah Stela,” Livius.org, July 10, 2020. https://www.livius.org/sources/content/anet/cos-2.114f-the-tell-al-rimah-stela/.

53) Kitchen, 31.

54) Pritchard, 284.

55) Mordecai Cogan, The Raging Torrent: Historical Inscriptions from Assyria and Babylonia Relating to Ancient Israel (Jerusalem: Carta, 2015), 59.

56) “Josiah,” Encyclopedia Britannica. https://www.britannica.com/biography/Josiah.

57) Kitchen, 20.

58) Amanda Borschel-Dan, “Tiny First Temple find could be first proof of aide to biblical King Josiah,” The Times of Israel, March 31, 2019. https://www.timesofisrael.com/two-tiny-first-temple-inscriptions-vastly-enlarge-picture-of-ancient-jerusalem/.

59) Michael Heltzer, The Seal of Asahayu, in William H. Hallo, The Context of Scripture (Brill, 2000), Vol. II, 204.

60) Kitchen, 30.

61) Kitchen, 17-18.

62) Kitchen, 62-63.

63) Kitchen, 64.

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Photo credit: King Uzziah Stricken by Leprosy (c. 1639), by Rembrandt (1606-1669) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]
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Summary: I provide extrabiblical documentation for ten kings of Judah & Israel, adding to my 15 previous similar efforts, for a total of 25 out of 42, or 60% “outside” verification.
2023-04-17T13:36:06-04:00

Bryan Windle states,

Sennacherib is mentioned by name 16 times in Scripture, more than any other Assyrian ruler.  From a biblical perspective, he is most famous for his invasion of Judah in 701 BC and his siege against King Hezekiah and Jerusalem (2 Ki 18-19; 2 Ch 32; Is 37). (1)

He reigned as king from 705/704 to 681 B.C. (2). As to the dates of reign of King Hezekiah of Judah, Encyclopedia Britannica observes, “The dates of his reign are often given as about 715 to about 686 BC, . . .” (3). Archaeologist and Egyptologist Kenneth A. Kitchen concurs with Hezekiah’s dates. (4) 2 Kings 18:2 (RSV) informs us that “he reigned twenty-nine years in Jerusalem.” Thus, we have a strong correspondence in the time of reigns between the two kings, which already backs up the biblical account.

2 Kings 18:13-15, 17 In the fourteenth year of King Hezekiah Sennacherib king of Assyria came up against all the fortified cities of Judah and took them. And Hezekiah king of Judah sent to the king of Assyria at Lachish, saying, “I have done wrong; withdraw from me; whatever you impose on me I will bear.” And the king of Assyria required of Hezekiah king of Judah three hundred talents of silver and thirty talents of gold. And Hezekiah gave him all the silver that was found in the house of the LORD, and in the treasuries of the king’s house. . . . And the king of Assyria sent the Tartan, the Rabsaris, and the Rabshakeh with a great army from Lachish to King Hezekiah at Jerusalem. And they went up and came to Jerusalem. When they arrived, they came and stood by the conduit of the upper pool, which is on the highway to the Fuller’s Field.

Scripture also states that Sennacherib failed to conquer Jerusalem (2 Kings 18:28-35) during his military exploits of 701 B.C. Sennacherib in his annals provides information that corroborates the biblical account,

As for Hezekiah, the Jew, who did not submit to my yoke, 46 of his strong cities, as well as the small cities in their neighborhood, which were without number – by levelling with battering-rams (?) and by bringing up siege-engines (?), I besieged and took (those cities).  . . . Himself, like a caged bird I shut up in Jerusalem his royal city….In addition to the 30 talents of gold and 800 talents of silver (there were), gems, cosmetics (?), jewels (?), large sandu-stones, couches of ivory, house chairs of ivory, elephant hide, ivory (lit. elephant’s teeth), ushu-wood, ukarinnu-wood, all kinds of valuable (heavy) treasures, . . . (5)

The similarities of the accounts of taking the fortified cities is striking, as is the exact amount of gold given by Hezekiah to Sennacherib as tribute. The much larger amount of silver in the Assyrian chronicle might very well be paralleled in the biblical description: “Hezekiah gave him all the silver that was found in the house of the LORD, and in the treasuries of the king’s house.” Ultimately, Sennacherib doesn’t record that he took Jerusalem, and this lines up with the Bible and a prophecy from the prophet Isaiah (2 Kings 19:20) to Hezekiah,

2 Kings 19:32-34 “Therefore thus says the LORD concerning the king of Assyria, He shall not come into this city or shoot an arrow there, or come before it with a shield or cast up a siege mound against it. By the way that he came, by the same he shall return, and he shall not come into this city, says the LORD. For I will defend this city to save it, for my own sake and for the sake of my servant David.”

Sennacherib’s death is also similarly detailed in biblical and Assyrian records,

2 Kings 19:37 And as he was worshiping in the house of Nisroch his god, Adrammelech and Sharezer, his sons, slew him with the sword, and escaped into the land of Ararat. And Esarhaddon his son reigned in his stead. (cf. Isa. 37:38)

Esarhaddon refers to his father’s murder, committed by his brothers:

My brothers went mad and whatever was wicked against gods and men they did, and plotted evil:  they drew the sword in the midst of Nineveh godlessly: to exercise the kingship against each other they rushed like young steers. (6) . . . those rebels, the ones engaged in revolt and rebellion, when they heard of the advance of my campaign, they deserted the army they relied on and fled to an unknown land. (7)

Kitchen adds fascinating details,

The biblical Adrammelek is a form of Arda-mulissi (the name of Sennacherib’s murderous eldest son in contemporary documents) . . . (8)

Sennacherib in his annals gets theological: “In my 7th campaign, (the god) Ashur my Lord supported me . . . against Elam . . .” . . . The ancient writer’s theological beliefs ibn each case have nothing to do with the reality of the events — only with the imputed cause behind the events. So we can no more dismiss 2 Kings 18-19 (even if we believe in neither YHWH nor his angel of death) than the annals of Sennacherib (even though nobody today believes in Ashur!), backed up as they are by the nontheological precis in the Babylonian Chronicle.

In short, the Hebrew narratives in Kings and Chronicles should be treated as impartially and fairly as most properly knowledgeable Assyriologists, Hittitologists, and Egyptologists normally treat the firsthand and fully comparable ancient documents in their domain. Hypercriticism of the Hebrew data is wrong in attitude, methods, and results alike. (9)

Additionally, Assyrian records note Sennacherib’s siege of Lachish,

The siege and capture of Lachish . . . is the centerpiece to a splendid set of scenes showing the Assyrian forces attacking, then actively pressing their siege to break into Lachish, capture the town, and lead out captives. . . . The mound of Tell ed-Duweir . . . revealed the battered bulk of the Assyrian siege ramp (as shown on the reliefs) up to the walls, plus a Hebrew counterramp within the walls. The city, destroyed by the Assyrians, is Lachish level III archaeologically. (10)

This lines up (as always!) with the biblical mention of the same siege:

2 Chronicles 32:9 . . . Sennach’erib king of Assyria, who was besieging Lachish with all his forces,  . . .

2 Kings 19:32 (see above) indirectly refers to this siege ramp, in stating that Sennacherib would not (and in fact he did not) “cast up a siege mound against” Jerusalem, as he presumably did against other cities (Lachish being one).

Some, however, think that this siege was carried out by the Babylonian king Nebuchadnezzar, some 114 years later. Not so, according to an article in the Oxford Journal of Archaeology, in an article dated October 14, 2021. (11) This significant research article was reported on by The Times of Israel (12), The Jerusalem Post (13), and Haaretz (14).

FOOTNOTES

1) Bryan Windle, “Sennacherib: An Archaeological Biography,” Bible Archaeology Report, July 3, 2020. https://biblearchaeologyreport.com/2020/07/03/sennacherib-an-archaeological-biography/.

2) Henry W. F. Saggs, “Sennacherib,” in Encyclopedia Britannica. https://www.britannica.com/biography/Sennacherib.

3) “Hezekiah,” in Encyclopedia Britannica. https://www.britannica.com/biography/Hezekiah.

4) Kenneth A, Kitchen, On the Reliability of the Old Testament (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing Co., 2003), 31.

5) Daniel David Luckenbill, The Annals of Sennacherib (Chicago: The University of Chicago Press, 1924), 11-12.  https://oi.uchicago.edu/sites/oi.uchicago.edu/files/uploads/shared/docs/oip2.pdf.

6) “The Esarhaddon Prism,” The British Museum. https://www.britishmuseum.org/collection/object/W_1929-1012-1.

7) “Ninevah A,” The Royal Inscriptions of the Neo-Assyrian Period. http://oracc.museum.upenn.edu/rinap/corpus/.

8) Kitchen, 42.

9) Kitchen, 51.

10) Kitchen, 42.

11) Yosef GarfinkelJon W. CarrollMichael PytlikMadeleine Mumcuoglu, “Constructing the Assyrian Siege Ramp at Lachish: Texts, Iconography, Archaeology and Photogrammetry,” Oxford Journal of Archaeology Volume 40, Issue 4 (November 2021), 417-439. https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/abs/10.1111/ojoa.12231.

12) Michael Bachner, “How Lachish fell: Study reconstructs Assyrian onslaught almost 3,000 years ago,” The Times of Israel, November 9, 2021. https://www.timesofisrael.com/how-lachish-fell-study-reconstructs-assyrian-onslaught-almost-3000-years-ago/.

13) Rossella Tercatin, “Biblical warfare: How did the Assyrians conquer Judean Lachish?,” The Jerusalem Post, November 9, 2021. https://www.jpost.com/archaeology/biblical-warfare-how-did-the-assyrians-conquer-judean-lachish-684440.

14) Ariel David, “Archaeologists Reveal Secrets of Assyrian War Machine That Conquered Ancient Judah,” Haaretz, November 9, 2021. https://www.haaretz.com/israel-news/2021-11-09/ty-article/archaeologists-reveal-secrets-of-assyrian-war-machine-that-conquered-ancient-judah/0000017f-f57a-d318-afff-f77b80330000.

Related Reading

King Hezekiah: Exciting New Archaeological Findings [12-13-22]

***

Practical Matters: Perhaps some of my 4,200+ free online articles (the most comprehensive “one-stop” Catholic apologetics site) or fifty-one books have helped you (by God’s grace) to decide to become Catholic or to return to the Church, or better understand some doctrines and why we believe them.

Or you may believe my work is worthy to support for the purpose of apologetics and evangelism in general. If so, please seriously consider a much-needed financial contribution. I’m always in need of more funds: especially monthly support. “The laborer is worthy of his wages” (1 Tim 5:18, NKJV). 1 December 2021 was my 20th anniversary as a full-time Catholic apologist, and February 2022 marked the 25th anniversary of my blog.

PayPal donations are the easiest: just send to my email address: [email protected]. You’ll see the term “Catholic Used Book Service”, which is my old side-business. To learn about the different methods of contributing, including 100% tax deduction, etc., see my page: About Catholic Apologist Dave Armstrong / Donation InformationThanks a million from the bottom of my heart!

***

Photo credit: Timo Roller (5-5-15), Cast of a rock relief of Sennacherib from the foot of Cudi Dağı, near Cizre. The cast is exhibited in Landshut, Germany. [Wikimedia Commons / Creative Commons Attribution 3.0 Unported license]

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Summary: Overview of the convergence of biblical & archaeological data regarding Assyrian King Sennacherib (r. c. 705-681 B.C.), during the time of King Hezekiah of Judah.

2023-03-29T10:05:44-04:00

1 Samuel 27:1-3, 5-7 (RSV) And David said in his heart, “I shall now perish one day by the hand of Saul; there is nothing better for me than that I should escape to the land of the Philistines; then Saul will despair of seeking me any longer within the borders of Israel, and I shall escape out of his hand.” So David arose and went over, he and the six hundred men who were with him, to Achish the son of Maoch, king of Gath. And David dwelt with Achish at Gath, . . . Then David said to Achish, “If I have found favor in your eyes, let a place be given me in one of the country towns, that I may dwell there; for why should your servant dwell in the royal city with you?” So that day Achish gave him Ziklag; therefore Ziklag has belonged to the kings of Judah to this day. And the number of the days that David dwelt in the country of the Philistines was a year and four months.

1 Samuel 30:1, 3  Now when David and his men came to Ziklag on the third day, the Amalekites had made a raid upon the Negeb and upon Ziklag. They had overcome Ziklag, and burned it with fire, . . . And when David and his men came to the city, they found it burned with fire, . . .

An article in Israel Today: Archaeology, “Have Archeologists Found the Biblical City of Ziklag?,” by Tsvi Sadan (7-10-19) summarizes the recent discovery:

After four years of excavations, Israeli archaeologists Yosef Garfinkel of the Hebrew University and Saar Ganor of the Israel Antiquities Authority, along with Australian archaeologist Kyle Keimer of Sidney’s MacQuarie University, announced on Monday that Khirbet a-Ra’i, located between the modern city of Kiryat Gat and Lachish, is most likely the Philistine city of Ziklag, where David found refuge from king Saul (1 Sam. 27). . . .

Khirbet a-Ra’i yields both Philistine and Judean artifacts, which means that this site was both a Philistine and Judean city. That fits the biblical account, which says that this Philistine city was given to David, . . .

Other reasons for designating the site as Ziklag are the Philistine artifacts themselves, dated to the 12th-11th centuries BC, . . . Similar artifacts have been found in the Philistine cities of Ashdod, Ashkelon, Ekron and Gat[h]. . . .

Above the Philistine remains were found the remains of an agricultural settlement from the time of King David. Some of the nearly 100 intact clay vessels found at the site are identical to those found in Khirbet Qeiyafa, the biblical She’arayim. . . .

Furthering the claim that this is Ziklag is the clear evidence of a massive fire, which could confirm the biblical account of the Amalekites burning the city . . .

Yosef Garfinkel elaborates:

Twelve different suggestions to identify Ziklag have been put forward, such as Tel Halif near Kibbutz Lahav, Tel Sera in the Western Negev, Tel Sheva, and others. However, none of these sites produced continuous settlement which included both a Philistine settlement and a settlement from the era of King David. (in Enrico de Lazaro, “Archaeologists Locate Long-Lost Biblical City of Ziklag,” Science News, 7-25-19)

See a map of Ziklag’s location in Israel.

Yosef Garfinkel and Saar Ganor provide further confirming details:

If . . . we take into account the currently agreed location of Gath at Tell es-Safi, Ziklag should be located in a much more northerly location, . . . 

Ziklag is presented as a rather remote place in relation to the capital city of Gath. Hence, it should probably be located at the edge of the territory of Gath. Spatial analysis of the Philistine settlement pattern has indicated that these cities controlled an area of about half a day’s walk form the major city(Garfinkel 2007). Hence, Ziklag should be at a distance of no more than c. 15 km from Gath. Scholars who place Ziklag 30 or 40 km away from Gath do not present a realistic estimation of the territory of a Philistine city-state. . . . 

Although it seems likely that only epigraphic finds can confirm the identification of the site with Ziklag, in the current state of knowledge Khirbet al-Ra‘i is a much better candidate then any of the previous suggestions. The location of Khirbet Qeiyafa and Khirbet al-Ra‘i in similar geopolitical positions signifies the same strategic viewpoint. Khirbet al-Ra‘i sits on the border between Judah and Philistia on the western edge of the Shephelah and opposite the Philistine city of Ashkelon, controlling the road running through the Lachish Valley. Likewise, Khirbet Qeiyafa sits on the same border opposite the Philistine city of Gath (Tell es-Safi) and controls the road running through the Elah Valley. In the very late 11th and early 10th century BCE under King David, Judah was a small territory in Jerusalem and the hill country, with the border of the western Shephelah region being marked by Khirbet Qeiyafa and Khirbet al-Ra‘i. Even David’s lament for Saul and Jonathan (‘Tell it not in Gath, publish it not in the streets of Ashkelon’; 1 Sam 1:20) receives new meaning, as Khirbet Qeiyafa is located opposite Gath and Khirbet al-Ra‘i is located opposite Ashkelon. In this context, identifying Ziklag at Khirbet al-Ra‘i explains why it is mentioned extensively in the biblical traditions of King David. (“Was Khirbet al-Ra‘i Ancient Ziklag?,” Strata: Bulletin of the Anglo-Israeli Archaeological Society 2019, vol. 37: 51–59)
Archaeological verification of Ziklag: the place where King David sought refuge from the paranoid and jealous King Saul, indirectly gives us corroboration of the biblical text regarding the reign of Saul (c. 1037 – c. 1010 B.C.) and the reign of David, following (c. 1010 – c. 970 B.C.). As always, details in the Bible are historically accurate and verified by archaeology and historiography. The Bible records that the Amalekites burned Ziklag while Saul was still king, and that the Philistine King Achish gave the city to David. Accordingly, archaeology shows us that it was burned right at the time the Bible indicates, and that a new Hebrew settlement was built atop the ruins of the culturally and religiously different previous Philistine city.

***

Practical Matters: Perhaps some of my 4,200+ free online articles (the most comprehensive “one-stop” Catholic apologetics site) or fifty-one books have helped you (by God’s grace) to decide to become Catholic or to return to the Church, or better understand some doctrines and why we believe them.

Or you may believe my work is worthy to support for the purpose of apologetics and evangelism in general. If so, please seriously consider a much-needed financial contribution. I’m always in need of more funds: especially monthly support. “The laborer is worthy of his wages” (1 Tim 5:18, NKJV). 1 December 2021 was my 20th anniversary as a full-time Catholic apologist, and February 2022 marked the 25th anniversary of my blog.

PayPal donations are the easiest: just send to my email address: [email protected]. You’ll see the term “Catholic Used Book Service”, which is my old side-business. To learn about the different methods of contributing, including 100% tax deduction, etc., see my page: About Catholic Apologist Dave Armstrong / Donation InformationThanks a million from the bottom of my heart!

***

Photo credit: David before Saul (1640s), by Jusepe Leonardo (1601-?) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

***

Summary: Archaeologists are convinced that the city of Ziklag, where David hid from King Saul for sixteen months, has been identified: in harmony with the biblical data.

2023-05-12T10:39:35-04:00

Doctrinal Development; St. Cardinal Newman’s Views on Papal Infallibility & the Immaculate Conception; St. Irenaeus & Tradition

The book, The Infallibility of the Church (1888) by Anglican anti-Catholic polemicist George Salmon (1819-1904), may be one of the most extensive and detailed — as well as influential — critiques of the Catholic Church ever written. But, as usual with these sorts of works, it’s abominably argued and relentlessly ignorant and/or dishonest, as the critiques listed below amply demonstrate and document.
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The most influential and effective anti-Catholic Protestant polemicist today, “Dr” [???] James White, cites Salmon several times in his written materials, and regards his magnum opus as an “excellent” work. In a letter dated 2 November 1959, C. S. Lewis recommended the book to a reader, Michael Edwards, who was “vexed” about papal infallibility (see: The Collected Letters of C. S. Lewis, Volume 3: Narnia, Cambridge, and Joy, 1950 – 1963, edited by Walter Hooper, New York: HarperCollins, 2007, p. 1133, footnote 24). Russell P. Spittler, professor of New Testament at Fuller Theological Seminary, wrote that “From an evangelical standpoint,” the book “has been standard since first published in 1888” (Cults and Isms, Baker Book House, 1973, 117). Well-known Baptist apologist Edward James Carnell called it the “best answer to Roman Catholicism” in a 1959 book. I think we can safely say that it is widely admired among theological (as well as “emotional”) opponents of the Catholic Church.
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Prominent Protestant apologist Norman Geisler and his co-author Ralph MacKenzie triumphantly but falsely claim, in a major critique of Catholicism, Roman Catholics and Evangelicals: Agreements and Differences (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Books, 1995, 206-207, 459), that Salmon’s book has “never really been answered by the Catholic Church,” and call it the “classic refutation of papal infallibility,” which also offers “a penetrating critique of Newman’s theory.”
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Salmon’s tome, however, has been roundly refuted at least twice: first, by Rev. Dr. Jeremiah Murphy in The Irish Ecclesiastical Record (March / May / July / September / November 1901 and January / March 1902): a response (see the original sources) — which I’ve now transcribed almost in its totality: adding up to more than 73,000 words, or approximately 257 pages (last two installments abridged a bit); secondly, by Bishop Basil Christopher Butler (1902-1986) in his book, The Church and Infallibility: A Reply to the Abridged ‘Salmon’ (New York: Sheed & Ward, 1954, 230 pages). See all of these replies — and any further ones that I make — listed under “George Salmon” on my Anti-Catholicism web page.
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See also my thorough refutation of Salmon’s false and scurrilous accusation of St. Cardinal Newman, regarding papal infallibility: John Henry Newman’s Alleged Disbelief  in Papal Infallibility Prior to 1870, and Supposed Intellectual Dishonesty Afterwards [8-11-11]
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Bishop Butler’s book is partially available (8 chapters of 11) in old Internet Archive files (see chapters one / two / three / four / five / six / seven) and another web page with Chapter Ten. Most of these files will eventually be inaccessible, so I have decided to select highlights of all of these chapters, and also from chapters eight, nine, and eleven, from my own hardcover copy of the book.  The words below are all from Bishop Butler, edited and abridged by myself. I will indicate which chapter excerpts are from, but not page numbers. Subtitles are not his own. George Salmon’s words will be in blue; St. Cardinal Newman’s words in green.
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See other installments of this series:
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Chapter One: Introductory
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On the Development of Doctrine

[T]he whole discussion must necessarily be dominated by the idea of development. It is a fact which every enquirer can see for himself, and which no believer can deny, that Christianity has developed. Ritual and ceremonial developments are obvious and are not, in themselves, important. There has been devotional development. There has also been theological development. And — most important for our present argument — there has been dogmatic and, I add, doctrinal development. A clear illustration of dogmatic development is the articulation of Christian belief about the Incarnation and the Holy Trinity in the great conciliar decisions from A.D. 325 to A.D. 680. The result of such development is that many statements by the Fathers of the first three centuries would be condemned as heretical if made by medieval or modern writers. Similarly, it can be said that the doctrine of the sacramental minister has developed since the days of St. Cyprian, who denied the reality of Baptism conferred by schismatics and heretics.

The question arises whether the fact of such developments is compatible with the Christian claim that there was a complete revelation of saving truth made to the Apostles. In other words, has Christianity preserved its identity, or are these so-called developments, or some of them, really additions to the alleged original revelation, so that modern Christianity is not really the same thing as the “message” given, it is said, by God to mankind in Jesus Christ? This is a question which every enquirer has, in the long run, to answer for himself. But there can surely be no valid a priori objection to the hypothesis of genuine doctrinal development. Development seems to be almost universal in the world of biology, as also in that of human affairs. And if Christianity is a living thing it is only to be expected that it too will develop. A butterfly is a developed caterpillar. An adult man is a developed infant. In both these cases the development strikes the imagination very forcibly. Thus the definition of homo sapiens is “a rational animal”; and a child four days old is a specimen of homo sapiens. But the rationality of the child is latent or potential rather than actual and visible. As the babe grows into childhood, boyhood and adolescence, the struggle of rationality to assert itself takes varying forms and suffers diverse vicissitudes. A long time elapses before rationality can be said to take habitual effective control. Yet the individual in question is, in external self-manifestation, most true to his own nature not at the beginning but at the end of the process.

The same may be true of Christianity, with special reference to the papal primacy and infallibility which Salmon denounces as corruptions of the original deposit of faith. There is no absurdity and no sophistry in maintaining that Christianity is by definition “papal,” just as man is by definition rational, even if the operation and recognition of the papal prerogatives in the fourth century were as hard to discern as the rationality of the human baby, or the wings of a caterpillar.

When, however, Salmon asks why should development not take place in the case of Protestant doctrine too, the answer is of course that there is no a priori reason against it, although in fact Protestant doctrine tends not to exhibit this phenomenon of vitality. But development outside the body of continuing Christian experience, development which has at its origin a violent break with the Catholic past which alone can form a biological link with Christian origins, has as such no claim upon our acceptance.

The great modern champion of the idea of development was of course John Henry Cardinal Newman, who describes the view on which he writes, as follows:

That the increased expansion of the Christian Creed and Ritual, and the variations which have attended the process in the case of individual writers and Churches, are the necessary attendants on any philosophy or polity which takes possession of the intellect and heart, and has had any wise or extended dominion: that, form the nature of the human mind, time is necessary for the full comprehension and perfect of great ideas; and that the highest and most wonderful truths, though communicated to the world once for all by inspired teachers, could not be comprehended all at once by the recipients, but, as being received and transmitted by minds not inspired and through media which were human, have required only the longer time and deeper thought for their full elucidation. [Essay on Development, 29f.]

And again from Newman:

It is indeed sometimes said that the stream is clearest near the spring. Whatever use may fairly be made of this image, it does not apply to the history of a philosophy or belief, which on the contrary is more equable, and purer, and stronger, when its bed has become broad, and deep, and full. It necessarily rises out of an existing state of things, and for a time savours of the soil. Its vital element needs disengaging from what is foreign and temporary, and is employed in efforts after freedom which become more vigorous and hopeful as its years increase. Its beginnings are no measure of its capabilities, nor of its scope. At first no one knows what it is, or what it is worth. It remains for a time perhaps quiescent: it tries, as it were, its limbs and proves the ground under it, and feels its way. From time to time it makes essays which fail, and are in consequence abandoned. It seems in suspense which way to go; it wavers, and at length strikes out in one definite direction. In time it enters upon strange territory: points of controversy alter their bearing; parties rise and fall around it; dangers and hopes appear in new relations; and old principles reappear under new forms. It changes with them in order to remain the same. In a higher world it is otherwise, but here below to live is to change, and to be perfect is to have changed often. [Ibid., 40]

It is with such thoughts and expectations that we ought to turn to the study of Christian history; and my chief complaint against Salmon in the part of his book devoted to the history of papalism is that he supposes that if Catholicism is true the Papacy ought to have been functioning, and its authority to have been recognized, almost as unmistakably in antiquity as now. But he is pushing at an open door. The action and the theory of the modern Papacy are the outcome of an age-long growth, and we must seek in the pages of history less for a proof of the papal claims than for the evidence that they have shared in, and been central to, the general development of that society which is our only historical link with the origins of Christianity. Again I would quote Newman:

For myself, I would simply confess that no doctrine of the Church can be rigorously proved by historical evidence: but at the same time that no doctrine can be simply disproved by it. Historical evidence reaches a certain way, more or less, towards a proof of the Catholic doctrines; often nearly the whole way: sometimes it goes only so far as to point in their direction; sometimes there is only an absence of evidence for a conclusion contrary to them; nay, sometimes there is an apparent leaning of the evidence to a contrary conclusion, which has to be explained — in all cases, there is a margin left for the exercise of faith in the word of the Church. He who believes the dogmas of the Church only because he has reasoned them out of History, is scarcely a Catholic. [Letter to the Duke of Norfolk in Difficulties of Anglicans (1896), ii, 312.]

The Cardinal Error of Protestants

It may even be said that the cardinal error of Protestantism was to identify development with corruption. There was a school of Anglican divines who took as their criterion of doctrine not the living voice of the contemporary Church but (for some reason not easily apparent) the first four or five centuries of Christian history. Other Protestants, more logical and more radical, made the Bible their sole criterion; and this is, formally, at least, the Anglican position as stated in the Thirty-Nine Articles. But liberal Protestantism has had to go further still, and Harnack, when faced by the argument of Batiffol’s Primitive Catholicism that the germ of Catholicism was present in the Christianity of the Apostles, fell back on the last line of strictly Protestant defense — that there is an unbridgeable gulf between the Apostles and their Master.

The truth is, that development is visible in that brief section of the Christian story of which the New Testament books are a fragmentary record, and in the last resort the choice is between accepting the principle of development and rejecting the Christian claim to possess a divine revelation.

Chapter Two: The Infallibility of the Church
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The issues of the Protestant controversy with the Roman Catholic Church (says Salmon) “mainly turn on one great question,” that, namely, of the infallibility of the Church. If the Roman Catholic Church is infallible, then obviously it is too late to appeal against it either to Scripture or to history.

Before I comment on this statement of what Salmon conceived to be the main issue between Protestants and Catholics, I think it desirable to scrutinise some of the other statements in the first chapter of the Abridgement. Thus, as an example of Salmon’s controversial tone, it may be observed that after stating that in the Tracts for the Times Newman and his co-adjutors, being then Protestants, had published “excellent refutations of the Roman doctrine on purgatory and on some other points” he goes on to say that, on joining the Church, these men “bound themselves to believe and teach as true things which they had themselves proved to be false.” The word “proved” here may or may not be meant to suggest that these converts were insincere in their profession of doctrines against which they had formerly argued. It certainly leaves an unpleasant flavour on the tongue, and it would have been easy to substitute “rejected as false” for “proved to be false.” A writer who can either cleverly or negligently arouse such suspicions by the casual use of a single word needs to be watched carefully when he comes to make broad historical statements.

Again, it is inaccurate to say that the writers of the Tracts “allowed themselves to be persuaded” that Christ must have provided some infallible guide to truth, and then

accepted the Church of Rome as that guide, with scarcely an attempt to make a careful scrutiny of the grounds of her pretensions, and merely because, if she were not that guide, they knew not where else to find it.

This is doubly inaccurate. Newman has himself told us how his case against the Catholic Church in his Protestant days had been that while the Church could claim “universality” in contrast to the provincialism of the Anglican Church, the Anglicans could appeal to “antiquity” against the corruption of Rome. The crisis came for him when he realised, not the need of an infallible guide, but that antiquity itself gave its witness for Roman Catholicism against Anglicanism. And as for the suggestion that submission to the Church was made with “scarcely an attempt to make a careful scrutiny of the grounds of her pretensions,” Salmon can hardly have been ignorant that Newman’s conversion took about six years and bore fruit in the great Essay on the Development of Christian Doctrine, a work which is a landmark in Christian thought and in itself a profound examination of the credibility of the Catholic claim.

Nor is it in the least reasonable to suggest that Newman “may have thought” that submission meant no more than belief “that everything the Church of Rome then taught was infallibly true” but not everything that she might subsequently teach. The whole Essay is concerned to show that dogmatic and doctrinal developments need not be inconsistent with fidelity to “the faith once delivered” (Jude 3) and we may assume that it had occurred to Newman that what had been characteristic of the Church for fifteen hundred years — namely, that her dogmas were constantly increasing in number and complexity — would probably continue to characterise her in the future.

Misrepresenting Cardinal Newman on Papal Infallibility

But it would seem that Salmon found it peculiarly difficult to be fair to Newman. In this same chapter he refers to the ferment in the Roman Catholic Church created by the expectation that a Council (that known to history as the [First] Vatican Council) was to be called to define the personal infallibility of the Pope, “so making it unnecessary that any future Council should be held”: [Salmon says]

Those who passed for the men of highest learning in that communion, and who had been wont to be most relied on, when learned Protestants were to be combatted, opposed with all their might the contemplated definition, as an entire innovation on the traditional teaching of the Church, and as absolutely contradicted by the facts of history. These views were shared by Dr. Newman . . . The Pope’s personal infallibility . . . was a doctrine so directly in the teeth of history, that Newman made no secret of his persuasion that the authoritative adoption of it would be attended with ruinous consequences to his Church . . . He wrote in passionate alarm to an English Roman Catholic Bishop [Ullathorne]: Why, he said, should an aggressive insolent faction be allowed ‘to make the heart of the just sad, whom the Lord hath not made sorrowful.

It will be observed that Salmon here states categorically that Newman, as a Catholic, before 1870, shared the view that the doctrine of the Pope’s personal infallibility was “absolutely contradicted by the facts of history,” and the unwary reader will naturally suppose that his opposition to the “aggressive insolent faction” was due to his belief that the doctrine was false.

For the facts we may turn to The Life of John Henry Cardinal Newman by Wilfrid Ward. Ward, in discussing the period leading up to the Vatican Council, writes of a “determined group of neo-Ultramontanes” with a policy tending to “extreme centralization.” “It was not Ultramontanism in its time-honored sense but an ecclesiastico-political movement practically abrogating the normal constitution of Church and State alike.” A leader of this group, Veuillot, the editor of L’Univers, had written concerning the Pope: “We must….unswervingly follow his inspired directions,” although what the Church claims for the Pope is not inspiration, but merely Providential assistance. W. G. Ward in England had gone so far as to affirm that “in a figurative sense Pius IX may be said never to have ceased from one continuous ex cathedra pronouncement.” [Life of John Henry Cardinal Newman, ii, 211f.]

Now Newman held that such men were trying to commit Catholic theologians to an entirely new view, ascribing infallibility to a Pope’s public utterances which were not definitions of faith or morals. “He could not forget such Popes as Liberius and Honorius. The action of these Pontiffs could, no doubt, in his opinion, be defended as consistent with Papal Infallibility,” but only by careful distinctions which Veuillot and W.G. Ward repudiated. Such men comprised the “aggressive insolent faction” which Newman protested against in his private letter to Ullathorne. And it is not surprising that he feared their influence and held that a definition of papal infallibility promoted by such men would be inopportune. But this is not to say that before 1870 he disbelieved the doctrine in the moderate form in which it was eventually defined, still less that he held it to be an “entire innovation on the traditional teaching, absolutely contradicted by the facts of history.” Newman’s position in 1867 is clearly stated in a letter to Pusey in that year:

A man will find it a religious duty to believe it, or may safely disbelieve it, in proportion as he thinks it probable or improbable that the Church might or will define it, or does hold it, and that it is the doctrine of the Apostles. For myself…I think that the Church may define it (i.e. it possibly may turn out to belong to the original depositum), but that she will not ever define it; and again I do not see that she can be said to hold it. She never can simply act upon it (being undefined, as it is), and I believe never has — moreover, on the other hand, I think there is a good deal of evidence, on the very surface of history and the Fathers, in its favour. On the whole then I hold it: but I should account it no sin if, on the grounds of reason, I doubted it. [Life of John Henry Cardinal Newman, ii, 221]

A letter earlier in the same year to Henry Wilberforce expresses Newman’s mind as follows:

For myself, I have never taken any great interest in the question of the limits and seat of infallibility. I was converted simply because the Church was to last to the end, and that no communion answered to the Church of the first ages but the Roman Communion, both in substantial likeness and in actual descent. And as to faith, my great principle was: ‘securus judicat orbis terrarum.’ So I say now — and in all these questions of detail I say to myself, I believe whatever the Church teaches as the voice of God — and this or that particular inclusively, if she teaches this — it is this fides implicita which is our comfort in these irritating times. And I cannot go beyond this — I see arguments here, arguments there — I incline one way today another tomorrow — on the whole I more than incline in one direction — but I do not dogmatise . . . I have only an opinion at best (not faith) that the Pope is infallible. [Ibid., 234]

In the following year (1868) we find him writing to a Mr. Renouf, who had published a pamphlet on the case of Pope Honorius, as follows: “I hold the Pope’s Infallibility, not as a dogma, but as a theological opinion; that is, not as a certainty, but as a probability.”

When the Vatican Council actually came to define the Pope’s infallibility, the exaggerations of the neo-Ultramontanes were “definitely rejected.” [Ibid., 307] And on seeing the test of the definition Newman was able to write to a friend: “I saw the new definition yesterday and am pleased at its moderation — that is, if the doctrine in question is to be defined at all.” And on August 8th he wrote to Mrs. Froude:

As I have ever believed as much as the definition says, I have a difficulty in putting myself into the position of mind of those who have not . . . I very much doubt if at this moment — before the end of the Council, I could get myself publicly to say it was de fide, whatever came of it — though I believe the doctrine itself. [Ibid., 308]

It thus appears that there were, before the Council’s definition, two opinions about papal infallibility, a moderate one and an extreme one. Newman on the whole held the moderate one while strongly opposing the extreme view, whose more violent upholders he stigmatised as an aggressive insolent faction. The Vatican Council itself came down on the side of the moderate opinion, and Newman’s only remaining hesitations were a temporary one as to whether the moment had come when this opinion was in fact de fide, and a more lasting one as to the exact scope of the definition — “what we may grant, what we must maintain.” [Letter of April, 1872 (ibid., 312)] By December 1874 he had cleared his mind on the latter point, as can be seen from his “Letter to the Duke of Norfolk.”

It is thus that Salmon has gravely misrepresented Newman’s whole attitude to the papal infallibility question. He has given his readers the impression that the dogma as actually defined was something that Newman had regarded as in absolute contradiction with the facts of history and he has represented an opposition to the dogma’s opportuneness as an opposition to its content. It may be said, in Salmon’s defense, that the Life, from which I have been quoting, was not published when his own book appeared. But the Letter to the Duke of Norfolk had appeared before the end of 1875, and Salmon’s first edition was dated 1888. I append a few extracts from the former (it had been alleged that it was understood at one time that Newman “was on the point of uniting with Dr. Dollinger and his party” who refused to submit to the Vatican definition, “and that it required the earnest persuasion of ‘several bishops’ to prevent him from taking that step”): Newman responded —

. . . an unmitigated and most ridiculous untruth in every word of it . . . But the explanation of such reports about me is easy. They arise from forgetfulness . . . that there are two sides of ecclesiastical acts, that right ends are often prosecuted by unworthy means, and that in consequence those who, like myself, oppose a line of action, are not necessarily opposed to the issue for which it has been adopted . . . On July 24, 1870, I wrote as follows: ‘I saw the new Definition yesterday, and am pleased at its moderation . . . The terms are vague and comprehensive; and, personally, I have no difficulty in admitting it . . .’ Also I wrote as follows to a friend: (July 27, 1870) ‘. . . for myself, ever since I was a Catholic, I have held the Pope’s infallibility as a matter of theological opinion; at least, I see nothing in the Definition which necessarily contradicts Scripture, Tradition, or History . . . ‘ [Letter to the Duke of Norfolk, 299-304]

*
Misrepresenting Cardinal Newman on the Immaculate Conception

It may seem that I have spent too long on a very small detail. But so much of Salmon’s book is taken up with what I may call “creating an atmosphere” against Catholicism and loyal Catholics that it may be worthwhile to draw attention to a remark in that same chapter of the book about Newman’s attitude to the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception:

He was too well acquainted with Church history not to know that the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception was a complete novelty, unknown by early times . . . But when the Pope formally promulgated that doctrine as part of the essential faith of the Church, he had submitted in silence.

The doctrine was defined in 1854. In the Essay on Development (1845) Newman had pointed out that the condemnation of Arianism had left vacant “in the realms of light” a place for Mary to fill:

Thus there was ‘a wonder in heaven’: a throne was seen, far above all other created powers, mediatorial, intercessory; a title archetypal; a crown bright as the morning star; a glory issuing from the Eternal Throne; robes pure as the heavens; and a sceptre over all; and who was the predestined heir of that Majesty? . . . The vision is found in the Apocalypse, a woman clothed with the sun, and the moon under her feet, and upon her head a crown of twelve stars. The votaries of Mary do not exceed the true faith, unless the blasphemers of her Son [the Arians] come up to it. The Church of Rome is not idolatrous, unless Arianism is orthodoxy.

And he quotes St. Augustine’s saying that all have sinned “except the Holy Virgin Mary, concerning whom, for the honour of the Lord, I wish no question to be raised at all, when we are treating of sins.” [Essay on the Development of Christian Doctrine, 143-6]

The passage quoted here from the Essay on Development was written before Newman became a Catholic. In 1846, the year following his reception into the Church, we find him writing from Rome about the doubtful reception accorded by two Roman professors to his views on development, and he adds: “By the bye it is an encouraging fact, connected with the theory of development, that . . . Perrone is writing a book to show that the Immaculate Conception may be made an article of faith.” [Life, i, 161.]

Three years later (the Dedication is dated In Fest S. Caroli, November 4, 1849), he published his Discourses to Mixed Congregations, from which I quote the following:

Consider, that, since Adam fell, none of his seed but has been conceived in sin; none, save one. One exception there has been — who is that one? Not our Lord Jesus, for he was not conceived of man, but of the Holy Ghost; not our Lord, but I mean His Virgin Mother, who, though conceived and born of human parents, as others, yet was rescued by anticipation from the common condition of mankind, and never was partaker in fact of Adam’s transgression . . . ‘Thou art all fair, O Mary, and the stain original is not in thee.'” [Discourses to Mixed Congregations (1892), 49]

As grace was infused into Adam from the first moment of his creation….so was grace given from the first in still ampler measure to Mary, and she never incurred, in fact, Adam’s deprivation….I am not proving these doctrines to you, my brethren: the evidence of them lies in the declaration of the Church. [Ibid, 354-6.]

Salmon may not have been guilty of knowing and disregarding the Discourses, but if he had not read the Apologia Pro Vita Sua (Newman’s conversion and autobiography) he had no right to describe Newman’s states of mind at all. I therefore quote the following from that famous work, first published in 1864, ten years after the Definition of the Immaculate Conception:

Let me take the doctrine which Protestants consider our greatest difficulty, that of the Immaculate Conception. Here I entreat the reader to recollect my main drift, which is this. I have no difficulty in receiving the doctrine; and that because it so intimately harmonises with that circle of recognised dogmatic truths, into which it has recently been received….it is a simple fact to say, that Catholics have not come to believe it because it is defined, but that it was defined because they believed it….I never heard of one Catholic having difficulties in receiving the doctrine, whose faith on other grounds was not already suspicious. Of course, there were grave and good men, who were made anxious by the doubt whether it could be formally proved to be Apostolical either by Scripture or Tradition, and who accordingly, though believing it themselves, did not see how it could be defined by authority and imposed upon all Catholics as a matter of faith; but this is another matter. The point in question is, whether the doctrine is a burden. I believe it to be none. [Apologia Pro Vita Sua (1902), 254f.]

Newman does not state whether he had shared the anxiety of the “grave and good men” to whom he refers, but his letter of 1846 from Rome, quoted above, shows that his own theory of development must have made it easier for him than for some others to admit that the doctrine is a genuine development of the faith “once delivered.” For a theological defense of the doctrine “as an immediate inference from the primitive doctrine that Mary is the second Eve” I may refer to the Letter to Pusey (1865) in Difficulties of Anglicans (ii, p. 31-50; cf. 128-52).

Now I do not profess to know what Salmon meant to convey by saying that Newman had “submitted in silence” to the promulgation of the dogma of the Immaculate Conception. But I think I know the sort of impression that that phrase will have left, and might have been expected by its author to leave, on many minds; and I think I have shown that that impression is entirely false to the tone and contents of a number of passages in Newman’s writings, nearly all of which had been long available to Salmon’s inspection when he first published his book. I conclude that Salmon is a very unsafe guide for those who have not the opportunity and the inclination to check both his definite assertions and the impression conveyed by his use of language.

Infallibility: The Last Refuge?

We may now revert to the chapter entitled “The Question of Infallibility.” Salmon there speaks of opponents of the proposed definition (of papal infallibility) who, however, submitted to it once it had been imposed. Some of these, he says, thus surrendered “their most deep-rooted beliefs” solely in deference to external authority. It will be desirable, later on, to consider how much of the opposition in question had been due to an opinion that the proposed definition was inopportune, how much to a doubt whether its matter, though perhaps true, was definable as part of the faith, and how much to real “disbelief” in the matter of the definition. Assuming that there were some, who had hitherto “denied the truth of the new dogma” who now accepted it, it must be pointed out that for a Catholic a “belief” based on his own theological opinions unsupported by the verdict of the Church stands on a different, and a lower, footing compared with that of an article of faith. The former kind of belief is not, for a Catholic, among his “most deep-rooted beliefs” — it is less deep-rooted than his belief, or rather his certainty, that the Church’s voice is the voice of God. It was therefore proper and honourable for such men to “submit” to an external authority whose claim upon them coincided with the deepest intimations of their own conscience.

Salmon presents the doctrine of the Church’s infallibility as the “last refuge of a beaten army” — an earlier refuge had been the appeal to Tradition. When the early Protestants appealed against the Church to Scripture

the Roman Catholic advocates ceased to insist that the doctrines of the Church could be deduced from Scripture; but the theory of early heretics, refuted by Irenaeus, was revived, namely, that the Bible does not contain the whole of God’s revelation, and that a body of traditional doctrine existed in the Church equally deserving of veneration.

On this rather characteristic sentence I comment as follows:

(1) Salmon here suggests that the appeal to Tradition as a source of doctrine parallel to Scripture was a Counter-Reformation invention. But the second Ecumenical Council of Nicaea, seven hundred and fifty years before the Council of Trent, had anathematised “anyone who rejects ecclesiastical tradition written or unwritten.” [Denzinger-Bannwart (15th ed), No. 308.]

St. Irenaeus on Sacred Tradition

(2) It is perhaps hardly necessary to point out that the (alleged) heretical apostolic traditions which Irenaeus rejected were rejected by him upon the precise ground that if the Apostles had had any traditions to consign to posterity they would have entrusted them not to a line of hidden teachers ending up in the heresiarchs but to the legitimate succession of public teachers in the Catholic Church (quoting St. Irenaeus) :

When [the heretics] are faced with objections derived from the Scriptures, they set about to attack the Scriptures as not being correct or authoritative, as saying different things, and as only conveying truth to those who know the tradition, which was not handed down in writing but viva voce….But when we appeal to that tradition which comes from the Apostles and is preserved in the Churches by the succession of the elders, they oppose tradition, saying that they are wiser not only than the elders but than the apostles and have discovered the pure truth.

Irenaeus then points to the preservation of the true tradition and apostolic succession of bishops in the local Churches:

All who are willing to see the truth can perceive in every [or all the] Church the tradition of the Apostles manifested in all the world; we can enumerate those appointed by the Apostles bishops in the Churches, and those who succeeded to them, who never taught or knew anything like the ravings of the heretics. Had the Apostles known hidden mysteries, which they taught the perfect separately and secretly from others, they would have handed them on especially to those to whom they were entrusting the Churches. [Adv Haer III, ii, 3.]

For a modern presentation of Irenaeus’ views about Scripture and Tradition we may turn to The Biblical Theology of Saint Irenaeus (1948) by a non-Catholic writer, Mr. John Lawson, a former student of Wesley House, Cambridge [quotations omitted for brevity’s sake]. If Mr. Lawson’s interpretation of Irenaeus is correct, it would seem that in this matter of the authority of “unwritten” Tradition the second-century Bishop of Lyons stands with the Second Council of Nicaea, the Council of Trent, and Cardinal Newman (in the passage quoted below); and with Cardinal Manning in his condemnation of an appeal away from the voice of the contemporary Church; and that it is quite illegitimate to suggest that he stood with the “Bible-only” school of thought against Sacred Tradition.

[Dave: for related reading, see my articles:

Irenaeus (d. c. 200) vs. Sola Scriptura [8-1-03]

Chrysostom & Irenaeus: Sola Scripturists? (vs. David T. King) [4-20-07]

Lutheran Chemnitz Wrong Re Fathers & Sola Scriptura (mostly dealing with St. Irenaeus and Tertullian) [8-29-07]

Did I Take St. Irenaeus Out of Context (Rule of Faith)? [11-29-17] ]

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Go to Part 2

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Photo credit: book cover of Butler’s The Church and Infallibility, from its Amazon page.

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Summary: Bishop B. C. Butler critiqued the anti-infallibility arguments & rampant misrepresentations & quotes out of context, of anti-Catholic George Salmon, in 1954.

2023-03-14T15:30:55-04:00

This excerpt is the first four-and-a-half pages of Chapter Eleven (“King David Versus King Arthur”) of my book, The Word Set in Stone: How Archaeology, Science, and History Back up the Bible (Catholic Answers Press, March 15, 2023: see further book and purchase information). Bible passages: RSV.

*****

Then all the tribes of Israel came to David at Hebron,
and said, “Behold, we are your bone and flesh.”
—2 SAMUEL 5:1

The substantial historicity of the united monarchy of Judah (reigns of King Saul: c. 1037–c. 1010 B.C., King David: c. 1010–c. 970 B.C., and King Solomon: c. 970–c. 931 B.C.) was widely accepted in the middle years of the twentieth century, even within secular archaeological circles.

But by the 1990s, what is called archaeological or biblical minimalism became quite the fashionable view to take among a new generation of archaeologists who worked in Israel. It was the high-water mark of skepticism, influenced and infused by a marked “anti-biblical” or “anti-traditional,” or what could be called a “vehemently secular,” spirit. Older “truths” were no longer accepted as established or given. Many archaeologists in the 1990s, and continuing until the present time, held or hold a view similar to the following:

Nadav Na’aman, an authority on Jewish history . . . at Tel Aviv University, describes David’s story as “extraordinary fiction.” But he believes that it contains kernels of truth, preserved as the tale was passed down by oral tradition. [188]

In other words, among the minimalists, David is regarded similarly to how most historians view King Arthur: a real person (not nonexistent), but vastly mythologized, to such an extent that the “kernel” of historical truth and fact has been mostly lost amid the colorful and memorable legends built up around him. The late Philip R. Davies, Bible scholar at the University of Sheffield, confidently proclaimed the same: “I’m not the only scholar who suspects that the figure of King David is about as historical as King Arthur.” [189]

Ze’ev Herzog, archaeologist at Tel Aviv University, took an even more extreme view in a 1999 front-page story in the Israeli newspaper Haaretz, titled “The Bible: No Evidence on the Ground”:

Following seventy years of intensive excavations in the Land of Israel, archaeologists have found out: The patriarchs’ acts are legendary, the Israelites did not sojourn in Egypt or make an exodus, they did not conquer the land. Neither is there any mention of the empire of David and Solomon, nor of the source of belief in the God of Israel. These facts have been known for years, but Israelis are a stubborn people, and no one wants to hear it. [190]

I submit that stubbornness and excessive dogmatism are traits not unknown among minimalist archaeologists. Tom Meyer, a biblical scholar at Shasta Bible College in California, described this sort of skepticism among scholars, who thought King David “never existed and was a figment of the imagination of a post-exilic Jewish community who, after returning to Jerusalem from Babylonian captivity in the fifth century B.C., invented King David as a national figure which the fledgling nation could rally around as they rebuilt their country.” [191]

Thomas L. Thompson, professor of Old Testament at the University of Copenhagen, and author of Early History of the Israelite People (1992), stated,

It is out of the question that Saul, David, and Solomon, as described as kings in the Bible, could have existed. I think the biblical accounts are wonderful stories, invented at the time when Jerusalem was part of the Persian Empire in the fifth century B.C. [192]

God has a wonderful sense of humor, and it is often exhibited (or so it seems to me) in the particular timing of new archaeological findings that support the truthfulness and historical trustworthiness of the Bible.

In March 1993, all biblical scholars and archaeologists (minimalist and maximalist alike) agreed that there was no “concrete evidence” outside the Bible (such as in written monuments or documents) of the existence of King David. Then, lo and behold, in July 1993, just four months after the above article that cites Thompson, definitive evidence of this nature (the Tel Dan Stele) was found in Israel. Eric H. Cline, chairman of the Department of Classical and Semitic Languages and Literatures at the George Washington University, told the story in his book, Biblical Archaeology: A Very Short Introduction. A portion of it was adapted for an internet article, “Did David and Solomon Exist?”:

As it is currently reconstructed, the inscription describes the defeat of both Joram, king of Israel, and Ahaziyahu, king of Judah, by a king of Aram-Damascus in the ninth century BCE. [193]

“House of David” is also biblical terminology (1 Sam. 20:16; 2 Sam. 3:1–6; 1 Kings 12:19–26; 2 Chron. 10:19; and many other instances in the RSV). The language of the inscription is a dialect of Aramaic. Most scholars think King Hazael of Damascus (ninth century B.C.) is the author. Prominent Israeli archaeologist Israel Finkelstein, who regards himself as neither a minimalist nor a maximalist (somewhere in the middle of the spectrum), described the decisive importance of this find:

Much of the minimalist effort has been invested in the claim that David and Solomon . . . are not historical figures. They argued that, like Abraham, Moses, Joshua, David, and Solomon are not mentioned in any extra-biblical texts, and should therefore be seen as legendary personalities. This argument suffered a major blow when the Tel Dan basalt stele was discovered in the mid-1990s. . . .

Moreover, it most probably specified the names of the two later kings—Joram of Israel and Ahaziah of Judah— both of whom are mentioned in the biblical text. [194]

Arguably, a second mention of the “House of David” occurs in the Mesha Stele [195] (c. 840 B.C.), connected with King Mesha of Moab, written using a variant of the Phoenician alphabet, closely related to paleo-Hebrew script. It was discovered in August 1868 in Dibhan, Jordan, but re-interpreted in light of the Tel Dan Stele, so that many think it refers to the “House of David” and contains a possible second mention of David.
Opposing views exist, as always. Some think it refers to Balak, a Moabite in the Bible, who lived 200 years before David.

French epigrapher, historian, and philologist André Lemaire had actually suggested a reading of “House of David” in 1992, before the Tel Dan Stele was discovered. [196] An article written by Amanda Borschel-Dan notes how Michael Langlois, of the Center for Judaic Studies at the University of Michigan, used his own fancy high-tech methods to discover something further:

After layering the images together, in a startling discovery, Langlois found a previously overlooked dot, which indicates a break between words throughout the entire tablet, as was customary among scribes at the time. . . .

“In my paper I’m not trying to discuss whether King David exists, just trying to read the stone, and my conclusion for line 31 is that the most likely reading is Beit David, which takes into account the traces of letters and the combination of them,” said Langlois. [197]

FOOTNOTES

188 Ruth Margalit, “In Search of King David’s Lost Empire,” The New Yorker (June 22, 2020).

189 Philip R. Davies, “‘House of David’ Built on Sand: The Sins of the Biblical Maximizers,” Bible Archaeology Report 20:04 (July/August 1994), 55.

190 Cited in Ruth Margalit, “In Search of King David’s Lost Empire”.

191 Cited in Sebastian Kettley, “Archaeology news: ‘Incredible artefact testifies to the existence’ of Bible’s King David,” Express UK (February 15, 2021).

192 Cited in David Keys, “Leading archaeologist says Old Testament stories are fiction,” Independent (March 28, 1993).

193 Eric H. Cline, “Did David and Solomon Exist?,” The Bible and Interpretation (October 2009).

194 Israel Finkelstein and Amihay Mazar, The Quest for the Historical Israel: Debating Archaeology and the History of Early Israel (Atlanta: Society of Biblical Literature, 2007), 14.

195 “The Mesha Stele, or Moabite Stone, a Non-Biblical Text, Confirms Some Events in the Biblical Book of Kings,” History of Information.

196 Amanda Borschel-Dan, “High-tech study of ancient stone suggests new proof of King David’s dynasty,” The Times of Israel (May 3, 2019).

197 Ibid.

***

Practical Matters: Perhaps some of my 4,200+ free online articles (the most comprehensive “one-stop” Catholic apologetics site) or fifty-one books have helped you (by God’s grace) to decide to become Catholic or to return to the Church, or better understand some doctrines and why we believe them.

Or you may believe my work is worthy to support for the purpose of apologetics and evangelism in general. If so, please seriously consider a much-needed financial contribution. I’m always in need of more funds: especially monthly support. “The laborer is worthy of his wages” (1 Tim 5:18, NKJV). 1 December 2021 was my 20th anniversary as a full-time Catholic apologist, and February 2022 marked the 25th anniversary of my blog.

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***

Summary: Excerpt about King David, from my book, The Word Set in Stone: How Archaeology, Science, and History Back up the Bible (Catholic Answers Press, 3-15-23).

2023-03-02T11:54:38-04:00

This is Chapter Three of my book, The Word Set in Stone: How Archaeology, Science, and History Back up the Bible (Catholic Answers Press, March 15, 2023: see further book and purchase information). Bible passages: RSV.

*****

Then the Lord appeared to Abram and said,
“To your descendants I will give this land.”
—GENESIS 12:7

We can’t find out much (if anything) specifically about the patriarch Abraham, revered in Christianity, Judaism, and Islam alike as “the father of faith.” Archaeologists have not yet found physical, or “hard,” evidence that he existed.

Nevertheless, if the purported accounts of Abraham in Genesis are verified as accurate, according to what we know from history and archaeology, then we have an objective and rational basis for believing that Abraham did exist in history, as opposed to being merely fictional or mythological (like Heracles of Greek mythology).

Particularly—as I will primarily contend in this chapter— we can offer strong archaeological evidence that cities and regions mentioned in the Bible as having been visited or lived in by Abraham did indeed exist before and during the time period involved. If they didn’t exist then, it would clearly present a problem.

Such verifications don’t prove the Bible’s inspiration, but they do support its historical accuracy and highly suggest that many biblical skeptics have gone too far in their negative or agnostic opinions.

According to the Bible, Abraham was a man who took many journeys. Joshua 24:2–3 states,

Thus says the Lord, the God of Israel . . . “I took your father Abraham from beyond the River and led him through all the land of Canaan, and made his offspring many.”

The usual or “standard” view is that Abraham came from Ur of the Chaldeans (see Gen. 11:27–28, 31), which is close to the Persian Gulf, west of the Euphrates, in southern Mesopotamia (current-day Iraq). Some biblical evidences regarding Abraham’s journey to Canaan, however, suggest another city: Urfa (also known as Sanliurfa and, in ancient times, Edessa) in present-day Turkey (southeastern Anatolian region).

Gary Rendsburg, professor of Jewish history in the Department of Jewish Studies at Rutgers University, makes the case for Urfa being the biblical Ur of the Chaldeans or Chaldees:

A serious geographical problem plagues the story: a journey from Ur to Canaan would not pass through Harran. . . .

A more attractive suggestion is that Abraham’s hometown is the city of Ur in northern Mesopotamia = modern-day Urfa in southeastern Turkey, 44 km [27 miles] north of Harran. Most likely, this city is the one mentioned as Ura in cuneiform tablets from Ugarit (fourteenth-thirteenth centuries BCE), where it is associated with the Hittite realm. A journey from Urfa to Canaan would indeed pass directly through Harran.

Local (Turkish) Jewish, Christian, and Muslim tradition identifies this city as biblical Ur, the birthplace of Abraham. In fact, this notion was commonly accepted in nineteenth-century biblical scholarship. [42]

Cyrus H. Gordon, professor of Hebraic studies at New York University, adds,

The biblical evidence is by itself conclusive in placing Ur of the Chaldees in the Urfa-Haran region of south central Turkey, near the Syrian border, rather than in southern Mesopotamia . . .

Genesis 24:4, Genesis 24:7, Genesis 24:10, and Genesis 24:29 tells us that Abraham’s birthplace was in Aram-Naharayim where Laban lived. [43]

The journey from Ur to Haran (also spelled “Harran”— see Gen. 12:4–5; Acts 7:3–4), undertaken by Abraham, was 27 miles. M. Bözdeniza et al. noted that “the known written documents about Harran indicate that its history goes as far back as 2500 B.C.” [44] Tamara M. Green placed the city’s origin at around 2000 B.C. and observed that it was “founded as a merchant outpost by Ur.” [45] She noted that “the abundance of goods that passed through the area must have proved a temptation, for raids upon the caravan were frequent.” Either date is earlier than the estimated time of Abraham’s birth: around 1880–1860 B.C., according to the copiously researched scholarly determinations of Egyptologist Kenneth A. Kitchen. [46] Haran was ideally located on a trade route between the Mediterranean and the plains of the Tigris River.

Genesis 12:6 Abram passed through the land to the place at Shechem, to the oak of Moreh. At that time the Canaanites were in the land (see also 33:18).

Archaeology informs us that Shechem was settled (or resettled) before Abraham was born—“in around 1900” B.C.—and that it had “a two-hundred-year period of prominence as a city-state, covering the centuries from 1750 to 1540” B.C. [47] David G. Hansen observed,

Archaeological investigations have corroborated much of what the Bible has to say about Shechem’s physical and cultural aspects. Archaeology has confirmed Shechem’s location, its history, and many biblical details. . . .

In the original Hebrew, the word translated in our English Bible as “city” meant a permanent, walled settlement. . . . Genesis 34:20 and 24 report that Shechem had a city gate; therefore it was fortified. [48]

The Bible refers to Abraham dwelling “by the oaks of Mamre . . . at Hebron” (Gen. 13:18; see also 14:13, 18:1, 35:27), and also to the burial of his wife Sarah there (23:2, 19). Archaeologists Avraham Negev and Shimon Gibson provide the evidence for Hebron’s existence during Abraham’s lifetime:

The earliest ancient settlement was established . . . during Early Bronze III [2700–2200 B.C.]. . . . This city was destroyed in a substantial conflagration. Not long afterwards and the same period the city was built anew. . . .

Following a period of abandonment, settlement of the site was renewed in Middle Bronze IIB [1750–1650 B.C.]. [49]

A 2018 article on the city [50] at Hebron.org (including a video) notes the discovery in that year of stairs (recently opened to the public) from the time of Abraham:

Dr. Emmanual Eisenberg of the Israel Antiquities Authority led the dig in Tel Hevron. . . . In what is today’s Admot Yishai neighborhood, near the Tomb of Jesse and Ruth is a flight of stairs, over 4,000 years old, leading from the valley below into the ancient city of Hebron.

Another location that the Bible claims Abraham visited and lived in is Beersheba (Gen. 21:14,29–33; 22:19). Biblical scholar John J. Bimson noted about it:

Sarna has argued . . . “The biblical passages refer only to a well and a cultic site. . . . No king or ruler is mentioned, and no patriarch ever has dealings with the inhabitants of Beersheba.” . . . In 1967, Aharoni held the view that the absence of early archaeological evidence does not contradict the patriarchal narratives, which, he then suggested, have only the area of Beersheba in mind, not a town. [51]

The biblical data appear perfectly consistent with this scenario. Beersheba is mentioned eleven times in Genesis in the RSV. None of the passages requires the interpretation of even a town, let alone a city. The first mention, in Abraham’s time (Gen. 21:14), refers to “the wilderness of Beersheba.”

Genesis 14:17–18 After his return from the defeat of Ched-or-laomer and the kings who were with him, the king of Sodom went out to meet him at the Valley of Shaveh (that is, the King’s Valley). And Melchizedek king of Salem brought out bread and wine; he was priest of God Most High.

These two things have to do with Jerusalem. Most scholars think Salem was a name for ancient Jerusalem (one of several). Mt. Moriah is the spot in Jerusalem (currently the Temple Mount) where Solomon’s temple was built some 600–700 years after Abraham was willing to sacrifice his son there. The traditional spot is currently covered by the Islamic Dome of the Rock.

Many seem to think that Jerusalem began, or first became a significant city, at the time David became king (c. 1000 B.C.). This is untrue. It was already very old by that time. Archaeological evidence exists for a settlement in the area as early as 4500–3500 B.C. The first mention of the city that we know of occurred around 2000 B.C. in the Egyptian Execration Texts [52] from the Middle Kingdom (2040 to 1782 B.C.). Massive walls (with four- and five-ton boulders) 26 feet high were built in Jerusalem by the seventeenth century B.C.—some 600 years before King David. The famous Ebla discoveries (including 1,800 complete clay tablets), discovered in Syria in 1974–1975, date to between approximately 2500–2250 B.C. They refer to the name of ancient Jerusalem as Ye-ru-sa-lu-um. [53]

Thus, an abundance of undeniable evidence exists showing that Abraham’s meeting with Melchizedek is a plausible event, given the known chronology of ancient Jerusalem. Nothing that we know would make such a meeting at that time and place impossible. In other words, the biblical account can’t be casually ruled out as historically inaccurate or “mythical,” as not a few biblical skeptics or archaeological minimalists would claim.

FOOTNOTES

42 Gary Rendsburg, “Ur Kasdim: Where Is Abraham’s Birthplace?,” Torah.com, 2019.

43 Cyrus H. Gordon, “Where Is Abraham’s Ur?,” Biblical Archaeology Review 3.2 (1977): 20–21, 52.

44 M. Bözdeniza et al, “Vernacular domed houses of Harran, Turkey,” Habitat International, vol. 22, no. 4 (December 1998), 477–485. Citation from page 478.

45 Tamara M. Green, The City of the Moon God: Religious Traditions of Harran (Leiden, Netherlands: Brill, 1992), 19.

46 Kenneth A. Kitchen, On the Reliability of the Old Testament (Grand Rapids and Cambridge: Wm. B. Eerdmans Publishing, 2003), 359.

47 See Ephraim Stern (ed.), The New Encyclopedia of Archaeological Excavations in the Holy Land, Vol. 4 (Carta, Jerusalem: The Israel Exploration Society, 1993); “Shechem,” 1,345–1,353. Citations from p. 1,347 and p. 1,352.

48 David G. Hansen, “Shechem: Its Archaeological and Contextual Significance,” Bible and Spade (Spring 2005).

49 Avraham Negev and Shimon Gibson, Archaeological Encyclopedia of the Holy Land (New York: Continuum, 2001), 224.

50 “The History of the 4,000-Year-Old Steps in Hebron” (October 26, 2018).

51 John J. Bimson, “Archaeological Data and the Dating of the Patriarchs,” chapter in A.R. Millard & D.J. Wiseman (ed.), Essays on the Patriarchal Narratives (Leicester, UK: InterVarsity Press, 1980), 59–92 (citation from pp. 75–76).

52 See “The Execration Texts,” City of David: Ancient Jerusalem.

53 For this and related information about pre-Davidic Jerusalem, see “Ancient Jerusalem.”

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Summary: Chapter Three of my book, The Word Set in Stone (March 15, 2023) surveys the archaeological evidence that is consistent with the accounts of Abraham in the Bible.

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