2017-07-15T21:58:16-04:00

FinckeDaniel

Cute meme from Dr. Daniel Fincke’s “About Dan” page.

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Dr. Daniel Fincke (professor of philosophy) is a former Protestant, currently an atheist, who writes prolifically and articulately on his Patheos blog, Camels with Hammers. This is my reply to his article, “After My Deconversion: I Refuse To Let Christians Judge Me” (11-4-12). I won’t respond to absolutely everything, but rather, to the parts where I feel I have something constructive to add to the discussion. His words from his article will be in blue.

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Hi Daniel,

Nice to “meet” you. I am a professional Catholic apologist, who was also an evangelical Christian from 1977 to 1990 (I’ve been active in apologetics since 1981). I have a blog at Patheos, too, which includes very extensive web pages on atheism and Science and Philosophy. I am perpetually interested in the reasoning in deconversion stories. I’ve found your material quite well-written and thoughtful, as I heavily skimmed a lot of it today. I admire your zeal and seeming openness to discussion with those who disagree with you. I also liked a lot what you expressed in your paper, “Welcome, Theist!”: especially the following portions, with which I agree wholeheartedly:

I hope that you will give this blog a chance to be a place where you can focus on the substance of atheist views and our reasons for disagreeing with your beliefs, values, and identity, rather than on distracting personal attacks from us or upon us. 

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Ask us questions that aim to figure out where our starting common ground is and where we diverge from each other exactly. Affirm what you think is good about what we think and what our values are. Let us know you appreciate we are not monsters.

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You may also stress up front how you differ from others with similar positions from your own to establish that you’re not a robot, that you’re reasonable, that you think for yourself, that you’re willing to listen, that you might have something original to contribute, and that you have more common ground with us to start off with than we might expect.

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. . . by working on more fundamental levels of disagreement we have the most hope of progress . . .

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Want to change my mind? Bring compelling arguments, conceptual clarifications, logic, coherency, consistency, intellectual creativity, honesty, good will, and evidence.

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If you want to do more than just vent with futile rage at an atheist—if you genuinely want me to actually learn something from you and reconsider my views, then what you really need to do is look at all the arguments I laid out in the blog post you are replying to and show me where my premises or my inferences to conclusions have flaws.

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We do have a lot of common ground in several ways. I’ve written posts saying that atheists can possibly be saved, how they have some legitimate reasons to be angry at how many Christians treat them,  and a post called, New Testament on God-Rejecters vs. Open-Minded Agnostics. I believe that there can be such a thing as constructive atheist-Christian discourse. I’ve engaged in it many times, myself, though I must sadly add that it is pretty rare to find. I have “hung out” with atheist friends in person (and enjoyed it!), and once successfully gave a talk to sixteen atheists.

With that introduction and that spirit in common, I would like to offer some thoughts in reaction to your paper mentioned above. Nothing whatever is “personal.” I’m a man of ideas, as you are, and that is the level that I engage on. A person is different from his ideas. If you disagree with that last sentence, please let me know now and I won’t bother you any further, because then constructive discussion would be doomed. You wrote: “I think civil dialogue between believers and non-believers is invaluable.” Excellent! So do I!

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In true cult form, the barrier of “saved/unsaved” stood between me and every friend who wasn’t one of my church’s style evangelical Christians. 

This is very different from the Catholic outlook (or even the sector of evangelicalism that I used to be in: Francis Schaeffer / C. S. Lewis / Christianity Today / Jesus Freak non-denom Arminianism). The Catholic (along with many “non-cultic” Protestants) believe that truth is truth wherever it may be found, and we try to emulate Paul’s attitude on Mars Hill in Athens, where he commended the Athenians for their religiosity and sought common ground with them, even citing pagan poets and philosophers (Acts 17).  I would contend that any evangelism will be successful only if we (like Paul) we see some good in the people whom we are trying to reach with our message.

My underlying point here is to note that your particular form of Christianity and your experience there is not universal to all Christians. I’m sure you already know that, but we all tend to universalize our experience (especially if we have left a particular sociological group), to the whole, and that is throwing the baby out with the bathwater. I already know in reading a good portion of your material today, that your experience in evangelicalism was not my own, and that my Catholic experience since 1990 is all the more so essentially different.

And out of a typically perverse Christian suspicion of my body, I loathed and feared my sexuality throughout my entire adolescence. 

Case in point. Admittedly, this is a strong tendency among many Christians (and arguably goes back to early Christianity’s understandable need to distance itself from the wild pagan sexuality of the time), but true Christian teaching does not loathe the body qua body, or sex, or physicality. God created all those things, and they are good (and like everything, can also be twisted into sinful forms). In fact, a strong theme in recent Catholicism is, precisely, the theology of the body: spearheaded in large part by Pope St. John Paul II. I was also taught a very healthy, intellectually cogent rationale for abstention from premarital sex, as an evangelical. None of it was based on thinking that my body or natural sexual urges were inherently sinful. Lust is assuredly sinful, but not the mere urge, or loneliness, or the desire to be with a woman, etc. Loathing of sex and the body, historically, derives from gnosticism and groups like the Manichaeans (Augustine’s former group) and the medieval Albigensians, not Christianity or the Bible, rightly understood.

But having it drummed in my head that I was a wretched sinner, . . . 

Christians believe that we are all sinners, based on original sin, but only a small minority (Calvinists) think we are wretched sinners through and through and nothing but evil before regeneration and justification. So again, you were in circles that taught this minority position, not mainstream historic Christianity. From where I sit, a rejection of those distortions doesn’t touch (let alone “refute”) my own Christianity at all: neither my former Arminianism nor current Catholicism.

It is little exaggeration to say that as a Christian I was like the pre-Reformation Martin Luther, perpetually obsessed with an exaggerated sense of his own sinfulness and wretchedness.

Yeah, I can see some of that in this article of yours. In Luther’s case (since you bring him up in your analogy; and I have studied him in great depth), his overscrupulosity quite arguably largely stemmed from depression, as many historical observers believe he suffered from severe cyclical episodes (more likely than not bipolar disorder, I and many others believe), and possibly other neuroses as well. He, in turn, projected his own psychological struggles onto the Apostle Paul and biblical exegesis, thus profoundly influencing future Protestantism (especially its soteriology). Many Protestants today such as N. T. Wright acknowledge this. I don’t look down, by the way, upon anyone who suffers bipolar disorder. Several in my family have. It’s almost wholly a biochemical phenomenon. I’m just saying that this sort of thing can bring about overscrupulosity, and less than ideal theologies can foster it as well.

I just really believed those noxiously misanthropic teachings of Augustine about original sin and Calvin’s extra emphasis on the total depravity of my human nature.

Exactly. The Catholic Church has condemned Augustine’s excesses, and of course, Calvin’s too. They do not (in this respect) represent all of Christianity, by a long shot. Eastern Orthodoxy even has a very different conception of original sin than western Christians do. I’ve offered many biblical critiques of total depravity on my Justification & Salvation web page and in one of my books, about salvation (where I devoted 30 pages to it). I also admire Calvinism in many ways, too, so I am not critiquing it out of any malice or animus. I simply think it has fallen into serious error regarding some major theological questions.

And I would say that theological / intellectual / philosophical error, wherever it is found, harms people and can lead them astray (which ties in to some of my analysis of your deconversion). You mention these errors. I’m wholeheartedly agreeing with you that they are serious errors, but am also making the point that they are not the mainstream Christian positions. In other words, in rejecting this form of Christianity, it doesn’t follow that you rejected all Christian options, or that there were no alternatives for you (or anyone else) in the Christian world. These aspects by no means disprove Christianity or the Bible. It’s my duty as an apologist to make note of this for the sake of my readers.

I believed so much Christian messaging about the wretchedness of my every immoral contemplation or unmarried lustful thought or deed that this extended into a general sense of depression, anxiety, self-hatred, and self-mistrust that I have never since come close to approximating as an atheist.

Here I would respectfully suggest that you substitute “Calvinist” or “fundamentalist” for your use of “Christian” above: for reasons I have been expounding upon. You experienced “psychological relief” (for lack of a better term) as an atheist. I never went through what you did in these respects, and am quite happy and content as a Catholic Christian, just as I was when I was an Arminian Protestant Christian. These aspects don’t represent Christianity as a whole. Therefore, they form no reason to reject Christianity as a whole (if indeed these are some of the reasons for your deconversion that you would assert).

And you are a callous, unconscientious liar with defective capabilities for self-criticism or church-criticism if you dare blame me for this needless, emotionally debilitating psychic torment I suffered, which had me in arrested development emotionally, psychologically, intellectually, and, I would even say, spiritually.

I don’t do any of that, so I am not any of those things, thank you. :-)

Don’t even go there trying to claim this was some misunderstanding of the truth of Christianity . . . 

I’m willing to freely grant that you understood your particular brand of Christianity quite well (and consistently). But you don’t seem to have considered (at least from what I’ve read so far) that there were other far better forms of Christianity out there, too. I’ve maintained for over 35 years that Calvinism’s errors, straightforwardly acknowledged and faced up to, would lead to despair or the idea that God is a cruel tyrant, since (in my opinion), the theological system reduces to his being the author of evil. Like many, you seem to have rejected merely one portion of a worldview, thinking it was the whole. I would say, of course, that this is throwing the baby out with the bathwater. So far, I haven’t observed you ever making the necessary and crucial theological and ecclesiological distinctions that I am drawing.

Most of the warping neuroses in my particular psychology were directly traceable to your unbalanced, distorted, and profoundly unhealthy doctrines about human nature and excessively self-destroying practices of self-cultivation.

Yep. This is the fruit of the false doctrine of total depravity: which asserts that human nature is totally depraved. It’s not a biblical position, as I believe I have demonstrated many times in my own work. In other areas, such as masturbation, I would agree with the historic Christian position, held by all major groups, including Calvinists. You link to another paper of yours where you take on the Sermon on the Mount. I’d love to address that in due course (atheist exegesis being one of my favorite topics to take on, as a debater and avid amateur biblical exegete). I would be willing to bet a great sum that you are thoroughly misunderstanding it.

I tried every strategy I could in order to justify Christianity and to make it coherent and rational and sensible as possible. But all my most earnest and scrupulously honest efforts to salvage the intellectual plausibility of the faith failed.

It’s interesting that my experience as both a Protestant and Catholic apologist for over 35 years couldn’t be any more polar opposite to yours than it is.
I’ve only become more and more confident all the time of the truth of Christianity (particularly the Catholic version), and truly, sincerely believe that the alternatives cannot withstand scrutiny and are infinitely less plausible. I don’t deny that you sincerely believe the above. Please extend to me the same granting of my own sincerity and felt intellectual honesty (thanks, if so!).

. . . my honesty ultimately compelled me to admit that it was overwhelmingly likely to be false.

That’s your story and I am not doubting it. Adoption of various premises lead to various and sundry outcomes, and if these premises are false anywhere along the way, what follows logically from them will also be suspect (as you well know, being a philosopher). I would say you honestly followed some false premises, leading you to a false system (atheism). Such is not a moral failing, but a flaw in logic and ascertaining of facts. I hope you would say the same of me. You think I have adopted many false premises, leading me to the harmful and false system (in your eyes) of Christianity. But I feel myself to have been every bit as honest with myself and those whom I debate, as you have thought of yourself.

And my conscience over the pernicious potential effects of my false Christian beliefs played a key role in convincing me that having faith was unacceptably ethically dangerous.

. . . Just as I believe that atheism leads almost inexorably to several morally “dangerous” positions, while not necessarily having to malign those who hold such positions as “moral monsters.” I see it as intellectual error with dire consequences. I wold say that the bad fruits are all around us in our increasingly radically secular society (and able to be objectively examined through social science).

One of the best, most humane, and earnest Christians I knew was being ripped apart and pushed to suicidal despair because he internalized your baseless, bigoted, hatred of his romantic and sexual longings to be with men rather than women. And, worse, the contradictions I experienced in trying to follow your reckless advice to love him while hating his homosexuality were proving impossible in real life practice.

Here I feel compelled to resort to analogical argument, as I often do. Surely you don’t deny that we all love many people with whom we do not agree on many things: including lifestyle choices, or choices that we Christians deem to be sinful. Take, for example, persons who are guilty of “bad behavior” or wrongful actions that you and I would likely agree with, such as the wife-beater or alcoholic given to rage or drunk driving, or the racial bigot, or the greedy company president who mistreats and exploits his workers (I’m a distributist). Is it inconceivable to you that one can detest such behaviors, while at the same time not “hating” the person who commits them? If we care about them, we want to see them reform their behavior. It doesn’t follow that we hate them because we disagree with some of their positions or behaviors.

This is the traditional Christian view of homosexuals. We have no problem (in principle, anyway, if not always in practice. Many Christians have sinned greatly in this regard) loving an active homosexual, while profoundly disagreeing with their lifestyle, anymore than, for example, a parent continues to love a heroin-addicted son, or a daughter who fell into prostitution or embezzlement (substitute whatever moral infraction you like). We simply disagree on whether some things are wrong or not. But we all love people who do things we disagree with. That itself is not “reckless” or “impossible” at all. It’s the reality of life.

This topic alone is quite capable of derailing this discussion. Your choice. If you want to conclude that I am a hateful bigot simply because of my view of sexuality and marriage, then we’re done. I hope that is not the case. But it’s not possible to engage in civil discussion if we classify as a bigot and hateful moron, anyone who has a principled disagreement with us.

What reckless, destructive “love” you taught me, Christianity! What dangerous contradictory attitudes you put in me? And what good rational basis did I have for them? What good rational basis do you have for them? When I came to realize there really were none, then I had to reject faith in principle, since it meant believing without evidence and contrary to evidence, and beliefs not supported by reality and calibrated to reality can have severely dangerous consequences in reality. As an ethical matter, faith itself had to be abandoned as immoral.

Obviously, all of these grand claims wold have to be discussed one-by-one. But at this point I am “listening” to your feelings and rationales and doing my best to understand them.

. . . I felt tremendous pressure to prove that I emphatically did not leave because I just wanted to sin. I felt such pressure to prove that I left the faith because it was the most rational and moral thing to do–that it was the fulfillment of the moral commitment to the Truth that the church had taught me and not the frivolous abandonment of such commitment.

I accept your report at face value. There are people who leave Christianity because they like certain sins that Christianity condemns (we know that because they are very honest about their reasons). But there are also others who leave because they have come to believe that it is a false system. You appear to me to be in the latter group.

Today, I admit, I find it outright laughably absurd–the stuff of upside down and backwards days and Bizarro worlds–when Christians claim to be those most committed to Truth. And my head almost explodes when they go so far as to claim themselves its special possessor and guardian. Such claims are so stupefyingly un-self-aware, out of touch with reality, and false to their core, that the mind reels.

Anyone who thinks at all about worldviews and the nature of reality feels themselves to be following truth, so I don’t find it startling in the least that Christians would do so, too. As soon as we say “I believe x” we are choosing one particular truth claim over against others that contradict it. That’s simply the nature of thinking. Thanks for the colorful description, in any event. :-)

And finally my initial motivation to start this blog was to put down in my own words, so that they are entirely clear, everything that is wrong and false and distortive about the faith that used to torture me that I may help to dissuade and liberate others from it.

Sounds like a lot that I could potentially interact with, as a Christian apologist!

So, in one way or another, as much as I have overcome and moved beyond Christianity in most of my life, philosophically answering Christian objections has motivated me for 13 years.

Philosophically answering objections to Christianity has motivated me for 36 years, and is indeed my life’s work.

. . . a matter of opposing one of the world’s most powerful and dubious lies, one which requires systematic debunking that at least a billion people may think more clearly, rationally, and freely.

You feel that you have a message to get out, so people can be helped. Me, too! Another thing we have in common . . .

When I get angry with Christians it is an indignation specifically triggered by and aimed at to those who dare question my personal sincerity, integrity, or thoroughness in leaving the faith. 

I hope you’re not angry at me, because I haven’t done any of those things. I obviously think you are mistaken in some of your conclusions . . . You say far worse things about Christians and Christianity than I have ever said about atheists. So forgive me if I do observe a bit of irony here.

. . . I cannot bear to tolerate its attempt to judge my honesty, or my sincerity, or the depths of my former faith, or of the integrity of my decision to abandon it as unjustified.

Can you tolerate someone (like me) who will disagree with you on some of the premises and conclusions that you adopted in your exit from Christianity? You have said we Christians are welcome to discuss things with you. Clearly, we will disagree with you in many ways. It doesn’t follow that such disagreement is casting aspersions upon integrity or honesty or prior levels of sincere commitment. I approach these matters intellectually: debates about competing and contrary ideas. I haven’t attacked you: nor will I. I will disagree with your opinions and ideas.

We can debate as equals. You can make whatever arguments you think lead to truth. But that’s it. You don’t get to try to pick around looking for spiritual wounds or “sins”.

Precisely. I agree. And conversely, you have no right to judge me, either, as dishonest, or stupid (many many atheists think that of us) or fundamentally irrational and gullible and infantile (ditto) or as a hateful bigot, simply because I am a Christian. Goose and gander . . . Tolerance and charity go both ways.

Christians may challenge my ideas until they turn blue and pass out, and I will patiently as possibly try to return with philosophical soberness. But I will never again subject my personal integrity to the tribunal of the Christian church or its particular members for their approval. Never.

You don’t have to with me, as I have said over and over. But if you attack Christianity, surely you will expect that I (as a professional apologist and author) will defend it, if I find errors of fact and logic in your presentation, and give the “other side,” so to speak. If you are as committed to debate and a fair exchange of ideas in a civil fashion, as I am, you will welcome this opportunity.

Your Thoughts?

I gave ’em. Thanks for being curious as to what they are. Now I’d like to hear your thoughts in return, and see if we have something in this exchange worth pursuing further.

2017-06-09T19:33:10-04:00

(with particular reference to the papacy, Vatican I, Pope Leo XIII, St. Vincent of Lerins, and Blessed John Henry Cardinal Newman)

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Photograph Blessed John Henry Cardinal Newman (1801-1890), by Herbert Rose Barraud (1845-1896) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

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(2000)

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The following is a direct reply to Protestant polemicist William Webster’s article: The Repudiation of the Doctrine of Development as it Relates to the Papacy by Vatican I and Pope Leo XIII. His article was largely in response to certain assertions in Steve Ray’s book Upon This Rock. I break up his paragraphs in order to create a more readable back-and-forth dialogue (as is my custom), but readers can easily link to Mr. Webster’s original to check for context, if that is desired. Webster’s words will be in blue.

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Ray of Light Concerning Papal Development

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One of the claims being made by present day Roman Catholic apologists is that, as an institution, the papacy was something that developed over time.

As indeed every other doctrine held by Catholics and Protestants has, whether in understanding and/or in application.

In his book, Upon This Rock, Steve Ray represents this position. He uses the metaphor of the acorn and the oak. In critiquing my book, The Matthew 16 Controversy, Peter and the Rock, Ray states:

Webster’s section on St. Cyprian also demonstrates his unwillingness to represent fairly the process and necessity of doctrinal development within the Church. As we have demonstrated earlier in this book: the oak tree has grown and looks perceptibly different from the fragile sprout that cracked the original acorn, yet the organic essence and identity remain the same. Do the words of the very first Christians contain the full-blown understanding of the Papacy as expressed in Vatican I? No, they do not, as Webster correctly observes. (Steve Ray, Upon This Rock, San Francisco: Ignatius, 1999, p. 184).

My good friend Steve Ray (we have known each other since 1983 — many of those years as Protestant evangelicals) is exactly right, and presently I endeavor to show why he is, and why William Webster is wrong, by means of many different avenues of historical and theological arguments and analogies.

Now, there is an implicit admission in these statements. Steve Ray is admitting to the fact that the papacy was not there from the very beginning. It was subject to a process of development and growth over time. This is a simple historical fact recognized by historians of nearly every persuasion.

Indeed, all the elements which flow from the essential aspects of the papacy took time to develop fully. Thus the papacy as we know it today (i.e., post-Vatican I, when papal infallibility was defined) was not present “full-blown” in the first century. This should neither surprise nor scandalize Catholics, as if it were a “difficulty.” The essence of the papacy has been there all along, and that is precisely what Catholic apologists and any others who understand the true nature of Newmanian, Vincentian development of doctrine refer to, when they speak of doctrines having been “present from the beginning,” or as “part of the apostolic deposit passed on from Jesus to the Apostles.” Nor is this at all contrary to the teaching of the First Vatican Council or Leo XIII, as I will demonstrate. Mr. Webster simply has no case.

The essence of the papacy is Petrine primacy and divinely-granted jurisdiction over the Church universal. I have recounted many biblical and historical arguments in this regard in the following paper: 50 NT Proofs for Petrine Primacy & the Papacy. Since my analysis in that paper is entirely grounded in the Bible (the sole formal principle of authority for Mr. Webster – assuming he espouses sola Scriptura), therefore the only development these essential, presuppositional aspects of the papacy have undergone – in a remote, somewhat tongue-in-cheek sense – would be the development entailed in the process of determining the canon of the New Testament.

But I find it interesting that Mr. Webster cuts out the second half of Steve Ray’s paragraph, which he cites. I believe that the reader will be able to understand why:

But then, neither do the words of the first Christians present the fully developed understanding of the Trinity and the divinity of Christ (or the canon of the New Testament, for that matter) as expounded and practiced by later generations of the Church. One must be careful not to read too much into the early centuries — but one must also be careful not to ignore the obvious doctrinal substance contained and practiced by our forebears, which was simply developed and implemented as the need arose throughout subsequent centuries. (Ray, ibid., p. 184; emphasis added)

This shows that Mr. Webster’s reasoning would also apply to doctrines he himself also holds (as indeed Newman argued in his Essay on the Development of Christian Doctrine), therefore causing his case to more or less collapse, thus it was better that this was not revealed in a paper such as his present one – it makes for too much extra work, and we are all very busy . . .

Vatican I and Authoritative Biblical Interpretation

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The problem for Roman Catholics is not whether there was development. The problem lies in the fact that Vatican I says there was no development.

Of course the Council claims no such thing. It asserts that the papacy was present from the beginning, and Mr. Webster falsely assumes that therefore the papacy as understood and practiced post-1870 is being referred to as having been present all along (i.e., the “oak tree” rather than the “acorn”). It is easy to “win” an argument with a straw man of one’s own making (whether it is intentional or not).

In other words there was no acorn. It was a full blown oak from the very beginning and was therefore the practice of the Church from the very beginnning.

Again, this is a gratuitous and false assumption. Such a thing is never stated by Vatican I. And what is stated is wrongly interpreted by Mr. Webster, as I will demonstrate in due course. It so happens that I have previously “anticipated” Mr. Webster’s argument here (in exchanges with others) and have — I believe — (by means of Newman himself) satisfactorily “answered” his contentions already, in a paper: “The Development of the Papacy (Newman).

Vatican I reaffirmed the decree of the Council of Trent on the Unanimous Consent of the Fathers which has to do specifically with the interpretation of Scripture. It states that it is unlawful to interpret Scripture in any way contrary to the unanimous consent of the Fathers.

I assume Mr. Webster makes reference to the Dogmatic Constitution on the Catholic Faith, chapter II, “Of Revelation” (ending):

Now since the decree on the interpretation of Holy Scripture, profitably made by the Council of Trent, with the intention of constraining rash speculation, has been wrongly interpreted by some, we renew that decree and declare its meaning to be as follows: that in matters of faith and morals, belonging as they do to the establishing of Christian doctrine, that meaning of Holy Scripture must be held to be the true one, which holy Mother Church held and holds, since it is her right to judge of the true meaning and interpretation of Holy Scripture. In consequence, it is not permissible for anyone to interpret Holy Scripture in a sense contrary to this, or indeed against the unanimous consent of the Fathers.

This passage does not — strictly speaking — deal with mandatory interpretations of particular Scripture verses. The Church — in this instance, as always — is much more concerned with true doctrines, as opposed to absolute requirements of belief with regard to any given biblical passage. That’s why the Council speaks of “the true meaning and interpretation of Holy Scripture” (i.e., as a whole; as a set of doctrinal beliefs, or the crystallization of Holy Tradition), rather than of “the true meaning and interpretation of every individual passage of Holy Scripture.” The Church would, therefore, contend that Holy Scripture teaches the doctrine of the papacy, and that anyone who would deny that is in the wrong, and is opposed to the “unanimous consent” of the Fathers.

Mr. Webster, therefore (inadvertently, I assume) sets up false premises, upon which he bases his argument, which he apparently considers compelling and clear-cut. It rests upon a supposed conciliar requirement to interpret individual biblical passages in the way it itself interprets them, and an alleged claim that all the Fathers indeed interpreted them in this fashion. But these demands and claims simply do not occur in the Council’s decrees. Like many non-Catholic controversialists, Mr. Webster falls prey to the temptation of attributing to the Catholic Church an objectionable and excessive “dogmatism” which goes beyond what the Church claims for itself.

Vatican I then proceeds to set forth its teachings on papal primacy and infallibility with the interpretation of Matthew 16:18, John 21:15-17 and Luke 22:32 as the basis for its teachings.

So far, Mr. Webster is correct. Like any good Protestant, the Catholic Church seeks to offer biblical rationale for its beliefs.

And then it states that the interpretations that it gives and the conclusions it draws from these interpretations, in terms of the practice of the Church, has been that which has ever been taught in the Church and practiced by it.

In terms of the essence of the papacy, and the kernels contained in these passages, yes. But as we will shortly see, Mr. Webster falsely charges that the Church is making an untrue claim about historical exegesis – a contention which I cannot find in the texts he cites (perhaps I missed it, and Mr. Webster can point this out to me).

Here is what Vatican I says:

Chapter I: Of the Institution of the Apostolic Primacy in blessed Peter.

We therefore teach and declare that, according to the testimony of the Gospel, the primacy of jurisdiction over the universal Church of God was immediately and directly promised and given to blessed Peter the Apostle by Christ the Lord. For it was to Simon alone, to whom he had already said: “Thou shalt be called Cephas,” that the Lord after the confession made by him, saying: “Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God,” addressed these solemn words: “Blessed art thou, Simon Bar-Jona, because flesh and blood have not revealed it to thee, but my Father who is in heaven. And I say to thee that thou art Peter; and upon this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. And I will give to thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven. And whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth, it shall be bound also in heaven; and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven.” And it was upon Simon alone that Jesus after his resurrection bestowed the jurisdiction of chief pastor and ruler over all his fold in the words: “Feed my lambs; feed my sheep.” At open variance with this clear doctrine of Holy Scripture as it has been ever understood by the Catholic Church are the perverse opinions of those who, while they distort the form of government established by Christ the Lord in his Church, deny that Peter in his single person, preferably to all the other Apostles, whether taken separately or together, was endowed by Christ with a true and proper primacy of jurisdiction; or of those who assert that the same primacy was not bestowed immediately and directly upon blessed Peter himself, but upon the Church, and through the Church on Peter as her minister.

If any one, therefore, shall say that blessed Peter the Apostle was not appointed the Prince of all the Apostles and the visible Head of the whole Church militant; or that the same directly and immediately received from the same our Lord Jesus Christ a primacy of honor only, and not of true and proper jurisdiction: let him be anathema.

(Philip Schaff, The Creeds of Christendom [New York: Harper, 1877], Dogmatic Decrees of the Vatican Council, Ch. 4, pp. 266-71).

[remainder of lengthy citation from Vatican I deleted — the reader may read it on the link provided on top]

Notice here that Vatican I states that its interpretation of Matthew 16 and John 21 has been the interpretation that has ever been understood in the Church. That is, from them very beginning.

If by this, Mr. Webster is implying that the Council claimed all the Fathers interpreted these particular passages in the same fashion, it simply did not do so. A crucial distinction must be made at this point. The Council (and Catholic apologists today) can and may use various biblical texts in order to support some particular Catholic doctrine. Vatican I, then, is in effect arguing:

“These are some of the biblical reasons why we accept these beliefs (about the papacy), beliefs which have always been held (in their essence – with development over time) by the Church.”

Note that this is quite different (vastly different, in terms of logic) from arguing the following, which — if I am not mistaken — Mr. Webster falsely claims that Vatican I is doing:

“These are some of the biblical reasons which have always been used by the Church — with the unanimous consent of the Fathers — to justify these beliefs (about the papacy), beliefs which have always been held (in their essence — with development over time) by the Church.”

In other words, the beliefs themselves and the particular biblical rationale and proof texts for those beliefs are not one and the same. Thus, even if not all Fathers accepted the interpretations of certain “papal” passages which are frequently used in Catholic apologetics today, that does not mean that they therefore rejected the doctrine of the papacy. Mr. Webster has subtly altered the sense of Vatican I and “smuggled in” notions which are not actually present in the documents themselves, in order to bolster his anti-papal case. Again, I don’t contend that he is being deliberately deceitful. The logic is sufficiently subtle to have been botched in its application, a faux pas all proponents of a particular viewpoint are prone to commit, in their zeal and passion for the ideas they hold. But now that this logical fallacy has been pointed out and exposed, Mr. Webster must honestly face it.

Furthermore, one must precisely understand what is meant by the “unanimous consent” of the Fathers. Steve Ray has written about this as well. In a nutshell, it doesn’t mean in this context (ancient Latin usage), “absolutely every.” It means “very broad / widespread consensus.”

Vatican I, Cardinal Newman, & the Papacy vs. William Webster
***
It further states that Peter was given a primacy of jurisdiction from the very beginning by Christ himself and that this primacy was passed on to Peter’s successors, the bishops of Rome. This, it says, has been known to all ages.

Indeed, jurisdiction was present from the beginning, and recognized by the Fathers, as fully evidenced in my 50 NT Proofs for Petrine Primacy & the Papacy and in great depth in Steve Ray’s book Upon This Rock. It was present when Jesus gave to St. Peter the “keys of the kingdom,” and renamed him “Rock,” with strongly implied (and soon-exercised) ecclesiological preeminence, as shown in the many passages I detail. The successors are a matter of historical fact. Rome became the center of the Church by God’s design: Sts. Peter and Paul were martyred there, after all. American Christians have scarcely any notion of the place and function of martyrdom in the Christian life. Rome was also obviously key in terms of influencing the Roman Empire. But I digress . . .

In other words, there was no acorn. According to Vatican I, the papacy was a full blown oak from the very beginning because it was established by Christ himself.

The Council never asserts that it was a “full-blown oak from the very beginning” (because that would be clearly untrue). Nothing in the documents contradicts development of doctrine – rightly understood – in the least. The fact that the papacy was established by Christ Himself does not mean that it would initially look and operate in the same manner as it does today, after nearly 2000 years of development. Cardinal Newman writes very eloquently (as always) about this notion:

Let us see how, on the principles which I have been laying down and defending, the evidence lies for the Pope’s supremacy.

As to this doctrine the question is this, whether there was not from the first a certain element at work, or in existence, divinely sanctioned, which, for certain reasons, did not at once show itself upon the surface of ecclesiastical affairs, and of which events in the fourth century are the development; and whether the evidence of its existence and operation, which does occur in the earlier centuries, be it much or little, is not just such as ought to occur upon such an hypothesis.

. . . While Apostles were on earth, there was the display neither of Bishop nor Pope; their power had no prominence, as being exercised by Apostles. In course of time, first the power of the Bishop displayed itself, and then the power of the Pope . . .

When the Church, then, was thrown upon her own resources, first local disturbances gave exercise to Bishops,and next ecumenical disturbances gave exercise to Popes; and whether communion with the Pope was necessary for Catholicity would not and could not be debated till a suspension of that communion had actually occurred. It is not a greater difficulty that St. Ignatius does not write to the Asian Greeks about Popes, than that St. Paul does not write to the Corinthians about Bishops. And it is a less difficulty that the Papal supremacy was not formally acknowledged in the second century, than that there was no formal acknowledgment on the part of the Church of the doctrine of the Holy Trinity till the fourth. No doctrine is defined till it is violated . . .

Moreover, an international bond and a common authority could not be consolidated, were it ever so certainly provided, while persecutions lasted. If the Imperial Power checked the development of Councils, it availed also for keeping back the power of the Papacy. The Creed, the Canon, in like manner, both remained undefined. The Creed, the Canon, the Papacy, Ecumenical Councils, all began to form, as soon as the Empire relaxed its tyrannous oppression of the Church. And as it was natural that her monarchical power should display itself when the Empire became Christian, so was it natural also that further developments of that power should take place when that Empire fell . . .

On the whole, supposing the power to be divinely bestowed, yet in the first instance more or less dormant, a history could not be traced out more probable, more suitable to that hypothesis, than the actual course of the controversy which took place age after age upon the Papal supremacy.

It will be said that all this is a theory. Certainly it is: it is a theory to account for facts as they lie in the history, to account for so much being told us about the Papal authority in early times, and not more; a theory to reconcile what is and what is not recorded about it; and, which is the principal point, a theory to connect the words and acts of the Ante-nicene Church with that antecedent probability of a monarchical principle in the Divine Scheme, and that actual exemplification of it in the fourth century, which forms their presumptive interpretation. All depends on the strength of that presumption. Supposing there be otherwise good reason for saying that the Papal Supremacy is part of Christianity, there is nothing in the early history of the Church to contradict it . . .

Moreover, all this must be viewed in the light of the general probability, so much insisted on above, that doctrine cannot but develop as time proceeds and need arises, and that its developments are parts of the Divine system, and that therefore it is lawful, or rather necessary, to interpret the words and deeds of the earlier Church by the determinate teaching of the later.

(Essay on the Development of Christian Doctrine, 1878 edition, Univ. of Notre Dame Press, 1989, pp. 148-155; Part 1, Chapter 4, Section 3)

And then it states that this teaching is part of the content of saving faith. To deviate from this teaching is to incur the loss of salvation. This is an explicit affirmation that outside the Church of Rome there is no salvation.

This is true, but of course it must be understood how this teaching is applied (a task beyond our immediate purview). There are many “loopholes” which allow for ignorance and lessened culpability due to a variety of factors in which a given individual may not be at fault for his unbelief. Catholic teaching in this regard is very biblical, nuanced, and complex, unlike, e.g., Calvinist and other fundamentalist Protestant views which consign whole classes of people to damnation and hell due to double predestination and their never having heard the gospel. I have many links about this topic on my Ecumenism and Christian Unity page.

Later on, in its teaching on papal infallibility, Vatican I states:

For the Holy Spirit was not promised to the successors of Peter, that by his revelation they might make known new doctrine; but that by his assistance they might inviolably keep and faithfully expound the revelation or deposit of faith delivered through the Apostles. And, indeed, all the venerable Fathers have embraced, and the holy orthodox doctors have venerated and followed, their Apostolic doctrine; knowing most fully that this See of holy Peter remains ever free from all blemish of error according to the divine promise of the Lord our Saviour made to the Prince of his disciples: “I have prayed for thee that thy faith fail not, and, when thou art converted, confirm thy brethren.” This gift, then, of truth and never failing faith was conferred by heaven upon Peter and his successors in his chair, that they might perform their high office for the salvation of all . . . [omitted second portion of the citation]

Vatican I is basing its teaching of papal infallibility on the interpretation of Luke 22:32. A teaching or tradition which it says was received from the very beginning of the Christian faith. The Council asserts that the doctrine of papal infallibility is a divinely revealed dogma and all who refuse to embrace it are placed under anathema.

It does not assert that the entire teaching is based on Luke 22:32. It merely gives that passage as a proof text, not for papal infallibility per se, but rather, for the indefectibility of the Church, as centered and grounded in the orthodoxy of the popes. Again, this does not mean that absolutely every Father took this interpretation of Luke 22:32, if that is what is being implied. What was received from the beginning was papal primacy and universal jurisdiction, which is the essence and “seed” of papal infallibility, just as the biblical statement “Jesus is Lord” is the “seed” of the exceedingly complex and highly-philosophical Chalcedonian Christology of 451 A.D.

If Christology itself – the very doctrine of God – took over 400 years to “sort itself out,” so to speak (actually, even longer, as the Monothelite heresy was yet to appear), why not the papacy? In 451, Pope St. Leo the Great was reigning, and was a key figure in determining orthodox Christology (accepted to this day by all three branches of Christianity). The papacy was quite robust and “full-blown” by then, as most historians would agree. See my paper: “Pope Leo the Great & Papal Supremacy.” As for papal infallibility: true Christian authority must have a divinely-ordained means to protect it from error. We serve a God of truth, not of relativism and confusion. Ultimately, this “protector” is the Holy Spirit Himself, according to such passages as John 14:26 and 16:13.

Vatican I, Vincent of Lerins, Verities, & Verbal Gymnastics

***

Before moving on to Mr. Webster’s misguided accusations concerning the teaching of Pope Leo XIII vis-a-vis Vatican I and development, let us briefly note the fact that Vatican I – far from rejecting it – embraced development of doctrine. There can be no question of this whatsoever, as I will now prove.

Here is a portion of the Dogmatic Constitution on the Catholic Faith, ch. 4, “Of Faith and Reason,” from Dogmatic Canons and Decrees (Rockford, Illinois: TAN Books, 1977; reprint of 1912 ed. of authorized translations of the Councils of Trent and Vatican I, Imprimatur by John Cardinal Farley of New York, pp. 232-233):

Hence, also, that meaning of the sacred dogmas is perpetually to be retained which our holy Mother the Church has once declared; nor is that meaning ever to be departed from, under the pretence or pretext of a deeper comprehension of them (can. iii). Let then the intelligence, science and wisdom of each and all, of individuals and of the whole Church, in all ages and all times, increase and flourish in abundance and vigour; but simply in its own proper kind, that is to say, in one and the same doctrine, one and the same judgment. (29)

29. Vincent of Lerins, Common. n. 28.

This expresses precisely the Vincentian and Newmanian (and Catholic) understanding of the development of doctrines which remain essentially unchanged. Development is emphatically not evolution per se, which is the transformation or change of one thing into something else. The two concepts are entirely distinct philosophically and linguistically. Shortly I shall cite Pope St. Pius X, who makes precisely this distinction in a papal encyclical.Here is a second translation of the passage, from The Christian Faith: Doctrinal Documents of the Catholic Church, edited by J. Neuner and J. Dupuis, New York: Alba House, 5th revised and enlarged ed., 1990, p. 47:

Hence also that meaning of the sacred dogmas is perpetually to be retained which our Holy Mother Church has once declared, and there must never be a deviation from that meaning on the specious ground and title of a more profound understanding. ‘Therefore, let there be growth and abundant progress in understanding, knowledge and wisdom, in each and all, in individuals and in the whole Church, at all times and in the progress of ages, but only within the proper limits, i.e., within the same dogma, the same meaning, the same judgment.’ (1)

(1) Vincent of Lerins, Commonitorium primum, 23.

Perhaps, in the words of the prison guard in Cool Hand Luke, “what we have here is a failure to communicate.” There is no conflict whatever between Cardinal Newman’s thesis in his Essay on the Development of Christian Doctrine and the above infallible pronouncement of an Ecumenical Council (during his own lifetime, in fact).

Vatican I cites St. Vincent of Lerins as a precedent, just as Newman himself had 25 years earlier. It cites the very passage which is — from all accounts – the classic exposition of dogmatic development in the Fathers — the very inspiration of Newman to expand upon the notion further. St. Vincent even draws the analogy of the organic growth of bodies, using a metaphor (“seed”) which is the same notion as the “acorn and the oak tree” which Mr. Webster so disdains.

And here is the excerpt from St. Vincent of Lerins which Vatican I cited (Notebooks, 23:28-30), from yet another translation (William A. Jurgens, editor and translator, The Faith of the Early Fathers, 3 volumes, Collegeville, Minesota: Liturgical Press, vol. 3, 1979, p.265). I will provide the context, with the portion utilized by Vatican I in-between ***’s. Note that by citing this passage – given the explicit context – Vatican I is implicitly and beyond doubt giving sanction to the notion of doctrinal development. It is expressly denying (contra Webster) that Catholic doctrine (including, by extension, the papacy) starts as an “oak tree” rather than as a seed or acorn:

[28] But perhaps someone is saying: ‘ Will there, then, be no progress of religion in the Church of Christ? ‘ Certainly there is, and the greatest. For who is there so envious toward men and so exceedingly hateful toward God, that he would try to prohibit progress? But it is truly progress and not a change of faith. What is meant by progress is that something is brought to an advancement within itself; by change, something is transformed from one thing into another. *** It is necessary, therefore, that understanding, knowledge and wisdom grow and advance strongly and mightily as much in individuals as in the group, as much in one man as in the whole Church, and this gradually according to age and the times; and this must take place precisely within its own kind, that is, in the same teaching, in the same meaning, and in the same opinion.*** [29] The progress of religion in souls is like the growth of bodies, which, in the course of years, evolve and develop, but still remain what they were . . . [30] . . . Although in the course of time something evolved from those first seeds and has now expanded under careful cultivation, nothing of the characteristics of the seeds is changed. Granted that appearance, beauty and distinction has been added, still, the same nature of each kind remains.

[the first ellipses (. . . ) are in Jurgens’ version; the second set is my own]

If this weren’t a striking enough disproof of Mr. Webster’s claim that Vatican I opposes doctrinal development, in the same work, St. Vincent expresses his famous dictum (often cited by Protestant polemicists against development):

In the Catholic Church herself every care must be taken that we may hold fast to that which has been believed everywhere, always, and by all. For this is, then truly and properly Catholic . . . (Notebooks, 2, 3. Jurgens, ibid., vol. 3, p. 263)

Obviously, unchanging essence and developing, progressing non-essential elements are compatible, according to St. Vincent, Newman, and Vatican I. Here we have almost all the elements outlined by Newman fourteen centuries later, yet Protestant controversialists such as George Salmon and William Webster continue to claim that Newman’s views were a radical departure from Catholic precedent! How silly; how sad!

To establish the fact that St. Vincent of Lerins is a key figure in the “development of development of doctrine,” I shall now cite Pope St. Pius X, and four specialists on the history of Christian doctrine: two Catholic and two Protestant scholars, respectively:

28. It is thus, Venerable Brethren, that for the Modernists, whether as authors or propagandists, there is to be nothing stable, nothing immutable in the Church. Nor, indeed, are they without forerunners in their doctrines, for it was of these that Our predecessor Pius IX wrote: “These enemies of divine revelation extol human progress to the skies, and with rash and sacrilegious daring would have it introduced into the Catholic religion as if this religion were not the work of God but of man, or some kind of philosophical discovery susceptible of perfection by human efforts.”[14] On the subject of revelation and dogma in particular, the doctrine of the Modernists offers nothing new. We find it condemned in the Syllabus of Pius IX, where it is enunciated in these terms: ”Divine revelation is imperfect, and therefore subject to continual and indefinite progress, corresponding with the progress of human reason”;[15] and condemned still more solemnly in the Vatican Council: ”The doctrine of the faith which God has revealed has not been proposed to human intelligences to be perfected by them as if it were a philosophical system, but as a divine deposit entrusted to the Spouse of Christ to be faithfully guarded and infallibly interpreted. Hence also that sense of the sacred dogmas is to be perpetually retained which our Holy Mother the Church has once declared, nor is this sense ever to be abandoned on plea or pretext of a more profound comprehension of the truth.”[16] Nor is the development of our knowledge, even concerning the faith, barred by this pronouncement; on the contrary, it is supported and maintained. For the same Council continues: “Let intelligence and science and wisdom, therefore, increase and progress abundantly and vigorously in individuals, and in the mass, in the believer and in the whole Church, throughout the ages and the centuries–but only in its own kind, that is, according to the same dogma, the same sense, the same acceptation.”[17] (Pope St. Pius X, Pascendi Dominici Gregis, “On the Doctrine of the Modernists,” 8 September 1907, section 28)

Note how the pope who is known for his opposition to theological modernism, or liberalism — in his famous encyclical on that very subject –, cites the same passage from Vatican I which I have noted, including the citation from St. Vincent (which is at the very end). He contends that development of doctrine is neither “evolution” (which he contrasts to it) nor modernism. By extension, then, he is verifying that Vatican I upheld development of doctrine (as explicated by St. Vincent and more recently in the same sense by Cardinal Newman) as entirely orthodox and Catholic.

He states this outright: “Nor is the development of our knowledge, even concerning the faith, barred by this pronouncement; on the contrary, it is supported and maintained.” Nothing could be more clear. This is another nail in the coffin of Mr. Webster’s claims. The papacy is one of many doctrines contained in “the faith” and the apostolic deposit. It develops like all the other dogmas, and like all the beliefs in Protestantism as well — including the canon of Scripture itself (much as many Protestants would seek to deny this).

Vincent’s doctrinal principle does not exclude progress and development; but it does exclude change. For Vincent, progress is a developmental growth of doctrine in its own sphere; change, however, implies a transformation into something different. In his encyclical Pascendi gregis against modernism, Pope Saint Pius X refers favorably to St. Vincent; and so does the Second Vatican Council in its Dogmatic Constitution on the Catholic Faith. (The Faith of the Early Fathers, vol. III, Jurgens, ibid., p. 262)

[Describing St. Vincent’s thought] The criteria of tradition does not lead to immobility, given that it is joined with a second criterion, both essential and complementary, of dogmatic progress which operates according to the laws of organic growth.

‘This progress truly constitutes a progress and not an alteration of the faith, for it is characteristic of progress that a thing grows while remaining the same thing, and characteristic of alteration that one thing is changed into another. Therefore intelligence, knowledge, and wisdom grow and increase considerably both of the individual as of all, of the single man as well as of the entire church, according to ages and times. The particular nature of each is to be respected, however; that is, it remains exactly the same dogma, has the same meaning and expresses the same thought’ (c.23).

Vatican I adopted this well-known formula as its own . . . There is thus a three-fold progress: a progress in formulation which the church, having been challenged by the heretics, accomplishes by means of conciliar decrees to enlighten the understanding with new and appropriate terms and transmit them to those who will come later; progress in the organic life which takes place in dogmatic truths and always exceeds the language which expresses it, much in the same way that a human life grows from infancy to old age while always remaining the same person; progress in the final acquisition of truth without alteration or mutilation . . .

Paradoxically, this teacher of the immutability is revealed as the theologian of the laws of the development of dogma . . . The Commonitorium, as Bossuet noted, also drew its inspiration from the writings of Augustine . . .

Even though Vincent was concerned primarily with the innovations of the heresies, the West has drawn inspiration from his teaching on the progress of dogma developed in several chapters of the Commonitorium (c. 23-24). He recognized this development both in the understanding and in the formulation of dogmatic truth. Without changing the deposit of faith in any way, the church explores its richness more deeply and expresses its content more clearly . . . .

It is certain that . . . the influence of the Commonitorium has not ceased to increase since the sixteenth century . . . Bellarmine described it as the libellus plane aureus, while Bossuet makes constant reference to it in his Defense de la tradition des saints Peres. Catholics and Protestants regarded it with equal admiration at first. Newman found an “ecumenical” norm in the Commonitorium and procured a new importance for the work . . . the First Vatican Council . . . took the last word from Vincent of Lerins in the Dogmatic Constitution on the Faith. (Patrology, Johannes Quasten, vol. IV, ed. Angelo di Berardino, translated by Placid Solari, Allen, Texas: Christian Classics, 1977, from ch. 8, by Adalbert Hamman, pp. 548-550)

Augustine . . . manifestly acknowledges a gradual advancement of the church doctrine, which reaches its corresponding expression from time to time through the general councils; but a progress within the truth, without positive error . . . In like manner Vincentius Lerinensis teaches, that the church doctrine passes indeed through various stages of growth in knowledge, and becomes more and more clearly defined in opposition to ever-rising errors, but can never become altered or dismembered. (History of the Christian Church, vol. 3: Nicene and Post-Nicene Christianity, Philip Schaff, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1974 [orig. 1910], p. 344)

. . . Not that Vincent is a conservative who excludes the possibility of all progress in doctrine. In the first place, he admits that it has been the business of councils to perfact and polish the traditional formulae, and even concepts, in which the great truths contained in the original deposit are expressed, thereby declaring ‘not new doctrines, but old ones in new terms’ (non nova, sed nove). Secondly, however, he would seem to allow for an organic development of doctrine analogous to the growth of the human body from infancy to age. But this development, he is careful to explain, while real, must not result in the least alteration to the original significance of the doctrine concerned. Thus in the end the Christian must, like Timothy, [1 Tim 6:20] ‘guard the deposit’, i.e., the revelation enshrined in its completeness in Holy Scripture and correctly interpreted in the Church’s unerring tradition. (Early Christian Doctrines, J. N. D. Kelly, San Francisco: HarperCollins, revised edition, 1978, pp. 50-51)

Salmon and Dead Horses (Being Beaten)

***

The Anglican George Salmon’s The Infallibility of the Church (originally 1890) apparently remains an inspiration for the anti-infallibility, anti-development polemics of the current generation of anti-Catholic crusaders, such as William Webster and James White. Yet it has been refuted decisively twice, by B.C. Butler, in his The Church and Infallibility: A Reply to the Abridged “Salmon”‘ and also in a series of articles in The Irish Ecclesiastical Record, in 1901 and 1902. (1)

Nevertheless, even the more ecumenical Protestant apologists Norman Geisler and Ralph MacKenzie claimed in 1995, in a major critique of Catholicism, Roman Catholics and Evangelicals: Agreements and Differences, (2) that Salmon’s book has “never really been answered by the Catholic Church.” Geisler and MacKenzie cite Salmon as a “witness” for their case (3).

George Salmon revealed in his book his profoundly biased ignorance not only concerning papal infallibility, but also with regard to even the basics of the development of doctrine:

Romish advocates . . . are now content to exchange tradition, which their predecessors had made the basis of their system, for this new foundation of development . . . The theory of development is, in short, an attempt to enable men, beaten off the platform of history, to hang on to it by the eyelids . . . The old theory was that the teaching of the Church had never varied. (4)

1. Butler: New York, Sheed & Ward, 1954, 230 pages. A friend was recently able to obtain the articles from the Irish Ecclesiastical Record in the library of a well-known evangelical seminary in the Chicago area.

2. Norman L. Geisler and Ralph E. MacKenzie, Roman Catholics and Evangelicals: Agreements and Differences, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Books, 1995, p. 206, which calls it the “classic refutation of papal infallibility.” See also p. 459.

3. Geisler and MacKenzie, ibid., pp. 206-207.

4. Salmon, George, The Infallibility of the Church, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Book House (originally 1888), pp. 31-33 (cf. also pp. 35, 39).

Here Salmon (like Webster) is quixotically fighting a straw man of his own making and seeking to sophistically force his readers into the acceptance of a false and altogether logically unnecessary dichotomy: that development of doctrine implies change in the essence or substance of a doctrine and therefore is utterly contrary to the claims of the Church to be the Guardian and Custodian of an authoritative tradition of never-changing dogma. But this is emphatically not the Catholic belief, nor that of Newman, to whom Salmon was largely responding. Nor is it true that development was a “new” theory introduced by Cardinal Newman into Catholicism, while the “old theory” was otherwise. This is unanswerably proven by the writing of St. Vincent of Lerins, above (themselves paralleled by St. Augustine and other Fathers well familiar with the orthodox notion of development).

Pope Leo XIII: Foe of Development of Doctrine and Newman?

***

The papal encyclical, Satis Cognitum, written by Pope Leo XIII in 1896, is a commentary on and papal confirmation of the teachings of Vatican I. As to the issue of doctrinal development, Leo makes it quite clear that Vatican I leaves no room for such a concept in its teachings.

If indeed this were true (it assuredly is not), then I would find it exceedingly odd that Pope Leo XIII would name John Henry Newman a Cardinal in 1879, soon after becoming pope (1878). Why would he do that for the famous exponent of the classic treatment of development of doctrine, if he himself rejected that same notion? No; as before, Mr. Webster is (consciously or not) subtly switching definitions and statements of a pope and a Council in order to make it appear that there is a glaring contradiction, when in fact there is none. Such a mythical state of affairs is beyond absurd:

Il mio cardinale“, Pope Leo called Newman, “my cardinal”. There was much resistance to the appointment. “It was not easy”, the Pope recalled later, “It was not easy. They said he was too liberal.” (Marvin R. O’Connell, “Newman and Liberalism,” in Newman Today, edited by Stanley L. Jaki, San Francisco: Ignatius Press, 1989, p. 87)

And the very fact that Newman was now a member of the sacred college had put to rest, as he expressed it, ‘all the stories which have gone about of my being a half Catholic, a Liberal Catholic, not to be trusted . . . The cloud is lifted from me forever.” (Ibid., p. 87; Letter of Newman to R. W. Church, 11 March 1879, Letters and Diaries, vol. XXIX, p. 72)

Ian Ker, author of the massive 764-page biography John Henry Newman (Oxford University Press, 1988) expands upon Pope Leo XIII in relation to Newman:

The Duke of Norfolk had himself personally submitted the suggestion to the Pope. The Duke’s explicit object was to secure Rome’s recognition of Newman’s loyalty and orthodoxy. Such a vindication was not only personally due to Newman, but was important for removing among non-Catholics the suspicion that his immensely persuasive and popular apologetic writings were not really properly Catholic. It looks in fact as if Leo XIII had already had the idea himself, as Newman was later given to believe . . . After being elected Pope, he is supposed to have said that the policy of his pontificate would be revealed by the name of the first Cardinal he created. Several years later he told an English visitor: . . .

‘I had determined to honour the Church in honouring Newman. I always had a cult for him. I am proud that I was able to honour such a man.’ (p. 715)

Newman wrote:

For 20 or 30 years ignorant or hot-headed Catholics had said almost that I was a heretic . . . I knew and felt that it was a miserable evil that the One True Apostolic Religion should be so slandered as to cause men to suppose that my portrait of it was not the true — and I knew that many would become Catholics, as they ought to be, if only I was pronounced by Authority to be a good Catholic. On the other hand it had long riled me, that Protestants should condescendingly say that I was only half a Catholic, and too good to be what they were at Rome. (in Ker, ibid., pp. 716-717; Letters and Diaries, vol. XXIX, p. 160)

Such is the lot of great men; geniuses; those ahead of their time. Now Mr. Webster joins this miserable, deluded company of those who pretend that Newman was a heterodox Catholic, and that his theory of development is somehow un-Catholic, or — even worse — a deliberately cynical method of rationalization intended to whitewash so-called “contradictions” of Catholic doctrinal history.

Leo states over and over again that the papacy was fully established by Christ from the very beginning and that it has been the foundation of the constitution of the Church and recognized as such from the very start and throughout all ages.

True enough, in the sense which I have repeatedly stressed.

He further affirms that Vatican I’s teaching has been the constant belief of every age and and is therefore not a novel doctrine:

Merciful heavens! A “novel doctrine” is something like sola Scriptura, or sola fide, the latter of which Protestant apologist Norman Geisler states that no one believed it from the time of St. Paul to Luther (and Catholics would also strongly deny that Paul taught it). Likewise, noted Protestant scholar Alister McGrath confesses:

The essential feature of the Reformation doctrines of justification is that a deliberate and systematic distinction is made between justification and regeneration. Although it must be emphasised that this distinction is purely notional, in that it is impossible to separate the two within the context of the ordo salutis, the essential point is that a notional distinction is made where none had been acknowledged before in the history of Christian doctrine. A fundamental discontinuity was introduced into western theological tradition where none had ever existed, or ever been contemplated, before. The Reformation understanding of the nature of justification as opposed to its mode must therefore be regarded as a genuine theological novum. (Iustitia Dei: A History of the Christian Doctrine of Justification, the Beginnings to the Reformation, Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1993, pp. 186-187)

Many other innovations of Protestantism- – established against all contrary Church precedent — amply qualify as true “novelties.” The papacy (even considered as explicitly infallible)- – whatever one thinks of it – is surely not in the same league as all the brand-new Protestant inventions. But let us see what Mr. Webster selects from Pope Leo XIII’s encyclical, to supposedly bolster his tenuous claims:

Wherefore, as appears from what has been said, Christ instituted in the Church a living, authoritative and permanent Magisterium, which by His own power He strengthened, by the Spirit of truth He taught, and by miracles confirmed. He willed and ordered, under the gravest penalties, that its teachings should be received as if they were His own…Jesus Christ, therefore, appointed Peter to be that head of the Church; and He also determined that the authority instituted in perpetuity for the salvation of all should be inherited by His successors, in whom the same permanent authority of Peter himself should continue. And so He made that remarkable promise to Peter and to no one else: “Thou are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church” (Matt. xvi., 18)…It was necessary that a government of this kind, since it belongs to the constitution and formation of the Church, as its principal element – that is as the principle of unity and the foundation of lasting stability – should in no wise come to an end with St. Peter, but should pass to his successors from one to another…When the Divine founder decreed that the Church should be one in faith, in government, and in communion, He chose Peter and his successors as the principle and centre, as it were, of this unity…Indeed, Holy Writ attests that the keys of the Kingdom of Heaven were given to Peter alone, and that the power of binding and loosening was granted to the Apostles and to Peter; but there is nothing to show that the Apostles received supreme power without Peter, and against Peter. Such power they certainly did not receive from Jesus Christ. Wherefore, in the decree of the Vatican Council as to the nature and authority of the primacy of the Roman Pontiff, no newly conceived opinion is set forth, but the venerable and constant belief of every age (Sess. iv., cap. 3).

Again, this is not at all inconsistent with the idea of a primitive version of the papacy consistently developing into the institution we see today. Mr. Webster simply begs the question by assuming that Pope Leo refers throughout to a full-fledged papacy, and not to the essential, unchanging seed of the later developed papacy, in the person of St. Peter. Leo XIII never makes any statement explicitly denouncing development (which is Mr. Webster’s thesis, after all).

And when he refers to the papacy as the “constant belief,” he is expressing himself no differently than a Protestant who states that “the divinity of Christ has always been believed,” or “the Trinity was always believed,” or the New Testament was always accepted by 1st-century Christians, when they know full well (if they know their Church history at all) that the doctrines of God (trinitarian theology) and especially Christ (Christology) also underwent much development (Two Natures, Athanasian Creed, Theotokos, battles with heretics such as the Monothelites, Arians, and Sabellians) while at the same time remaining the same in essence.

Likewise, there wasn’t total consensus about the New Testament until the canon was finalized in the late 4th century. Yet Scripture was what it was all along: inspired and God-breathed. The Church did not make it so (as Vatican I itself explicitly affirms). Protestants, in speaking of the broad consensus of the early Fathers with regard to the canon of Scripture, are basically asserting the “unanimous consent of the Fathers” in the way a Catholic would argue. Likewise, the papacy was what it was, all along, even if not all recognized it. Not all recognized Jesus as the Messiah and Lord, either. That is no disproof.

Conclusion: Folly, False “Facts,” and Fallacies

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The Roman Catholic Church, itself, has officially stated that there was no development of this doctrine in the early Church.

Where? This certainly hasn’t been shown by Mr. Webster. He has to make false deductions and redefine words and phrases to make his nonexistent case, whereas I have clearly demonstrated the opposite, right from the explicit text of Vatican I.

After all, if the fullness of the definition of papal primacy as defined by Vatican I was instituted by Christ immediately upon Peter, as both Vatican I and Leo XIII affirm, then there is no room for development.

This is a classic case of Mr. Webster’s fallacious logic and curious rhetorical method. Where is it stated that the “fullness of definition of papal primacy” was conferred upon Peter? The primacy itself was given to him; the duty and prerogatives of the papal office, and the keys of the kingdom, but none of that implies that a full understanding or application, or unanimous acknowledgement by others is therefore also present from the beginning. The thing itself – in its essential aspects, or nature, is present. And that is what develops, without inner contradiction or change of principle, as Newman ably pointed out in the long citation above.

It was instituted by Christ himself and was therefore present from the very beginning and would have been recognized as such by the Church as Vatican I states: “Whence, whosoever succeeds to Peter in this See, does by the institution of Christ himself obtain the Primacy of Peter over the whole Church –, a fact which Vatican I says has been known to all ages leading to the practice “that it has at all times been necessary that every particular Church — that is to say, the faithful throughout the world — should agree with the Roman Church, on account of the greater authority of the princedom which this has received.” This documentation completely demolishes present day Roman Catholic apologists’ theory of development. They are at odds with the magisterium of their own Church. Indeed, these apologists must set forth a theory of development because of the historical reality, but such a theory is at open variance with the clear teaching of Vatican I and Leo XIII.

Hardly. As shown, Vatican I explicitly accepted development of doctrine, citing the very passage from St. Vincent Lerins which is the classic exposition in the Fathers – essentially identical to Newman’s analysis. Pope Leo XIII made Newman a Cardinal – his very first appointment, meant to send a message, yet Mr. Webster would have us believe that he was diametrically opposed to the thought for which Newman was most famous (and notorious, in some circles): development of doctrine. So we are to believe that Leo XIII made a Cardinal someone he regarded as a rank heretic? I suppose any absurd, surreal scenario within the Catholic Church is possible in the minds of many of her more – shall we say – zealous critics. Likewise, the very next pope, and vigorous condemner of modernism, Pope St. Pius X, also supported not only St. Vincent of Lerins, as we saw above, but also John Henry Newman (see below).

Thus, there is quite positive evidence that development of doctrine was (and is) indeed accepted by the Catholic Church. Mr. Webster, on the other hand, in order to put forth his thesis, must rely on distortions of what development means, and improbable deductions from indirect suggestions in conciliar and papal documents, which he interprets as hostile to development. It’s a wrongheaded enterprise from the get-go. Newman was orthodox, despite what Webster, Salmon, and other Protestant polemicists would have us believe:

To make matters worse, and to deepen Newman’s disappointment, the Essay had been eagerly seized by American Unitarians as a first-rate demonstration that the Trinitarian doctrine was not primitive but was a development of the third century. In the midst of the consequent excitement, the militant American convert, Orestes Brownson, made a series of attacks on the Essay, beginning with a review of it in Brownson’s Quarterly Review in July, 1846. Brownson called Newman’s work “essentially anticatholic and Protestant”; he objected to Christianity being treated as an “idea”; and he also objected to Newman’s third mark of a true development, the “power of assimilation” . . .

It is not surprising, therefore, that the edition of 1878 is in so many ways, both large and small, different from that of 1845. Yet in the thirty-three years between the two editions, the Essay made its way with the Church, and was accepted in its original form as, in the words of Dr. Benard, “simply an original and highly ingenious manner of presenting a strictly traditional Catholic doctrine.” But the vicissitudes of Newman’s Essay were not over. During the last years of the nineteenth century and the beginning of the twentieth, there arose the Modernist Movement, in which Newman’s volume was made an instrument of heresy . . .

It may be observed that when Pope Pius X issued the encyclical Pascendi dominici gregis in July, 1907, condemning the Movement, many of Newman’s readers at once feared that the Essay on Developent had been condemned, too . . . But at the very height of the excitement occasioned by the encyclical Pascendi, the Most Reverend Edward Thomas O’Dwyer, bishop of Limerick, published his pamphlet on Cardinal Newman and the Encyclical Pascendi Dominici Gregis (London: Longmans, Green, and Co., 1908), which showed clearly that the Modernists could not legitimately depend on Newman for their teaching. The final, authoritative answer to the Modernists, however, appeared when Pope Pius X sent a letter to Bishop O’Dwyer, confirming the latter’s defense of Newman. (Preface to Essay on the Development of Christian Doctrine by Charles Fredrick Harrold, New York: Longmans, 1949 pp. vii-ix)

So when we analyze these papal teachings in the light of history it is perfectly legitimate to ask the question on two levels. As to the actual institution of the papacy, do we find the teachings of Vatican I expressed by the fathers of the Church in their practice?

Not in its fullness, but this is not required in order for both unchanging essence and developing secondary aspects to harmoniously coexist.

And secondly, as to the issue of interpretation, do we find a unanimous consent of the fathers regarding Vatican I’s interpretation of Matthew 16:18, John 21:15-17 and Luke 22:32 that supports papal primacy and infallibility? In both cases the answer is a decided no.

As already shown, consensus on individual Scripture verses is not required by the Church, and Mr. Webster has not documented that Vatican I taught otherwise. What is required is assent to the essential premises and characteristics of the doctrine, which were indeed there from the beginning, from the time of Christ’s commissioning of St. Peter. Mr. Webster’s case therefore collapses, having been shown to be woefully insufficient or outright contradicted in all of its main points of contention.

I close with a quote from the Protestant apologist C. S. Lewis, which confirms the Newmanian and Catholic understanding of development of doctrine:

How can an unchanging system survive the continual increase of knowledge? . . . Change is not progress unless the core remains unchanged. A small oak grows into a big oak; if it became a beech, that would not be growth, but mere change . . . There is a great difference between counting apples and arriving at the mathematical formulae of modern physics. But the multiplication table is used in both and does not grow out of date. In other words, whenever there is real progress in knowledge, there is some knowledge that is not superseded. Indeed, the very possibility of progress demands that there should be an unchanging element . . . I take it we should all agree to find this . . . in the simple rules of mathematics. I would also add to these the primary principles of morality. And I would also add the fundamental doctrines of Christianity . . . I claim that the positive historical statements made by Christianity have the power, elsewhere found chiefly in formal principles, of receiving, without intrinsic change, the increasing complexity of meaning which increasing knowledge puts into them . . . Like mathematics, religion can grow from within, or decay . . . But, like mathematics, it remains simply itself, capable of being applied to any new theory.

(God in the Dock, ed. Walter Hooper, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1970, pp.44-47. From “Dogma and the Universe,” The Guardian, March 19, 1943, p.96 / March 26, 1943, pp. 104 ,107)

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2017-05-13T18:54:55-04:00

ChurchDoors3

Church in Malta [PublicDomainPictures.Net / CC0 license]

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(July 2000; some revisions on 12-8-11)

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Fundamental Epistemological Reasons for Accepting Catholic Principles of Authority

When faith is brought in, we can have a “certainty” in the biblical or spiritual sense. But as for “absolute certainty,” I have made the same argument about Protestants (Calvinist and eternal security Baptist-types) and their notion of absolute assurance of salvation. I have argued that one cannot know that with certainty, as they don’t know the future absolutely. I don’t see any philosophical difference here — there is an equivalency.

The way in which Calvinists hold to absolute assurance is precisely how we hold to the “absolute assurance” of the infallibility of the Church, as the Guardian of Tradition and the Faith. Calvinists say that their salvation and the certainty of it is grounded in the promises of God and election (and Scripture, of course).

We say that the Church’s infallibility is also grounded in God’s promises: in the Person of the Holy Spirit: the Paraclete and Spirit of Truth, Who guides His people (corporately, the Church) into all truth (not to mention the papacy and all the Petrine data). And we, too, find this in the many explicit biblical indications of such an authoritative, visible, hierarchical Church. What’s the epistemological difference? I see none. There is a huge theological difference, but not a methodological, philosophical one.

In a practical sense, here is the flaw in Protestant “absolute assurance” (an argument I made for years, as an Arminian Protestant): when someone seems to be a good little Calvinist, knows all the buzz phrases and evangelical/Reformed lingo, etc., and goes to Church and leads a moral life according to Reformed teaching, then he is one of the “elect,” and no one really doubts this in the everyday, practical sense.

Now say for the sake of argument that he “falls away” in the sense that he no longer fits these criteria? He starts falling into sin (say adultery or blatant unbelief in Jesus). Then the Calvinist — “prisoners” of their system — simply say (with the marvelous benefit of hindsight) that he never was one of them; one of the elect. We don’t have to play that game, because we believe one can truly be in God’s graces and then truly fall away, and possibly return to a state of grace (we call it repentance and confession).

No Calvinist knows with this “absolute certainty” who is saved or in the elect. They claim that they do, but they cannot, for the simple reason that they don’t know the future and the eschatological destiny of each soul (they are not omniscient; nor do they possess foreknowledge). Otherwise, they would know that “brother X” was gonna be sleeping with a prostitute or another man’s wife in the future, and hence was never in the elect (because Scripture says “fornicators will not inherit the kingdom,” etc.).

The Catholic accepts the infallibility of His Church in the same fashion that most Protestants accept the “certainty” of their supposedly already accomplished salvation. Here is epistemological parallelism and equivalency. No one can know with certainty his own eternal destiny; we can only know at the moment if we are in the good graces of God, by a thorough examination of conscience. Catholics call that a “moral assurance” of salvation, and we assert that this is the biblical, apostolic, and patristic belief.

No one expect the Catholic apologists who have never been Protestant to understand every variation of Protestantism. It would take a lifetime to master all those, and who wants to anyway? Even converts like myself don’t have first-hand experience of all the different brands. We are forced to generalize by the nature of the case, and then Protestants always have the convenient out of saying “but that’s not us.” There is a lot of truth in such replies, of course, but in a sense it’s a bit like the standard campus Marxist reply that every corruption and Communist atrocity and despot does not represent “true” Marxism — the result being that such a utopian Marxism never existed and cannot be pointed out in the real world.

The “Infallibility Regress” Argument of Protestant Apologists, Concerning Catholic Reliance Upon Church Authority

The Catholic rule of faith is not simply a reliance upon the Church in blind faith; it is, rather, the combination of Church authority, patristic consensus, and the biblical material: Church, Tradition, and Bible: the “three-legged stool.” We say that this was the methodology of the Fathers themselves, in their appeal to apostolic succession or Tradition (see, e.g., Irenaeus). It is essentially an historical, typically Jewish argument, not a philosophical one (philosophy deriving from the Greeks).

The whole point is that there is an identifiable apostolic deposit which is passed down, and Catholics accept that, as clarified by their Church. We don’t reinvent Christianity in each generation; we accept what has been given to us, just as the Apostles and Fathers before us did. This is not a philosophical matter; it is one of faith and legal-historical grounds of ascertainable fact. It makes at least as much sense as Protestant “certainty” on any number of issues.

Everyone accepts the Scripture; that is not at issue. The alleged “self-attesting” nature of it is a real issue I have dealt with at great length. The “secondary testimony” here is that of the “mere creatures” Luther and Calvin. If Scripture speaks of an infallible and indefectible Church, then that notion is relying on the Word of the LORD. We rely on the apostolic Tradition passed down, verified and developed by the Fathers, Councils, great Doctors, and popes, and ultimately in the materially-sufficient Holy Scriptures.

Protestants rely on the fallible, late-arriving distinctives of Luther and Calvin, and in effect grant them apostolic authority. They can flat-out invent doctrines and claim they are both historical and biblical. No pope could even dream of doing that. They wouldn’t dare do it (on a few occasions when they came remotely close to that a mass uproar occurred). They are strictly dependent upon received precedent. Not so for Luther and Calvin, the Super-Popes. That’s why I say Protestantism is fundamentally man-centered at its very roots.

Believing Christians and Jews have always possessed “certainty” (I recommend Newman’s Grammar of Assent in this regard). It is a rational faith, backed up by eyewitness testimony and historical evidences, and the history of doctrine. It is not mere hyper-rationalistic, Enlightenment-inspired philosophy, as so much of Protestant apologetics appears to be. Not to mention theological liberalism: another wonderful benefit bequeathed to my Church by my Protestant brethren, causing the ruin of many souls. No one is saying (or should say) that there is an absolute certainty in a strict philosophical sense (I can play the game of philosophy quite well if I need to — I took a lot of it in college). But there is certainty in the sense of faith.

It’s like any acceptance of authority: it won’t work if we are blinded by a closed mind and a prideful, self-centered will (compounded by the level of individual ignorance or prior misinformation). That is true of any teaching system, including Catholicism. But that doesn’t, of course, disprove the Catholic system. It is not private judgment per se which leads one to accept Catholicism; it is precisely the opposite: it is yielding up one’s private judgment in the act of recognizing the Church for what it is: the spiritual authority ordained by God. One can do this reasonably by applying historical criteria, just as Christians have always done.

When I say “private judgment” I am talking about Christian authority and ecclesiology; not philosophical epistemology. I refer (per my many dialogues on this subject) to the Protestant formal system of sola Scriptura which places the individual in the position as the supreme and final arbiter of his own theology and destiny. This is a formal system of Christian authority, over against the Catholic three-legged stool of “Church, Tradition, and Scripture” – all harmonious and not contradictory or competing.

So the Protestant — by the exercise of this self-granted prerogative — can stand there and judge all three legs of the stool (as Luther at Worms did), making his own conscience supreme (the corollary of private judgment). This we reject as unbiblical and against the entire previous history of the Church. And all Protestants do this — by definition. Some variants may be more subtle, nuanced, and fine-tuned, and much less ahistorical, but all the versions boil down to a rejection of the apostolic authority of the Catholic Church.

Ultimately Protestants reserve the right to interpret Scripture against the Fathers, if their views do not correspond to the theological system you espouse (e.g., a rejection of the Real Presence in the Eucharist and baptismal regeneration: both virtually unanimous views of the Fathers). In the end, Protestantism becomes a man-centered system (Calvin, Luther, Fox et al), rather than an apostolic, patristic, traditional-centered system, where the individual yields his judgment to the historic Christian consensus of the ages: the apostolic Tradition faithfully passed down and protected from error by the Holy Spirit.

Why would Protestants assume that God cannot protect His Church from error just as He protected His written revelation from error? On what basis do they assume that? After all (I make an analogical argument, of plausibility), the gift of infallibility is far lesser in order than the gift of inspiration, by which fallible, sinful men accurately and infallibly recorded the word of God in Sacred Scripture, without error. Both gifts are supernatural and divinely granted.

It seems to me that if God could and would do one thing, then He would certainly do the other, so as to maintain a unified truth and a consistent witness to the world. I think most people would agree that it was not God’s plan to bring about the chaos and relativism in Protestantism today (Calvinists are always lambasting non-Calvinist Protestants as much-inferior and as outside the true “Reformation” heritage). Error (which must be present when views contradict) does not come from the Spirit of God, but from below.

I have always maintained that the Christian notion of truth and authority is historically-based, as opposed to philosophically-based. And it requires faith. Catholic authority is not an airtight philosophical proposition. But Protestantism is not, either, and contains within itself far more problematic elements. The double standard, therefore, resides in the Protestant contra-Catholic polemic. I say that our view is biblical, consistent, apostolic, and patristic, and therefore far preferable to the Protestant Johnny-come-lately system of sola Scriptura.

Apostolic and patristic Christianity was much more analogous to Old Testament Judaism, than to, say, Greek philosophy, with its abstract “epistemology” (and I say this as a Socratic myself; one who loves philosophy). Authority flowed always from commonly acknowledged miraculous historical events and historical criteria: a sort of “Christian mythology” (i.e., a corporately-preserved story of origins) but what C. S. Lewis would describe as “true mythology.”

Our claim is that the Church is infallible, and that the individual yields up his private judgment to the authority of the Church, based on apostolic succession. We have faith that God will guide His Church. It is a reasonable faith, which can be backed up by many sorts of reasonable evidences (primarily historical), though it ultimately transcends them all, as all matters of faith do.

We believe Scripture is materially sufficient, but not formally sufficient without the Church as a Guide. We believe that Scripture and Tradition are “twin fonts of the same divine wellspring,” as Vatican II states.

He performed miracles, and many people observed these. He rose from the dead, and proved the reality of that by appearing to more than 500 people, eating fish, showing that He possessed flesh and bones, etc. This is all historical, and a matter of eyewitness testimony (so one might say it is a historical-legal approach to theological truth). Likewise with the Church. There was one, recognized deposit of faith, passed on from our Lord Jesus to the disciples and Apostles, which Paul repeatedly refers to.

Jesus established a Church, with Peter as the head (Matthew 16:13-20). This Church has definite and discernible characteristics, described in the Bible. There were Apostles, and their successors were and are bishops. There were popes as well, and they exercised authority over the Church Universal.

Now, how was this Church identifiable in the early days and in the patristic period? Again, it was the historical criteria of authenticity. The Fathers always appealed to apostolic succession (a demonstrable historical lineage of orthodoxy) and Scripture, not Scripture Alone. The heretics were the ones who adopted Scripture Alone as their principle, because they knew that they couldn’t produce the historical lineage (hence an early manifestation of the unChristian and unbiblical a-historicism which has been a dominant flaw of Protestantism ever since its inception). Protestants thus adopted the heretical principle of formal authority, whereas Catholics have consistently adopted apostolic succession as the criteria of Christian truth and legitimate, divinely ordained authority. The Catholic Church traces itself back to the beginning in an unbroken line, centered in the Roman See and the papacy.

So when someone like me (a very low-church evangelical) becomes convinced of Catholicism, it is not merely another Protestant exercise of private judgment and de facto alleged self-infallibility. It is,to the contrary, the yielding up of private judgment and the acknowledgement of something far greater than oneself: an entity which is “out there;” which has always been there since Christ established it, preserving (only by God’s enabling grace and will) apostolic Christian truth in its fullness and undiluted splendor. So one accepts it based on the historical criteria, just as one would accept the historicity of the Resurrection or the Virgin Birth, or the authority of the Bible — itself grounded in historically-verifiable elements (e.g., fulfilled prophecy, the continuance of the Jews, the astounding transformation of the early Christians, etc.). It is on the basis of history (and, of course, faith as well), as opposed to some alleged prideful, illusory, self-infallibility. Popes and Ecumenical Councils are just as bound to the received deposit of faith, as I am.

To learn further about how my own particular spiritual odyssey progressed (for anyone who might be curious), see my paper: “How Newman Convinced Me of the Apostolicity of the Catholic Church.” Newman himself accepted the Catholic Church based on undeniable historical realities, and thus was able to reject the man-made Anglican edifice of the Via Media. Likewise, I came to see (after also studying the so-called “Reformation”) that evangelical Protestantism could not in any way, shape, or form fit the bill of the fullness of apostolic Christianity either. Only Catholicism could do that.

And I wanted apostolic, biblical Christianity: the Christianity which Jesus taught the disciples; not man-made variants, each containing maybe a few noble emphases left over from historical, apostolic Christianity, but always in the final analysis grossly-deficient (though also quite beneficial and good insofar as they do contain many valid Christian truths).

Orthodoxy also possesses apostolic succession. I decided between the two options precisely on the same grounds: Orthodoxy had departed from a few universally held beliefs of early Christian Tradition (namely, the prohibition of divorce and contraception). So history was determinative. This is how it has always been in the Christian faith until Luther brought in the radically subjectivistic notion of faith and authority, thus leading to the present doctrinal relativism, ecclesiological anarchy, and moral chaos of Protestantism.

All of these issues are complex in and of themselves, but that is the Catholic answer: we appeal to the patristic and apostolic (Pauline) methods of determining theological and apostolic truth. The Bible is central in all this as well (absolutely!); it is just not exclusive of Church authority. How can it be? Its very parameters were authoritatively declared by this self-same Church. Before then, various Fathers disagreed somewhat on the canon. Again, it is not a matter solely of sin. Authority was truly needed to settle that issue, just as it is needed to settle theological issues. Scripture Alone will not suffice.

Besides, Scripture itself points to the teaching authority of the Church, anyway, so it is a false dichotomy from the get-go, to pit the Church against the Bible, as if there is some inherent contradiction or “competition” between them. The Apostles and Fathers saw no such dichotomy. I imitate Paul, just as he imitated Christ (as he commanded me to do). I reject the Johnny-come-lately novel notions of Luther, because they can’t be traced back to the Apostles in an unbroken line — thus are corruptions insofar as they differ from Catholic dogma.

Bible, Sola Scriptura, and Canonicity Issues

We don’t view Scripture in isolation from Church and Tradition, which it itself constantly refers to. This is the biblical outlook. “Bible Alone” (in the sense above) is not taught in Scripture. Canonicity is an historical process, thus supporting the premise that historical and human (and ecclesiological) factors are necessarily involved in the dispute over authority. It is too simple to merely proclaim “Scripture, Scripture,” and to downplay the Church when that very Church was necessary in order to authoritatively proclaim the parameters and content of Holy Scripture.

Some Protestants believe in Holy Scripture without necessary “evidentialist” proofs, while they frown upon Catholics who do the same with regard to the Catholic Church: often lacking the “proofs” which they demand for them to have, while giving themselves a pass. After all, the Church is as divinely willed as the Bible. We may disagree on its location and nature, but we are talking about philosophical premises here, which most people implicitly hold, without conscious reflection.

Faith is always required; of course. But that faith is rational and not irrational. It goes beyond mere rationality and philosophy (it is not epistemologically airtight — very few things are in any field of study), but it is not contrary to right reason. I have held this belief for 20 years now. Again, I think this eventually backfires on Protestants, because the Catholic, too, believes in his notion of what the Church is, and which claimant is the Church. The same Augustine also stated that he would not believe the Gospel but for the Catholic Church, which proclaimed it. He never marginalizes the Church, as Protestants end up doing every time.

The Catholic Church merely proclaimed what was already inherently the Word of God; inspired Revelation. Vatican I and II state this. The Church was, however, still absolutely necessary in a practical sense, and — this being the case — it is reasonable to assume that it possesses authority to proclaim on other issues as well, and to command obligatory obedience of its followers.

The authority lies in the proclamation of the biblical canon. Protestants think it has that supreme authority concerning the actual extent of Scripture, while denying its prerogative to proclaim on any individual doctrine of Scripture. I find that remarkably arbitrary and implausible.

In this scenario, God allows one exception to sola Scriptura: the Church proclaiming what the Scripture is (but also a few other things, such as the Two Natures of Christ). Then it fades into the background and is able to be judged by each individual Christian with the Bible and the Holy Spirit. I find this utterly ludicrous. Why — on these premises — should a Christian not reject Chalcedonian Christology or Nicaean trinitarianism (as many heretics have in fact done)? More exceptions have to be allowed because the Church “got it right” in those instances. We merely say that the Church always “got it right” in Ecumenical Councils, because it was protected by the Holy Spirit from error, not because God decided to protect it now and then. These things are consistent with our formal principles, but are frequent anomalies and exceptions in Protestantism. The more exceptions to a “rule,” the weaker and less worthy of belief such a “rule” is.

The early Protestants didn’t believe that God could protect His Church from error, yet they had no trouble believing that individuals can be so protected, and persist in this belief as a formal principle, despite 10,000 internal contradictions and endless schism and moral compromise in the Protestantism which is the offspring of this false first premise. Very weird, from where I sit . . . Once I saw that Catholic distinctives could be established from Scripture (now the theme of my website and upcoming book), and understood development of doctrine, I immediately abandoned this thoroughly incoherent position.

2017-05-09T17:59:32-04:00

  Dave - Temple Mount

Dave Armstrong at the Temple Mount in Jerusalem; Dome of the Rock (the third holiest spot in Islam) in the background (October 2014)

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(5-14-04)

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Critique of the full text of the paper, Was Jesus Perfect God and Perfect Man at the Same Time? (from the web page, Islam Answers Back). Mr. Ally’s words will be in blue.

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According to Orthodox Christian belief, Jesus was perfect man and perfect God at the same time. This belief is necessary for salvation according to the Athanasian creed held dear by most Christians. Modern Christian scholars reject this idea not because it is difficult to understand but because it cannot be meaningfully expressed.

No; they reject it because they are more “modern” than “Christian” and because they have forsaken the historic Christian faith. If a “modern” Islamic scholar had rejected traditional tenets of Islam, would Mr. Ally continue to even call him a Muslim? Would he appreciate a Christian doing so, in making his argument against Islam? I highly doubt it. So Christians would ask to be accorded the same respect and consistency in terminology. He acts as if “orthodox” Christianity is self-evidently inferior to the “modern” versions of “revised Christianity.” Again, if we were to return the favor and say that “modern Islam” is superior to “orthodox [traditional] Islam,” would Mr. Ally appreciate that? It is one thing to disagree honestly with Christianity; quite another to redefine it from the outset according to one’s rhetorical goals, by referring to those who reject traditional Christianity as “modern Christian scholars.”

Both religions obviously are burdened by people who go by the name but no longer believe what the religion has always held. Mr. Ally cites the people who no longer believe a thing to show that the thing is irrational and unworthy of belief. Isn’t that like citing atheists to show how theism is unbelievable, while ignoring what the theists say about it? This is an unfair, somewhat insulting methodology. If Mr. Ally disagrees with Christianity, he can simply produce his own arguments as to why, without incorporating the arguments of people who themselves dishonestly redefine what the word “Christian” means.

It would be far better to not accord the liberals and apostates in both our religions the respect of still referring to them as “Christians” or “Muslims” than to cite such a “Christian” against an orthodox Christian. I wouldn’t do that to a Muslim, and a Muslim shouldn’t do it to a Christian, as a matter of respect for the other’s self-definition and self-understanding, and intellectual consistency.

The doctrine cannot be stated in any way that is free from contradictions. It is impossible for Jesus to have been perfect man and perfect God at the same time, for this would mean that he was finite and infinite at the same time, that he was fallible and infallible at the same time. This cannot be.

Mr. Ally’s “logic” here is “what cannot be.” This is simply not a contradiction because it is one person having two natures, one of which is finite and the other infinite. It would be like saying that of my two arms, one has unlimited power and can lift anything in the universe, while the other does not. That’s not contradictory; it is simply a differentiation between the two arms. A true contradiction would be something like saying that “one arm can lift anything in the universe and cannot do so, at the same time.” Likewise, Jesus has two natures, rather than one, as we have. He is both God and man. As God, He has infinite capacities; as man, He does not. He can, therefore, do some things as God and others as a man, with the usual limitations we are all subject to.

Thus, if Jesus indeed had two natures, as we believe, the difficulty is resolved. If He had one nature that possessed contradictory properties, then there would be a problem. Therefore, the discussion comes down to the possibility or impossibility of God becoming a man who possesses both a divine and a human nature (and the antecedent question of what a nature is). More on this below, concerning God becoming man, and whether this is logically and actually possible or not . . .

What the creed denies is also quite significant. The creed was formulated in response to the claims of various early Christian groups, and so includes clauses that deny the beliefs of those groups. In response to the Arians who believed that Jesus was not God, the Council of Nicea (325 A.D.) decreed that he was fully God. In response to the Apollinarians who believed Jesus was God but not fully human, the council of Constantinople (381 A.D.) decreed that Jesus was fully human.

Those are not “Christian” groups, but heretical groups wrongly claiming the name “Christian.” That brings us back to the definitional problems again. Does not Islam have breakaway groups which no longer adhere to traditional Islamic beliefs? Look at the “Muslim” terrorists for example: the people who flew planes into the World Trade Center. Those were not really Muslims (but they claimed to be). I understand that the original Nation of Islam in America (“Black Muslims”) was such a group (though I may be wrong). They taught that all white men were “devils.” After Malcolm X (a man I admire quite a bit) left that group and took his pilgrimage to Mecca, he saw that this was not true, and that sinfulness was not specifically or particularly confined to one racial group. These counterfeit groups (concerning both Islam and Christianity) can also be designated as such on the basis of false doctrine, not just sinful behavior or beliefs.

Then there was Nestorianism: the belief that started when Nestorius denied that Mary could be called Mother of God. To him, Mary was mother of the human Jesus only. This implied that there were two Christs: one divine, the other human. Against Nestorius, the council of Ephesus (431 A.D.) decreed that the two natures of Jesus cannot be separated. Everything Jesus does is done by both the humanity and divinity in him. Likewise, everything that happened to him happened to both the man and God that he is. Therefore Mary gave birth to both, both died on the cross, etc.

Correct.

At yet another council, the council of Chalcedon (451 A.D.) the creed received some finishing touches and the Athanasian creed was declared official church teaching. Most Christians are not familiar with the detailed implications of the creed and in their own minds conceive of Jesus in the very ways the creed was formulated to deny. This tendency results from the fact that the creeds definition of Jesus is impossible for any human mind to comprehend.

No; it stems from the fact that there are people in all religions who do not adequately study to understand what their own religion teaches in the first place. It is a function of ignorance, not impossibility of comprehension. The Holy Trinity and the Two Natures of Christ are very difficult to comprehend and conceptualize, we freely grant. But that doesn’t make them impossible to rationally accept (with the aid of faith), or contradictory. They are mysteries. Of course, there are mysteries in Islam, also, concerning the nature of Allah that are not fully comprehensible by human minds (if at all). That doesn’t mean they are unable to be accepted and believed. Here are some Islamic beliefs about Allah (many held in common with Christians) which are equally or arguably more difficult to comprehend than the Two Natures of Jesus or the Holy Trinity:

He is The Almighty (al-Jabbar) (omnipotence).[See: al-Baqarah 2:106,117; Âl ‘Imran 3:165,189; al-Anfal 8:41; at-Taubah 9:116; Hud 11:4; an-Nahl 16:40; al-Mu’min 40:68; Ha Mim Sajdah 41:39; ash-Shura 42:49; al-Hadid 57:2]

He is The All-Knowing (al-`Alim) (omniscience).
He is The All-Hearing, The Hearer (al-Sami`) (without sensory organs).
He is The All-Seeing (al-Basir).
He is The Infinite, The All-Embracing (al-Wasi`).
He is The Giver of Life (al-Muhyi).
He is The Self-Subsisting (al-Qayyum).
He is The Self-Sufficient (al-Ghani).
He is The Eternal (al-Azali).
He is The Everlasting (al-Baqi).
He is beyond definition (az-Zukhruf 43:82; al-Mulk 67:12).
A day for Him is a thousand human years (al-Hajj 22:47; as-Sajdah 32:5).
He exists without a place.
He knows what is beyond comprehension.

[See: al-An`am 6:59,73; at-Taubah 9:94,105; ar-Ra`d 13:9; as-Sajdah 32:6; Saba’ 34:48; al-Fatir 35:38; az-Zumar 39:46; al-Hujurat 49:18; al-Hashr 59:22; al-Jum`ah 62:8; at-Taghabun 64:18; al-Jinn 72:26; al-Mudathir 74:31; al-A`la 87:7]

He is unknowable, even though “he is closer to man than his jugular vein” (Qaf 50:15).

Al-Ghazali, arguably the most preeminent Islamic theologian of all time, wrote:

The end result of the knowledge of the `arifin is their inability to know Him, and their knowledge is, in truth, that they do not know Him and that it is absolutely impossible for them to know Him. (Fadlou Shehadi, Ghazali’s Unique Unknowable God, Leiden, E. J. Brill, 1964, p. 37. The `arifin, literally “the knowers”, used by mystics in the sense of “gnostics”)

Does Mr. Ally wish to contend that all Muslims perfectly understand and comprehend all these attributes? I doubt it. Why, then, does he make such an argument where Christians are concerned? I fail to see how the Two Natures of Jesus is a notion of an entirely different order of incomprehensibility than the above attributes of Allah, as believed by Muslims. The concept of impossibility of knowing Allah is but one example that shows this very clearly. If one cannot even possibly know Allah; if He is utterly unknowable because He is so unlike man, then obviously here is one aspect of Allah that is “is impossible for any human mind to comprehend,” precisely what Mr. Ally states about the Two Natures of Jesus!

But Mr. Ally claims that the Two Natures is contradictory, and therefore unable to be believed by anyone. The only problem is that one could not believe in Allah, on the same grounds. So Mr. Ally’s argument clearly proves too much. If what he thinks he has “proven” backfires on his Islamic theology just as much as it “disproves” or renders Christian theology unworthy of reasonable belief, then obviously it is no effective argument against Christian belief (i.e., when offered by a Muslim), and must be discarded as not only false, but blasphemous, according to Mr. Ally’s own Islamic beliefs, because it applies to his own viewpoint in equal or greater measure.

We would (or should) fully expect that there are mysteries and difficult things for the human mind to accept, where God is concerned. He is an extraordinary Being, in both our views. Faith is required, after all, as in all religions. Religion is much more than simply philosophy and human reasoning. God’s revelation, whether believed to be in the Bible or the Qur’an, teaches some things that seem “novel” or “strange” to us, but we accept them because we have faith that these books are revelation: God’s revealing of Himself to mankind. That’s why Christians believe the things we do: based on God’s revelation, not our own human reasoning apart from that revelation (God forbid!).

One can only repeat the words, but cannot grasp the meaning of the required belief. Therefore most just repeat the creed with their lips but in their minds turn to views of Jesus that are less taxing on the intellect, even though those views were declared by the Church to be heretical.

Are there not many Muslims who do the same thing in an Islamic context? This is a secondary, irrelevant issue. It proves nothing more than that many people’s beliefs are inconsistent with the historic, orthodox teaching of their professed religion. The argument has to be made on other grounds. This is merely a variation of the ad populum fallacy.

The orthodox doctrine is logically impossible. As Huston Smith, scholar of comparative religion, points out, it would not have been logically impossible if the creed said that Jesus was somewhat divine and somewhat human.

The exact opposite is true. One cannot be “somewhat divine,” because divinity is absolute and cannot be watered-down or made a part of what it is. It cannot be other than what it is, so it is impossible (logically and in actuality) for it to be “somewhat” present. But divinity and humanity existing side-by-side is entirely conceivable and not logically contradictory, let alone impossible, at all. Mr. Ally once again undercuts his own case by expressing it in extreme terms.

But this is expressly what the creed denies. For orthodox Christians, Jesus cannot possess only some human qualities; he must possess all. He must be fully human. At the same time, he cannot possess only some divine qualities; he must have all.

That’s right. This follows by the very definition of God: Pure Being; the Supreme Being, the Self-Existent One, or, as Muslims say, the Self-Subsisting (al-Qayyum), and Self-Sufficient (al-Ghani) One.

He must be fully divine. This is impossible because to be fully divine means one has to be free of human limitations.

Not if He chooses to become incarnate without yielding up His inherent divine qualities. That’s not impossible at all. To claim that is to limit God’s omnipotence, which Muslims and Christians both accept as an essential attribute of God. In fact, that is probably why Mr. Ally overstates his argument in terms of “impossibility,” because an omnipotent Being is only limited with regard to logically impossible things. Therefore, unless Mr. Ally proves that becoming a man is a logically impossible thing for God (a proposition such as existing and not existing at the same time, etc.), he has no case at all, for God can do anything which is logically possible to do. But Mr. Ally simply hasn’t demonstrated that the Incarnation is a logical impossibility.

If he has only one human limitation then he is not God. But according to creed he has every human limitation. How, then, can he be God?

By being fully God and fully man; having two natures. But Christians believe that Jesus had every human limitation with the exception of sin. Sin results from fallen human beings, and Jesus is not fallen; He is perfectly righteous, being God in the flesh.

Huston Smith calls this a blatant contradiction. In his book The World’s Religions, he writes:

We may begin with the doctrine of the Incarnation, which took several centuries to fix into place. Holding as it does that in Christ God assumed a human body, it affirms that Christ was God-Man; simultaneously both fully God and fully man. To say that such a contention is paradoxical seems a charitable way to put the matter it looks more like a blatant contradiction. If the doctrine held that Christ was half human and half divine, or that he was divine in certain respects, while being human in others, our minds would not balk. (The World’s Religions, p. 340).

If it was said that Jesus was partly human and partly divine that would not be logically impossible but only scripturally impossible.

First of all, technically, Smith did not say it was a contradiction, but that “it looks more like” one. Secondly, he has not shown (at least not in this citation; hence, not in Mr. Ally’s argument) that it must be a contradiction by the rules of logic. Thirdly, he explains the doctrines of the Two Natures and the Trinity in a fairly sympathetic manner in this same work (my copy is called The Religions of Man [New York: Mentor, 1958]; the above citation is on my p. 295). Fourthly, he argues that the strictest interpretation of logic is not always true to deeper realities (as in some scientific ideas). Smith was a philosopher, and his comments here were much more nuanced and subtle than readers would realize, if they had only this one quote to go by. One might argue, then, that it has been pulled out of context. I shall provide that context now, to make Smith’s overall view more apparent:

The Church has always admitted that such assertions are anomalous to man’s present understanding. The question is whether this is the last word on the matter. Actually we can ask the same question of science. There are so many findings in contemporary physics that refuse to be correlated in a single logical framework that Robert Oppenheimer has proposed a Law of Complementarity as the basic working concept in the field, meaning by this (in part) that opposing facts must be held in tension even where logically they are at odds if they can help account for phenomena observed. In more than one field, it seems reality can be more subtle than man’s logic at any given moment. Whenever we are forced to sacrifice either logic or evidence it would seem wise to stick with evidence, for this can lead to a wider logic whereas a rigid adherence to consistency can easily close the doors to ampler truth.. . . A bridge must touch both banks, and Christ was the bridge between God and man . . . To say that Christ was God is to say that the absolute love he embodied is the ultimate fact of the universe. To say that he was man as well is to insist that God’s love is really love, being willing to assume the full conditions of humanity and to suffer . . .

The third crucial concept is that of the Trinity . . . The basis of this doctrine, like the two preceding ones, is contained in the New Testament . . . In his final commission to the Apostles he collects these three persons of the Godhead into a single statement: “Go ye therefore into all the world, baptizing in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost.”

No concept of Christendom has enjoyed a greater reputation for obscurity than this. The Church itself has confessed it to be a mystery, true but beyond the reach of mind to fathom completely. Nevertheless, as nothing important in religion is entirely removed from human experience, here again it is possible to suggest by analogy something of what the doctrine involves . . . .

Every instance of seeing is a real unity. Nevertheless three distinguishable aspects are involved: the object seen, the act of vision, and the mental interpretation . . .

Dorothy Sayers’ play, The Zeal of Thy House, proposes the analogy of the artist’s creative act. First there is the Creative Idea, effortless and serene, beholding the entire work in an instance, a complete and timeless whole; this is the image of the Father. Next, not in time but in enumeration, there is the Creative Energy, working out the Idea in space and time with sweat and passion; this is the image of God incarnate, the Son, the Divine Word. Finally there is the Creative Power, the response the work elicits from the lively soul that perceives it; this is the image of the in-dwelling Spirit. “And these three are one, each equally in itself the whole work, whereof none can exist without [the] other: and this is the image of the Trinity.”

. . . distinctiveness is required by the Godhead itself. For God is love, and love is meaningless except between persons.

(pp. 295-297, 299-301)

The Bible nowhere teaches that Jesus was divine in any way.

This is sheer nonsense. I refer readers to the overwhelming biblical evidence, from my papers, Jesus is God: Biblical Proofs, and The Holy Trinity: Biblical Proofs. I always say that to not see such evidence, proven by literally hundreds of passages, is the equivalent of looking up in the sky and not seeing the sun at high noon on a clear summer day. Again, if one chooses to not accept the New Testament as inspired divine revelation, that is one thing, but to deny that it teaches what it clearly does teach (believe it or not) is quite another.

Furthermore, if he was only partly divine then he was not the One True God of the Old and New Testaments. God is All-Powerful, not somewhat all-powerful; God is All-Knowing, not somewhat all-knowing.

Exactly; that’s why we believe He is fully God and fully human, in two natures. Being partially divine is nonsensical, and impossible by the nature of things, in both religions, as Mr. Ally shows.

C. Randolph Ross is a Christian. In his book Common Sense Christianity he debunks the orthodox view not because it is difficult to understand, he says, but because it cannot meaningfully be said. He rejects it because it is impossible, he says. (Common Sense Christianity, p. 79).

Here we go again, with the re-defining of terms (if he is not orthodox, he is not a Christian, as there is only one correct Christian belief, and in this matter, it is trinitarianism and the Two Natures), and extravagantly excessive and wishful claims. To demonstrate that Ross is no Christian at all, but that he denies beliefs concerning God that Muslims and Christians hold in common, I would like to cite a review of this book on amazon.com, from one Brian Albert:

He loses me in chapter three when he argues that since his common sense won’t allow him to believe that a loving God can allow suffering, therefore God must not affect and must not even be in charge of earthly events. Having made that assumption, he goes on to say that the Bible is in error wherever it reveals God to be omnipotent, a loving Father (what kind of father isn’t involved in his children’s lives?), or an indwelling counselor. He believes Jesus performed no miracles except for a few faith healings.Using his common sense again, he states that Jesus is not really equivalent with God, because he doesn’t see how man and God can exist in one being. He says that all the writings of John and Paul that reveal Jesus to be God are either flawed theology or have been misinterpreted. He also believes that no atonement is necessary for sin, so the crucifixion and resurrection are religiously unimportant.

I may be an independent thinker, but I believe that the Bible must be an accurate representation of who God is, what He has done for us, and what He expects from us. Mr. Ross throws most of it away, reducing his religion mostly to the three synoptic gospels. However, even the synoptics clearly show Jesus to be God (“When the Son of Man comes in His glory and all the angels with him, …” Matt 25:31) and God to be very much involved in the lives of His children (“Are not two sparrows sold for a penny? Yet not one of them will fall to the ground apart from the will of your Father” Matt 10:29).

This is Christianity? Hardly! It is a classic case of someone who no longer believes in Christianity, trying to dishonestly co-opt the name, while thoroughly redefining it beyond all recognition. And to use such a person to argue against Christianity is a highly-objectionable method, per my remarks near the beginning of this paper. He simply is not a Christian to begin with. Once one denies the Trinity within an alleged Christian framework, they almost always reject other central doctrines, too. So Ross denies that God is all-powerful. He is no longer sovereign, and the Bible states falsehood wherever it states this.

But he (unlike Mr. Ally) knows full well that the writings of Paul and John clearly teach the divinity of Christ. So, rather than denying this, he simply concludes that those books are not trustworthy. At least in this way he is more internally consistent than Mr. Ally is. The crucifixion and resurrection are unimportant in Ross’s view, yet Mr. Ally considers this man a Christian? Has Mr. Ally ever heard of the holy days of Good Friday and Easter?

Thus we see the seriously-flawed nature of the citations Mr. Ally has brought to the table thus far. Huston Smith was cited incompletely, and his fully-expressed view is far closer to my perspective than the point of view that Mr. Ally is setting forth. C. Randolph Ross, on the other hand, introduced as a “Christian,” is severely skeptical of the Bible itself. He rejects beliefs that are central to Christianity by any conceivable sensible, traditional definition of the term, and even beliefs such as the omnipotence of God, which Muslims and Christians both adhere to. Furthermore, he rightly assumes that St. John and St. Paul taught the divinity of Christ (at least if we grant that the books by their name reflect their opinions), and so simply rejects their writings, whereas Mr. Ally denies that the entire New Testament teaches the divinity of Jesus.

In both cases, they simply reject (for all the wrong reasons) beliefs which are unacceptable to them. One denies in a sweeping fashion what the New Testament clearly teaches, and the other holds that those portions of the Bible which teach the divinity of Christ more plainly than others are not part of the “real” New Testament in the first place.

His arguments are so persuasive that I can do little better than just repeat them. To be human means to be limited, lacking in knowledge, prone to mistakes, imperfect. To be God means just the opposite: unlimited, complete in knowledge, infallible, perfect. You cannot have it both ways. You cannot say of one person that he was both. Either he was one or the other.

That has been covered above, but I will get in more depth below, by offering several different arguments suggesting the plausibility of the Two Natures and the Holy Trinity.

THIS IS NO PARADOX

To those who say this is a paradox, Ross answers nicely. It is important to understand first of all what is a paradox. A paradox is something that seems impossible but can be demonstrated to be true. On the other hand, the creedal statement may seem true to some people but logic demonstrates it to be false. Ross argues with an example that makes the point succinct:

Ah! some will say. Thats the paradox! No, it isnt a paradox. This is a very important point, so please take special note: a paradox is something which seems impossible but which is demonstrably true. Thus, it was a paradox when some scientist carefully analyzed bumblebees and concluded that according to the laws of physics they couldnt fly. There was contradiction and apparent impossibility, but bumblebees kept on flying.However, for an individual to be both perfect and imperfect is the reverse of this: it may seem true to some, but it is demonstrably impossible. And not just impossible according to our understanding of the laws of nature, which can be wrong (as with the bumblebee), but impossible according to the rules of logic upon which all our reasoning is based. (p. 82)

Let me elaborate this last point.

I’m glad, because, once again, the citation does not by any means prove Ross’s assertion.

Human observation and analysis can turn out to be incorrect. This was the case with the scientist who figured that according to the laws of Physics bumblebees could not fly. The flaw in his procedure is that our understanding of the laws of nature is always improving. New knowledge often declare old to be false. But with the rules of logic things are different. What is true by definition will always remain true unless we start redefining things. For example, 2+2=4. This equation will always remain true. The only way this can ever become false is if we decide to change the definitions of the component parts.

I agree, as far as this goes. It is in the false application of logic to the question at hand, where Mr. Ally goes astray.

Now, by definition, a thing cannot be the opposite of itself. A thing cannot be perfect and imperfect at the same time. The presence of one of these qualities implies the absence of the other. Jesus was either one or the other. He cannot logically be both. Ross is very eloquent on this:

To say someone is perfect and imperfect is like saying that you saw a square circle. This is an impossibility. Are you saying the circle was not round, in which case it was not a circle? Or are you saying the square was circular? This is not a paradox; this is meaningless nonsense, however imaginative it might be. (p. 82)

To develop this point further, I tried to relate it to what can and cannot be said about Jesus according to the creed. In the diagram we see a figure that is somewhat round and somewhat square. It is unorthodox to say that Jesus was somewhat man and somewhat God. Even the models that combine a circle and a square one inside the other do not work, for in each case you have two objects clearly separable. Orthodoxy does not allow this for the two natures of Jesus. To satisfy the requirements of orthodoxy we must find an object which is at once a circle and a square. By definition, such an object cannot exist (see accompanying diagram, next page).

But this is not what the doctrine entails; it is a distortion of the Two Natures. The very fact that there are two natures saves it from contradiction. One Person who has Two Natures: a Divine Nature and a Human Nature. Therefore, it is not expressing the following scenario, which is indeed contradictory:

1. Jesus is a person who is represented by a square and only a square (humanity).

*

2. Jesus is a person who is represented by a circle and only a circle (divinity).

Rather, the doctrine holds:

1. Jesus is a Divine Person.

2. A Divine Person is such that (unlike a merely human person) He can remain Divine while incorporating also a human nature (the Christian doctrine of the Incarnation; literally, “taking on flesh”).

3. Jesus is a Divine Person such that he can possess a divine nature (a “circle”) and a human nature (a “square”).

4. The two natures differ, but exist side-by-side, as attributes of one Divine Person.

Five Models That Fail to Demonstrate the Two Natures of Christ in Christian Theology:

1. A circle representing divinity. This fails because Christ is said to be both divine and human.

2. A square representing humanity. This fails because Christ is said to be both divine and human.

3. An object somewhat square and somewhat round, representing humanity and divinity. This fails because Christ is said to be completely divine and completely human.

4. One object inside another [Dave: a circle inside a square, per the diagram]. This fails because they say that God became man, not just that God was inside the man.

5. A square inside a circle. This fails for a reason similar to #3.

The One Model That Demonstrates the Two Natures of Christ in Christian Theology:

6. See if you can draw here any diagram to show how Christ can be God and man at the same time.

Sam Shamoun, a Reformed Protestant and critic of Islam, has answered this challenge quite adequately, I think (in personal correspondence to me):

This first part I got from Alister McGrath in one of his books: The problem with the squared circle analogy is that it assumes that God and man, much like squares and circles, belong to the same category. For instance, both squares and circles belong to the same category of shapes, but God and man belong to two different categories of Being.

Hence, one can take things from two different categories and unite them, for instance you can have a red circle or a blue square since one belongs to the category of colors and the other belongs to the category of shapes. Likewise, God can unite himself to the category of man without ceasing to be God since it is within his ability to do so. Man cannot do so since it is not within his capacity.

Secondly, even assuming that the analogy with a square and circle validly described the Incarnation, this still doesn’t entail a logical contradiction. They actually are gross misrepresentations of the doctrine.

For instance, a more valid example would have been to take a square and attach it to a circle. In other words, you would have a square and a circle united to each other, coexisting side by side. You would not have a squared circle, nor would you place a square within the circle or the circle within the square. You would have instead a square and a circle coexisting together at the same time.

The difficulty is not with believing what the creed says. The problem is that the creed in effect says nothing. When we are told two opposites what then are we to believe? Ross puts it nicely:

To say that someone is perfect and imperfect at the same time is to say that X and not-X can both be true. This is either to abandon the meaning of these words or else to abandon logic, and in either case this means we are speaking nonsense that can have no meaning for us. (p. 82)

The orthodox say that Jesus was imperfect with regards to his human nature but perfect with regards to his divine nature. The problem with this position is that it implies the existence of two persons occupying the one body of Jesus: one perfect, the other imperfect. You need for this two minds, two wills, two characters. But the creed does not allow this necessary conclusion and insists that Jesus was not two persons but one only. Now, this one person had to be either perfect or not, infallible or not, unlimited in knowledge or not. You cannot say of the same person that he was both.

Two Natures; two Natures, in one Divine Person!

Now let us closely examine this assertion that the Incarnation and the Two Natures of Jesus (and by inevitable implication, the Holy Trinity also) are logically impossible, meaningless propositions. Upon close scrutiny, all these arguments utterly collapse, and it will be plain to see that they do, and why they do.

First of all, the most obvious difficulty has to do with God’s omnipotence, which Muslims and Christians both accept. Now, the claim is that God could not become a man, because it is “logically impossible” (God and man being different and thus, unable to be merged in a single being). This involves a logical absurdity, seen in the following straightforward chain of reasoning:

1. God is omnipotent, meaning that He possesses all power and can do everything which is logically possible to do.

2. God created man out of nothing, as Creator (which is a function of His omnipotence and His nature as the Essential, Pure, Self-Existent, Self-Sufficient, Self-Subsisting, Infinite, Eternal Being).

3. Furthermore, we are told that man was created in God’s image (Genesis 1:27).

[Muslims have traditionally believed that the Old Testament and especially the first five books, or Torah, is an inspired revelation. See: What Does the Qur’an Say About the Jewish and Christian Scriptures?, by Samuel Green]

4. And God, on several occasions, took on human form, according to the Old Testament (what are known as “Theophanies”):

GENESIS 18:1 And the Lord appeared unto him in the plains of Mamre: and he sat in the tent door in the heat of the day. (KJV; cf. 18:13, 17, 22)

GENESIS 32:24, 30 And Jacob was left alone; and there wrestled a man with him until the breaking of the day . . . (30) And Jacob called the name of the place Peniel: for I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved. (cf. 35:9-15)

EXODUS 24:10 And they saw the God of Israel: and {there was} under his feet as it were a paved work of a sapphire stone, . . .

ISAIAH 6:1 In the year that king Uzziah died I saw also the Lord sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up, and his train filled the temple.

EZEKIEL 43:6-7 And I heard {him} speaking unto me out of the house; and the man stood by me. (7) And he said unto me, Son of man, the place of my throne, and the place of the soles of my feet, where I will dwell in the midst of the children of Israel for ever, and my holy name, shall the house of Israel no more defile, . . .

5. God also appeared in the form of the “Angel of the Lord.” An angel is a creation, not an eternal being, so if God appeared as an angel, He assumed a form and a nature (as in the Theophanies above) that is not intrinsically God; much like the Incarnation itself:

JUDGES 2:1 And an angel of the Lord came up from Gilgal to Bochim, and said, I . . . have brought you unto the land which I sware unto your fathers; and I said, I will never break my covenant with you.

JUDGES 6:12, 14 And the angel of the Lord appeared unto him, and said unto him, The Lord {is} with thee, thou mighty man of valour . . . (14) And the Lord looked upon him, and said, Go in this thy might, and thou shalt save Israel from the hand of the Midianites: have not I sent thee? (cf. 6:16, 20-23)

ZECHARIAH 12:8 In that day shall the Lord defend the inhabitants of Jerusalem; and he that is feeble among them at that day shall be as David; and the house of David {shall be} as God, as the angel of the Lord before them.

(cf. Genesis 31:11-13; Exodus 3:2-6, 14-16; Joshua 5:14-15)

6. What do these Theophanies suggest? The Bible described God as able to be “seen” in the above passages, and others (such as Genesis 17:1, 33:11, Numbers 12:7-8, Deuteronomy 34:10, Judges 13:22, and Isaiah 6:5). For those who deny the incarnation of Christ, Theophanies do show that the notion of God becoming a man is not altogether incomprehensible or impossible, but rather, downright plausible. Theophanies might be considered precursors (along with verses such as Isaiah 9:6 and Micah 5:2) of the incarnation of the Messiah Jesus, the Son of God. Now how is it possible for the invisible God, Who is a Spirit, to be seen, and to have a body? Yet this is what we are told in the Old Testament. This is scarcely any different from the incarnation, yet Mr. Ally tells us that the latter is “logically impossible”!

7. How is it, then, that Mr. Ally believes that the incarnation cannot possibly happen, based on purely logical considerations? We start with an omnipotent God. He makes man in His image; He appears as a man; He appears as the angel of the Lord (and angels are not eternal, and they are creatures; so this — like the Theophanies — is a supposed “contradiction” since it opposes God’s Nature). He can and does do all that, yet supposedly He can’t become a man. This is what is logically absurd, not the incarnation, as seen in the following logical chain:

A. God has all power.

B. God appeared as a man, supposedly “contrary” to His nature as invisible, eternal, and a non-creature (which man is).

C. God appeared as an angel, supposedly “contrary” to His nature as invisible, eternal and a non-creature (which an angel is). Angels are normally invisible, but they can materialize, and 1 Corinthians 15:35-44 hints that they can have “celestial” or “spiritual” bodies.

D. God created man in His own image.

E. But God cannot become a man. This is logically impossible.

Oh??!! How is it logically impossible for a Being with all power, Who appears as a man and an angel, and Who creates man in His own image, to become a man? By what ironclad, indisputable logic do we completely distinguish the concepts of appearing like a man or an angel in all outward aspects, and becoming an actual man? Certainly the two notions are quite close, and if one is actual, we cannot plausibly rule out the other concept as “impossible.” We might be able to reasonably infer (apart from revelation and faith considerations) that it didn’t happen in fact, but we can’t reasonably infer that it is “logically impossible.”And that is because of the well-known maxim and prior widely-accepted axiom that “the stream can’t rise above its source.” If God can make a man, He can easily become one, without yielding up His divinity, which cannot by definition ever be given up. To say that He could not do so would be to say that a mere creature possesses attributes (existence in human form) that the Almighty God does not and cannot possess, and that is absurd.

Contingent and derivative creatures can never be greater than their own cause: the First Cause and Prime Mover and Creator of all: the Almighty God. If God switched from being God to being a mere man, that would be absurd, because of the immutability (unchangeability) of God. But if He takes on human nature in addition to His Divine Nature, which He always has, and cannot ever lose, it is no contradiction at all; it is simply part and parcel of His omnipotence. The legitimate reasoning chain, therefore, works as follows:

A. God has all power.

B. God created man.

C. Man has the attribute of existence in human form.

D. Therefore, existence in human form is logically possible, because it exists and is manifestly apparent.

E. An omnipotent God can do all that is logically possible.

F. Existence in human form is logically possible (D).

G. Therefore, God can so exist as well (while simultaneously and necessarily remaining God), since He created the human form, and made the human form in His own image, and even assumed it in the Theophanies (and in angelic forms).

H. Otherwise, He is not omnipotent, for man would be able to do something (exist as a man) that the very Creator of man, Whose image man reflects, cannot do.

I. Omnipotence is central to the definition of God. Therefore, H must be false (granting the theistic nature of God), and G must be true.

J. Ergo, the Incarnation is not only not logically impossible; is quite plausible from reason alone, and an actuality, based on reason and revelation and historical argument.

When Jesus faced death on the cross according to Christian belief, either he faced it with the human belief that he would be raised on the third day, or he faced death with the infallible knowledge that he would be so raised. If he believed with human faith in Gods power to raise him then he himself was not God. If, on the other hand, he faced death with infallible divine knowledge that he would be resurrected, then he was not taking any real risk in letting himself die. If the divine nature in him knew he would be raised, but he did not know this, then it was not his divine nature. If the divine nature knew something he did not, we are back to two persons.

Not at all, based on the above reasoning. This is thoroughly muddleheaded and inconsistent and incoherent. First of all, false dichotomies are created. Even if Jesus were merely a human being, God could have supernaturally given Him the knowledge that he was to die on a cross, so we need not choose between “human belief and faith” and “divine infallibility.” Secondly, we know from many passages in the New Testament that Jesus knew what was to happen, while simultaneously having some of the usual human limitations and divine attributes as well, in His divine nature. He didn’t “believe” it, He knew it. He even stated that this was the purpose He had come to earth from heaven. So this shows He is God in the flesh.

Thirdly, as for knowledge of what was to happen meaning that it was no “risk,” this is a non sequitur, since the nature of His death was one of the most terrible known to man, and His isolation and taking on the sins of the whole world was an unfathomably horrible, unimaginable suffering. Fourthly, He not only knew what was to happen, and that He would be resurrected, but He resurrected Himself, which only God can do. But the Bible also says that God the Father and the Holy Spirit raised Him. This is a clear proof of the Trinity in the Bible:

GALATIANS 1:1 . . . God the Father, who raised him from the dead;) (cf. 1 Thess 1:10) (KJV)

ROMANS 8:11 . . . the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, . . .

JOHN 2:19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.

JOHN 10:17-18 Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. (18) No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.

This could get more difficult to explain as we look at the deeds reported of Jesus in the gospels and ask whether the divine or human nature or both performed those deeds.

Jesus performed all of them, and he possessed both Natures, so this is another non-issue and non sequitur. It’s a red herring.

Let us consider the episode where Jesus curses the fig tree. First, the account as it appears in Mark:

Jesus was hungry. Seeing in the distance a fig tree in leaf, he went to find out if it had any fruit. When he reached it, he found nothing but leaves, because it was not the season for figs. The he said to the tree, May no one ever eat fruit from you again. (Mark 11:12-14, NIV)

As a result, the tree withered from the roots (v. 20). Now, a few things are clear from this episode.

1. Jesus did not know the tree had no fruit until he went up to the tree and found nothing but leaves.

That doesn’t follow. The passage might be in phenomenological or observational terms: simply describing the situation as a normal being would perceive it. Or, it could simply be an instance which is describing His normal human limitations. That doesn’t mean that He ever ceased having the quality of omniscience in His Divine Nature.

2. When Jesus saw leaves from a distance he hoped to find fruit on the tree.

3. It was not fig season, and this is why the tree had no figs. This comment from Mark clearly, implies that it was a perfectly good tree. If the tree was barren, Marks comment about the season would have been pointless and misleading.

4. Jesus did not know it was not fig season. If he had known this, he would not have expected the tree to have fruit, and he would not have cursed the tree for having no fruit.

5. The whole thing began when Jesus felt hungry.

All of this is so much ado about nothing, since the whole point of this passage is as a parable, which was a teaching device to make a point. It was not an ontological treatise on the Nature of God or the Incarnation. For further reading and an in-depth discussion of the fig tree and other excellent related material, see Sam Shamoun’s article (also in response to Shabir Ally): A Christian Response to “Jesus is Not All-Powerful, and Not All-Knowing.”

Now it is easy to understand that the human Jesus felt hunger, and that the human Jesus did not know it was not fig season and so mistakenly expected the tree to have fruit. A divine Jesus would have known all these, and would not have to go to the tree to discover it had no fruit; he would not have been hungry in the first place.

Jesus had both Natures. God as an omnipotent Being can willingly limit Himself if He so chooses, insofar as the Incarnation is concerned (per the reasoning in my logical chains above). This is clearly expressed in Philippians 2:5-7 (RSV):

. . . Christ Jesus, who, though he was in the form of God . . . emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men.

Now the cursing of the tree is a little more difficult for those who assert the divinity of Jesus. His miracles, they say, are performed by his divine nature. Okay, so the divine Jesus cursed the tree. But why? Why ruin a tree which in Marks view was a perfectly good tree? Come fig season this tree would have had fruit and others could have eaten from it. The reason was that the human Jesus made a mistake. But why did the divine Jesus act upon the mistake of the human Jesus? Does the human mind in Jesus guide the divine nature in him?

This is all beside the point of the act and the parable Jesus wished to convey: that physical obstacles could not hinder the disciples in following God; rather it was lack of faith. Thus, when they saw that the tree had withered (Mark 11:20), Jesus uses it as a lesson to enjoin faith (11:22-24), using an exaggerated example of a mountain being cast in the sea by virtue of faith.

Actually, there is no warrant for all this speculation, for scripture nowhere says that Jesus has two natures. Those who want to believe contrary to scripture that Jesus was fully human yet fully divine can go on speculating.

Again, it is all over Scripture, which shows Him with human limitations, but simultaneously with divine characteristics. Philippians 2:5-8, which I partially cited not far above, states it fairly explicitly. John 1:1, 14, 18 states both notions also:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God . . . And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us . . . No one has ever seen God; the only Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he has made him known. (RSV)

It is true that the doctrine developed historically (as all doctrines do), but all essentials necessary for it are clearly present in Scripture. Even Mr. Ross, whom Mr. Ally cites (describing him as a “Christian”) against the doctrine, knows this, because he rejects the writings of Paul and John rather than accept what they plainly teach (because he has decided he doesn’t like them, and doesn’t care what is taught in the Bible).

Some will say that everything is possible with God, and that we are using words here with their human meanings. This is true. Everything is possible with God. We believe that. If you tell me God did such and such and He is such and such I cannot say it is impossible. But what if you say God did and did not, or He is and is not? Your statements are meaningless. When you say that Jesus is perfect God and perfect man at the same time you are saying two opposite things. Therefore, I reply, Impossible!

This is untrue, as shown. Simply repeating his fallacious logic over and over does not make Mr. Ally’s flawed argument become a true one.

So what we need here is to hear it said with meaning. If you think that the words have a different or deeper meaning, when applied to God I cannot help agreeing with you. But I would like to know with what meaning you are using those words. Ross explains:

If you wish to redefine some of these words, thats fine, as long as you can tell us the new meanings that you are using. The usual practice, however, seems to be to say that while one cannot say precisely what these new meanings are, one is nevertheless sure that they fit together in a way that makes sense. This, of course, is simply an effort to duck the requirements of logic. But if you do not know the meanings of the words which you are applying to Jesus, then you are simply saying Jesus is X and Jesus is Y, X and Y being unknowns. This, of course, is to say nothing at all. (p. 83)

As a result of this confusion, many Christians revert to the idea that Jesus had two natures that are separable. Sometimes he acts as a human and sometimes he acts as God.

So what? The God of the Old Testament does the same thing. When He took the form of a man, and wrestled with Jacob, He was acting as a human. When He creates and predicts the future, and judges whole nations, and does other extraordinary things like that, He is acting as only God can act, and how man cannot act. So where is the beef? This is simply irrelevant, illogical skepticism, typical of a man who was arrogant and absurdly self-important enough to pick and choose what he wants to believe in the Bible, and reject the rest, yet continue to call this “Christianity.” What would Mr. Ally think of a Muslim who treated the Qur’an so disrespectfully, arbitrarily, and with such contempt? If he wouldn’t allow that (as I suspect, or hope, anyway), then why does he use such a man as a central “plank” in his argument against Christianity? Why doesn’t he just go to the Bible, which he knows that real Christians (unlike Mr. Ross) actually accept as inspired revelation?

This, of course, is not supported by scripture, and it would have been wiser to move to the scriptural position that Jesus was a man and a servant of God (See Matthew 12:18, Acts 3:13, Acts 4:27 in the Holy Bible, Revised Standard Version).

Mr. Ally is welcome to refute all the hundreds of evidences to the contrary, that I have compiled in my papers, Jesus is God: Biblical Proofs, and The Holy Trinity: Biblical Proofs.

William Ellery Channing is one of many Christians who have moved to that scriptural position. He wrote thus:

Where do you meet, in the New Testament, the phraseology which abounds in Trinitarian books and which necessarily grows from the doctrine of two natures in Jesus? Where does this divine teacher say, “this I speak as God, and this as man; this is true only of my human mind, this only of my divine? Where do we find in the Epistles a trace of this strange phraseology? Nowhere. It was not needed in that day. It was demanded by the errors of a later age.We believe, then that Christ is one mind, one being, and, I add, a being distinct from the one God. That Christ is not the one God, not the same being with the father, is a necessary inference from our former head, in which we saw that the doctrine of three persons in God is a fiction . . . . Jesus, in his preaching, continually spoke of God. The word was always in his mouth. We ask, does he by this word ever mean himself? We say, never. On the contrary, he most plainly distinguishes between God and himself, and so do his disciples. (William Ellery Channing, Unitarian Christianity and Other Essays, edited by Irving H. Bartlett (U.S.: Liberal Arts Press, 1957) pp. 17-18)

I appeal to my two papers above. Channing is as abysmally misinformed about the content of the Scriptures as Mr. Ross and Mr. Ally are (with all due respect). I don’t claim to “know” about the Qur’an (“knowledge” that a Muslim like Mr. Ally would consider a bunch of nonsense). I don’t know much about it at all. So I refrain from making sweeping statements about it. I respectfully submit, then, that Muslims, by the same token, ought to stop making silly, unsubstantiated claims about the Bible and other religions.

It is disrespectful and merely shows their own lack of knowledge, just as my behavior would be if I went on and on about the Qur’an, and cited “liberal” Muslims who no longer believe what traditional Islam teaches, and has always taught; stating things that any educated, practicing Muslim would immediately detest as falsehood and distortion. Channing is no Christian, and shouldn’t be cited as one. On a web page affiliated with the Christian History Institute [link no longer works], the radical, unChristian nature of Channing’s beliefs were described as follows:

At the ordination of his protégé, Jared Sparks, held on this day, May 5, 1819, he delivered the speech which separated the Unitarians from the Calvinists and soon made them an independent denomination.The first half of his speech defended the use of human reason in interpreting scripture. His arguments ignored the role of the Holy Spirit in illuminating scripture. In the second half of the speech, he sported the results of a theology of the unaided human mind. Not surprisingly, the subtle concepts of the Trinity were first to go. “We object to the doctrine of the Trinity, that it subverts the unity of God.”

Rejecting the Trinity, the Unitarians rejected much other Christian doctrine. Channing expressed these views forthrightly in his speech. Christ was not both God and man, nor a member of the godhead. The vicarious atonement of Christ for sin was absurd. Election by grace was a preposterous notion. In short, virtually every doctrine which seems fundamental to Christian religion, Channing renounced that day. He was, of course, not the first to do so, and he surely wasn’t the last.

Some “Christian,” huh? He renounced “virtually every doctrine which seems fundamental to Christian religion,” yet Mr. Ally chooses him to bolster his argument and presents him as a “Christian.” I’m as much a Muslim as Channing was a Christian! I know virtually nothing about the Qur’an; Channing obviously knows next to nothing about the Bible, in order for him to ludicrously present his views as “Christian.” Mr. Ally himself speaks in terms of orthodox Christianity and writes things like, “those views were declared by the Church to be heretical.” “The Church” is an historical entity. This was and is Christianity. Words meansomething.

If Mr. Ally wants to argue that heterodox or so-called “modern” Christianity is superior to the historic, “orthodox” Christianity of the creeds (as suggested by the sort of ultra-liberal apostate “Christians” he cites), then he could not object to a Christian doing the same thing in analyzing Islam: tearing apart the Qur’an, citing “Muslims” who no longer accept the authority of the Qur’an and traditional orthodox Islamic teaching, yet insist on being called “Muslims” all the same. Something tells me he would not appreciate such a method much at all, and he would be perfectly justified in taking such a dim view of it. If that is the case, then why does he act in precisely this fashion in his critique of Christian views?

Channing contends that since the doctrine of the two natures is so strange, so difficult, so remote from all the previous conceptions of men, it would have been taught with utmost clarity in the Bible had it been a necessary belief for Christians.

That doesn’t follow. Many teachings are not all that explicit in the Bible. In fact, the very notion that a doctrine ought to be present in the Bible with “utmost clarity” in order to be a required Christian belief, is not itself even remotely present in the Bible. It is merely Channing’s own arbitrary human tradition. Yet he acts as if this is decisive. The listing of the books of the Bible is not in the Bible at all. That had to come from Sacred Tradition and Church authority. Yet Channing assumes that a thing called the “Bible” is self-evident. His position, is, therefore, shot through with self-defeating notions.

But no such teaching can be found in the Bible. Some Christians say, however, that some passages ascribe divine qualities to Jesus and others human qualities. To reconcile all these necessitates the said doctrine. Channing replies that those passages that seem to ascribe divine qualities to Jesus can be easily explained without resorting to the doctrine.

So he says, but he could not prove this from the Bible. It would be like trying to patch up a bucket with 200 holes in it (his ludicrous “biblical case” against orthodox Christology), with ten blades of grass.

He regards with disdain what he understands to be the solution proposed by other Christians:

In other words, for the purpose of reconciling certain difficult passages, which a just criticism can in a great degree, if not wholly, explain, we must invent a hypothesis vastly more difficult, and involving gross absurdity. We are to find our way out of a labyrinth by a clue which conducts us into mazes infinitely more inextricable. (p. 17)

His disdain contradicts previous Christian teaching of at least 1500 years. My disdain for his arbitrary, Johnny-come-lately view does not require any such internally-incoherent and arbitrary scenario. Christians believe that historic Christianity means something. Protestants place less confidence in historical Christianity than catholics, but in this area, there is no difference between the two: both fully agree where Christology is concerned.

Many, like Channing, after thorough study have concluded that Jesus was simply a man chosen by God to deliver His message. The mighty works he did were by the permission and aid of God. Jesus of his own could do nothing. The book The Myth of God Incarnate, edited by John Hick, is a collection of essays written by practicing Christian theologians and clergymen. Anyone who still has a doubt about this matter should read that book.

This is just more skepticism, loss of faith, and appeals to ultra-liberal so-called “Christians.” Mr. Ally’s case gets less impressive the longer he tries to plead for his lost cause.

Finally, we must turn to God for His guidance. He sent His final book, the Quran to rescue mankind from the theological traps of humanly invented dogmas. The Quran addresses Christians and Jews:

O people of the Scripture! Now hath Our Messenger come unto you, expounding unto you much of that which ye used to hide of the Scripture, and forgiving much. Now hath come unto you light from Allah and a plain Scripture, whereby Allah guideth him who seeketh His good pleasure unto paths of peace. He bringeth them out of darkness into light by His decree, and guideth them unto a straight path. (Quran 5:14-15)

And again:

Say: O People of the Scripture! Stress not in your religion other than the truth, and follow not the vain desires of the folk who erred of old and led many astray, and erred from the plain road. (Quran 5:77)

Let us pray to Allah for His help. Nothing is possible without His help. O Allah! Guide us and guide all of humankind on the straight path.

If I were to adopt Mr. Ally’s methodology concerning these passages and the Qur’an in general, I would simply produce a self-defined “Muslim” who no longer believes in what the Qur’an teaches, cite him at length, conclude that he is far more reasonable than some 1400 years of Islamic history, tradition, and theology, and dismiss the latter as “impossible to be believed” and logically absurd. If Mr. Ally wouldn’t care for that method, then he ought to cease utilizing it himself. I find that his case collapses at all crucial points.

In conclusion, I would like to point out that every human being has a body, soul, and spirit. According to Mr. Ally’s incoherent reasoning above, this would have to be a contradictory and impossible state of affairs. How could a body be merged with a soul and/or spirit, because a body is material and spirit is not, and that is (so he tells us) contradictory! How can one being possess both qualities at the same time? If I say “I am a troubled soul,” I am referring to me as a person (both body and soul) having a troubled mind or conscience or soul (which is immaterial). Both exist simultaneously. When we say, “the spirit is willing, but the flesh is weak,” we make a similar distinction. We talk about “one day I will die.” What does that mean? All it means is that my soul will become separate from my body. But I won’t die, if by that one means I will cease to exist. My soul will continue on eternally. If I say, after running a mile, “I am tired,” technically, that means “I” as my whole person, but physical tiredness does not refer to a spirit or soul, only a body. A spirit cannot become tired because it is not material.

The mind-body question is one of the most difficult problems in philosophy, both today and historically. But it is not thought to be “impossible” by many many philosophers for a body and a soul to exist together in some mysterious fashion. If we can’t even figure out these sublime mysteries about the nature of human beings, who are we to state dogmatically that something is “impossible” for God? It makes no sense. It is entirely possible, then, for God to take on human characteristics which are different from divine ones.

Another illustration comes from the world of modern physics, which holds to a notion of many more dimensions than we experience as human beings: dimensions that exist but that we have no awareness of. There are serious theories which posit entire universes just as real as ours, passing right through the one we know about. With this sort of extraordinary thing being seriously talked about in science, which is based on physical observation, why should we think we can casually rule out Jesus having Two Natures, which cannot even be seen in a micrscope?

Lastly, Christian apologist C.S. Lewis gives a great illustration of the Trinity by talking about dimensions and the limitations in perception that they cause. If we imagined a world with one dimension only, everything would be lines, and lines only. A conscious creature in that world would probably not be able to imagine anything different. Likewise, if we imagine a two-dimensional world, or what Lewis calls “flat land,” then length and width are possible, but not depth. Thus, such a world can conceptualize a square. But it cannot conceive of a cube, which is a three-dimensional shape.

In the same way that a flatlander cannot comprehend a third dimension and a cube or a box or a cylinder or a pyramid shape, we cannot comprehend a God who is not limited to one person, as we are, but subsists in three persons. We cannot imagine it, based on categories with which we are unfamiliar, but that doesn’t make it logically impossible. Who is to say that God is not a Being such that He consists of three persons? In our world, each person is one person, and each person is different in some way from every other person. But God is of an entirely different order of being than we are. We can only learn so much about Him, short of revelation, and the Christian revelation describes God as being one being in three Persons, and that these three are equal in essence, power, and glory. They are completely merged in a oneness that maintains the oneness of God and monotheism. There is one God, not three. This God subsists in three Divine Persons.

Muslims, of course, disagree with that, but disagreement is not the same thing as logical impossibility in any conceivable world. We cannot even conceive of all worlds, so we would obviously be unable to conceive of all the attributes of God, Who is an infinite, eternal, all-powerful, self-existing, uncaused Pure Being. Since we cannot do so, it is foolish to start to rule things out, where God is concerned, based on reason alone. Revelation is another thing, but insofar as reason is used in one’s argument (as Mr. Ally’s argument basically is), trinitarianism cannot be ruled out a priori, nor can the Two natures of Christ, by the same token.

If Mr. Ally, on the other hand, wished to argue from revelation; he accepts the Qur’an as God’s fullest revelation, and if it teaches that trinitarianism is untrue, Mr. Ally will accept that, and is duty-bound to accept it as a faithful Muslim. But the argument for what is and isn’t an inspired divine revelation is an entirely different one, and if Mr. Ally thinks it upholds the Qur’an in a unique way, I can come back on the same basis and say that I believe it upholds the Bible. Then I simply say the Bible teaches trinitarianism (as it clearly does) and the argument is over (short of a giant “Bible vs. Qur’an” discussion). But on a purely logical, rationalistic basis, neither the Trinity nor the Two Natures of Christ are impossible and contrary to logic. They are paradoxical and extremely difficult for us to conceptualize, sure, but not logically impossible.

* * * * *
Response to a Criticism From a Catholic Reader

 

Dave, in the discussion with the Muslim about the Incarnation, you were right that there is no “iron-clad logic” which denies an omnipotent God the power to take on a human nature. But your arguments do no justice to how scandalous the Incarnation is to the intellect, how it confounded even the angelic intelligence of the seraphim and the cherubim when it was revealed to them, and, according to some patristic teaching (which I regret I do not know well enough to cite specifically), the mystery of the Incarnation, when it was revealed to Lucifer in the beginning of creation, played a role in his decision to rebel against God. I totally sympathise with those who cannot wrap their minds around this mystery, for which supernatural faith ( a gift of God’s grace, and not a natural attribute) is required. We must pray that God grant such people grace, not scold their logic as if they were just dim bulbs, not bright enough to -get it-. We who believe this do not –get it– either.The fact that you compare the notion of the Incarnation with theophanies and say that these are close –AS NOTIONS — illustrates this. They are close only in the imagination, where you can “picture” a theophany, and picture Jesus, and see a similarity in the mental image. In the abstarct meaning of these ideas, they are infinitely distant. Angels can appear as human beings, too, but their ability to produce “angelophanies” in no way makes it possible for them to Incarnate the way God did by taking on flesh and becoming the Man who is our Blessed Lord Jesus Christ. That self-emptying love took every last ounce of his omnipotence, so to speak. It required all the power of God for God to become a Man. No angel can do that, though they can present the appearance of doing so. The difference between appearance and reality, so central to ourt faith in the Eucharist, is undervalued by your argument. Perhaps you let your passion get the better of your reason at that moment.

I include here the offending quote:

Oh??!! How is it logically impossible for a Being with all power, Who appears as a man and an angel, and Who creates man in His own image, to become a man? By what ironclad, indisputable logic do we completely distinguish the concepts of appearing like a man or an angel in all outward aspects, and becoming an actual man? Certainly the two notions are quite close, and if one is actual, we cannot plausibly rule out the other concept as “impossible.”

You make an interesting point; something certainly well worth pondering. I’m not sure supernatural faith is required to believe in the Incarnation. Perhaps you are right to distinguish between a mental assent and actually embracing the notion in belief and faith. Supernatural faith helps us, no doubt, to believe in many things we otherwise would not believe. I’m just not sure this is one of them.

Remember the context of my debate with the Muslim. He was not only contending that the Incarnation was untrue as a matter of fact, but that it was literally logically impossible, which is a far stronger claim indeed (maybe the strongest that can be imagined with regard to the falsity of a particular claim). My response was, therefore, intended to put forth the argument that it was not logically impossible at all. You admit yourself that — as a point of logic — I was correct.

Therefore, I think your criticism (which I appreciate, as I do all articulate criticisms) is a bit off the mark, because of the exact nature of what I was trying to accomplish in that discussion. You stated, “your arguments do no justice to how scandalous the Incarnation is to the intellect.” Sure, I accept that, just as I agree (with St. Paul) that the cross itself (and the bodily resurrection, etc.) is “foolishness” to the natural intellect. But scandal and difficulty is much different from logical impossibility, and it was the latter I was addressing, not the former. It’s the difference between the following propositions:

1. I don’t believe Jesus atoned for the sins of the world when he died on the cross.

2. I don’t believe Jesus died by crucifixion.

3. I believe it is logically impossible that Jesus atoned for the sins of the world when he died on the cross.

The first is a matter of belief, faith, and assent. Christians believe this; non-Christians do not. The second has no theological implications, as stated, and is a matter of historical fact only (whether an event happened or not): it can be determined as true or false by the usual historiographical methodology. The third, however, is in a vastly different category. To claim that something is logically impossible is akin to declaring it nonsense in and of its very nature.

It is like saying, “it is impossible that I exist and not exist at the same time,” or “the sun and the moon can be at the same place at the same time.” There is no logical impossibility in #3; nor is there for the Incarnation or the Trinity. Difficult? Sure, absolutely. Hard to comprehend and believe? Yep, you bet. But logically impossible?! No, not at all. When one tries to claim too much for their argument, they make it very weak and unpersuasive and unbelievable.

You wrote:

We must pray that God grant such people grace, not scold their logic as if they were just dim bulbs, not bright enough to — get it –. We who believe this do not — get it — either.

I don’t think I was doing that (I certainly don’t wish to do it, and it would never be my intent, though admittedly I have little patience for truly dumb ideas). The argument wasn’t that he was so “dumb” or “dim” that he couldn’t grasp some simple thing. It was, rather, that his claims of logical impossibility were extravagant and presumptuous. And the nature of his argument is offensive to a Christian.

He was claiming far more than he could demonstrate by force of argument. He wanted to go beyond saying that Christianity or the Incarnation were untrue, to saying that they couldn’t possibly be true, according to the very rules of logic and thinking. Among other things, I showed him that there were many difficult mysteries in Islam, that he himself accepted, so that he should not be arguing in such a manner because it would backfire on his own beliefs.

It is presumptuous because he was being quite offensive in trying to imply that our Christian beliefs are so “illogical” and implausible and obviously false, that no one could possibly believe them and remain sensible and logical, rational thinkers. Think of it!: how extraordinary this claim is! It is one thing to simply believe your thing and recognize that others believe something different, and to try to understand why they do so. But to claim logical impossibility is truly calling us the “dim bulbs”, if anyone is doing that here. I don’t go around saying that “Islam is logically impossible to believe: no rational person could possibly accept it.” And I don’t imagine my Muslim opponent would take very kindly to that if I did so. Yet this is what he does to us (along with other unsavory methods in citation that I critiqued).

So my response was to show that his claim was false, by using his own presuppositions, that he shares with us (omnipotence of God, God as Creator, and some belief in the OT, where theophanies occurred). In other words, my reasoning was:

“You and I agree on these premises; I am trying to demonstrate how the Incarnation is not impossible at all for an omnipotent God, based on the premises and reasoning x, y, z which is derived from them . . . “

Now, you stated:

I totally sympathise with those who cannot wrap their minds around this mystery, for which supernatural faith (a gift of God’s grace, and not a natural attribute) is required.

That is fine in and of itself, but what you neglect to take into account is that the Muslim already believes many such things that are also beyond the human intellect to fully grasp (omnipotence, eternity, self-existence, creatio ex nihilo, spirit-being, etc.). In other words, since he already believes many such mysteries, it is foolish and a double standard for him to choose our Christian mysteries and claim that they are logically impossible for us to believe (it’s much different for a Muslim to make the argument than an atheist, because of the many assumptions he shares with the Christian). For he hasn’t shown that one is more “logically impossible” than the other.

I think you go too far, too, in your analyses of the Incarnation vis-a-vis God’s omnipotence:

That self-emptying love took every last ounce of his omnipotence, so to speak. It required all the power of God for God to become a Man.

By what chain of reasoning do you arrive at this conclusion? I don’t agree with this (but maybe you’re right: who knows?). I don’t see that it requires “every last ounce” and “all [God’s] power” to become a man. It’s not logically impossible: God created man, and in His own image; therefore He can become one if He so chooses. What needs to be explained is how God could create a man, but somehow it is unthinkable for Him to become that which He designed and created. I grant that it is difficult to believe as an actuality, but not toconceptualize.

And again, logical impossibility involves being unable to conceptualize a thing at all: and a reduction of that thing to literal nonsense or absurdity in its very nature. Furthermore, our Muslim friends believe in revelation as we do. We believe the Incarnation because it is plainly revealed in revelation, and because the historical Jesus made the claim. Muslims believe in revelation, too, and not all revelation is immediately explainable by human reason alone. He should, therefore, understand this, and not attempt to make the extravagant claim of logical impossibility.

You wrote:

No angel can do that, though they can present the appearance of doing so.

Yes, that’s right, but this is the very point I was making: We may not be able to understand it, and an angel may not be able to do it, but an omnipotent God certainly can, because He is the Creator and it is not logically impossible. It’s not, because men exist! And if they exist only because of God Who caused them and brought them into being, how is it that He could not (even possibly!) become a man, seeing that He is all-powerful, and can therefore do anything which is logically possible?

I don’t see how my quote is offensive, either. I find my opponents’ claim infinitely more offensive than anything I wrote in reply (though I am sure I could be more charitable and gentle, which is always the case).

Thanks for your feedback. It was a very interesting discussion.

 

2017-05-09T20:08:39-04:00

CampbellBook

[Amazon image]

***

The full title of this book is, The Book of Non-Contradiction: Harmonizing the Scriptures (Grass Lake, Michigan: Cruachan Hill Press, 2017).

*****

Phillip Campbell has provided a very valuable service for Christians, in this defense of the inspiration of Scripture, in terms of showing how alleged biblical contradictions really aren’t contradictions at all.  Having done a great deal of work in this area, myself, as a professional Catholic apologist, I know how prevalent such criticisms are: especially, these days, proceeding rather relentlessly (with seeming growing confidence) from our atheist friends. I like to describe the mentality of atheists in approaching the Bible as “the butcher and the hog.”

Mr. Campbell alludes to this widespread mistaken outlook in his Introduction, noting how the idea that the Bible is “full of contradictions” is:

. . . casually repeated in online forums, radio programs, and television interviews with the confidence of one saying the sky is blue or snow is cold. The critic assumes it, states it, and moves on, the argument left unproven because, in his mind, it is self-evident.

It was my own personal encounter with these sorts of assertions that inspired me to compile this book. (p. 6)

The Introduction is a brilliant summary exposition of a fool’s catalogue of accusations of contradictions, which are in reality, obvious (at least on close inspection) exercises in faulty logic. I have observed the same sorts of basic logical errors for many years, in my own encounters with “atheist exegesis” and with misinformed Christians who hold a “low” view of Holy Scripture (and, I submit, of reason and logic as well). It was a pleasure to see such goofball analyses decisively disposed of, one-by-one. Campbell describes and refutes typical instances:

Examples of these apparent contradictions are situations where one Gospel says Jesus was with Peter, James and John and the other Gospel says Peter, Andrew and John. There is no contradiction unless the latter Gospel specifically says, “James was not there.” . . . Many of the “contradictions” are of this sort. (p. 8)

[S]ome of the “contradictions” examined are just ignorant. For example, “Peter was chosen by the Sea of Galilee” and “Peter was chosen by the Lake of Gennesaret.” The Lake of Gennesaret and the Sea of Galilee are the same body of water. (p. 9)

The real problem is most of these skeptics who gloat in finding contradictions in the Bible have never bothered to really dig into the verses in question; many of the “contradictions” in this book evidence a glaring ignorance of not only the Bible itself, but even geography, conventional literary method, and basic linguistics. They do not care what the Bible really says; they care only about attacking Faith. (p. 11)

We will see a failure to recognize literary hyperbole and an insistence on taking every statement in the most absolute narrowest, most literal sense without any effort to determine the nuance involved in real human speech — in short, a failure to treat the Scriptures the way we approach any other writing. (p. 12)

Campbell provides another related general “principle” in chapter 15:

[W]e need to understand a certain Scriptural principle that we may call the Principle of Non-Exclusion. This means that when the Scriptures mention a certain event as occurring, other possible events not mentioned in the text are not thereby excluded, unless they directly contradict what is written. (p. 118)

He then applies the principle by examining the issue of how many angels were present in the first accounts of Jesus’ empty tomb on the first Easter Sunday:

Matthew has one, Mark one, Luke two, and John none.  . . . if Luke mentions two, then there must have been two. The fact that Matthew and Mark mention one angel does not exclude the possibility of a second one not mentioned by them, as John’s exclusion of any angels does not mean they were not there, only that he chose not to mention them. (pp. 120-121)

Having laid this important presuppositional groundwork, Mr. Campbell then moves on to examine particular examples of misguided biblical criticism, in fifteen chapters devoted to major issues of alleged contradiction, and a final 70-page chapter briefly chronicling 191 further “difficulties.” I’d like to highlight what I thought were some of the best refutations in the book. Regarding the two accounts of creation in Genesis 1 and 2 (a favorite of Bible critics since time immemorial), he writes:

[T]he events in chapter 2 are not meant to happen after the events in chapter 1. Rather, chapter 1 presents a broad picture, followed by a kind of “zoomed in” perspective in chapter 2, which re-presents certain events from chapter 1 but in greater detail. This method is common throughout Genesis; for example, Genesis 11 tells of the various families descended from Shem and then Genesis 12 goes on to “zoom in” on a specific family – that of Abram. (p. 17)

My favorite chapter was the last one, with 191 debunked alleged contradictions. For the purpose of this review, and the limited space I have, many of these are well-suited for representative citation. #7 dealt with Jesus being called both Emmanuel and Jesus. Oddly enough, this is thought to be a biblical contradiction.  Campbell retorts:

Emmanuel was never understood to be a proper name. It is a prophetic title originating with the prophet Isaiah (Is. 7:14) and denotes the Messiah as a manifestation of God’s presence among His people. (p. 127)

#14 is a claim that the Bible asserts that Jesus began His ministry before John the Baptist’s arrest (Jn 3:22-24) and also (in alleged contradiction) that He began it after his arrest (Mk 1:13-14). The reply is a simple one:

Jesus began His ministry in Judea prior to John’s arrest . . . but did not begin in Galilee until after . . . Remember, Judea and Galilee are two different territories. (p. 129)

#38 has to do with whether a Christian ought to judge (1 Jn 4:1-3) or not judge (Mt 7:1-2 ). Campbell explains:

These verses are two totally different contexts. Matthew refers to the faithful not being judgmental and condemnatory towards other people, 1 John refers to the necessity of  Christians understanding the difference between good and evil spirits, or what has been called “discernment of spirits.” (p. 138)

#51 deals with a dispute that has been front and center with our separated Protestant brethren for 500 years now:

51. Salvation comes by faith and not works (Eph. 2:8, 9; Rom. 11:6; Gal. 2:16; Rom. 3:28).
      Salvation comes by faith and works (Jas. 2:14, 17, 20).

The “works” referred to in St. Paul are the ceremonial “works of the law”, rituals of the Old Covenant no longer binding on Christians. The “works” referred to in St. James are good works, works done in charity, which are obligatory for Christians. These are two different types of works. (pp. 141-142)

Certain Protestant scholars of the “new perspective on Paul” outlook, such as Bishop N. T. Wright, are now agreeing with the above analysis, instead of casually assuming that every time “works” are mentioned, that they must be of the same type. In this way, Protestants historically, have fallen into the same sort of “one size fits all” mentality that characterizes atheist (and also, I might add, wooden literalist fundamentalist) “exegesis.” We must all be aware of different senses of words in Scripture, according to context, and of literary genre as well.

#77 tackles a classic objection: the cock described as crowing once (Mt 26:74) and twice (Mk 14:72), in a very effective, illuminating way:

This is stupid. Matthew does not say how many times the cock crowed, only that it crowed. If you were to say, “The dog barked,” would the only possible interpretation be that it barked once and only once? Does not the phrase “the dog barked” have a more general meaning that could refer to a single bark, two barks, or five minutes of incessant barking? This is another example of how these people are unwilling to extend the same common usages to words and phrases of the Bible that they utilize in their everyday use of speech. (p. 151)

#153 has to do with a seeming contradiction that has to do with what I would call the “proverbial” use of language in the first epistle of John. 1 John 1:7-8 states that Christians can and do sin (RSV: “If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves”), but 1 John 3:9 asserts they will not or cannot sin (“No one born of God commits sin; for God’s nature abides in him, and he cannot sin because he is born of God”). Campbell explains:

1 John 3 refers to abiding in a state of mortal sin. 1 John 1:7-9 refers to the fact that even among Christians nobody is absolutely sinless. The message is that while even Christians will fall into sin from time to time, one cannot claim to be a follower of God while habitually living in unrepentant mortal sin. (p. 182)

I would add that 1 John 5:16-17 refers to sins that are “mortal” five times; thus, this explanation has the support of context.

These examples provide a flavor of the entire book. I think it is an indispensable apologetics tool for anyone who deals with biblical skeptics: be they more liberal and “dissident” Catholics or other Christians, or atheists who savor every opportunity to mock Christians and their “primitive” and allegedly “full of holes” Bible.

Moreover, it will greatly help persons who seek (with an open mind) to learn more about the Bible, and why Christians believe it is infallible and inspired, to see many reasons for why we believe in its inspiration. This book will help build faith and confidence in Christians, while it refutes the false claims of the avowed enemies (or severe critics) of Christianity and the Bible.

I give it my very highest (and enthusiastic) recommendation.

See also the Amazon book page.

2017-05-04T22:44:21-04:00

GodLight2

“Light Special Effects03” by “RAJESH misra” ( [PublicDomainPictures.net / CC0 public domain]

***

Lutheran Pastor Ken Howes (LCMS) wrote on a public Facebook thread:

I have told this story many times, but it’s always worth the retelling. I was about six or seven years old, and I was sitting out on my back porch with my friend Mark, who was a Roman Catholic. Mark started telling me how we should pray to Mary and that she was holy. I interrupted, “But only God is holy. He only is the Lord. Only Jesus Christ, with the Holy Ghost, is most high in the glory of God the Father!” Those words, drilled into my mind by hearing them every week, were my answer. Funny thing is, Mark heard them every week, too, but didn’t know he heard them, because he heard, “Quoniam tu solus sanctus; to solus Dominus; tu solus altissimus, etc….” [“For you alone are the Holy One, you alone are the Lord, you alone are the Most High”: from the Gloria in the Catholic Mass]

I replied:

Hi Pastor Ken,

Long time no see. I just happened to see your name on my sidebar.

There is nothing wrong with praying to Mary (i.e., asking her to intercede) or saying that Mary is holy; so did Martin Luther. He thought she was sinless, and preserved from original sin before the incarnation (what I have called the immaculate purification view).

Invocation of saints is an entirely separate (and involved) argument, but here I want to quibble with your objection to simply saying that Mary is holy. Surely you don’t deny that the Bible says that people are holy, to various degrees?

As to the liturgy stating that God alone is holy, that obviously means in the ultimate sense: He is the source of all holiness, holiness itself (just as He is also love), nothing but holy; or else we have massive contradictions in the Bible.

This is very easy to establish in Scripture. Jesus said, “No one is good but God alone” (Mk 10:18). But of course, He referred to good people, too:

Matthew 12:35 (RSV) The good man out of his good treasure brings forth good, and the evil man out of his evil treasure brings forth evil. (cf. Lk 6:45)

St. Paul refers to “a good man” (Rom 5:7), and Barnabas is called a “a good man” (Acts 11:24). The Old Testament uses the phrase “good man” seven times and “righteous man” 22 times. The New Testament uses “righteous man” six times of people other than Jesus. So your objection is baffling to me. It’s a case of fallacious “either/or” reasoning to say that no one is holy but God. But obviously, no one is as holy as He is.

God commands people to be holy precisely because He is holy:

1 Peter 1:15-16 but as he who called you is holy, be holy yourselves in all your conduct; [16] since it is written, “You shall be holy, for I am holy.”

St. Peter was citing Old Testament passages and ideas:

Leviticus 11:44-45 For I am the LORD your God; consecrate yourselves therefore, and be holy, for I am holy. You shall not defile yourselves with any swarming thing that crawls upon the earth. [45] For I am the LORD who brought you up out of the land of Egypt, to be your God; you shall therefore be holy, for I am holy.”

Leviticus 19:2 Say to all the congregation of the people of Israel, You shall be holy; for I the LORD your God am holy.

Leviticus 20:7 Consecrate yourselves therefore, and be holy; for I am the LORD your God.

Hence, also:

Deuteronomy 23:14 Because the LORD your God walks in the midst of your camp, to save you and to give up your enemies before you, therefore your camp must be holy, that he may not see anything indecent among you, and turn away from you.

1 Corinthians 7:34 . . . And the unmarried woman or girl is anxious about the affairs of the Lord, how to be holy in body and spirit . . .

Ephesians 1:4 even as he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before him.

Hebrews 12:9-11, 14 Besides this, we have had earthly fathers to discipline us and we respected them. Shall we not much more be subject to the Father of spirits and live? [10] For they disciplined us for a short time at their pleasure, but he disciplines us for our good, that we may share his holiness. [11] For the moment all discipline seems painful rather than pleasant; later it yields the peaceful fruit of righteousness to those who have been trained by it. . . . [14] Strive for peace with all men, and for the holiness without which no one will see the Lord.

Revelation 22:11 Let the evildoer still do evil, and the filthy still be filthy, and the righteous still do right, and the holy still be holy.

Similarly, the Bible says that God has a unique glory. But then it also says that He shares this glory with His creatures:

John 5:44 How can you believe, who receive glory from one another and do not seek the glory that comes from the only God?

John 17:22 The glory which thou hast given me I have given to them, that they may be one even as we are one,

Romans 5:2 Through him we have obtained access to this grace in which we stand, and we rejoice in our hope of sharing the glory of God.

2 Corinthians 3:18 And we all, with unveiled face, beholding the glory of the Lord, are being changed into his likeness from one degree of glory to another; for this comes from the Lord who is the Spirit.

1 Thessalonians 2:12 to lead a life worthy of God, who calls you into his own kingdom and glory.

2 Thessalonians 2:14 To this he called you through our gospel, so that you may obtain the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ.

1 Peter 4:14 If you are reproached for the name of Christ, you are blessed, because the spirit of glory and of God rests upon you.

1 Peter 5:1 So I exhort the elders among you, as a fellow elder and a witness of the sufferings of Christ as well as a partaker in the glory that is to be revealed. (cf. 5:4)

2 Peter 1:3 His divine power has granted to us all things that pertain to life and godliness, through the knowledge of him who called us to his own glory and excellence,

***

 

2017-04-12T16:46:42-04:00

(vs. Colin Smith)

Pharaoh

Photograph by Xuan Che (12-30-05) [Flickr / CC BY 2.0 license]

***

(10-14-06)

*****

Reformed Baptist apologist James White enlisted his fellow Calvinist friend, Colin Smith, to respond to my article concerning who hardened Pharaoh’s heart. “Dr.” [???] White wrote:

Yesterday on the DL I mentioned the appearance on Roman Catholic apologist Dave Armstrong’s blog of a brief statement on Romans 9. As much as I wanted to respond to it myself, I had to finish a project by last night (does a little after midnight count?). So I asked Colin Smith, who has written for this website before (you can find his articles in our apologetics sections) if he would be willing to put something together in response to Armstrong, and he was very kind to do so. Very fast movement…for a British fellow! So here is Colin Smith’s response to Dave Armstrong on Romans 9 and the hardening of Pharaoh’s heart.

First of all, let me say that I am honored that White thought so much of my work that he felt obliged to reply to a little old article of mine (after repeatedly stating that I don’t have a clue about exegesis at all, and am a complete theological ignoramus, unworthy of anyone’s attention). Why the concern that I must be refuted within a day then? I wish to point out a few glaring errors in Pastor Smith’s presentation, make a few clarifications, and add a few tidbits to my existing argument. His words will be in blue.

* * * * *

. . . the passages referring to Pharaoh hardening his own heart merely reflect from Pharaoh’s perspective what the Lord had done within him . . .

[for background, see my paper, God “Hardening Hearts”: How Do We Interpret That?; see also the related paper, Romans 9: Plausible Non-Calvinist Interpretation]

It’s interesting how one’s prior theology affects one’s exegesis. I noted this in the paper under consideration. We have two strains of thought that appear at first glance to be contradictory. But both interpretations agree that the Bible isn’t contradicting itself. So Colin Smith looks at the two (God hardening Pharaoh and Pharaoh hardening his own heart) and concludes (with no immediate justification from the texts themselves) that when the Bible says Pharaoh hardened himself, it is really saying that God did it (based on the other passages). In other words, he presupposes his Calvinist theology: that God does such things, and superimposes it onto the text.

This is not so much wrong as it is inevitable, and everyone does this at some point. So when Catholics or Arminians or Wesleyan Protestants or Orthodox see the same two sorts of texts, we do the opposite: we interpret the statements about God’s causation in light of the ones where Pharaoh seems to be the initial cause. But at least in my case I provided some solid parallels elsewhere in Scripture (which were all utterly ignored in the critique). I interpreted these passages in light of similar ones elsewhere that, I contended, illustrated instances of the same dynamic and relationship between God and the sin of His creatures, and how God causes or merely permits that. I even found a parallel of Roman 9 (also – for some reason – ignored in the critique), where St. Paul speaks of “vessels” – but this time he indicates human (not divine) responsibility for sin.

. . . those who hold to the Reformed position claim that, unlike their opponents, they are dealing honestly with the text of Scripture.

Here we go. It doesn’t take long for the discussion to devolve from honest disagreements among those who both hold Scripture in the highest regard, to charges of dishonesty. Why is that necessary? I don’t return the charge (almost needless to say). My opponents are honest men who love God and interpret Scripture to the best of their ability, and honor it. Wouldn’t it be nice if they could grant that non-Calvinists do the same?

Instead of trying to insert meaning into passages, they let the passages stand and say what they say.

But this isn’t true, as I just noted. Both sides insert meaning at some point based on prior theological commitments. It’s not a matter of one “letting the clear text speak for itself” and the other dishonestly eisegeting. No one approaches the Bible in a “theological vacuum.” It’s silly to deny this obvious fact.

Therefore, if the text says God hardened Pharaoh’s heart, then God did exactly that.

Again, by the same token, when the text said that Pharaoh hardened his own heart, why is it impermissible to say that “Pharaoh did exactly that”? The two have to be harmonized somehow. In order to do so, they cannot both be taken literally, or at least not literally in the same sense. So it is not quite as simple as is being made out.

He did not sit back and wait to see how Pharaoh would respond to Him.

Of course, no one is maintaining such a silly thing. God, being omniscient, knows everything that man will do before he does it, and so can work His sovereign plan around those actions, and can incorporate man’s free actions in so doing.

In philosophical terms, I am referring here to God using men as secondary agents for the fulfillment of His purposes.

Exactly. So are we. But we don’t have to deny human free will or pretend that it is somehow an entity that could possibly override God’s sovereignty. It does not and indeed cannot do so. That doesn’t mean that God can create free creatures who necessarily won’t sin. I’m talking about His providence in using the sin caused by man for His good purposes. Sin can’t overcome that.

While Armstrong agrees with the fact that God does use people in this way, he arbitrarily denies that God would do so if sin is involved.

It’s not arbitrary at all; a perfectly holy God does not, and cannot positively ordain sin and evil (and I would contend, with all due respect, that it borders on blasphemy to claim that He does do so, though it is not intended to denigrate God at all, from a Calvinist perspective). But He can use the evil originated in sinful creatures for His own purposes.

Interestingly, he cites the crucifixion as evidence of men used as secondary agents, but seems to overlook the fact that God used them to blaspheme, beat, and ultimately kill His only begotten Son.

Who’s overlooking anything? He worked around their evil actions. He didn’t cause them. Otherwise we have the absurd, outrageous scenario of God positively ordaining blasphemy of Himself. He ordained that the crucifixion was to be His plan for saving mankind, but not the sinful acts entailed therein.

Does he seriously want to suggest that somehow this was not sin?

Why in the world would I want to suggest that? Of course it was. But since even Jesus on the cross said that “they know not what they do” then there is a sense in which many of those who carried out the sentencing were clueless as to the immense significance of what they were doing. The thing itself was wrong, but some of the individuals involved had less culpability.

Supposedly I suggested that sin wasn’t involved in my “response to Fred in the Comments.” I don’t see how. I wrote:

I don’t believe God ever causes sin directly. He uses the sin of human beings for His purposes, just as He did with the crucifixion itself. Providence and sovereignty involve secondary causation or ultimate causation, but not in terms of God ordaining or bringing about sin.

This is what is truly at the crux of the problem with the Arminian position: a lack of appreciation for the true nature of God’s sovereignty.

This is what is truly at the crux of the problem of the almost-ubiquitous Calvinist caricature of the Arminian position: a lack of appreciation for the true nature of the Arminian acceptance of God’s sovereignty.

The Bible is replete with statements and stories that support the notion that God is in total and complete control of all things.

Yes, of course He is. No one disagrees with that. Certainly Arminians and Catholics do not.

This concept may not sit well with people, but those who claim to look to the Word of God as the sole and supreme authority on the subject need to come to terms with it.

It sits fine with me. What doesn’t sit well is making God the author of evil and sin. We need not do that in order to preserve God’s sovereignty. Do Colin Smith and Calvinists think dinky little man’s free will is a power so great that God can’t incorporate it into His sovereign plan? I think they limit God. They are the ones who must explain why they think free will and God’s sovereignty are unable to be synthesized, as if God is a weakling, in subjection to His own creatures. If anything harms sovereignty and God’s ultimate control of everything, that does. We non-Calvinists have, I submit, a greater, more majestic conception of His power and providence.

Romans 8:28, a much-beloved passage for many people,

Indeed. It has long been my favorite passage in the Bible.

clearly states that “we know that God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God, to those who are called according to His purpose.” . . . Paul then reminds his readers of the wonderful truth that, regardless of whatever might be happening around them, or to them, there is nothing that takes place that God has not caused for the good of His people. This would include not only blessings and encouragements, but also persecutions, beatings, and even death. All things, Paul says, not some things, or even just the good things. If it is true that God causes all things to occur for the good of His people, that must mean He is able to direct the hearts of even sinful men to fulfill His purposes.

Now this is where Smith’s comments get extremely (shall we say?) “interesting,” because I will argue that he has distorted the Bible in his zeal to defend the distinctives of Calvinism, and committed basic errors of both eisegesis, and even of not reading the actual text properly, according to syntax and grammar. It’s not deliberate; it flows from his prior theological predisposition. But it is a classic case of seeing what one wants to see, when in fact it is not there at all in the biblical text which is being awkwardly pressed into service for some theological “cause.”

Note what he has done here (it is so subtle, I venture to guess that most people wouldn’t even notice what happened, but it is highly significant): he produces Romans 8:28: “we know that God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God, to those who are called according to His purpose.” This is from the NASB translation (I originally read almost the whole Bible in that version in the late 70s and early 80s and I have a lovely leather copy, filled with notes).

Now, what is caused by God, according to the text? The state of affairs whereby all things work together for good. But that is not the same thing as God causing all things, as Pastor Smith argues is the teaching of the text. Note the difference:

Romans 8:28 (NASB): God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God.

Colin Smith’s eisegesis of Romans 8:28: there is nothing that takes place that God has not caused for the good of His people. This would include not only blessings and encouragements, but also persecutions, beatings, and even death.

The second does not follow from the first at all. It’s simple logic and grammar. Nor does the further conclusion that God causes all the individual sins (beatings, murders, etc.) follow, because it is based on the false premise, and certainly not to be found in the glorious text of Romans 8:28. For the following two propositions are not identical:

1. God causes all things to work together for good for His people.

2. God causes all things to occur for the good of His people.

One might also express #1 in this way:

1a. God causes to work together for good, for His people, all things.

This is fundamentally different from #2, because what is caused there is all things, making God the cause of all things that happen, including evil and sin. But in #1, God uses all things, whether He caused them or not, to work together for good. So Romans 8:28 offers no support whatsoever for Smith’s Calvinist argument of God ordaining sin. His statement:

2b. there is nothing that takes place that God has not caused for the good of His people.

is not what Romans 8:28 teaches, which is, rather:

1a. God causes to work together for good, for His people, all things.

In order to conform to Romans 8:28 and what I submit is the truth of the Catholic and Arminian conception of God’s sovereignty, Smith need only change one word:

there is nothing that takes place that God has not used for the good of His people.

The earlier version of the NASB, the American Standard Version (ASV), perhaps makes my point a bit more clear, in its translation of this verse:

And we know that to them that love God all things work together for good, even to them that are called according to his purpose.

Likewise, the KJV:

And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose.

And the RSV:

We know that in everything God works for good.

So it appears that the NASB is somewhat peculiar in that it inserts the word “causes”, where other translations do not. Even so, I contend that Colin Smith has confused what exactly God caused, according to the verse (even in this version). It’s an absolutely classic case of eisegesis, or superimposing onto a biblical text (something not there in actuality) what one wants to see.

He would have to prevent any and all hindrances to His plans, even if this means turning the hearts of men against His own, in order to make sure the good He has designed for His people comes to pass.

God doesn’t have to make sin happen in order to bring about His purposes, any more than we have to sin to bring about some far lesser good than God’s sovereign plan (which is unethical and immoral). If we can’t sin to bring about good, then to make out that God has to do so, is to make God less holy than men, which is outrageously false. No; God is much greater than that. He is able to bring about what He wants by incorporating the free (often sinful) decisions of men. He need not make anyone sin. There is more than enough sin without God joining with the devil and our fallen rebellion and concupiscence in causing it to come about

If there is the slightest possibility that a man acting as a free agent could go his own way, contrary to the purpose of God, then God cannot be said to be causing all things to work together for the ultimate good of those who love Him.

Of course there is no such possibility. No mere man could thwart God’s purposes. But this doesn’t require Calvinism to be a true state of affairs (as we know it is from the Bible).

Then Smith launches into a defense of original sin and the need for regeneration, which is perfectly irrelevant to the discussion, since all parties agree on those matters. Nor is the story of Joseph in any way hostile to Arminian and Catholic soteriology or notions of God’s sovereignty and providence.

I also find it highly ironic and amusing that on this point atheists and Calvinists agree over against Catholics (and Arminians). Both the atheist and the Calvinist hold that these passages teach that God positively ordained evil. But the atheist draws the exact opposite conclusion from that:

Catholic: God does not positively ordain evil because that would make Him the author of sin, which is contrary to His nature and perfect holiness. It is not required for Him to be sovereign.

Calvinist: God does positively ordain evil and this is part of His greatness, because it is necessarily part and parcel of His sovereignty.

Atheist: God does positively ordain evil and this makes Him the author of sin, which is contrary to His nature and perfect holiness, according to Christianity. Therefore, He doesn’t exist, or if He does, He is not all-good and perhaps even the opposite of good.

Fascinating, isn’t it?

Lastly, I want to introduce one more similar “paradox” from Scripture, illustrating the same point I have been making, that it is a forced interpretation of the relevant biblical data, to say that God ordains evil.

Job 42:11 (RSV): Then came to him all his brothers and sisters and all who had known him before, and ate bread with him in his house; and they showed him sympathy and comforted him for all the evil that the LORD had brought upon him; and each of them gave him a piece of money and a ring of gold.

NASB: . . . they consoled him and comforted him for all the adversities that the LORD had brought on him.

So does that refute my case? Hardly. It illustrates it, and shows once again how Calvinism is misguided in this regard. Let’s do a little bit of comparison of Scripture with Scripture. What does it mean for the Bible to reference “the evil that the LORD had brought upon” Job? Does that not prove the Calvinist contention? No, because it has to be interpreted in light of other relevant Scriptures. What can we learn about the cause of Job’s miseries? What about Job 1:12?:

And the LORD said to Satan, “Behold, all that he has is in your power; only upon himself do not put forth your hand.” So Satan went forth from the presence of the LORD.

And Job 2:3, 6?:

3: And the LORD said to Satan, “Have you considered my servant Job, that there is none like him on the earth, a blameless and upright man, who fears God and turns away from evil? He still holds fast his integrity, although you moved me against him, to destroy him without cause.”

6: And the LORD said to Satan, “Behold, he is in your power; only spare his life.”

Now from this data we can deduce a number of things about causation, evil, God, and the devil. How does one reconcile the following seeming contradictions?:

A. God brought evil upon Job (Job 42:11).

B. God destroyed Job “without cause” (Job 2:3).

C. Job was in Satan’s power; hence calamities followed, apparently (as a quite plausible deduction) derived from this diabolical, malevolent power. (Job 1:12; 2:6)

D. Satan moved God “against” Job (Job 2:3)

1) How can it be that if Job was in Satan’s power, for that terrible being to torment him, that somehow God is said to have brought the evil upon him and destroyed him?

2) How can an omniscient being be persuaded; let alone by one of His own creatures who rebelled against Him?

3) How can two different beings, one good and one evil, be said to cause the same occurrences?

Here is how I answer:

1a) The sufferings were instigated by the devil, by God’s permission (His permissive will: 1:12; 2:6). It can’t be judgment of Job (which God does do, and which is good, not bad), because God Himself bears witness to Job’s extraordinary righteousness (2:3).

2a) He was not persuaded, because this is impossible for an omniscient being. God knew all along what His plan was. He used the devil for His own purposes (the resulting book of Job being one), just as He did with the crucifixion and with Joseph’s brothers’ horrid treatment of Joseph. He is described as having been persuaded because this is the common technique of anthropomorphism: portraying God as if He were like human beings, so that people could relate to the story.

3a) God is said, in the pungent Hebrew style, to have caused it, because He allowed the devil to actually do the tormenting (in other words, His ordaining or elective will is compressed into His permissive will, in pre-theological, pre-philosophical Hebrew thinking). This is a way of expressing that God was in control, and sovereign.

This is perfectly plausible, and is harmonious with the other biblical data I brought to bear in my earlier paper. But what can be made of this by the Calvinist? He has to maintain that God caused all of Job’s miseries. But the Bible says that God gave Satan the “power” over Job. How could God cause all the suffering, yet the devil had the power? Job was in Satan’s power, yet God actually did all the bad things to him? Does this mean that the devil’s and God’s will were one and the same? Does that make any sense? Now we have an evil being and the holy God having the exact same will?

Moreover, if this were indeed God’s will, why would the Bible portray Satan convincing God to do it? He can’t do so, by definition, because an omniscient God can’t change. Thus, it is obviously poetry and not literal truth. Therefore, it is also, I submit, a poetic, non-literal expression to say that God brought the evil on Job (just as in the analogous passages from my earlier paper). Otherwise, you have the ludicrosity of the quintessential evil creature convincing the holy God to do evil acts that the devil thoroughly approves of. What sense does that make?

It makes much more sense to say that this was a visual word-picture meant to convey that whatever the devil does is allowed by God, but that in the end God is in control and can be trusted as all-good and all-wise simply because He is Who He is. Indeed, this is the message of the end of the book of Job. God allows the devil to do evil, but He doesn’t ordain or cause it Himself. He uses the devil like a toy, to bring good from his evil.

2017-04-11T11:33:15-04:00

Mitch / “ProfMTH”‘s Video Jesus Was Not the Messiah – Pt. I 

StrawMen2

Straw men, on the Tour de France cycling route, in Lautrec. Photograph by Robin Ellis (8-23-10) [Flickr / CC BY-ND 2.0 license]

(7-1-10)

*****

[Mitch was made aware of my three critiques of his material. He never replied]

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I was made aware (by an atheist friend) of a ten-minute You Tube video by one Mitch / “ProfMTH”: an atheist who loves to try to shoot down the Bible: in 270 videos so far.

Mitch / “ProfMTH” is about 46 years old and is a former Catholic. In his video, The Book of Job – Part One (at 0:57 – 1:03), Mitch says he was getting ready to graduate from high school in 1981 and at the same time “was considering entering religious life, to study for the priesthood.” In a comment under his August 2009 video, The “Real” Paul, Mitch states, “I teach various law courses and courses on debate.”

I’d like to reply in some depth to several of the arguments presented in his video, Jesus Was Not the Messiah – Part One (5-31-09)

First of all, Glenn Miller at the excellent website, Christian Think Tank, provides several quotations from Christian commentaries that give a perfectly plausible explanation for the Jeremiah-Zechariah citation from Matthew regarding the thirty pieces of silver and the potter’s field, that was brought up as an alleged insuperable difficulty.

Secondly, I find it curious and a bit humorous that the skeptic here chides Matthew for supposed partial citation and/or botched citation, when in fact he does the same exact thing. He cites the notes for the New American Bible (NAB) for Matthew 27:9-10, saying that a particular text cited there is not in Jeremiah, while not informing his followers of what the footnote goes on to say:

It is usually said that the attribution of the text to Jeremiah is due to Matthew’s combining the Zechariah text with texts from Jeremiah that speak of a potter (18, 2-3), the buying of a field (32, 6-9), or the breaking of a potter’s flask at Topheth in the valley of Ben-Hinnom with the prediction that it will become a burial place (19, 1-13).

Thirdly, it is asserted that Psalm 69 cannot be messianic because 69:5 asserts sin on the part of the speaker. But this betrays an ignorance (again) of how Hebrew typology works. King David was a prototype of the Messiah in important respects (a king, a leader of His people, zealous for God, etc.). It’s simply not required for the prototype of something to possess absolutely every attribute of the type it foreshadows. That is the fundamental fallacy of this reasoning.

David is portrayed in the Bible (as are virtually all major figures) as a sinner; most notably in the most unsavory adultery-murder incident with Bathsheba (and see his repentance in Psalm 51). It doesn’t follow that he cannot be a prototype or a typological figure for the Messiah because he committed these sins.

Hence, the Bible (in the prophetic books) freely presents David as such, and the Messiah is even called “David” in several instances (meaning that he will be like him in important — but not all — respects):

Jeremiah 23:5 (RSV) Behold, the days are coming, says the LORD, when I will raise up for David a righteous Branch, and he shall reign as king and deal wisely, and shall execute justice and righteousness in the land. (cf. 33:15, 17; Is 11:1-10)

Jeremiah 30:9 But they shall serve the LORD their God and David their king, whom I will raise up for them.

Ezekiel 34:23-24 And I will set up over them one shepherd, my servant David, and he shall feed them: he shall feed them and be their shepherd. [24] And I, the LORD, will be their God, and my servant David shall be prince among them; I, the LORD, have spoken.

Ezekiel 37:24-25 My servant David shall be king over them; and they shall all have one shepherd. They shall follow my ordinances and be careful to observe my statutes. [25] They shall dwell in the land where your fathers dwelt that I gave to my servant Jacob; they and their children and their children’s children shall dwell there for ever; and David my servant shall be their prince for ever.

Hosea 3:5 Afterward the children of Israel shall return and seek the LORD their God, and David their king; and they shall come in fear to the LORD and to his goodness in the latter days. (cf. Amos 9:11)

Zechariah 12:8 On that day the LORD will put a shield about the inhabitants of Jerusalem so that the feeblest among them on that day shall be like David, and the house of David shall be like God, like the angel of the LORD, at their head.

A similar dynamic is seen in the New Testament when John the Baptist is compared to Elijah: almost (but not absolutely literally) equated with him (because this is how Hebrew typology works): Matthew 11:14; 17:10-12; Mk 9:11-13.

The literal sense of what this is showing is seen in, e.g., Luke 1:17: “. . . he will go before him in the spirit and power of Eli’jah . . .”

But John the Baptist was not exactly like Elijah (or vice versa) because typologies and analogies don’t require that in the first place. Thus, we see the Bible portraying Elijah’s lack of faith, or a sort of despair or self-pity even after his great encounter with the false prophets on Mt. Carmel (1 Kings 19:4, 10-11, 14). We see no such lack of resolve in John the Baptist, who indeed was said to be “filled with the Holy Spirit, even from his mother’s womb” (Luke 1:15). So it is another clear example of the type and fulfillment of an earlier prototype not being exactly the same in all respects.

Therefore, the argument against Psalm 69 being messianic on the grounds that it mentions the sins of David, collapses.

For more on biblical typology, see “The Typological Interpretation of Scripture,” by Keith Poysti. Here is an excerpt that is harmonious with my reasoning above:

Many scholars have noticed that typological interpretation goes back further than Jesus. Goppelt, von Rad, Daniélou, and Eichrodt among others, have seen a typological approach to past events already at work in the Old Testament writings. These scholars argue that typology is rooted in the prophets. Goppelt’s summary is typical: the prophets foresaw a new exodus (Hos. 2:17; Jer. 16:14f; Isa. 43:16-21; 48:20f.), a new covenant (Jer. 31:31-34; Isa. 54:9f.), a second kingdom of David (Amos 9:11f; Isa. 11:1-10; Mic. 5:1; Ezek. 34:23f), a new Zion (Isa. 2:2ff; Isa. 54:11-14), and a new creation like paradise (Isa. 11:6ff; 51:3). It is no wonder that the prophets grounded their appeals and promises in the events of the past. In so doing, they drew on God’s unchanging character; what God did in the past was a pattern of or a basis for what would happen in the future.

Fourth, Mitch makes a big fuss about Matthew 1:23 (“his name shall be called Emmanuel” — RSV), claiming that Matthew deliberately changed the quotation in a nefarious, dishonest fashion. Here is the Isaiah 7:14 passage that is cited:

Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Behold, a young woman shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Imman’u-el.

He insinuates that the sense was changed from the mother naming the child, to a general scenario of others calling him the name, in order to avoid contradiction (far as I can tell, from his convoluted argument) with Matthew 1:21 (“you shall call his name Jesus”). He notes that the NT (i.e., in some translations, not all) uses the terminology of “they shall call . . .”). Of course, the Bible is filled with examples of people (including God) being referred to by multiple names, so that in and of itself is a non sequitur with regard to proposed biblical “contradictions.”

But this argument leads into another huge subject area: the nature and parameters of ancient Hebrew citation. Was it exactly the same as our practice today (no)? Was there a latitude in terms of minute accuracy and word-for-word repetition (yes)? Mitch casually presupposes that ancient citation practices would be exactly the same as ours today. But this is simply not the case.

In order to provide an introductory treatment for the benefit of the skeptic and my readers, I found an excellent article, “New Testament Use of the Old Testament,” by Roger Nicole, from Revelation and the Bible, edited by Carl. F. H. Henry (Grand Rapids: Baker, 1958), pp. 137-151. The principles elucidated here are applicable to many of the misguided criticisms made in this video. Here is just one section:

3. The New Testament writers sometimes paraphrased their quotations.

a. Under this heading we might first mention certain cases where we find a free translation of the Hebrew rather than a real paraphrase. Such a procedure certainly needs no justification, since a free translation sometimes renders the sense and impression of the original better than a more literal one.

b. Slight modifications, such as a change of pronouns, a substitution of a noun for a pronoun or vice versa, transformations in the person, the tense, the mood or the voice of verbs, are sometimes introduced in order to better suit the connection in the New Testament. These paraphrases are perhaps the most obviously legitimate of all.

c. There are cases in which the New Testament writers obviously forsake the actual tenor of the Old Testament passage in order to manifest more clearly in what sense they were construing it. In this they are quite in agreement with the best modern usage, as represented, for example, in W.G. Campbell, A Form Book for Thesis Writing (New York, Houghton Mifflin 1939): “A careful paraphrase that does complete justice to the source is preferable to a long quotation” (p. 15).

d. In certain cases the New Testament writers do not refer to a single passage, but rather summarize the general teaching of the canonical books on certain subjects in phrasing appropriate to the New Testament, although as to the essential thought they express indebtedness to, or agreement with, the Old Testament. This method of referring to the Old Testament teachings is obviously legitimate. The following passages might be viewed as examples of “quotations of substance,” as Franklin Johnson calls them in his able treatise on The Quotations of the New Testament from the Old Considered in the Light of General Literature (London, Baptist Tract and Book Society, 1896):

Matthew 2:23; 5:31, 33; 12:3, 5; 19:7; 22:24; 24:15; 26:24, 54, 56; Mark 2:25; 9:12, 13;10:4; 12:19; 14:21, 49; Luke 2:22; 6:3; 11:49; 18:31; 20:28; 21:22; 24:27, 32, 44-46; John 1:45; 5:39, 46; 7:38, 42; 8:17; 17:12; 19:7, 28; 20:9; Acts 1:16; 3:18; 7:51; 13:22, 29; 17:2, 3; Romans 3:10; 1 Corinthians 2:9; 14:34; 15:3, 4, 25-27; 2 Corinthians 4:6; Galatians 3:22; 4:22; Ephesians 5:14; James 4:5; 2 Peter 3:12, 13.

e. Finally, we must consider the possibility that the writers of the New Testament, writing or speaking for people well acquainted with the Old, may in certain cases have intended simply to refer their readers or hearers to a well-known passage of Scripture. Then, in order to suggest it to their memory they may have accurately cited therefrom some expressions, which they then placed in a general frame different from that of the original. At times the actual words quoted may have been intended merely or primarily to indicate the location of a passage, as the general context of the Old Testament in which the stipulated truth could be found, rather than as an express citation.

The author notes a host of other considerations having to do with the method and content of citation that are also in play. Suffice it for my purpose to say that it is clearly a case of a matter being far more complex than it is made out to be by the critic.

Fifth; in another of his arguments, Mitch claims that Matthew 1:23 makes a citation to the Old Testament that is simply not present there. Here it is:

And he went and dwelt in a city called Nazareth, that what was spoken by the prophets might be fulfilled, “He shall be called a Nazarene.”

He is at least accurate in a statement of fact (credit where it is due). The text is indeed not in the Old Testament. But he is wrong in his underlying assumption and in the conclusion he draws from it. He assumes that the author must be referring to the Old Testament. This is incorrect in the first place, since the text doesn’t say that, and merely refers to “the prophets.” Secondly, he concludes that since it isn’t there, it is therefore dishonest. This is what happens when one jumps to the conclusion based on an inaccurate premise (itself due to a lack of proper knowledge).

It is well-known that the Jews of that time (particularly the mainstream Pharisaical party that Jesus and Paul — see, e.g., Acts 23:6; 26:5; Phil. 3:5 — both considered themselves part of) accepted oral tradition as well as the written, scriptural tradition. Much of the oral tradition was later written down, in the Talmud and other Jewish rabbinical works.

This particular text refers to words “spoken by the prophets.” That could very well be a reference to an oral tradition, particularly in light of the fact that there are several allusions in the New Testament that (quite consciously) do not have (or intend to have) a reference in the Old Testament. Catholics in particular have noted this for years. In fact, oral tradition remains a strong motif and source of authority in the New Testament, as I have noted, with a compilation of many scores of passages. Matthew 2:23 is just one example. There are several other well-known ones:

Matthew 7:12 So whatever you wish that men would do to you, do so to them; for this is the law and the prophets. (cf. Lk 6:31; 10:25-28)

The “golden rule” cannot be found as such in the Old Testament, though the concept is surely present (it can be straightforwardly deduced from Leviticus 19:,18, 34). It is also present in the deuterocanonical book Tobit (rejected by Protestants as Scripture: 4:15a: “And what you hate, do not do to any one . . .”). Something very similar was stated by the rabbi Hillel, among others:

That which is hateful to you, do not do to your fellow. That is the whole Torah; the rest is the explanation; go and learn.

(Talmud, Shabbat 31a)

Note that “the prophets” are alluded to, as in Matthew 1:23. The “prophets” were not considered to be confined solely to the Old Testament.

Matthew 23:2 The scribes and the Pharisees sit on Moses’ seat;

The phrase or idea of Moses’ seat cannot be found anywhere in the Old Testament. It is found in the (originally oral) Mishna, where a sort of “teaching succession” from Moses on down is taught.

1 Corinthians 10:4 and all drank the same supernatural drink. For they drank from the supernatural Rock which followed them, and the Rock was Christ.

The Old Testament says nothing about such miraculous movement, in the related passages about Moses striking the rock to produce water (Exodus 17:1-7; Numbers 20:2-13). But rabbinic tradition does.

2 Timothy 3:8 As Jannes and Jambres opposed Moses, so these men also oppose the truth, men of corrupt mind and counterfeit faith;

These two men cannot be found in the related Old Testament passage (Exodus 7:8 ff.), or anywhere else in the Old Testament. But they are found in various extra-biblical works. The so-called Zadokite Work in the Qumran literature refers to Belial enlisting “Yohaneh and his brother” against Moses and Aaron. The Babylonian Talmud refers to “Yohane and Mamre” (Menahoth 85a). The names were in common use in Jewish legend, and even pagan writers like Pliny referred to one or both of them.

1 Peter 3:19 in which he went and preached to the spirits in prison,

This is drawn from the Jewish apocalyptic book 1 Enoch (12-16).

Jude 14-15 It was of these also that Enoch in the seventh generation from Adam prophesied, saying, “Behold, the Lord came with his holy myriads, to execute judgment on all, and to convict all the ungodly of all their deeds of ungodliness which they have committed in such an ungodly way, and of all the harsh things which ungodly sinners have spoken against him.”

Here is an instance of “prophesying”: it is a direct quotation of 1 Enoch 1:9: a book that is not part of the Old Testament (last time I checked).

From all of this evidence one rationally concludes that the New Testament writers acknowledged spiritual and theological authority in sources beyond the Old Testament. None of the additional examples above claim to cite the Old Testament (precisely as is also the case with Matthew 1:23). But Mitch casually assumes without warrant that they are doing so.

He wishes to critique the allegedly shoddy and dishonest practices of the New Testament writers, and in so doing tear down Christianity (or at least biblical inspiration and the claims of Jesus as Messiah and Lord and God)? Jesus Himself had some wise advice for people who act like this:

Luke 6:41-42 Why do you see the speck that is in your brother’s eye, but do not notice the log that is in your own eye? [42] Or how can you say to your brother, ‘Brother, let me take out the speck that is in your eye,’ when you yourself do not see the log that is in your own eye? You hypocrite, first take the log out of your own eye, and then you will see clearly to take out the speck that is in your brother’s eye.

2017-05-01T16:17:58-04:00

ClementAlexandria

St. Clement of Alexandria: icon from before 1800 [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

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(8-1-03)

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For preliminaries concerning my methodology and the burden of proof for showing if a Church Father believed in sola Scriptura, see my paper, Church Fathers & Sola Scriptura.

***

The following passage has been offered as “proof” of Clement’s alleged belief in sola Scriptura:

But those who are ready to toil in the most excellent pursuits, will not desist from the search after truth, till they get the demonstration from the Scriptures themselves. (The Stromata, 7:16)

Just as with other such “proofs,” this poses no problem for the Catholic outlook. Catholics, too, “demonstrate” things from the Scriptures. Those who doubt this ought to look over the Vatican II documents sometime, or any recent papal encyclical. Scripture is consulted at every turn. But does this mean that Clement adopted the sola Scriptura position, whereby Scripture is somehow pitted against the Church, tradition, and apostolic succession? No. When we examine his writings more closely, we find that he takes the same view as the other Fathers, and it is not sola Scriptura as the regula fidei, or Rule of Faith. Let’s start with this same work, and take a look at the context of the above statement. Note especially how Clement explicitly asserts that Christian oral tradition is as authoritative as written tradition:

“Thou, therefore, be strong,” says Paul, “in the grace that is in Christ Jesus. And the things which thou hast heard of me among many witnesses, the same commit thou to faithful men, who shall be able to teach others also.” And again: “Study to show thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.”If, then, both proclaim the Word-the one by writing, the other by speech-are not both then to be approved, making, as they do, faith active by love? It is by one’s own fault that he does not choose what is best; God is free of blame. As to the point in hand, it is the business of some to lay out the word at interest, and of others to test it, and either choose it or not. And the judgment is determined within themselves. But there is that species of knowledge which is characteristic of the herald, and that which is, as it were, characteristic of a messenger, and it is serviceable in whatever way it operates, both by the hand and tongue. “For he that soweth to the Spirit, shall of the Spirit reap life everlasting. And let us not be weary in well-doing.” On him who by Divine Providence meets in with it, it confers the very highest advantages,-the beginning of faith, readiness for adopting a right mode of life, the impulse towards the truth, a movement of inquiry, a trace of knowledge; in a word, it gives the means of salvation.

. . . But the husbandry is twofold,-the one unwritten, and the other written. And in whatever way the Lord’s labourer sow the good wheat, and grow and reap the ears, he shall appear a truly divine husbandman.

. . . they preserving the tradition of the blessed doctrine derived directly from the holy apostles, Peter, James, John, and Paul, the sons receiving it from the father (but few were like the fathers), came by God’s will to us also to deposit those ancestral and apostolic seeds. And well I know that they will exult; I do not mean delighted with this tribute, but solely on account of the preservation of the truth, according as they delivered it. For such a sketch as this, will, I think, be agreeable to a soul desirous of preserving from escape the blessed tradition.

. . . The dogmas taught by remarkable sects will be adduced; and to these will be opposed all that ought to be premised in accordance with the profoundest contemplation of the knowledge, which, as we proceed to the renowned and venerable canon of tradition, from the creation of the world, will advance to our view; setting before us what according to natural contemplation necessarily has to be treated of beforehand, and clearing off what stands in the way of this arrangement. So that we may have our ears ready for the reception of the tradition of true knowledge; the soil being previously cleared of the thorns and of every weed by the husbandman, in order to the planting of the vine. (The Stromata, Book I, Chapter I: “Preface-The Author’s Object-The Utility of Written Compositions”)

For the whole Scripture is not in its meaning a single Myconos, as the proverbial expression has it; but those who hunt after the connection of the divine teaching, must approach it with the utmost perfection of the logical faculty. (The Stromata, Book I, Chapter XXVIII.-“The Fourfold Division of the Mosaic Law”)

The liars, then, in reality are not those who for the sake of the scheme of salvation conform, nor those who err in minute points, but those who are wrong in essentials, and reject the Lord and as far as in them lies deprive the Lord of the true teaching; who do not quote or deliver the Scriptures in a manner worthy of God and of the Lord; for the deposit rendered to God, according to the teaching of the Lord by His apostles, is the understanding and the practice of the godly tradition. “And what ye hear in the ear ” – that is, in a hidden manner, and in a mystery (for such things are figuratively said to be spoken in the ear) – “proclaim,” He says, “on the housetops,” understanding them sublimely, and delivering them in a lofty strain, and according to the canon of the truth explaining the Scriptures; for neither prophecy nor the Saviour Himself announced the divine mysteries simply so as to be easily apprehended by all and sundry, but express them in parables. The apostles accordingly say of the Lord, that “He spake all things in parables, and without a parable spake He nothing unto them;” and if “all things were made by Him, and without Him was not anything made that was made,” consequently also prophecy and the law were by Him, and were spoken by Him in parables. “But all things are right,” says the Scripture, “before those who understand,” that is, those who receive and observe, according to the ecclesiastical rule, the exposition of the Scriptures explained by Him; and the ecclesiastical rule is the concord and harmony of the law and the prophets in the covenant delivered at the coming of the Lord. (The Stromata, Book VI, Chapter XV: “Different Degrees of Knowledge”; cf. ANF II:509)

(Note: ANF = The Ante-Nicene Fathers: The Writings of the Fathers Down to A.D. 325, edited by Alexander Roberts, James Donaldson, A. Cleveland Cox, and A. Menzies, 10 volumes, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1951-1956)

In the same Book VII of the Stromata which was cited at the top of this paper, in the chapter (XV) before his citation above, Clement writes:

. . . so also are we bound in no way to transgress the canon of the Church. And especially do we keep our profession in the most important points, while they [the heretics] traverse it. Those, then, are to be believed, who hold firmly to the truth.. . . it is necessary to condescend to questions, and to ascertain by way of demonstration by the Scriptures themselves how the heresies failed, and how in the truth alone and in the ancient Church is both the exactest knowledge, and the truly best set of principles (airesis).

He then begins the next chapter (just three paragraphs later) with the words above: at the top:

But those who are ready to toil in the most excellent pursuits, will not desist from the search after truth, till they get the demonstration from the Scriptures themselves.

But context, of course, shows conclusively that he is not conceiving Holy Scripture as a formally sufficient principle in and of itself, over against the Church and Tradition, since he also states — a mere three paragraphs previously — that “in the ancient Church is . . . the exactest knowledge.” In other words, he writes and thinks precisely as Catholics and Orthodox do, not as Protestants, who would scarcely ever say that the ancient Church possessed “exactest knowledge,” as it believed in a host of things which many or most Protestants reject (baptismal regeneration, infused justification, merit, the office of the priesthood, invocation and intercession of saints, prayers for the dead, penance, various tenets of Mariology, episcopacy, the Eucharistic sacrifice, the real presence of Jesus in the Eucharist, etc., etc.). One could not hope to find a clearer proof that Clement would reject sola Scriptura as Protestants conceive and apply it (as a Rule of Faith and formal principle), and in the immediate context of the alleged “prooftext,” at that.

Shortly afterwards (five paragraphs later), he writes about how the heretics pervert the true meaning of Scripture, which must be determined by the Church and Tradition. This is strictly contrary to sola Scriptura as Protestants understand it, and is exactly the way that Catholics then and now view such matters:

Now all men, having the same judgment, some, following the Word speaking, frame for themselves proofs; while others, giving themselves up to pleasures, wrest Scripture, in accordance with their lusts. And the lover of truth, as I think, needs force of soul. For those who make the greatest attempts must fail in things of the highest importance; unless, receiving from the truth itself the rule of the truth, they cleave to the truth. But such people, in consequence of falling away from the right path, err in most individual points; as you might expect from not having the faculty for judging of what is true and false, strictly trained to select what is essential. For if they had, they would have obeyed the Scriptures.

*

As, then, if a man should, similarly to those drugged by Circe, become a beast; so he, who has spurned the ecclesiastical tradition, and darted off to the opinions of heretical men, has ceased to be a man of God and to remain faithful to the Lord.

He then follows up with a superb description of how the heretics (particularly the Gnostics) do not know how to interpret Holy Scripture properly. Catholics would not disagree with a single word of it. Note, however, how he freely incorporates in his discussion of solid hermeneutics, the standard and criterion of orthodoxy, the Church, and Sacred Tradition:

Seeing, therefore, the danger that they are in (not in respect of one dogma, but in reference to the maintenance of the heresies) of not discovering the truth; for while reading the books we have ready at hand, they despise them as useless, but in their eagerness to surpass common faith, they have diverged from the truth. For, in consequence of not learning the mysteries of ecclesiastical knowledge, and not having capacity for the grandeur of the truth, too indolent to descend to the bottom of things, reading superficially, they have dismissed the Scriptures.

. . . So, then, they are not pious, inasmuch as they are not pleased with the divine commands, that is, with the Holy Spirit. And as those almonds are called empty in which the contents are worthless, not those in which there is nothing; so also we call those heretics empty, who are destitute of the counsels of God and the traditions of Christ; bitter, in truth, like the wild almond, their dogmas originating with themselves, with the exception of such truths as they could not, by reason of their evidence, discard and conceal.

Near the end of the chapter, he sums up the approach of the orthodox Christian, who:

. . . having grown old in the Scriptures, and maintaining apostolic and ecclesiastic orthodoxy in doctrines, lives most correctly in accordance with the Gospel, and discovers the proofs, for which he may have made search (sent forth as he is by the Lord), from the law and the prophets . . . nothing but deeds and words corresponding to the tradition of the Lord. (The Stromata, Book VII, Chapter XVI: “Scripture the Criterion by Which Truth and Heresy are Distinguished”; cf. ANF II:550-554)

The next chapter (XVII) is entitled, “The Tradition of the Church Prior to That of the Heresies.” I shall cite almost all of it:

Those, then, that adhere to impious words, and dictate them to others, inasmuch as they do not make a right but a perverse use of the divine words, neither themselves enter into the kingdom of heaven, nor permit those whom they have deluded to attain the truth. But not having the key of entrance, but a false (and as the common phrase expresses it), a counterfeit key (antikleis), by which they do not enter in as we enter in, through the tradition of the Lord, by drawing aside the curtain; but bursting through the side-door, and digging clandestinely through the wall of the Church, and stepping over the truth, they constitute themselves the Mystagogues of the soul of the impious.For that the human assemblies which they held were posterior to the Catholic Church requires not many words to show.

. . . it is evident, from the high antiquity and perfect truth of the Church, that these later heresies, and those yet subsequent to them in time, were new inventions falsified [from the truth].

From what has been said, then, it is my opinion that the true Church, that which is really ancient, is one, and that in it those who according to God’s purpose are just, are enrolled. For from the very reason that God is one, and the Lord one, that which is in the highest degree honourable is lauded in consequence of its singleness, being an imitation of the one first principle. In the nature of the One, then, is associated in a joint heritage the one Church, which they strive to cut asunder into many sects.

Therefore in substance and idea, in origin, in pre-eminence, we say that the ancient and Catholic Church is alone, collecting as it does into the unity of the one faith – which results from the peculiar Testaments, or rather the one Testament in different times by the will of the one God, through one Lord – those already ordained, whom God predestinated, knowing before the foundation of the world that they would be righteous.

But the pre-eminence of the Church, as the principle of union, is, in its oneness, in this surpassing all things else, and having nothing like or equal to itself. But of this afterwards.

Of the heresies, some receive their appellation from a [person’s] name, as that which is called after Valentinus, and that after Marcion, and that after Basilides, although they boast of adducing the opinion of Matthew [without truth]; for as the teaching, so also the tradition of the apostles was one. Some take their designation from a place, as the Peratici; some from a nation, as the [heresy] of the Phrygians; some from an action, as that of the Encratites; and some from peculiar dogmas, as that of the Docetae, and that of the Harmatites; and some from suppositions, and from individuals they have honoured, as those called Cainists, and the Ophians; and some from nefarious practices and enormities, as those of the Simonians called Entychites.

J. N. D. Kelly expounds upon Clement’s conception of the Church, which had both an invisible and a visible element, but yet is far closer to Catholic ecclesiology than Protestant:

. . . at Alexandria, as we might expect, while the visible Church received its meed of recognition, the real focus of interest tended to be the invisible Church . . . Clement, for example, is ready enough to use the empirical categories and to distinguish [Strom. 7,17,107] ‘the ancient and Catholic Church’ from heretical conventicles. This is the Church in which the apostolic tradition is enshrined, and to which those whom God predestines to righteousness belong. Like God Himself, it is one [Paed. I,4,10]; it is also the virgin mother of Christians, feeding them on the Logos as holy milk [Ib. I,6,42; cf. I,5,21] . . .Platonizing influences were clearly at work in Clement’s distinction between the visible but imperfect Church and the perfect spiritual one . . . (Early Christian Doctrines, HarperSanFrancisco, revised 1978 edition, 201-202)

In describing both Clement’s and Origen’s views, Kelly notes how they both presupposed Christian Tradition in their quest for gnosis (deeper knowledge):

[They] went so far as to distinguish two types of Christianity, with two grades of Christians corresponding to them. The first and lower type was based on ‘faith’, i.e. the literal acceptance of the truths declared in Scripture and the Church’s teaching, while the second and higher type was described as ‘gnosis’, i.e. an esoteric form of knowledge. This started with the Bible and tradition, indeed was founded on them, but its endeavour was to unravel their deeper meaning.The position of both of them, it is true, is complicated by the fact that, in addition to the Church’s public tradition, they believed they had access to a secret traditin of doctrine. Clement . . . regarded [E.g., Strom. 6,7,61; 6,8,68; 6,15,131] it as stemming from the apostles and including quasi-Gniostic speculations, while for Origen it seems to have consisted of an esoteric theology based on the Bible; in both cases it was reserved for the intellectual elite of the Church. Although Clement seems to have confused his secret Gnostic tradition with ‘the ecclesiastical canon’, he had clear ideas about the latter, and defined [Ib. 6.15.125] it as ‘the congruence and harmony of the law and the prophets with the covenant delivered at the Lord’s parousia‘. According to Origen, the rule of faith, or canon, was the body of beliefs currently accepted by ordinary Christians; or again, it could stand for the whole content of the faith . . . he meant by it the Christian faith as taught in the Church of his day and handed down from the apostles. Though its contents coincided with those of the Bible, it was formally independent of the Bible, and indeed included the principles of Biblical interpretation. (Ibid., 5, 43)

Note in the last sentence how Origen — much like Clement and the other Fathers — distinguished between the formal and material sufficiency of the Bible. The “rule of faith” or “canon” or Sacred Tradition or orthodox teaching or apostolic deposit of the Church was “formally independent” of the Bible, yet its contents “coincided” with Scripture (which includes all the necessary theological tenets and teaching), and also included principles of hermeneutics or biblical interpretation. This is precisely the Catholic view. Kelly then sums up Clement’s position, citing a passage we have examined above:

. . . the ancient idea that the Church alone, in virtue of being the home of the Spirit and having preserved the authentic apostolic testimony in her rule of faith, liturgical action and general witness, possesses the indispensable key to Scripture, continued to operate as powerfully as in the days of Irenaeus and Tertullian. Clement, for example, blamed [Strom. 7,16,103] the mistakes of heretics on their habit of ‘resisting the divine tradition’, by which he meant their incorrect interpretation of Scripture; the true interpretation, he believed, was an apostolic and ecclesiastical inheritance. (Ibid., 47)

Historian Jaroslav Pelikan essentially concurs with Kelly’s judgment:

. . . no one can fail to be reminded of Gnosticism when he reads Clement’s claim to possess a secret tradition, neither published in the New Testament nor known to the common people; one of his terms for the secret tradition was “gnosis.” . . . would one be justified in regarding Clement and Origen as the right wing of Christian Gnosticism rather than as the left wing of Christian orthodoxy? A consideration of the entire body of their thought makes such an interpretation, however attractive it may be, finally untenable . . . (The Christian Tradition: A History of the Development of Doctrine: Vol. 1 of 5: The Emergence of the Catholic Tradition: 100-600, Chicago: Univ. of Chicago Press, 1971, 96)

Thus Dr. Pelikan, a great scholar who knows how to examine the entirety of a thinker’s outlook, doesn’t fall into the foolish trap of finding isolated snippets which sound “Gnostic,” and concluding that Clement was a heretic. In other words, he doesn’t make the same fundamental methodological mistake that anti-Catholic polemicists make: extreme neglect of context leading to a radically mistaken notion of what Clement believed (in this instance, on the relationship of Bible, Tradition, and Church).

The eminent Protestant Church historian Philip Schaff describes the perspective of the Ante-Nicene Fathers generally, concerning Scripture, Church, and Tradition, and includes Clement among their number:

Nor is any distinction made here between a visible and an invisible church. All catholic antiquity thought of none but the actual, historical church . . .The fathers of our period all saw in the church, though with different degrees of clearness, a divine, supernatural order of things, in a certain sense the continuation of the life of Christ on earth, the temple of the Holy Spirit, the sole repository of the powers of divine life, the possessor and interpreter of the Holy Scriptures, the mother of all the faithful . . .

Equally inseparable from her is the predicate of apostolicity, that is, the historical continuity or unbroken succession, which reaches back through the bishops to the apostles, from the apostles to Christ, and from Christ to God. In the view of the fathers, every theoretical departure from this empirical, tangible, catholic church is heresy, that is, arbitrary, subjective, ever changing human opinion; every practical departure, all disobedience to her rulers is schism, or dismemberment of the body of Christ; either is rebellion against divine authority, and a heinous, if not the mosty heinous, sin. No heresy can reach the conception of the church, or rightly claim any one of her predicates; it forms at best a sect or party, and consequently falls within the province and the fate of human and perishing things, while the church is divine and indestructible.

This is without doubt the view of the ante-Nicene fathers, even of the speculative and spiritualistic Alexandrians . . .

Even Clement of Alexandria, and Origen, with all their spiritualistic and idealizing turn of mind, are no exception here. (History of the Christian Church, Vol. II: Ante-Nicene Christianity: A.D. 100-325, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1970; reproduction of 5th revised edition of 1910, Chapter IV, section 53, “The Catholic Unity,” pp. 169-170, 172)

Schaff’s characterization of the views of the Fathers in this same period concerning Tradition is also perfectly consistent with the Catholic perspective and my own general thesis throughout this paper. His natural (somewhat charming) Protestant bias is obvious (e.g., “traditions of later origin, not grounded in the scriptures,” “blind and slavish subjection of private judgment to ecclesiastical authority”), yet he fairly cites the facts of history, as always:

Besides appealing to the Scriptures, the fathers, particularly Irenaeus and Tertullian, refer with equal confidence to the “rule of faith;” that is, the common faith of the church, as orally handed down in the unbroken succession of bishops from Christ and his apostles to their day, and above all as still living in the original apostolic churches, like those of Jerusalem, Antioch, Ephesus, and Rome. Tradition is thus intimately connected with the primitive episcopate. The latter was the vehicle of the former, and both were looked upon as bulwarks against heresy.Irenaeus confronts the secret tradition of the Gnostics with the open and unadulterated tradition of the catholic church, and points to all churches, but particularly to Rome, as the visible centre of the unity of doctrine. All who would know the truth, says he, can see in the whole church the tradition of the apostles; and we can count the bishops ordained by the apostles, and their successors down to our time, who neither taught nor knew any such heresies. Then, by way of example, he cites the first twelve bishops of the Roman church from Linus to Eleutherus, as witnesses of the pure apostolic doctrine. He might conceive of a Christianity without scripture, but he could not imagine a Christianity without living tradition; and for this opinion he refers to barbarian tribes, who have the gospel, “sine charta et atramento,” written in their hearts.

Tertullian finds a universal antidote for all heresy in his celebrated prescription argument, which cuts off heretics, at the outset, from every right of appeal to the holy scriptures, on the ground, that the holy scriptures arose in the church of Christ, were given to her, and only in her and by her can be rightly understood. He calls attention also here to the tangible succession, which distinguishes the catholic church from the arbitrary and ever-changing sects of heretics, and which in all the principal congregations, especially in the original sects of the apostles, reaches back without a break from bishop to bishop, to the apostles themselves, from the apostles to Christ, and from Christ to God. “Come, now,” says he, in his tract on Prescription, “if you would practise inquiry to more advantage in the matter of your salvation, go through the apostolic churches, in which the very chairs of the apostles still preside, in which their own authentic letters are publicly read, uttering the voice and representing the face of every one. If Achaia is nearest, you have Corinth. If you are not far from Macedonia, you have Philippi, you have Thessalonica. If you can go to Asia, you have Ephesus. But if you live near Italy, you have Rome, whence also we [of the African church] derive our origin. How happy is the church, to which the apostles poured out their whole doctrine with their blood,” etc.

To estimate the weight of this argument, we must remember that these fathers still stood comparatively very near the apostolic age, and that the succession of bishops in the oldest churches could be demonstrated by the living memory of two or three generations. Irenaeus in fact, had been acquainted in his youth with Polycarp, a disciple of St. John. But for this very reason we must guard against overrating this testimony, and employing it in behalf of traditions of later origin, not grounded in the scriptures.

Nor can we suppose that those fathers ever thought of a blind and slavish subjection of private judgment to ecclesiastical authority, and to the decision of the bishops of the apostolic mother churches. The same Irenaeus frankly opposed the Roman bishop Victor. Tertullian, though he continued essentially orthodox, contested various points with the catholic church from his later Montanistic position, and laid down, though at first only in respect to a conventional custom – the veiling of virgins – the genuine Protestant principle, that the thing to be regarded, especially in matters of religion, is not custom but truth. His pupil, Cyprian, with whom biblical and catholic were almost interchangeable terms, protested earnestly against the Roman theory of the validity of heretical baptism, and in this controversy declared, in exact accordance with Tertullian, that custom without truth was only time-honored error. The Alexandrians freely fostered all sorts of peculiar views, which were afterwards rejected as heretical; and though the [Greek] plays a prominent part with them, yet this and similar expressions have in their language a different sense, sometimes meaning simply the holy scriptures. So, for example, in the well-known passage of Clement: “As if one should be changed from a man to a beast after the manner of one charmed by Circe; so a man ceases to be God’s and to continue faithful to the Lord, when he sets himself up against the church tradition, and flies off to positions of human caprice.”

In the substance of its doctrine this apostolic tradition agrees with the holy scriptures, and though derived, as to its form, from the oral preaching of the apostles, is really, as to its contents, one and the same with those apostolic writings. In this view the apparent contradictions of the earlier fathers, in ascribing the highest authority to both scripture and tradition in matters of faith, resolve themselves. It is one and the same gospel which the apostles preached with their lips, and then laid down in their writings, and which the church faithfully hands down by word and writing from one generation to another.

(History of the Christian Church, Vol. II: Ante-Nicene Christianity: A.D. 100-325, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1970; reproduction of 5th revised edition of 1910, Chapter XII, section 139, “Catholic Tradition,” pp. 525-528 {complete, minus footnotes: see the web version below} )

Note again how material sufficiency of Scripture is wholeheartedly accepted:

1. “In the substance of its doctrine this apostolic tradition agrees with the holy scriptures”
2. “as to its contents, one and the same”
3. “Cyprian, with whom biblical and catholic were almost interchangeable terms”
4. “It is one and the same gospel which the apostles preached with their lips, and then laid down in their writings”

The formal sufficiency of Scripture as a Rule of Faith, on the other hand, is denied:

1. “the ‘rule of faith;’ that is, the common faith of the church, as orally handed down in the unbroken succession of bishops from Christ and his apostles”
2. “unadulterated tradition of the catholic church”
3. [For Tertullian] “the holy scriptures arose in the church of Christ, were given to her, and only in her and by her can be rightly understood”
4. [Clement’s words] “so a man ceases to be God’s and to continue faithful to the Lord, when he sets himself up against the church tradition”

My thesis could not be any more explicitly upheld, and by a Protestant historian: one who (I highly suspect) has never been accused of Catholic bias . . .

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