2017-07-24T12:59:29-04:00

Chaos4

Fractal image by “HypnoArt” (8-6-15) [Pixabay / CC0 public domain]

*****

“Lark62” is an atheist. Her words will be in blue. Her comments can be found in their entire larger context in the combox for my paper, “Atheist Deconversion: Dialogue #2: Jonathan MS Pearce” (7-20-17).

***

Lark62 [female: “frumpy, boring middle aged lady”] clearly came to his discussion with me already extremely hostile to Christianity. Checking out comments listed on her Disqus profile, anyone can readily observe that:

The problem with religion is that the only tool it has to maintain dominance is social pressure. It doesn’t have changed lives – good people, unkind people, greedy people and evil people are found inside the church as well as outside. It doesn’t have truth – the bible is unverifiable and flip flops between platitudes, absurdity and genocide. [source]

You had to study for 20 years to figure out whether a book that has talking animals, blood sacrifice and an earth centric universe is full of crap? [source]

Moses did not exist. Robin Hood and Sir Galahad and Huck Finn also might give a person inspiration, but they don’t exist either. [source]

No one has ever spoken to a deity. Ever. Every deity known to man is a human creation used to bring power and wealth to self appointed priests. Remember, those who claim to speak for a deity have had millenia to perfect their scam. They leave death and devastation in their wake. [source]

Wow. Does this mean that I’m not the only atheist who doesn’t keep a dead jew on a stick in their bathroom!? And other Atheists don’t gaze at a 2000 year old instrument of torture while brushing their teeth either!? That’s good to know. Who would have thunk it. [source]

We know christians are rude, clueless and arrogant. That is hardly news. [source]

They’ve [Catholics] been lying, cheating and hiding for 2000 years. They are good at it. [source]

Actually, I don’t believe in anything supported by less evidence than the tooth fairy, regardless of the supposed conduct of said deity, good or bad. What I find hard to believe is that intelligent human beings in the 21st Century believe in a deity. And, once believing, find the deity described in the Christian bible worthy of praise and adoration. [source]

I gladly gave up arguing that the Bible does not say what it plainly says when I realized Christianity was stupid. The bible says jesus is a sacrifice for sins. It calls him the lamb who takes away sin. That is blood sacrifice. And it is stupid. [source]

Christians do not expose lies or liars. The testimony of Christians is worthless. [source]

Etc. etc. ad nauseam. All that (and much, much more) was just within the last month. It’s all this woman ever talks about. No condescension there! I could tell that she was almost certainly a bigot right off the bat. I can spot it a mile away, from 36 years of experience, sharing and defending Christianity to all and sundry. But I played along with her game a bit, to see what would happen. After a few comments from her, I could tell that she was excessively ignorant of basic philosophical knowledge.

Consider what compelling evidence would look like for anything you think has no evidence. That is what compelling evidence for your deity would look like.

Yep. Evidence for a unicorn is a unicorn.

Evidence for a rock that flies is a rock that flies. . . .

Evidence for a deity is a deity.

***

If I understand your argument, you expect atheists to have fully examined all the arguments for god and considered all the various of versions of christianity before rejecting it all.

I say that is silly. No other non belief is held to such demands.

Do you believe there is an advanced civilization on Mars? Have you considered every possible type of civilization that might exist on Mars. Even though Mars is the god of war, the civilization might be peaceful, did you consider that? Just because you reject a violent civilization on Mars is no reason to reject a loving civilization on Mars. 

Sure My Favorite Martian is fake, but that doesn’t mean War of the Worlds is fake. Have you read War of the Worlds? Have you studied it and read the commentary? Well, have you? Until then, I simply will not accept the validity of your non belief in Martians.

Can I guess how much time you intend to invest in justifying your Martian non belief? I expect it falls somewhere between zero and none.

Maybe we will find evidence of past or present microbes on Mars. But, there is no evidence for any form of advanced life on Mars, much less intelligent life and civilization. None. Nada. Zilch. And no amount of examining various possible civilizations will change the fact that there is no evidence. If someone claimed to have seen roller coasters on Mars, you would have every right to discuss that claim and declare that claim to be nuts. But there is still no evidence for rollercoaster-less martian civilizations.

Moreover, the more we learn about Mars, the more the evidence contradicts the notion of advanced or intelligent life.

Now repeat that for leprechauns, the tooth fairy, the claim that Elvis was on the Mayflower and everything else you do not believe.

Atheists have concluded that there is no evidence to support belief in invisible, supernatural beings. We don’t need to study invisible, supernatural being type A and invisible, supernatural being type B and every other type of invisible, supernatural being. There is no evidence.

I didn’t say atheists had to do all that. It would be more compelling and impressive, however, if they at least did some of it. What I have said is that the arguments presented in no way refute Christianity and thus form no reason to forsake it.

I have yet to find a reputable philosopher who argues for the existence of tooth fairies, leprechauns, or Santa Claus. I can find hundreds who believe that God exists.

Seems to be a real qualitative difference there. But you say there is no evidence, so I guess that settles it, huh? Some woman, “Lark62” who won’t even give her real name, has settled the age-old question. Not bad!

No, I have settled the question for myself. There is no evidence.

I don’t care what you do with zero evidence as long as you keep your religion out of our secular government.

The Argument from Authority also is not evidence. It doesn’t matter how many philosophers or non philosopherers in how many societies believe in a deity. That is not evidence of anything except humans like supernatural explanations for things they don’t understand.

It isn’t my job to convince anyone else. I can walk you through the things that made me realize that the core beliefs of christianity are hopelessly silly (blood sacrifice!?) But I was comfortable with cognitive dissonance for about 35 years before I slowly realized it made no sense. I am an atheist because there is no evidence that any form of invisible supernatural deity exists. I’m under no illusion that anyone else’s cognitive dissonance will drop away just because mine has.

For some people, especially the elderly, religion brings comfort. It doesn’t bother me if others continue to believe as long as they do not use their religious belief to harm others or make other people conform to iron age nonsense.

I am confident you understand what an analogy is. Mars was an analogy. If there is zero evidence of advanced civilization on Mars, a person does not need to study Lowell’s canals or anyone else’s imaginings before concluding there is no Martian society. Likewise, if there is no evidence of an invisible supernatural deity, the various imaginings of various religions really don’t matter. Others are free to enjoy their imaginings, but there is nothing for an outsider to say except “there is no evidence for make believe.”

What is an example of what you think is “compelling evidence”? I’ve been asking atheists that and they seem reluctant to give me any example. To me it’s a perfectly legitimate and understandable question.

[another atheist then wanted to “turn this around a little bit” and started asking me about arguments for Christianity]

I’m not interested in you turning it around to Christians. That’s what atheists always do (so they never have to talk about their own beliefs under scrutiny). I wanna know what you would consider “compelling evidence” (if there is any such that would prove Christianity to you). I’m not even trying to argue; I’m just curious.

I don’t have any beliefs to defend as it relates to the Christian deity. That is what “unbelief” means.

I do not believe a deity can impregnate a human and conceive a god/human.

I do not believe that animals, including humans, can be brought back from the dead.

Where is your compelling evidence that Allah is not god and Mohammed was not his prophet?

You don’t have evidence disproving Islamic claims about Mohammed because you aren’t supposed to. The people making a claim support the claim, then others can evaluate that support.

Christians making claims about Jesus and Christianity need to provide support and put it forward for evaluation.

I provide tons of evidence for atheists to consider in articles and collections of resources on my Atheism web page and my Science and Philosophy web page.

From the Oxford Dictionary:

Evidence

noun

1. The available body of facts or information indicating whether a belief or proposition is true or valid.

I looked at your lists of links, and clicked on a sample. Philosophy is not evidence. Conversations are not evidence. A person’s opinion of how uninformed atheists are is not evidence. Ideas are not evidence. Thoughts are not evidence. “Someone we can’t name and whose motives we don’t know wrote something down 1900 years ago” is not evidence.

All of those things you list can be produced in support of every possible religion. All of those things may comfort current believers who learned their religion as young children. But not of those are evidence.

If I missed a link that contains factual evidence, point me to it.

Show me evidence a supernatural Jesus existed. Show me evidence he rose from the dead.

Show me evidence of the quality that would convince you to change your religion from christianity to Islam or something else. I am confident that no amount of dialog or philosophy or criticism of christianity would make you convert to Islam. Right? It would take evidence. It would take proof. Why then do you think philosophy or dialog or strawman insults will convince atheists that your god is real?

Have the integrity to provide the type of information that would convince you to adopt a religion other than the religion your parents taught you.

I don’t think this conversation can go anywhere if you think those links constitute evidence.

You thumb your nose at philosophy and yet you are obviously spewing empiricism-only, which is precisely a philosophy. This kind of massive confusion and philosophical naivete is simply beyond the level of my patience (or even intellectual ability to crack). A person has to be thinking logically and rationally if any progress in discussion (about anything) is to be made at all.

By your viciously self-refuting nonsense [and I am using that word quite literally] you have placed yourself beyond the capacity of rational discourse (especially with anyone who disagrees with you).

Vicious? I disagree with you. I have asked for evidence that would support your claims. I have not accepted that arguments, rationalizations or philosophical posturing constitute evidence. I have not insulted you or called you names.

Meanwhile, you have insulted me, my intelligence and made statements that “all atheists” possess certain characteristics.

I never said a word about “all atheists” (either with those words, or in expressing the idea). I made one reference to “That’s what atheists always do”: which was clearly a generalization, in context (a thing she does times without number, regarding Christians). I am talking about her alone.

vicious
ADJECTIVE

1 Deliberately cruel or violent.
1.1 (of an animal) wild and dangerous to people.
‘the dog was vicious and likely to bite’
1.2 Serious or dangerous.
literary Immoral.
archaic (of language or a line of reasoning) imperfect; defective.

I have provided a link to the Oxford English Dictionary should you find it useful.

Cheers.

And here is an example (since you seem unfamiliar with the phrase) of “viciously self-refuting” from The Oxford Handbook of German Philosophy in the Nineteenth Century.

I’ll ask you what I’ve asked several atheists: What is an example of what you think is “compelling evidence”? Two actually answered it. Herald Newman wrote: “On the idea that Christianity is true, I don’t know if there could be any evidence to convince me.” Then he said even if Christianity were proven to be true, he wouldn’t become one, and gave three reasons why.

Anthrotheist gave the sort of answer I have heard before from atheists: “Pick any miracle out of your Bible. Perform it in full view of the world, recorded for posterity. Repeat if for curious folks who want to see if for themselves, or who hope to debunk it.”

You likewise did not answer, address or in anyway acknowledge my question on what type of evidence would convince you that Islam is true. If you would honestly think about that for a minute, you would understand the dilemma and appreciate where others are coming from.

What would convince me that Jesus existed at all? How about a record from a reliable historic source written at the time of Jesus, describing Jesus and his ministry. This would need to be a record that Christian could not have altered or forged. For example, if something like the Dead Sea Scrolls was discovered that written in the early first century and that described Jesus, his teaching and his miracles and did not show Paul’s later influence on christian thought.

What would convince me that this person Jesus, having existed, was actually half god and immortal. How about DNA left from when Jesus was alive, and a person walking the earth today claiming to be Jesus with that exact DNA. And this DNA would clearly be the product of a human mother and no human father.

Islam doesn’t even claim to be defensible through rational, secular means. Christianity does. Islam is non-rational fideism. One of its main schools is literally opposed to reason. Thus, there is no applicable analogy there.

There are some secular records of Jesus: not much, but some.

At least you finally give something that you think might convince you. I predict that you’re not gonna get that, so I guess you’re stuck with unbelief.

Personally, from what I’ve seen of how you think, I don’t think any evidence or arguments whatever will convince you. I believe many atheists are of the same mind.

I was a christian for 35+ years. I believed it all. Then I read the Bible again and paid attention. I realized it made no sense and there was no evidence for any of the claims of christianity,

It’ll take, I suspect, something like a person saving your life or doing some profound act of love that moves you at a heart-level.

And there it is. When it gets down to the core, religion is based on emotion not evidence. This statement is totally nonsensical. How could a life saving action or an act of love prove the existence of any deity, much less your special deity? Life saving actions and acts of love happen all the time in every human culture, and some non human ones. This says nothing about the validity of deities. This week a dog spontaneously pulled a drowning fawn out of a lake and after pulling it to shore licked it to help it wake up. When the fawn woke up, it ran back into the river in panic. The dog went back out and brought it back again. Mammals can be compassionate. Mammals can be cruel. It is what it is.

And have you looked honestly at the behavior of christians within religious cultures? Priests pray. Every day. They are surrounded by the prayers of the parish. Every day. Yet in every diocese around the world, when faced with clear evidence that children were being raped, priests protected (and still protect) the rapist rather that the children. Protecting the powerful insider at the expense of vulnerable outsiders is fairly normal human behavior. Police Departments do it. Penn State coaches did it. Christians are just normal people with no special corner on morality or love.

I have seen many acts of love. I have seen many acts of hate. These acts were performed by people who claimed and religion and by people who did not.

I have no objection if religion brings comfort and meaning to a person, as long as they do not use religion to harm others. But acknowledge that religion grows out of emotion, not evidence.

When it gets down to the core, religion is based on emotion not evidence.

I never said that. If I believed that silliness I wouldn’t have devoted my life to apologetics for 36 years now. Get a grip!

I am contending that no amount of evidence or argumentation (realistically speaking) will convince you. That’s not a statement saying that it doesn’t exist or that Christianity cannot be intellectually defended; only that you won’t accept it, due to your fallacious thinking and hard heart.

Of course, emotion is part of religion, just as it is part of atheism and just about everything else. But I don’t pit it against reason, as if they are contraries. And I never claim that emotion is the only basis of religion or anything else.

Someone doing a profound act of love towards you is not even an “emotional thing” at bottom. It is an act that may melt your cold hard heart and make you give up at least part of your ferocious fight against Christian truths and Jesus.

You’re beyond reason on this score. Any trained, experienced apologist’s mind (like my own) can see that.

***

I’ve given you all sorts of arguments that Christians give for our belief-system. None of it is sufficient for you. Obviously, then, your goals here are unmet, and I would urge you to look for it somewhere else.

But nothing is gonna convince you, wherever you go (I would bet much money on) because your problem is in your thinking (epistemology — particularly the naive, simpleton view of empiricism-only — and many false premises). And many of my articles and links do deal with that.

But you have dismissed all of ’em with a wave of your hand.

Be well, then. I hope you find what you’re looking for eventually. God has already found you, but you have to be ready for Him.

I don’t want arguments. I asked for evidence. There is a difference.

Evidence would convince me. Arguments will not. And as you have so clearly demonstrated, there is no evidence. Just talk.

I was a christian for over 3 decades. Then I read the bible.

Cheers

***

Who was it who is purported to have said “by their fruit shall ye know them.”

Look at Christian groups. They are cesspools of gossip, hate, judgmentalism, shunning and every form of human nastiness. In your own church, you have tens of thousands of examples of clan loyalty where powerful insiders are protected at the expense of the vulnerable and powerless. Christianity does not make anyone better or happier.

Full disclosure – The fact that priests surrounded by prayer and jesus consistently protected other priests while children were harmed made me ask “What’s going on here? Christianity is supposed to change lives, but these people protect their own just like every other closeknit group of humans.” Within about two or three years, I had figured out that Christianity is nonsense.

[“Lark62” quoting me in another combox] “I am not questioning the sincerity of these persons or the truthfulness of their self-reports.”

Yes, you are.

Maybe you are trying to tear down these first person accounts to build up your shaky faith. That how it sounds to me.

These are personal stories. Christians may be unable to speak without an ulterior motive, but that doesn’t apply to normal people.

We’re now done discussing anything, because you have refused to accept my self-report as to why I am critiquing deconversion stories, in effect, calling me a liar. It seems to be a common theme in “angry atheist” polemics.

As I said, I have a million reasons for all kinds of things, on my blog, with its 2000+ papers. You dismissed it all, several times. So, go find another apologist who has far more patience than I do with this kind of drivel.

I call ’em as I see ’em. My opinion is based on reading all of your comments on this topic on your own blog and others. I think I presented it pretty clearly as my opinion.

I have not dismissed one piece of evidence you presented for the simple reason you have not presented one piece of evidence to support the existence of a diety [sic] or to support that your version of a deity is the correct one.

*****

 

2017-07-19T12:27:43-04:00

Einstein1933

Photo of Albert Einstein in Princeton, New Jersey, soon after he fled Germany (18 October 1933) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

***

(originally 2-17-03; expanded greatly on 8-26-10)
***
“In view of such harmony in the cosmos which I, with my limited human mind, am able to recognize, there are yet people who say there is no God. But what makes me really angry is that they quote me for support of such views.” (c. 1941)
 *
“I’m not an atheist.” (1930)
 *
“Try and penetrate with our limited means the secrets of nature and you will find that, behind all the discernible concatenations, there remains something subtle, intangible and inexplicable. Veneration for this force beyond anything that we can comprehend is my religion. To that extent I am, in point of fact, religious.” (1927)
*
“No myth is filled with such life. . . . No man can deny the fact that Jesus existed, nor that his sayings are beautiful. Even if some them have been said before, no one has expressed them so divinely as he.” (1929)

***

This constitutes Chapter Ten of my book, Science and Christianity: Close Partners or Mortal Enemies? (2010, 301 pages).
*****
Philosophically, God’s existence is something that is reasoned to (as with all other propositions whatever, as well). In a larger epistemology, including religious faith, it is not. I would argue that man is inherently religious (anthropology easily bears this out), so that the religious impulse must be stifled in an atheist. It is already there.
If even rigorous philosophical and scientific minds like David Hume and Einstein look at the universe and immediately sees some sort of Intelligence behind it (though not the Christian God), surely there is something to even Paul’s assertion of the “plainness” of God’s existence, in Romans 1. Hume even stated that “no rational enquirer can, after serious reflection, suspend his belief a moment with regard to the primary principles of genuine Theism and Religion . . .” Einstein made a number of such statements:

My comprehension of God comes from the deeply felt conviction of a superior intelligence that reveals itself in the knowable world. In common terms, one can describe it as ‘pantheistic’ (Spinoza). (Answer to the question, “What is your understanding of God?” Kaizo, 5, no. 2, 1923, 197; in Alice Calaprice, editor, The Expanded Quotable Einstein, Princeton University Press, 2000, 203)

Now, I would ask an atheist: whence comes Einstein’s “deeply felt conviction”? Is it a philosophical reason or the end result of a syllogism? He simply has it. It is an intuitive or instinctive feeling or “knowledge” or “sense of wonder at the incredible, mind-boggling marvels of the universe”. Atheists don’t possess this intuition, but my point is that it is not utterly implausible or unable to be held by even the most rigorous, “non-dogmatic” intellects, such as Einstein and Hume. And the atheist has to account for that fact somehow, it seems to me.

My religiosity consists of a humble admiration of the infinitely superior spirit that reveals itself in the little that we can comprehend about the knowable world. That deeply emotional conviction of the presence of a superior reasoning power, which is revealed in the incomprehensible universe, forms my idea of God. (Calaprice, ibid., 204 / To a banker in Colorado, 1927. Einstein Archive 48-380; also quoted in Helen Dukas and Banesh Hoffmann, Albert Einstein, the Human Side [Princeton Univ. Press, 1981], 66, and in the New York Times obituary, April 19, 1955)

I believe in Spinoza’s God who reveals himself in the harmony of all that exists, but not in a God who concerns himself with the fate and actions of human beings. (Ibid., 204 / Telegram to a Jewish newspaper, 1929; to Rabbi Herbert S. Goldstein of the Institutional Synagogue in New York . Einstein Archive 33-272)

What do atheists think Einstein meant here when he used the word “believe”? Do they think he had an elaborate argument that ended in his conclusion: “I believe in Spinoza’s God”?

I am of the opinion that all the finer speculations in the realm of science spring from a deep religious feeling. (Calaprice, ibid., 206 / Forum and Century 83, 1930, 373)

What does Einstein mean by “deep religious feeling”? Is this a philosophical and/or demonstrable or provable concept? Or is it more like an intuition? How can it be epistemologically justified? How can a man like Einstein hold such a view in the first place, according to the atheist? Perhaps he himself provides an answer of sorts:

It is very difficult to elucidate this [cosmic religious] feeling to anyone who is entirely without it . . . In my view, it is the most important function of art and science to awaken this feeling and keep it alive in those who are receptive to it. (Calaprice, ibid., 207 / Einstein on Cosmic Religion and Other Opinions & Aphorisms, 1931, 48-49)

In what way would an atheist think Einstein would say such people are “deficient”? He denies that a personal God put this knowledge in people, yet on the other hand he clearly assumes it is innate, normal, and self-evident. How can he do that?

[T]he belief in the existence of basic all-embracing laws in Nature also rests on a sort of faith. All the same this faith has been largely justified so far by the success of scientific research. But, on the other hand, everyone who is seriously involved in the pursuit of science becomes convinced that a spirit is manifest in the laws of the universe — a spirit vastly superior to that of man, and one in the face of which we with our modest powers must feel humble. In this way the pursuit of science leads to a religious feeling of a special sort, which is indeed quite different from the religiosity of someone more naive. (To student Phyllis Right, who asked if scientists pray, January 24, 1936. Einstein Archive 42-601, 52-337; from Dukas and Hoffman, ibid., pp. 32-33)

At first, then, instead of asking what religion is I should prefer to ask what characterizes the aspirations of a person who gives me the impression of being religious: a person who is religiously enlightened appears to me to be one who has, to the best of his ability, liberated himself from the fetters of his selfish desires and is preoccupied with thoughts, feelings and aspirations to which he clings because of their super-personal value . . . Accordingly a religious person is devout in the sense that he has no doubt of the significance of those super-personal objects and goals which neither require nor are capable of rational foundation . . . If one conceives of religion and science according to these definitions then a conflict between them appears impossible. For science can only ascertain what is, but not what should be, and outside of its domain value judgments of all kinds remain necessary. . . . Now, even though the realms of religion and science in themselves are clearly marked off from each other, nevertheless there exist between the two strong reciprocal relationships and dependencies . . . science can only be created by those who are thoroughly imbued with the aspiration toward truth and understanding. This source of feeling, however, springs from the sphere of religion. To this there also belongs the faith in the possibility that the regulations valid for the world of existence are rational, that is, comprehensible to reason. I cannot conceive of a genuine scientist without that profound faith. The situation may be expressed by an image: science without religion is lame, religion without science is blind. . . . a legitimate conflict between science and religion cannot exist. . . . But whoever has undergone the intense experience of successful advances made in this domain is moved by profound reverence for the rationality made manifest in existence. By way of the understanding he achieves a far-reaching emancipation from the shackles of personal hopes and desires, and thereby attains that humble attitude of mind toward the grandeur of reason incarnate in existence, and which, in its profoundest depths, is inaccessible to man. This attitude, however, appears to me to be religious, in the highest sense of the word. (“Science and Religion”: Address at the Conference on Science, Philosophy, and Religion in Their Relation to the Democratic Way of Life, New York, 1940; in Ideas and Opinions [Crown: New York, 1954, 1982], p. 46; also published in Nature146: 605-607 [1940] )

In view of such harmony in the cosmos which I, with my limited human mind, am able to recognize, there are yet people who say there is no God. But what makes me really angry is that they quote me for support of such views. (Ibid., 214 / reply to German anti-Nazi diplomat and author Hubertus zu Lowenstein around 1941. Quoted in the latter’s book, Towards the Further Shore, London, 1968, 156)

Then there are the fanatical atheists whose intolerance is the same as that of the religious fanatics, and it springs from the same source . . . They are creatures who can’t hear the music of the spheres. (Ibid., 214 / 7 August 1941. Einstein Archive 54-297)

I have found no better expression than ‘religious’ for confidence in the rational nature of reality, insofar as it is accessible to human reason. Whenever this feeling is absent, science degenerates into uninspired empiricism. (Ibid., 216 / To Maurice Solovine, 1 January 1951. Einstein Archive 21-474; published in Letters to Solovine, 119)

The bigotry of the nonbeliever is for me nearly as funny as the bigotry of the believer. (quoted in Robert N. Goldman, Einstein’s God: Albert Einstein’s Quest as a Scientist and as a Jew to Replace a Forsaken God  [Jason Aronson: 1997] )

Many similar utterances of Einstein can be found:

I do not believe in a personal God and I have never denied this but have expressed it clearly. If something is in me which can be called religious then it is the unbounded admiration for the structure of the world so far as our science can reveal it. (Letter to an atheist [24 March 1954] as quoted in Albert Einstein: The Human Side [Princeton University Press: 1981], edited by Helen Dukas and Banesh Hoffman, p. 43)

I’m not an atheist and I don’t think I can call myself a pantheist. We are in the position of a little child entering a huge library filled with books in many different languages. The child knows someone must have written those books. It does not know how. The child dimly suspects a mysterious order in the arrangement of the books but doesn’t know what it is. That, it seems to me, is the attitude of even the most intelligent human being toward God. We see a universe marvelously arranged and obeying certain laws, but only dimly understand these laws. Our limited minds cannot grasp the mysterious force that moves the constellations. (From an interview, quoted in Glimpses of the Great by G. S. Viereck [Macauley, New York, 1930], cited in Max Jammer, Einstein and Religion [Princeton University Press, 1999], p. 48)
*
I have repeatedly said that in my opinion the idea of a personal God is a childlike one. You may call me an agnostic, but I do not share the crusading spirit of the professional atheist whose fervor is mostly due to a painful act of liberation from the fetters of religious indoctrination received in youth. I prefer an attitude of humility corresponding to the weakness of our intellectual understanding of nature and of our own being. (Letter to Guy H. Raner Jr., 28 September 1949, quoted by Michael R. Gilmore in Skeptic, Vol. 5, No. 2)
*
Try and penetrate with our limited means the secrets of nature and you will find that, behind all the discernible concatenations, there remains something subtle, intangible and inexplicable. Veneration for this force beyond anything that we can comprehend is my religion. To that extent I am, in point of fact, religious. (Response to atheist, Alfred Kerr [Winter 1927] who, after deriding ideas of God and religion at a dinner party in the home of the publisher Samuel von Fischer, had queried him “I hear that you are supposed to be deeply religious” — as quoted in Diaries of a Cosmopolitan, 1918-1937, by H. G. Kessler, [Littlehampton Book Services Ltd, 1971 edition] )
*
The fairest thing we can experience is the mysterious. It is the fundamental emotion which stands at the cradle of true art and true science. He who knows it not and can no longer wonder, no longer feel amazement, is as good as dead, a snuffed-out candle. It was the experience of mystery — even if mixed with fear — that engendered religion. A knowledge of the existence of something we cannot penetrate, of the manifestations of the profoundest reason and the most radiant beauty, which are only accessible to our reason in their most elementary forms — it is this knowledge and this emotion that constitute the truly religious attitude; in this sense, and this sense alone, I am a deeply religious man. . . . Enough for me the mystery of the eternity of life, and the inkling of the marvellous structure of reality, together with the single-hearted endeavour to comprehend a portion, be it ever so tiny, of the reason that manifests itself in nature.(in The World As I See It [1949], reprinted in 2007 [Filiquarian Publishing], pp. 14-15; originally from What I Believe, 1930; different translation cited in Jammer, ibid., p. 73)
*
[C]osmic religious feeling is the strongest and noblest incitement to scientific research. Only those who realize the immense efforts and, above all, the devotion which pioneer work in theoretical science demands, can grasp the strength of the emotion out of which alone such work, remote as it is from the immediate realities of life, can issue. What a deep conviction of the rationality of the universe, and what a yearning to understand, were it but a feeble reflection of the mind revealed in this world, Kepler [Lutheran] and Newton [Arian theist] must have had to enable them to spend years of solitary labour in disentangling the principles of celestial mechanics! . . . Only one who has devoted his life to similar ends can have a vivid realization of what has inspired these men and given them the strength to remain true to their purpose in spite of countless failures. It is cosmic religious feeling that gives a man strength of this sort. A contemporary has said, not unjustly, that in this materialistic age of ours the serious scientific workers are the only profoundly religious people. You will hardly find one among the profounder sort of scientific minds without a peculiar religious feeling of his own. (Ibid., p. 37; from his essay, “Religion and Science,” New York Times Magazine, Fall 1930, section 5, pages 1-2)
*
The men who have laid the foundations of physics on which I have been able to construct my theory are Galileo, Newton, Maxwell, and Lorentz. (Interview with The New York Times, 2 April 1921; cited in Max Jammer, Einstein and Religion [Princeton University Press, 1999], p. 35)
*
Speaking of the spirit that informs modern scientific investigations, I am of the opinion that all the finer speculations in the realm of science spring from a deep religious feeling, and that without such feeling they would not be fruitful. (conversation with J. Murray, early in 1930 in Berlin, in Jammer, ibid., pp. 68-69)
*
I am enough of an artist to draw freely upon my imagination. Imagination is more important than knowledge. Knowledge is limited. Imagination encircles the world. (“What Life Means to Einstein”: Interview with George Sylvester ViereckThe Saturday Evening Post [26 October 1929, p. 17] )
*
As a child I received instruction both in the Bible and in the Talmud. I am a Jew, but I am enthralled by the luminous figure of the Nazarene. . . . Jesus is too colossal for the pen of phrasemongers, however artful. No man can dispose of Christianity with a bon mot. . . . No one can read the Gospels without feeling the actual presence of Jesus. His personality pulsates in every word. No myth is filled with such life. How different, for instance, is the impression which we receive from an account of legendary heroes of antiquity like Theseus. Theseus and other heroes of his type lack the authentic vitality of Jesus. . . . No man can deny the fact that Jesus existed, nor that his sayings are beautiful. Even if some them have been said before, no one has expressed them so divinely as he. (Interview with George Sylvester Viereck, 26 October 1929; see also Denis Brian, Einstein — A Life [John Wiley & Sons, Inc., New York, 1996], pp. 277-278)
*
What separates me from most so-called atheists is a feeling of utter humility toward the unattainable secrets of the harmony of the cosmos.(“Einstein and Faith,” Time Magazine, 5 April 2007)
*
The fanatical atheists are like slaves who are still feeling the weight of their chains which they have thrown off after hard struggle. They are creatures who–in their grudge against traditional religion as the “opium of the masses”– cannot hear the music of the spheres. (“Einstein and Faith,” Time Magazine, 5 April 2007)
*
It is true that convictions can best be supported with experience and clear thinking. On this point one must agree unreservedly with the extreme rationalist. The weak point of his conception is, however, this, that those convictions which are necessary and determinant for our conduct and judgments cannot be found solely along this solid scientific way.
*
For the scientific method can teach us nothing else beyond how facts are related to, and conditioned by, each other. The aspiration toward such objective knowledge belongs to the highest of which man is capable, and you will certainly not suspect me of wishing to belittle the achievements and the heroic efforts of man in this sphere. Yet it is equally clear that knowledge of what is does not open the door directly to what should be. One can have the clearest and most complete knowledge of what is, and yet not be able to deduct from that what should be the goal of our human aspirations.
*
Objective knowledge provides us with powerful instruments for the achievements of certain ends, but the ultimate goal itself and the longing to reach it must come from another source. And it is hardly necessary to argue for the view that our existence and our activity acquire meaning only by the setting up of such a goal and of corresponding values. The knowledge of truth as such is wonderful, but it is so little capable of acting as a guide that it cannot prove even the justification and the value of the aspiration toward that very knowledge of truth. Here we face, therefore, the limits of the purely rational conception of our existence.. . .
*
The highest principles for our aspirations and judgments are given to us in the Jewish-Christian religious tradition. It is a very high goal which, with our weak powers, we can reach only very inadequately, but which gives a sure foundation to our aspirations and valuations. . . . (“Science and Religion,” cited in Einstein’s Ideas and Opinions, pp. 41-49; from an address at Princeton Theological Seminary, 19 May 1939. It was also published in Out of My Later Years [New York: Philosophical Library, 1950] )
*
Does there truly exist an insuperable contradiction between religion and science? Can religion be superseded by science? The answers to these questions have, for centuries, given rise to considerable dispute and, indeed, bitter fighting. Yet, in my own mind there can be no doubt that in both cases a dispassionate consideration can only lead to a negative answer.
*
. . . the function of setting up goals and passing statements of value transcends its domain. While it is true that science, to the extent of its grasp of causative connections, may reach important conclusions as to the compatibility and incompatibility of goals and evaluations, the independent and fundamental definitions regarding goals and values remain beyond science’s reach.. . .
*
There are many such questions which, from a rational vantage point, cannot easily be answered or cannot be answered at all. Yet, I do not think that the so-called “relativistic” viewpoint is correct, not even when dealing with the more subtle moral decisions.. . .
*
The interpretation of religion, as here advanced, implies a dependence of science on the religious attitude, a relation which, in our predominantly materialistic age, is only too easily overlooked. While it is true that scientific results are entirely independent from religious or moral considerations, those individuals to whom we owe the great creative achievements of science were all of them imbued with the truly religious conviction that this universe of ours is something perfect and susceptible to the rational striving for knowledge. If this conviction had not been a strongly emotional one and if those searching for knowledge had not been inspired by Spinoza’s Amor Dei Intellectualis, they would hardly have been capable of that untiring devotion which alone enables man to attain his greatest achievements. (“Religion and Science: Irreconcilable?”: response to a greeting sent by the Liberal Ministers’ Club of New York City. Published in The Christian Register, June, 1948. Published in Ideas and Opinions [Crown Publishers, Inc., New York, 1954])
*
GUEST: I have a letter that Albert Einstein wrote to my father in 1943. In 1940, my father read a “Time Magazine” article that stated that Einstein was quoted as saying that the only social institution that stood up to Nazism was the Christian Church. My father is a Presbyterian minister in a little northern Michigan town called Harbor Springs. And he quoted Einstein in a sermon, and a member of the congregation wrote my father a letter saying, “Where did you get your information?” So my father wrote “Time Magazine” and “Time Magazine” wrote him back, and I have that letter, too, but they didn’t give the source, so my father wrote Einstein and he wrote back, saying, yes, he did say that the Christian Church was standing up to Hitler and Nazism. [ . . . ]
APPRAISER: The second reason I really like this story is that your dad kept all the supporting material behind the letter that he eventually got from Einstein confirming, “Yes, I did say this about the Christian Church. It is the only social institution that could stand up to the Nazi regime.” . . . If you had brought this letter in without the supporting documents, I would have looked at it, and it says, “It’s true that I made a statement which corresponds approximately with the text you quoted. I made this statement during the first years of the Nazi regime– much earlier than 1940– and my expressions were a little more moderate.” And I would say, “Well, that’s a nice typed letter from Einstein, says something about Nazis,” but I wouldn’t really know what he was talking about if your father had not saved all the material that is appropriate to it. (“1943 Albert Einstein Letter,” Antiques Roadshow [PBS], 19 May 2008; the letter was appraised at $5000)
*
Our time is distinguished by wonderful achievements in the fields of scientific understanding and the technical application of those insights. Who would not be cheered by this? But let us not forget that human knowledge and skills alone cannot lead humanity to a happy and dignified life. Humanity has every reason to place the proclaimers of high moral standards and values above the discoverers of objective truth. What humanity owes to personalities like Buddha, Moses, and Jesus ranks for me higher than all the achievements of the enquiring and constructive mind.
*
What these blessed men have given us we must guard and try to keep alive with all our strength if humanity is not to lose its dignity, the security of its existence, and its joy in living. (From a written statement [September 1937] as quoted in Helen Dukas and Banesh Hoffman, editors, Albert Einstein: The Human Side [Princeton University Press: 1981] )
*
All religions, arts and sciences are branches of the same tree. All these aspirations are directed toward ennobling man’s life, lifting it from the sphere of mere physical existence and leading the individual towards freedom. It is no mere chance that our older universities developed from clerical schools. Both churches and universities — insofar as they live up to their true function — serve the ennoblement of the individual. They seek to fulfill this great task by spreading moral and cultural understanding, renouncing the use of brute force. In “Moral Decay” [1937], also published in Out of My Later Years [1950] )
*
The longing to behold this pre-established harmony is the source of the inexhaustible patience and perseverance with which Planck has devoted himself, as we see, to the most general problems of our science, refusing to let himself be diverted to more grateful and more easily attained ends. I have often heard colleagues try to attribute this attitude of his to extraordinary will-power and discipline — wrongly, in my opinion. The state of mind which enables a man to do work of this kind is akin to that of the religious worshiper or the lover; the daily effort comes from no deliberate intention or program, but straight from the heart. (“Principles of Research”: address by Albert Einstein in 1918 for the Physical Society, Berlin, on the occasion of Max Planck’s sixtieth birthday)
*
One may say “the eternal mystery of the world is its comprehensibility.” (“Physics and Reality” in Journal of the Franklin Institute [March 1936]; reprinted in Out of My Later Years [1956] )
*
I fully agree with you about the significance and educational value of methodology as well as history and philosophy of science. So many people today — and even professional scientists — seem to me like someone who has seen thousands of trees but has never seen a forest. A knowledge of the historic and philosophical background gives that kind of independence from prejudices of his generation from which most scientists are suffering. This independence created by philosophical insight is — in my opinion — the mark of distinction between a mere artisan or specialist and a real seeker after truth. (Letter to Robert A. Thorton, Physics Professor at University of Puerto Rico: 7 December 1944; EA-674, Einstein Archive, Hebrew University, Jerusalem)
*
What I am really interested in is knowing whether God could have created the world in a different way; in other words, whether the requirement of logical simplicity admits a margin of freedom. (in Jammer, ibid., p. 124)
*
I want to know how God created this world. I’m not interested in this or that phenomenon, in the spectrum of this or that element. I want to know His thoughts, the rest are details. (E. Salaman, “A Talk with Einstein,” The Listener 54 [1955]: 370-371)
I have never imputed to Nature a purpose or a goal, or anything that could be understood as anthropomorphic. What I see in Nature is a magnificent structure that we can comprehend only very imperfectly, and that must fill a thinking person with a feeling of “humility.” This is a genuinely religious feeling that has nothing to do with mysticism. (Reply to a letter: 1954 or 1955; from Helen Dukas and Banesh Hoffmann, Albert Einstein, the Human Side [Princeton Univ. Press, 1981], p. 39)
*
You find it strange that I consider the comprehensibility of the world (to the extent that we are authorized to speak of such a comprehensibility) as a miracle or an eternal mystery. Well a priori one should expect a chaotic world which cannot be grasped by the mind in anyway. One could (yes one should) expect the world to be subjected to law only to the extent that we order it through our intelligence. Ordering of this kind would be like the alphabetical ordering of the words of a language. By contrast, the kind of order created by Newton’s theory of gravitation, for instance, is wholly different. Even if the axioms of the theory are proposed by man, the success of such a project presupposes a high degree of ordering of the objective world, and this could not be expected a priori. That is the “miracle” which is being constantly re-enforced as our knowledge expands.
*
There lies the weakness of positivists and professional atheists who are elated because they feel that they have not only successfully rid the world of gods but “bared the miracles.” Oddly enough, we must be satisfied to acknowledge the “miracle” without there being any legitimate way for us to approach it. (Letter to Maurice Solovine; from Robert N. Goldman, Einstein’s God—Albert Einstein’s Quest as a Scientist and as a Jew to Replace a Forsaken God [Joyce Aronson Inc.; Northvale, New Jersey; 1997], p. 24)
*
The idea of a personal God is quite alien to me and seems even naive. However, I am also not a “Freethinker” in the usual sense of the word because I find that this is in the main an attitude nourished exclusively by an opposition against naive superstition. My feeling is insofar religious as I am imbued with the consciousness of the insufficiency of the human mind to understand deeply the harmony of the Universe which we try to formulate as “laws of nature.” It is this consciousness and humility I miss in the Freethinker mentality. Sincerely yours, Albert Einstein. (Letter to A. Chapple, Australia, 23 February 1954; Einstein Archive 59-405; also quoted in Otto Nathan and Heinz Norden, Einstein on Peace [Random House Value Publishing; Avenel 1981 edition], p. 510)
 *****
2017-06-09T19:33:10-04:00

(with particular reference to the papacy, Vatican I, Pope Leo XIII, St. Vincent of Lerins, and Blessed John Henry Cardinal Newman)

Newman37

Photograph Blessed John Henry Cardinal Newman (1801-1890), by Herbert Rose Barraud (1845-1896) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

***

(2000)

***

The following is a direct reply to Protestant polemicist William Webster’s article: The Repudiation of the Doctrine of Development as it Relates to the Papacy by Vatican I and Pope Leo XIII. His article was largely in response to certain assertions in Steve Ray’s book Upon This Rock. I break up his paragraphs in order to create a more readable back-and-forth dialogue (as is my custom), but readers can easily link to Mr. Webster’s original to check for context, if that is desired. Webster’s words will be in blue.

* * * * *

Ray of Light Concerning Papal Development

***

One of the claims being made by present day Roman Catholic apologists is that, as an institution, the papacy was something that developed over time.

As indeed every other doctrine held by Catholics and Protestants has, whether in understanding and/or in application.

In his book, Upon This Rock, Steve Ray represents this position. He uses the metaphor of the acorn and the oak. In critiquing my book, The Matthew 16 Controversy, Peter and the Rock, Ray states:

Webster’s section on St. Cyprian also demonstrates his unwillingness to represent fairly the process and necessity of doctrinal development within the Church. As we have demonstrated earlier in this book: the oak tree has grown and looks perceptibly different from the fragile sprout that cracked the original acorn, yet the organic essence and identity remain the same. Do the words of the very first Christians contain the full-blown understanding of the Papacy as expressed in Vatican I? No, they do not, as Webster correctly observes. (Steve Ray, Upon This Rock, San Francisco: Ignatius, 1999, p. 184).

My good friend Steve Ray (we have known each other since 1983 — many of those years as Protestant evangelicals) is exactly right, and presently I endeavor to show why he is, and why William Webster is wrong, by means of many different avenues of historical and theological arguments and analogies.

Now, there is an implicit admission in these statements. Steve Ray is admitting to the fact that the papacy was not there from the very beginning. It was subject to a process of development and growth over time. This is a simple historical fact recognized by historians of nearly every persuasion.

Indeed, all the elements which flow from the essential aspects of the papacy took time to develop fully. Thus the papacy as we know it today (i.e., post-Vatican I, when papal infallibility was defined) was not present “full-blown” in the first century. This should neither surprise nor scandalize Catholics, as if it were a “difficulty.” The essence of the papacy has been there all along, and that is precisely what Catholic apologists and any others who understand the true nature of Newmanian, Vincentian development of doctrine refer to, when they speak of doctrines having been “present from the beginning,” or as “part of the apostolic deposit passed on from Jesus to the Apostles.” Nor is this at all contrary to the teaching of the First Vatican Council or Leo XIII, as I will demonstrate. Mr. Webster simply has no case.

The essence of the papacy is Petrine primacy and divinely-granted jurisdiction over the Church universal. I have recounted many biblical and historical arguments in this regard in the following paper: 50 NT Proofs for Petrine Primacy & the Papacy. Since my analysis in that paper is entirely grounded in the Bible (the sole formal principle of authority for Mr. Webster – assuming he espouses sola Scriptura), therefore the only development these essential, presuppositional aspects of the papacy have undergone – in a remote, somewhat tongue-in-cheek sense – would be the development entailed in the process of determining the canon of the New Testament.

But I find it interesting that Mr. Webster cuts out the second half of Steve Ray’s paragraph, which he cites. I believe that the reader will be able to understand why:

But then, neither do the words of the first Christians present the fully developed understanding of the Trinity and the divinity of Christ (or the canon of the New Testament, for that matter) as expounded and practiced by later generations of the Church. One must be careful not to read too much into the early centuries — but one must also be careful not to ignore the obvious doctrinal substance contained and practiced by our forebears, which was simply developed and implemented as the need arose throughout subsequent centuries. (Ray, ibid., p. 184; emphasis added)

This shows that Mr. Webster’s reasoning would also apply to doctrines he himself also holds (as indeed Newman argued in his Essay on the Development of Christian Doctrine), therefore causing his case to more or less collapse, thus it was better that this was not revealed in a paper such as his present one – it makes for too much extra work, and we are all very busy . . .

Vatican I and Authoritative Biblical Interpretation

***

The problem for Roman Catholics is not whether there was development. The problem lies in the fact that Vatican I says there was no development.

Of course the Council claims no such thing. It asserts that the papacy was present from the beginning, and Mr. Webster falsely assumes that therefore the papacy as understood and practiced post-1870 is being referred to as having been present all along (i.e., the “oak tree” rather than the “acorn”). It is easy to “win” an argument with a straw man of one’s own making (whether it is intentional or not).

In other words there was no acorn. It was a full blown oak from the very beginning and was therefore the practice of the Church from the very beginnning.

Again, this is a gratuitous and false assumption. Such a thing is never stated by Vatican I. And what is stated is wrongly interpreted by Mr. Webster, as I will demonstrate in due course. It so happens that I have previously “anticipated” Mr. Webster’s argument here (in exchanges with others) and have — I believe — (by means of Newman himself) satisfactorily “answered” his contentions already, in a paper: “The Development of the Papacy (Newman).

Vatican I reaffirmed the decree of the Council of Trent on the Unanimous Consent of the Fathers which has to do specifically with the interpretation of Scripture. It states that it is unlawful to interpret Scripture in any way contrary to the unanimous consent of the Fathers.

I assume Mr. Webster makes reference to the Dogmatic Constitution on the Catholic Faith, chapter II, “Of Revelation” (ending):

Now since the decree on the interpretation of Holy Scripture, profitably made by the Council of Trent, with the intention of constraining rash speculation, has been wrongly interpreted by some, we renew that decree and declare its meaning to be as follows: that in matters of faith and morals, belonging as they do to the establishing of Christian doctrine, that meaning of Holy Scripture must be held to be the true one, which holy Mother Church held and holds, since it is her right to judge of the true meaning and interpretation of Holy Scripture. In consequence, it is not permissible for anyone to interpret Holy Scripture in a sense contrary to this, or indeed against the unanimous consent of the Fathers.

This passage does not — strictly speaking — deal with mandatory interpretations of particular Scripture verses. The Church — in this instance, as always — is much more concerned with true doctrines, as opposed to absolute requirements of belief with regard to any given biblical passage. That’s why the Council speaks of “the true meaning and interpretation of Holy Scripture” (i.e., as a whole; as a set of doctrinal beliefs, or the crystallization of Holy Tradition), rather than of “the true meaning and interpretation of every individual passage of Holy Scripture.” The Church would, therefore, contend that Holy Scripture teaches the doctrine of the papacy, and that anyone who would deny that is in the wrong, and is opposed to the “unanimous consent” of the Fathers.

Mr. Webster, therefore (inadvertently, I assume) sets up false premises, upon which he bases his argument, which he apparently considers compelling and clear-cut. It rests upon a supposed conciliar requirement to interpret individual biblical passages in the way it itself interprets them, and an alleged claim that all the Fathers indeed interpreted them in this fashion. But these demands and claims simply do not occur in the Council’s decrees. Like many non-Catholic controversialists, Mr. Webster falls prey to the temptation of attributing to the Catholic Church an objectionable and excessive “dogmatism” which goes beyond what the Church claims for itself.

Vatican I then proceeds to set forth its teachings on papal primacy and infallibility with the interpretation of Matthew 16:18, John 21:15-17 and Luke 22:32 as the basis for its teachings.

So far, Mr. Webster is correct. Like any good Protestant, the Catholic Church seeks to offer biblical rationale for its beliefs.

And then it states that the interpretations that it gives and the conclusions it draws from these interpretations, in terms of the practice of the Church, has been that which has ever been taught in the Church and practiced by it.

In terms of the essence of the papacy, and the kernels contained in these passages, yes. But as we will shortly see, Mr. Webster falsely charges that the Church is making an untrue claim about historical exegesis – a contention which I cannot find in the texts he cites (perhaps I missed it, and Mr. Webster can point this out to me).

Here is what Vatican I says:

Chapter I: Of the Institution of the Apostolic Primacy in blessed Peter.

We therefore teach and declare that, according to the testimony of the Gospel, the primacy of jurisdiction over the universal Church of God was immediately and directly promised and given to blessed Peter the Apostle by Christ the Lord. For it was to Simon alone, to whom he had already said: “Thou shalt be called Cephas,” that the Lord after the confession made by him, saying: “Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God,” addressed these solemn words: “Blessed art thou, Simon Bar-Jona, because flesh and blood have not revealed it to thee, but my Father who is in heaven. And I say to thee that thou art Peter; and upon this rock I will build my Church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. And I will give to thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven. And whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth, it shall be bound also in heaven; and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven.” And it was upon Simon alone that Jesus after his resurrection bestowed the jurisdiction of chief pastor and ruler over all his fold in the words: “Feed my lambs; feed my sheep.” At open variance with this clear doctrine of Holy Scripture as it has been ever understood by the Catholic Church are the perverse opinions of those who, while they distort the form of government established by Christ the Lord in his Church, deny that Peter in his single person, preferably to all the other Apostles, whether taken separately or together, was endowed by Christ with a true and proper primacy of jurisdiction; or of those who assert that the same primacy was not bestowed immediately and directly upon blessed Peter himself, but upon the Church, and through the Church on Peter as her minister.

If any one, therefore, shall say that blessed Peter the Apostle was not appointed the Prince of all the Apostles and the visible Head of the whole Church militant; or that the same directly and immediately received from the same our Lord Jesus Christ a primacy of honor only, and not of true and proper jurisdiction: let him be anathema.

(Philip Schaff, The Creeds of Christendom [New York: Harper, 1877], Dogmatic Decrees of the Vatican Council, Ch. 4, pp. 266-71).

[remainder of lengthy citation from Vatican I deleted — the reader may read it on the link provided on top]

Notice here that Vatican I states that its interpretation of Matthew 16 and John 21 has been the interpretation that has ever been understood in the Church. That is, from them very beginning.

If by this, Mr. Webster is implying that the Council claimed all the Fathers interpreted these particular passages in the same fashion, it simply did not do so. A crucial distinction must be made at this point. The Council (and Catholic apologists today) can and may use various biblical texts in order to support some particular Catholic doctrine. Vatican I, then, is in effect arguing:

“These are some of the biblical reasons why we accept these beliefs (about the papacy), beliefs which have always been held (in their essence – with development over time) by the Church.”

Note that this is quite different (vastly different, in terms of logic) from arguing the following, which — if I am not mistaken — Mr. Webster falsely claims that Vatican I is doing:

“These are some of the biblical reasons which have always been used by the Church — with the unanimous consent of the Fathers — to justify these beliefs (about the papacy), beliefs which have always been held (in their essence — with development over time) by the Church.”

In other words, the beliefs themselves and the particular biblical rationale and proof texts for those beliefs are not one and the same. Thus, even if not all Fathers accepted the interpretations of certain “papal” passages which are frequently used in Catholic apologetics today, that does not mean that they therefore rejected the doctrine of the papacy. Mr. Webster has subtly altered the sense of Vatican I and “smuggled in” notions which are not actually present in the documents themselves, in order to bolster his anti-papal case. Again, I don’t contend that he is being deliberately deceitful. The logic is sufficiently subtle to have been botched in its application, a faux pas all proponents of a particular viewpoint are prone to commit, in their zeal and passion for the ideas they hold. But now that this logical fallacy has been pointed out and exposed, Mr. Webster must honestly face it.

Furthermore, one must precisely understand what is meant by the “unanimous consent” of the Fathers. Steve Ray has written about this as well. In a nutshell, it doesn’t mean in this context (ancient Latin usage), “absolutely every.” It means “very broad / widespread consensus.”

Vatican I, Cardinal Newman, & the Papacy vs. William Webster
***
It further states that Peter was given a primacy of jurisdiction from the very beginning by Christ himself and that this primacy was passed on to Peter’s successors, the bishops of Rome. This, it says, has been known to all ages.

Indeed, jurisdiction was present from the beginning, and recognized by the Fathers, as fully evidenced in my 50 NT Proofs for Petrine Primacy & the Papacy and in great depth in Steve Ray’s book Upon This Rock. It was present when Jesus gave to St. Peter the “keys of the kingdom,” and renamed him “Rock,” with strongly implied (and soon-exercised) ecclesiological preeminence, as shown in the many passages I detail. The successors are a matter of historical fact. Rome became the center of the Church by God’s design: Sts. Peter and Paul were martyred there, after all. American Christians have scarcely any notion of the place and function of martyrdom in the Christian life. Rome was also obviously key in terms of influencing the Roman Empire. But I digress . . .

In other words, there was no acorn. According to Vatican I, the papacy was a full blown oak from the very beginning because it was established by Christ himself.

The Council never asserts that it was a “full-blown oak from the very beginning” (because that would be clearly untrue). Nothing in the documents contradicts development of doctrine – rightly understood – in the least. The fact that the papacy was established by Christ Himself does not mean that it would initially look and operate in the same manner as it does today, after nearly 2000 years of development. Cardinal Newman writes very eloquently (as always) about this notion:

Let us see how, on the principles which I have been laying down and defending, the evidence lies for the Pope’s supremacy.

As to this doctrine the question is this, whether there was not from the first a certain element at work, or in existence, divinely sanctioned, which, for certain reasons, did not at once show itself upon the surface of ecclesiastical affairs, and of which events in the fourth century are the development; and whether the evidence of its existence and operation, which does occur in the earlier centuries, be it much or little, is not just such as ought to occur upon such an hypothesis.

. . . While Apostles were on earth, there was the display neither of Bishop nor Pope; their power had no prominence, as being exercised by Apostles. In course of time, first the power of the Bishop displayed itself, and then the power of the Pope . . .

When the Church, then, was thrown upon her own resources, first local disturbances gave exercise to Bishops,and next ecumenical disturbances gave exercise to Popes; and whether communion with the Pope was necessary for Catholicity would not and could not be debated till a suspension of that communion had actually occurred. It is not a greater difficulty that St. Ignatius does not write to the Asian Greeks about Popes, than that St. Paul does not write to the Corinthians about Bishops. And it is a less difficulty that the Papal supremacy was not formally acknowledged in the second century, than that there was no formal acknowledgment on the part of the Church of the doctrine of the Holy Trinity till the fourth. No doctrine is defined till it is violated . . .

Moreover, an international bond and a common authority could not be consolidated, were it ever so certainly provided, while persecutions lasted. If the Imperial Power checked the development of Councils, it availed also for keeping back the power of the Papacy. The Creed, the Canon, in like manner, both remained undefined. The Creed, the Canon, the Papacy, Ecumenical Councils, all began to form, as soon as the Empire relaxed its tyrannous oppression of the Church. And as it was natural that her monarchical power should display itself when the Empire became Christian, so was it natural also that further developments of that power should take place when that Empire fell . . .

On the whole, supposing the power to be divinely bestowed, yet in the first instance more or less dormant, a history could not be traced out more probable, more suitable to that hypothesis, than the actual course of the controversy which took place age after age upon the Papal supremacy.

It will be said that all this is a theory. Certainly it is: it is a theory to account for facts as they lie in the history, to account for so much being told us about the Papal authority in early times, and not more; a theory to reconcile what is and what is not recorded about it; and, which is the principal point, a theory to connect the words and acts of the Ante-nicene Church with that antecedent probability of a monarchical principle in the Divine Scheme, and that actual exemplification of it in the fourth century, which forms their presumptive interpretation. All depends on the strength of that presumption. Supposing there be otherwise good reason for saying that the Papal Supremacy is part of Christianity, there is nothing in the early history of the Church to contradict it . . .

Moreover, all this must be viewed in the light of the general probability, so much insisted on above, that doctrine cannot but develop as time proceeds and need arises, and that its developments are parts of the Divine system, and that therefore it is lawful, or rather necessary, to interpret the words and deeds of the earlier Church by the determinate teaching of the later.

(Essay on the Development of Christian Doctrine, 1878 edition, Univ. of Notre Dame Press, 1989, pp. 148-155; Part 1, Chapter 4, Section 3)

And then it states that this teaching is part of the content of saving faith. To deviate from this teaching is to incur the loss of salvation. This is an explicit affirmation that outside the Church of Rome there is no salvation.

This is true, but of course it must be understood how this teaching is applied (a task beyond our immediate purview). There are many “loopholes” which allow for ignorance and lessened culpability due to a variety of factors in which a given individual may not be at fault for his unbelief. Catholic teaching in this regard is very biblical, nuanced, and complex, unlike, e.g., Calvinist and other fundamentalist Protestant views which consign whole classes of people to damnation and hell due to double predestination and their never having heard the gospel. I have many links about this topic on my Ecumenism and Christian Unity page.

Later on, in its teaching on papal infallibility, Vatican I states:

For the Holy Spirit was not promised to the successors of Peter, that by his revelation they might make known new doctrine; but that by his assistance they might inviolably keep and faithfully expound the revelation or deposit of faith delivered through the Apostles. And, indeed, all the venerable Fathers have embraced, and the holy orthodox doctors have venerated and followed, their Apostolic doctrine; knowing most fully that this See of holy Peter remains ever free from all blemish of error according to the divine promise of the Lord our Saviour made to the Prince of his disciples: “I have prayed for thee that thy faith fail not, and, when thou art converted, confirm thy brethren.” This gift, then, of truth and never failing faith was conferred by heaven upon Peter and his successors in his chair, that they might perform their high office for the salvation of all . . . [omitted second portion of the citation]

Vatican I is basing its teaching of papal infallibility on the interpretation of Luke 22:32. A teaching or tradition which it says was received from the very beginning of the Christian faith. The Council asserts that the doctrine of papal infallibility is a divinely revealed dogma and all who refuse to embrace it are placed under anathema.

It does not assert that the entire teaching is based on Luke 22:32. It merely gives that passage as a proof text, not for papal infallibility per se, but rather, for the indefectibility of the Church, as centered and grounded in the orthodoxy of the popes. Again, this does not mean that absolutely every Father took this interpretation of Luke 22:32, if that is what is being implied. What was received from the beginning was papal primacy and universal jurisdiction, which is the essence and “seed” of papal infallibility, just as the biblical statement “Jesus is Lord” is the “seed” of the exceedingly complex and highly-philosophical Chalcedonian Christology of 451 A.D.

If Christology itself – the very doctrine of God – took over 400 years to “sort itself out,” so to speak (actually, even longer, as the Monothelite heresy was yet to appear), why not the papacy? In 451, Pope St. Leo the Great was reigning, and was a key figure in determining orthodox Christology (accepted to this day by all three branches of Christianity). The papacy was quite robust and “full-blown” by then, as most historians would agree. See my paper: “Pope Leo the Great & Papal Supremacy.” As for papal infallibility: true Christian authority must have a divinely-ordained means to protect it from error. We serve a God of truth, not of relativism and confusion. Ultimately, this “protector” is the Holy Spirit Himself, according to such passages as John 14:26 and 16:13.

Vatican I, Vincent of Lerins, Verities, & Verbal Gymnastics

***

Before moving on to Mr. Webster’s misguided accusations concerning the teaching of Pope Leo XIII vis-a-vis Vatican I and development, let us briefly note the fact that Vatican I – far from rejecting it – embraced development of doctrine. There can be no question of this whatsoever, as I will now prove.

Here is a portion of the Dogmatic Constitution on the Catholic Faith, ch. 4, “Of Faith and Reason,” from Dogmatic Canons and Decrees (Rockford, Illinois: TAN Books, 1977; reprint of 1912 ed. of authorized translations of the Councils of Trent and Vatican I, Imprimatur by John Cardinal Farley of New York, pp. 232-233):

Hence, also, that meaning of the sacred dogmas is perpetually to be retained which our holy Mother the Church has once declared; nor is that meaning ever to be departed from, under the pretence or pretext of a deeper comprehension of them (can. iii). Let then the intelligence, science and wisdom of each and all, of individuals and of the whole Church, in all ages and all times, increase and flourish in abundance and vigour; but simply in its own proper kind, that is to say, in one and the same doctrine, one and the same judgment. (29)

29. Vincent of Lerins, Common. n. 28.

This expresses precisely the Vincentian and Newmanian (and Catholic) understanding of the development of doctrines which remain essentially unchanged. Development is emphatically not evolution per se, which is the transformation or change of one thing into something else. The two concepts are entirely distinct philosophically and linguistically. Shortly I shall cite Pope St. Pius X, who makes precisely this distinction in a papal encyclical.Here is a second translation of the passage, from The Christian Faith: Doctrinal Documents of the Catholic Church, edited by J. Neuner and J. Dupuis, New York: Alba House, 5th revised and enlarged ed., 1990, p. 47:

Hence also that meaning of the sacred dogmas is perpetually to be retained which our Holy Mother Church has once declared, and there must never be a deviation from that meaning on the specious ground and title of a more profound understanding. ‘Therefore, let there be growth and abundant progress in understanding, knowledge and wisdom, in each and all, in individuals and in the whole Church, at all times and in the progress of ages, but only within the proper limits, i.e., within the same dogma, the same meaning, the same judgment.’ (1)

(1) Vincent of Lerins, Commonitorium primum, 23.

Perhaps, in the words of the prison guard in Cool Hand Luke, “what we have here is a failure to communicate.” There is no conflict whatever between Cardinal Newman’s thesis in his Essay on the Development of Christian Doctrine and the above infallible pronouncement of an Ecumenical Council (during his own lifetime, in fact).

Vatican I cites St. Vincent of Lerins as a precedent, just as Newman himself had 25 years earlier. It cites the very passage which is — from all accounts – the classic exposition of dogmatic development in the Fathers — the very inspiration of Newman to expand upon the notion further. St. Vincent even draws the analogy of the organic growth of bodies, using a metaphor (“seed”) which is the same notion as the “acorn and the oak tree” which Mr. Webster so disdains.

And here is the excerpt from St. Vincent of Lerins which Vatican I cited (Notebooks, 23:28-30), from yet another translation (William A. Jurgens, editor and translator, The Faith of the Early Fathers, 3 volumes, Collegeville, Minesota: Liturgical Press, vol. 3, 1979, p.265). I will provide the context, with the portion utilized by Vatican I in-between ***’s. Note that by citing this passage – given the explicit context – Vatican I is implicitly and beyond doubt giving sanction to the notion of doctrinal development. It is expressly denying (contra Webster) that Catholic doctrine (including, by extension, the papacy) starts as an “oak tree” rather than as a seed or acorn:

[28] But perhaps someone is saying: ‘ Will there, then, be no progress of religion in the Church of Christ? ‘ Certainly there is, and the greatest. For who is there so envious toward men and so exceedingly hateful toward God, that he would try to prohibit progress? But it is truly progress and not a change of faith. What is meant by progress is that something is brought to an advancement within itself; by change, something is transformed from one thing into another. *** It is necessary, therefore, that understanding, knowledge and wisdom grow and advance strongly and mightily as much in individuals as in the group, as much in one man as in the whole Church, and this gradually according to age and the times; and this must take place precisely within its own kind, that is, in the same teaching, in the same meaning, and in the same opinion.*** [29] The progress of religion in souls is like the growth of bodies, which, in the course of years, evolve and develop, but still remain what they were . . . [30] . . . Although in the course of time something evolved from those first seeds and has now expanded under careful cultivation, nothing of the characteristics of the seeds is changed. Granted that appearance, beauty and distinction has been added, still, the same nature of each kind remains.

[the first ellipses (. . . ) are in Jurgens’ version; the second set is my own]

If this weren’t a striking enough disproof of Mr. Webster’s claim that Vatican I opposes doctrinal development, in the same work, St. Vincent expresses his famous dictum (often cited by Protestant polemicists against development):

In the Catholic Church herself every care must be taken that we may hold fast to that which has been believed everywhere, always, and by all. For this is, then truly and properly Catholic . . . (Notebooks, 2, 3. Jurgens, ibid., vol. 3, p. 263)

Obviously, unchanging essence and developing, progressing non-essential elements are compatible, according to St. Vincent, Newman, and Vatican I. Here we have almost all the elements outlined by Newman fourteen centuries later, yet Protestant controversialists such as George Salmon and William Webster continue to claim that Newman’s views were a radical departure from Catholic precedent! How silly; how sad!

To establish the fact that St. Vincent of Lerins is a key figure in the “development of development of doctrine,” I shall now cite Pope St. Pius X, and four specialists on the history of Christian doctrine: two Catholic and two Protestant scholars, respectively:

28. It is thus, Venerable Brethren, that for the Modernists, whether as authors or propagandists, there is to be nothing stable, nothing immutable in the Church. Nor, indeed, are they without forerunners in their doctrines, for it was of these that Our predecessor Pius IX wrote: “These enemies of divine revelation extol human progress to the skies, and with rash and sacrilegious daring would have it introduced into the Catholic religion as if this religion were not the work of God but of man, or some kind of philosophical discovery susceptible of perfection by human efforts.”[14] On the subject of revelation and dogma in particular, the doctrine of the Modernists offers nothing new. We find it condemned in the Syllabus of Pius IX, where it is enunciated in these terms: ”Divine revelation is imperfect, and therefore subject to continual and indefinite progress, corresponding with the progress of human reason”;[15] and condemned still more solemnly in the Vatican Council: ”The doctrine of the faith which God has revealed has not been proposed to human intelligences to be perfected by them as if it were a philosophical system, but as a divine deposit entrusted to the Spouse of Christ to be faithfully guarded and infallibly interpreted. Hence also that sense of the sacred dogmas is to be perpetually retained which our Holy Mother the Church has once declared, nor is this sense ever to be abandoned on plea or pretext of a more profound comprehension of the truth.”[16] Nor is the development of our knowledge, even concerning the faith, barred by this pronouncement; on the contrary, it is supported and maintained. For the same Council continues: “Let intelligence and science and wisdom, therefore, increase and progress abundantly and vigorously in individuals, and in the mass, in the believer and in the whole Church, throughout the ages and the centuries–but only in its own kind, that is, according to the same dogma, the same sense, the same acceptation.”[17] (Pope St. Pius X, Pascendi Dominici Gregis, “On the Doctrine of the Modernists,” 8 September 1907, section 28)

Note how the pope who is known for his opposition to theological modernism, or liberalism — in his famous encyclical on that very subject –, cites the same passage from Vatican I which I have noted, including the citation from St. Vincent (which is at the very end). He contends that development of doctrine is neither “evolution” (which he contrasts to it) nor modernism. By extension, then, he is verifying that Vatican I upheld development of doctrine (as explicated by St. Vincent and more recently in the same sense by Cardinal Newman) as entirely orthodox and Catholic.

He states this outright: “Nor is the development of our knowledge, even concerning the faith, barred by this pronouncement; on the contrary, it is supported and maintained.” Nothing could be more clear. This is another nail in the coffin of Mr. Webster’s claims. The papacy is one of many doctrines contained in “the faith” and the apostolic deposit. It develops like all the other dogmas, and like all the beliefs in Protestantism as well — including the canon of Scripture itself (much as many Protestants would seek to deny this).

Vincent’s doctrinal principle does not exclude progress and development; but it does exclude change. For Vincent, progress is a developmental growth of doctrine in its own sphere; change, however, implies a transformation into something different. In his encyclical Pascendi gregis against modernism, Pope Saint Pius X refers favorably to St. Vincent; and so does the Second Vatican Council in its Dogmatic Constitution on the Catholic Faith. (The Faith of the Early Fathers, vol. III, Jurgens, ibid., p. 262)

[Describing St. Vincent’s thought] The criteria of tradition does not lead to immobility, given that it is joined with a second criterion, both essential and complementary, of dogmatic progress which operates according to the laws of organic growth.

‘This progress truly constitutes a progress and not an alteration of the faith, for it is characteristic of progress that a thing grows while remaining the same thing, and characteristic of alteration that one thing is changed into another. Therefore intelligence, knowledge, and wisdom grow and increase considerably both of the individual as of all, of the single man as well as of the entire church, according to ages and times. The particular nature of each is to be respected, however; that is, it remains exactly the same dogma, has the same meaning and expresses the same thought’ (c.23).

Vatican I adopted this well-known formula as its own . . . There is thus a three-fold progress: a progress in formulation which the church, having been challenged by the heretics, accomplishes by means of conciliar decrees to enlighten the understanding with new and appropriate terms and transmit them to those who will come later; progress in the organic life which takes place in dogmatic truths and always exceeds the language which expresses it, much in the same way that a human life grows from infancy to old age while always remaining the same person; progress in the final acquisition of truth without alteration or mutilation . . .

Paradoxically, this teacher of the immutability is revealed as the theologian of the laws of the development of dogma . . . The Commonitorium, as Bossuet noted, also drew its inspiration from the writings of Augustine . . .

Even though Vincent was concerned primarily with the innovations of the heresies, the West has drawn inspiration from his teaching on the progress of dogma developed in several chapters of the Commonitorium (c. 23-24). He recognized this development both in the understanding and in the formulation of dogmatic truth. Without changing the deposit of faith in any way, the church explores its richness more deeply and expresses its content more clearly . . . .

It is certain that . . . the influence of the Commonitorium has not ceased to increase since the sixteenth century . . . Bellarmine described it as the libellus plane aureus, while Bossuet makes constant reference to it in his Defense de la tradition des saints Peres. Catholics and Protestants regarded it with equal admiration at first. Newman found an “ecumenical” norm in the Commonitorium and procured a new importance for the work . . . the First Vatican Council . . . took the last word from Vincent of Lerins in the Dogmatic Constitution on the Faith. (Patrology, Johannes Quasten, vol. IV, ed. Angelo di Berardino, translated by Placid Solari, Allen, Texas: Christian Classics, 1977, from ch. 8, by Adalbert Hamman, pp. 548-550)

Augustine . . . manifestly acknowledges a gradual advancement of the church doctrine, which reaches its corresponding expression from time to time through the general councils; but a progress within the truth, without positive error . . . In like manner Vincentius Lerinensis teaches, that the church doctrine passes indeed through various stages of growth in knowledge, and becomes more and more clearly defined in opposition to ever-rising errors, but can never become altered or dismembered. (History of the Christian Church, vol. 3: Nicene and Post-Nicene Christianity, Philip Schaff, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1974 [orig. 1910], p. 344)

. . . Not that Vincent is a conservative who excludes the possibility of all progress in doctrine. In the first place, he admits that it has been the business of councils to perfact and polish the traditional formulae, and even concepts, in which the great truths contained in the original deposit are expressed, thereby declaring ‘not new doctrines, but old ones in new terms’ (non nova, sed nove). Secondly, however, he would seem to allow for an organic development of doctrine analogous to the growth of the human body from infancy to age. But this development, he is careful to explain, while real, must not result in the least alteration to the original significance of the doctrine concerned. Thus in the end the Christian must, like Timothy, [1 Tim 6:20] ‘guard the deposit’, i.e., the revelation enshrined in its completeness in Holy Scripture and correctly interpreted in the Church’s unerring tradition. (Early Christian Doctrines, J. N. D. Kelly, San Francisco: HarperCollins, revised edition, 1978, pp. 50-51)

Salmon and Dead Horses (Being Beaten)

***

The Anglican George Salmon’s The Infallibility of the Church (originally 1890) apparently remains an inspiration for the anti-infallibility, anti-development polemics of the current generation of anti-Catholic crusaders, such as William Webster and James White. Yet it has been refuted decisively twice, by B.C. Butler, in his The Church and Infallibility: A Reply to the Abridged “Salmon”‘ and also in a series of articles in The Irish Ecclesiastical Record, in 1901 and 1902. (1)

Nevertheless, even the more ecumenical Protestant apologists Norman Geisler and Ralph MacKenzie claimed in 1995, in a major critique of Catholicism, Roman Catholics and Evangelicals: Agreements and Differences, (2) that Salmon’s book has “never really been answered by the Catholic Church.” Geisler and MacKenzie cite Salmon as a “witness” for their case (3).

George Salmon revealed in his book his profoundly biased ignorance not only concerning papal infallibility, but also with regard to even the basics of the development of doctrine:

Romish advocates . . . are now content to exchange tradition, which their predecessors had made the basis of their system, for this new foundation of development . . . The theory of development is, in short, an attempt to enable men, beaten off the platform of history, to hang on to it by the eyelids . . . The old theory was that the teaching of the Church had never varied. (4)

1. Butler: New York, Sheed & Ward, 1954, 230 pages. A friend was recently able to obtain the articles from the Irish Ecclesiastical Record in the library of a well-known evangelical seminary in the Chicago area.

2. Norman L. Geisler and Ralph E. MacKenzie, Roman Catholics and Evangelicals: Agreements and Differences, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Books, 1995, p. 206, which calls it the “classic refutation of papal infallibility.” See also p. 459.

3. Geisler and MacKenzie, ibid., pp. 206-207.

4. Salmon, George, The Infallibility of the Church, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Book House (originally 1888), pp. 31-33 (cf. also pp. 35, 39).

Here Salmon (like Webster) is quixotically fighting a straw man of his own making and seeking to sophistically force his readers into the acceptance of a false and altogether logically unnecessary dichotomy: that development of doctrine implies change in the essence or substance of a doctrine and therefore is utterly contrary to the claims of the Church to be the Guardian and Custodian of an authoritative tradition of never-changing dogma. But this is emphatically not the Catholic belief, nor that of Newman, to whom Salmon was largely responding. Nor is it true that development was a “new” theory introduced by Cardinal Newman into Catholicism, while the “old theory” was otherwise. This is unanswerably proven by the writing of St. Vincent of Lerins, above (themselves paralleled by St. Augustine and other Fathers well familiar with the orthodox notion of development).

Pope Leo XIII: Foe of Development of Doctrine and Newman?

***

The papal encyclical, Satis Cognitum, written by Pope Leo XIII in 1896, is a commentary on and papal confirmation of the teachings of Vatican I. As to the issue of doctrinal development, Leo makes it quite clear that Vatican I leaves no room for such a concept in its teachings.

If indeed this were true (it assuredly is not), then I would find it exceedingly odd that Pope Leo XIII would name John Henry Newman a Cardinal in 1879, soon after becoming pope (1878). Why would he do that for the famous exponent of the classic treatment of development of doctrine, if he himself rejected that same notion? No; as before, Mr. Webster is (consciously or not) subtly switching definitions and statements of a pope and a Council in order to make it appear that there is a glaring contradiction, when in fact there is none. Such a mythical state of affairs is beyond absurd:

Il mio cardinale“, Pope Leo called Newman, “my cardinal”. There was much resistance to the appointment. “It was not easy”, the Pope recalled later, “It was not easy. They said he was too liberal.” (Marvin R. O’Connell, “Newman and Liberalism,” in Newman Today, edited by Stanley L. Jaki, San Francisco: Ignatius Press, 1989, p. 87)

And the very fact that Newman was now a member of the sacred college had put to rest, as he expressed it, ‘all the stories which have gone about of my being a half Catholic, a Liberal Catholic, not to be trusted . . . The cloud is lifted from me forever.” (Ibid., p. 87; Letter of Newman to R. W. Church, 11 March 1879, Letters and Diaries, vol. XXIX, p. 72)

Ian Ker, author of the massive 764-page biography John Henry Newman (Oxford University Press, 1988) expands upon Pope Leo XIII in relation to Newman:

The Duke of Norfolk had himself personally submitted the suggestion to the Pope. The Duke’s explicit object was to secure Rome’s recognition of Newman’s loyalty and orthodoxy. Such a vindication was not only personally due to Newman, but was important for removing among non-Catholics the suspicion that his immensely persuasive and popular apologetic writings were not really properly Catholic. It looks in fact as if Leo XIII had already had the idea himself, as Newman was later given to believe . . . After being elected Pope, he is supposed to have said that the policy of his pontificate would be revealed by the name of the first Cardinal he created. Several years later he told an English visitor: . . .

‘I had determined to honour the Church in honouring Newman. I always had a cult for him. I am proud that I was able to honour such a man.’ (p. 715)

Newman wrote:

For 20 or 30 years ignorant or hot-headed Catholics had said almost that I was a heretic . . . I knew and felt that it was a miserable evil that the One True Apostolic Religion should be so slandered as to cause men to suppose that my portrait of it was not the true — and I knew that many would become Catholics, as they ought to be, if only I was pronounced by Authority to be a good Catholic. On the other hand it had long riled me, that Protestants should condescendingly say that I was only half a Catholic, and too good to be what they were at Rome. (in Ker, ibid., pp. 716-717; Letters and Diaries, vol. XXIX, p. 160)

Such is the lot of great men; geniuses; those ahead of their time. Now Mr. Webster joins this miserable, deluded company of those who pretend that Newman was a heterodox Catholic, and that his theory of development is somehow un-Catholic, or — even worse — a deliberately cynical method of rationalization intended to whitewash so-called “contradictions” of Catholic doctrinal history.

Leo states over and over again that the papacy was fully established by Christ from the very beginning and that it has been the foundation of the constitution of the Church and recognized as such from the very start and throughout all ages.

True enough, in the sense which I have repeatedly stressed.

He further affirms that Vatican I’s teaching has been the constant belief of every age and and is therefore not a novel doctrine:

Merciful heavens! A “novel doctrine” is something like sola Scriptura, or sola fide, the latter of which Protestant apologist Norman Geisler states that no one believed it from the time of St. Paul to Luther (and Catholics would also strongly deny that Paul taught it). Likewise, noted Protestant scholar Alister McGrath confesses:

The essential feature of the Reformation doctrines of justification is that a deliberate and systematic distinction is made between justification and regeneration. Although it must be emphasised that this distinction is purely notional, in that it is impossible to separate the two within the context of the ordo salutis, the essential point is that a notional distinction is made where none had been acknowledged before in the history of Christian doctrine. A fundamental discontinuity was introduced into western theological tradition where none had ever existed, or ever been contemplated, before. The Reformation understanding of the nature of justification as opposed to its mode must therefore be regarded as a genuine theological novum. (Iustitia Dei: A History of the Christian Doctrine of Justification, the Beginnings to the Reformation, Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1993, pp. 186-187)

Many other innovations of Protestantism- – established against all contrary Church precedent — amply qualify as true “novelties.” The papacy (even considered as explicitly infallible)- – whatever one thinks of it – is surely not in the same league as all the brand-new Protestant inventions. But let us see what Mr. Webster selects from Pope Leo XIII’s encyclical, to supposedly bolster his tenuous claims:

Wherefore, as appears from what has been said, Christ instituted in the Church a living, authoritative and permanent Magisterium, which by His own power He strengthened, by the Spirit of truth He taught, and by miracles confirmed. He willed and ordered, under the gravest penalties, that its teachings should be received as if they were His own…Jesus Christ, therefore, appointed Peter to be that head of the Church; and He also determined that the authority instituted in perpetuity for the salvation of all should be inherited by His successors, in whom the same permanent authority of Peter himself should continue. And so He made that remarkable promise to Peter and to no one else: “Thou are Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church” (Matt. xvi., 18)…It was necessary that a government of this kind, since it belongs to the constitution and formation of the Church, as its principal element – that is as the principle of unity and the foundation of lasting stability – should in no wise come to an end with St. Peter, but should pass to his successors from one to another…When the Divine founder decreed that the Church should be one in faith, in government, and in communion, He chose Peter and his successors as the principle and centre, as it were, of this unity…Indeed, Holy Writ attests that the keys of the Kingdom of Heaven were given to Peter alone, and that the power of binding and loosening was granted to the Apostles and to Peter; but there is nothing to show that the Apostles received supreme power without Peter, and against Peter. Such power they certainly did not receive from Jesus Christ. Wherefore, in the decree of the Vatican Council as to the nature and authority of the primacy of the Roman Pontiff, no newly conceived opinion is set forth, but the venerable and constant belief of every age (Sess. iv., cap. 3).

Again, this is not at all inconsistent with the idea of a primitive version of the papacy consistently developing into the institution we see today. Mr. Webster simply begs the question by assuming that Pope Leo refers throughout to a full-fledged papacy, and not to the essential, unchanging seed of the later developed papacy, in the person of St. Peter. Leo XIII never makes any statement explicitly denouncing development (which is Mr. Webster’s thesis, after all).

And when he refers to the papacy as the “constant belief,” he is expressing himself no differently than a Protestant who states that “the divinity of Christ has always been believed,” or “the Trinity was always believed,” or the New Testament was always accepted by 1st-century Christians, when they know full well (if they know their Church history at all) that the doctrines of God (trinitarian theology) and especially Christ (Christology) also underwent much development (Two Natures, Athanasian Creed, Theotokos, battles with heretics such as the Monothelites, Arians, and Sabellians) while at the same time remaining the same in essence.

Likewise, there wasn’t total consensus about the New Testament until the canon was finalized in the late 4th century. Yet Scripture was what it was all along: inspired and God-breathed. The Church did not make it so (as Vatican I itself explicitly affirms). Protestants, in speaking of the broad consensus of the early Fathers with regard to the canon of Scripture, are basically asserting the “unanimous consent of the Fathers” in the way a Catholic would argue. Likewise, the papacy was what it was, all along, even if not all recognized it. Not all recognized Jesus as the Messiah and Lord, either. That is no disproof.

Conclusion: Folly, False “Facts,” and Fallacies

***

The Roman Catholic Church, itself, has officially stated that there was no development of this doctrine in the early Church.

Where? This certainly hasn’t been shown by Mr. Webster. He has to make false deductions and redefine words and phrases to make his nonexistent case, whereas I have clearly demonstrated the opposite, right from the explicit text of Vatican I.

After all, if the fullness of the definition of papal primacy as defined by Vatican I was instituted by Christ immediately upon Peter, as both Vatican I and Leo XIII affirm, then there is no room for development.

This is a classic case of Mr. Webster’s fallacious logic and curious rhetorical method. Where is it stated that the “fullness of definition of papal primacy” was conferred upon Peter? The primacy itself was given to him; the duty and prerogatives of the papal office, and the keys of the kingdom, but none of that implies that a full understanding or application, or unanimous acknowledgement by others is therefore also present from the beginning. The thing itself – in its essential aspects, or nature, is present. And that is what develops, without inner contradiction or change of principle, as Newman ably pointed out in the long citation above.

It was instituted by Christ himself and was therefore present from the very beginning and would have been recognized as such by the Church as Vatican I states: “Whence, whosoever succeeds to Peter in this See, does by the institution of Christ himself obtain the Primacy of Peter over the whole Church –, a fact which Vatican I says has been known to all ages leading to the practice “that it has at all times been necessary that every particular Church — that is to say, the faithful throughout the world — should agree with the Roman Church, on account of the greater authority of the princedom which this has received.” This documentation completely demolishes present day Roman Catholic apologists’ theory of development. They are at odds with the magisterium of their own Church. Indeed, these apologists must set forth a theory of development because of the historical reality, but such a theory is at open variance with the clear teaching of Vatican I and Leo XIII.

Hardly. As shown, Vatican I explicitly accepted development of doctrine, citing the very passage from St. Vincent Lerins which is the classic exposition in the Fathers – essentially identical to Newman’s analysis. Pope Leo XIII made Newman a Cardinal – his very first appointment, meant to send a message, yet Mr. Webster would have us believe that he was diametrically opposed to the thought for which Newman was most famous (and notorious, in some circles): development of doctrine. So we are to believe that Leo XIII made a Cardinal someone he regarded as a rank heretic? I suppose any absurd, surreal scenario within the Catholic Church is possible in the minds of many of her more – shall we say – zealous critics. Likewise, the very next pope, and vigorous condemner of modernism, Pope St. Pius X, also supported not only St. Vincent of Lerins, as we saw above, but also John Henry Newman (see below).

Thus, there is quite positive evidence that development of doctrine was (and is) indeed accepted by the Catholic Church. Mr. Webster, on the other hand, in order to put forth his thesis, must rely on distortions of what development means, and improbable deductions from indirect suggestions in conciliar and papal documents, which he interprets as hostile to development. It’s a wrongheaded enterprise from the get-go. Newman was orthodox, despite what Webster, Salmon, and other Protestant polemicists would have us believe:

To make matters worse, and to deepen Newman’s disappointment, the Essay had been eagerly seized by American Unitarians as a first-rate demonstration that the Trinitarian doctrine was not primitive but was a development of the third century. In the midst of the consequent excitement, the militant American convert, Orestes Brownson, made a series of attacks on the Essay, beginning with a review of it in Brownson’s Quarterly Review in July, 1846. Brownson called Newman’s work “essentially anticatholic and Protestant”; he objected to Christianity being treated as an “idea”; and he also objected to Newman’s third mark of a true development, the “power of assimilation” . . .

It is not surprising, therefore, that the edition of 1878 is in so many ways, both large and small, different from that of 1845. Yet in the thirty-three years between the two editions, the Essay made its way with the Church, and was accepted in its original form as, in the words of Dr. Benard, “simply an original and highly ingenious manner of presenting a strictly traditional Catholic doctrine.” But the vicissitudes of Newman’s Essay were not over. During the last years of the nineteenth century and the beginning of the twentieth, there arose the Modernist Movement, in which Newman’s volume was made an instrument of heresy . . .

It may be observed that when Pope Pius X issued the encyclical Pascendi dominici gregis in July, 1907, condemning the Movement, many of Newman’s readers at once feared that the Essay on Developent had been condemned, too . . . But at the very height of the excitement occasioned by the encyclical Pascendi, the Most Reverend Edward Thomas O’Dwyer, bishop of Limerick, published his pamphlet on Cardinal Newman and the Encyclical Pascendi Dominici Gregis (London: Longmans, Green, and Co., 1908), which showed clearly that the Modernists could not legitimately depend on Newman for their teaching. The final, authoritative answer to the Modernists, however, appeared when Pope Pius X sent a letter to Bishop O’Dwyer, confirming the latter’s defense of Newman. (Preface to Essay on the Development of Christian Doctrine by Charles Fredrick Harrold, New York: Longmans, 1949 pp. vii-ix)

So when we analyze these papal teachings in the light of history it is perfectly legitimate to ask the question on two levels. As to the actual institution of the papacy, do we find the teachings of Vatican I expressed by the fathers of the Church in their practice?

Not in its fullness, but this is not required in order for both unchanging essence and developing secondary aspects to harmoniously coexist.

And secondly, as to the issue of interpretation, do we find a unanimous consent of the fathers regarding Vatican I’s interpretation of Matthew 16:18, John 21:15-17 and Luke 22:32 that supports papal primacy and infallibility? In both cases the answer is a decided no.

As already shown, consensus on individual Scripture verses is not required by the Church, and Mr. Webster has not documented that Vatican I taught otherwise. What is required is assent to the essential premises and characteristics of the doctrine, which were indeed there from the beginning, from the time of Christ’s commissioning of St. Peter. Mr. Webster’s case therefore collapses, having been shown to be woefully insufficient or outright contradicted in all of its main points of contention.

I close with a quote from the Protestant apologist C. S. Lewis, which confirms the Newmanian and Catholic understanding of development of doctrine:

How can an unchanging system survive the continual increase of knowledge? . . . Change is not progress unless the core remains unchanged. A small oak grows into a big oak; if it became a beech, that would not be growth, but mere change . . . There is a great difference between counting apples and arriving at the mathematical formulae of modern physics. But the multiplication table is used in both and does not grow out of date. In other words, whenever there is real progress in knowledge, there is some knowledge that is not superseded. Indeed, the very possibility of progress demands that there should be an unchanging element . . . I take it we should all agree to find this . . . in the simple rules of mathematics. I would also add to these the primary principles of morality. And I would also add the fundamental doctrines of Christianity . . . I claim that the positive historical statements made by Christianity have the power, elsewhere found chiefly in formal principles, of receiving, without intrinsic change, the increasing complexity of meaning which increasing knowledge puts into them . . . Like mathematics, religion can grow from within, or decay . . . But, like mathematics, it remains simply itself, capable of being applied to any new theory.

(God in the Dock, ed. Walter Hooper, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1970, pp.44-47. From “Dogma and the Universe,” The Guardian, March 19, 1943, p.96 / March 26, 1943, pp. 104 ,107)

*****

2017-06-05T12:16:55-04:00

Bible4
Photograph by “stempow” (March 2017) [Pixabay / CC0 public domain]
***

(January 1999)

***

Dr. Gary DeMar is a Reformed Protestant scholar, and Senior Fellow (former President) at  American Vision, a praiseworthy group which concentrates on Christianity and culture issues (and does an excellent job, generally speaking). It produces a worthwhile periodical Biblical Worldview. DeMar has also written much helpful material about the errors of evangelical Protestant dispensationalism, particularly with regard to failed end-time prophetical scenarios. Catholics can benefit from much of what he writes. Where he — unfortunately — gets off-track (as is so often the case with otherwise sound scholars), is in his critique of Catholicism.

This is a critique of his article, entitled, Denying Sola Scriptura: The Attempt to Neutralize the Bible. Gary DeMar’s words will be in blue. He wrote me a brief letter when I informed him of this response (written in January 1999), declining to counter-reply. I have added that to the end of this paper. Perhaps some other Protestant with more available time and motivation will take up the challenge.

* * * * *

A strange term, “neutralize.” I haven’t the slightest idea what he means by this, so I hope he elaborates in the article.

[omitted background material for brevity’s sake]

Many of the basic tenets of Catholicism are biblical. One of the distinguishing characteristics of a cult is the denial of the divinity of Christ. There is no such denial in Catholicism. Roman Catholics teach and adhere to the Apostles’ Creed. This is why men like Luther and Calvin are called Reformers: they wanted to reform the church, not replace it. They recognized that not everything within Catholicism was in error. On another level, the same can be said about Judaism. There is truth within Judaism because Christians and Jews share a portion of the same revelation the Hebrew Scriptures or what Christians call the Old Testament. But as system of theology both Catholicism and Judaism fall short of the whole truth, Judaism because it does not recognize the revelatory status of the New Testament and Catholicism because it puts tradition on an equal footing with both the Old and New Testaments.

So Catholicism isn’t a cult, but is it Christian, according to DeMar? Does anyone know? I am unsure. His remarks seem to me a bit ambiguous on this point.

Questioning Catholic Doctrine
*
After becoming a Christian in February of 1973, I began to question a number of Catholic doctrines.

To me, this implies that therefore, Catholicism is not Christian, since he “became” one. He didn’t qualify it at all.

The Bible had become the standard of faith for me. It was sola scriptura — Scripture alone — not the Bible plus anything else that led me to reconsider what I had been taught as a child about Catholicism. Those doctrines that lined up with the Bible, I retained. Those doctrines that could not be supported by an appeal to the Bible, I rejected. Again, sola scriptura was the reference point.

Fair enough. As I, too, believe all Catholic beliefs are explicitly or implicitly indicated in Holy Scripture (or harmonious with it), and accept the material sufficiency of Scripture, Gary and I are not far apart in a certain practical, Bible-based sense.

The doctrine of sola scriptura has been questioned by a number of former Protestants who have embraced the teachings of the Roman Catholic Church. Once the doctrine of sola scriptura is rejected a Pandora’s Box of doctrinal additions is opened. As one Catholic writer asserts, “Scripture has been, and remains our primary, although not exclusive, source for Catholic doctrines.”(1) This is the nature of the dispute. While the Protestant believes that Scripture is the “exclusive” source for doctrine — what the Westminster Confession of Faith calls “faith and practice” — the Catholic Church asserts that extra-biblical tradition plays an equal role.

Agreed, though I would beg to differ if he is implying (I’m not sure) that we deny the primacy of Scripture. We deny its absolute exclusivity. But it is just as central and crucial to us as it was to the Fathers. They, like us, placed apostolic succession in the role of ultimate “arbiter” of the truth or falsity of any given doctrine. Again, it is a matter of interpreting and applying the Scriptures, which all Christians agree are inspired, “God-breathed” words.

Former Protestants Speak
*
Former Protestants Scott and Kimberly Hahn have written a book that is getting a great deal of praise from Catholics and Protestants. The Hahns have become effective apologists for the Catholic position. Scott, a former Presbyterian minister, and his wife consider their embrace of Catholicism as a homecoming. In fact, the title of their book is Rome Sweet Home: Our Journey to Catholicism. (2) While there are many issues in this book that I would like to address, my goal is to concentrate on the central issue — sola scriptura.

Great.

Roman Catholic Propaganda
*
There is no doubt in my mind that Rome Sweet Home is a cleverly devised piece of propaganda published mainly for Catholics. Very few Protestants would ever be convinced by the arguments put forth by the Hahns.

It seems to me that “propaganda” is a loaded term (though not necessarily), implying perhaps disingenuousness or incompetence, or dishonesty. I wish DeMar would just keep to the arguments, without stooping to these sorts of rash judgments. I am disappointed thus far (I am responding as I read). I would have expected better from DeMar.

The book is designed to keep Catholics in check, most of whom do not know their Bibles.

So there are no Protestant books which discuss Church history, since many (most?) Protestants are woefully ignorant of their Church history? Would DeMar then deem such a work “propaganda” designed to keep ignorant Protestants “in check”?

The reasoning goes something like this:

Consider the Hahns. Scott and Kimberly were forceful Catholic antagonists while they studied in one of America’s leading Protestant seminaries. Scott had a promising career as a pastor and seminary professor. But as the Hahns studied the Bible more closely they found that they could not answer the most basic objection to Roman Catholic doctrines. In time they began to see what you already know: The Roman Catholic Church is the true church.

A conversion story (like a Catechism) is not usually the place to undertake an elaborate defense of Catholic belief (the several versions of my own story don’t do that, though they do some of it). I can assure Dr. DeMar that, elsewhere, Dr. Hahn vigorously defends the Faith. I have many Hahn links on my website, should he be interested in pursuing Dr. Hahn’s apologetic reasoning.

After reading Rome Sweet Home I came away bewildered. I could not believe how poorly the Hahns argued Catholic dogma.

I thought he was sticking to sola Scriptura . . . ?????

[therefore, I have omitted the section on the Rosary]

An Appeal to “Tradition”
*
No biblical justification can be found for praying the Rosary. But this does not matter to Catholics since they claim the authority of tradition.

This is foolish and silly. I can defend all aspects of the Rosary from the Bible Alone (but alas, that is another topic). Indeed, a good half of it is a citation right from Scripture, for Pete’s sake!

[Later, I produced these papers defending the Rosary:

Is the Rosary “Vain Repetition”?

Is the Rosary Christ-Centered?

Questions Regarding Catholic Mariology & the Rosary

Lutheran Pastor Bashes Prayer to Mary & Rosary (“Vain Repetition”) ]

The real debate is whether sola scriptura is a doctrine that is taught in the Bible. Does the Bible teach that the Bible alone is the Christian’s “only rule of faith and obedience?” Scott Hahn and other Catholics maintain that it does not.

And they are right.

[omitted anecdote about Hahn and proof texts for sola Scriptura]

Jesus and Sola Scriptura
*
What amazes me is that a seminary-trained scholar like Scott Hahn had to make these calls. Demonstrating sola scriptura from the Bible is not very difficult. Jesus used the Bible to counter the arguments of Satan. Scripture was quoted, not tradition (Matthew 4:1-10 and Luke 4:1-12). The same can be said about His debates with the religious leaders. He asks them, “Did you never read in the Scriptures?” (Matthew 21:42). He appeal is not made to any ecclesiastical body, the priesthood, or tradition.

This simply isn’t true. Apart from the fact that the Fathers constantly cited Scripture, too, while at the same time citing apostolic succession and Tradition as the final determinant of orthodoxy, Jesus refers to “the seat of Moses” (nowhere to be found in the OT) and tells the people to obey the Pharisees’ teaching, but not their actions (Mt 23:1-3), even while going on to vigorously condemn their hypocrisy, in the strongest terms (23:4-36). Jesus also contrasts corrupt, Pharisaical Tradition with true, biblical Tradition (Mt 15:3, 6; Mk 7:8-9, 13), thus clearly implying that there is indeed a true, valid, binding Tradition (in other words, He always qualifies any condemnation of “tradition”).

He established a Church (Matt 16:17-19), which He intended to uphold this very Tradition, long before the New Testament was even known, let alone collected together (by the Church He established) and canonized. This is abominably poor argumentation by DeMar, even as he condemns Dr. Hahn for alleged woeful ignorance.

Other examples given by David Palm in his paper “Oral Tradition in the New Testament” include Matthew 2:23, “He shall be called a Nazarene,” 1 Cor 10:4: the “rock which followed” the Jews in the wilderness, Jude 9, concerning the archangel Michael and the body of Moses, and Jude 14-15, a direct citation from 1 Enoch 1:9. Palm cites further examples in his paper:

          There are a number of other examples in the New Testament in which the writer likely draws on oral tradition, but not so clearly in support of any doctrine. For instance, Paul dips into rabbinic tradition to supply the names, Jannes and Jambres, of the magicians who opposed Moses in Pharoah’s court (2 Tim 3:8). [xxv] In the Old Testament, these individuals are anonymous (Exod 7:8ff.). James tells us that because of Elijah’s prayer there was no rain in Israel for three years (James 5:17), but the Old Testament account of Elijah’s altercation with King Ahab says nothing of him praying (1 Kings 17). It is rabbinic tradition that characterizes Elijah as the quintessential man of prayer. [xxvi] And even the Golden Rule, ‘So whatever you wish that men would do to you, do so to them; for this is the law and the prophets’ (Matt 7:12) was anticipated by Jewish oral Tradition: ‘What you do not like should be done to you, do not to your fellow; this is the whole Torah, all the rest is commentary.’ [xxvii]

 

The Sadducees, who denied the doctrine of the resurrection, hoped to trap Jesus with a question that seems to have no rational or biblical answer. Jesus, with all the prerogatives of divinity, could have manufactured a legitimate and satisfactory answer without an appeal to Scripture. He did not. Instead, he tells them, “You are mistaken, not understanding the Scriptures, or the power of God” (Matthew 22:29). Here we find Jesus rejecting ecclesiastical opinion – as represented by the Sadducees – in favor of sola scriptura.

So what? I constantly appeal to the Scriptures also, as I am doing in this very post, but it doesn’t follow that I thereby accept sola Scriptura.

[omitted further biblical examples of the appeal to Scripture, since they are irrelevant, and prove nothing with regard to the truth or falsity of sola Scriptura; what we need is a clear statement of the principle of sola Scriptura in Scripture. Will DeMar even attempt to provide that? I say he cannot, because it doesn’t exist]

Paul and Sola Scriptura
*
When Paul “reasoned” with the Jews, what revelational standard did he use? “And according to Paul’s custom” he “reasoned with them from the Scriptures” (Acts 17:2). Paul, who claimed apostolic authority (Romans 1:1; 11:13 1 Corinthians 9:1; Galatians 1:1), did not rebuke the Berean Christians when they examined “the Scriptures daily, to see whether these things” he was telling them were so (Acts 17:11). Keep in mind that the Bereans are described as “more noble-minded than those in Thessalonica.”

I have already recently posted material on Paul’s notion of Tradition (and that of the NT in general). I trust that readers can consult those (and hopefully deal with them). As Bill Clinton would say, “these allegations are FALSE!”

Could a Roman Catholic put the Pope on the spot like this?

Yes, and they have.

Could a Catholic challenge a Church doctrine with such an appeal?

Yes, if it is a non-infallible doctrine, such as limbo, the exact nature of purgatory (a place or a condition), Molinism vs. Thomism on the question of predestination, etc. But even if Catholics weren’t allowed at all to question Catholic teaching (which is largely the case), that is still a different proposition from whether or not that teaching is biblically-based or not. If the Catholic Church’s doctrine is indeed entirely harmonious with Scripture (as I believe), then it may, by its God-granted authority, limit the amount of “challenge” it receives from Catholics (just as Protestants have their Creeds and Confessions which must be adhered to within the denominational “circle”).

But that does not prove in any way, shape, or form that it is “unbiblical.” It doesshow that it denies sola Scriptura. The bottom line being that sola Scriptura and Scripture are not identical: they are two different entities. One is a concrete thing, the other, a man-made (and late-breaking and novel) tradition of how to interpret and apply the inspired Scriptures of God, implying a certain denial of authority to the Church and Tradition.

Notice that the Bereans were equal to Paul when it came to evaluating doctrine by means of Scripture.

It still isn’t a proof of sola Scriptura. I have searched the Scriptures up and down, too, to see if Catholic doctrine can be squared with it. I have concluded that it does – and in my humble opinion far more than is the case for any brand of Protestantism. So how can any Protestant judge me (i.e., from their perspective) if I have applied the exact same methodology (just not exclusively so)? As for the Bereans, see the paper: Did The Noble-Minded Bereans Believe In The Bible Alone? (Steve Ray).

Paul’s argument for the defense of sola fide is an appeal to Scripture: “For what does the Scripture say?” (Romans 4:2). Roman Catholic doctrine would add, “and Church tradition.”

In line with Paul himself, as I have shown. DeMar conveniently overlooks those portions of Paul which substantiate our view . . .

Paul “opposed” Peter, supposedly the first Pope, “to his face” on this doctrine (Galatians 2:11), demonstrating that “a man is not justified by the works of the Law but through faith [fide] in Christ Jesus” (verse 16).

So what? This has no relevance, as it was a rebuke for hypocrisy, and has nothing to do with infallibility.

Acts and Sola Scriptura
*
When church leaders met in Jerusalem to discuss theological matters, again, their appeal was to Scripture. Their deliberations had to “agree” with “the words of the Prophets” (Acts 15:15),

But of course. Catholics appeal to the Scripture just as much as Protestants do (ever see, e.g., the Vatican II Documents?). But this, of course, doesn’t eliminate the need for the authority of men. After all, in this very citation, James, the bishop of Jerusalem, reaches an authoritative decision based on the statement of Peter, who had previously spoken definitively (15:7-11). The Council is entirely in line with Catholic thought, even down to a papal pronouncement! :-) Since when do Protestants have councils at all?? So DeMar’s use of this verse only backfires heavily upon himself. This is typical of Protestant contra-Catholic proof-texting, and especially in this topic of sola Scriptura, where it is truly pathetic and insubstantial.

The Book of Acts is filled with an appeal to sola scriptura: the appointment of a successor to Judas (1:20); an explanation of the signs at Pentecost (2:14-21); the proof of the resurrection (2:30-36); the explanation for Jesus’ sufferings (3:18); the defense of Stephen (7); Philip’s encounter with the Ethiopian and the explanation of the suffering Redeemer (8:32-35): “Philip opened his mouth, and beginning with this Scripture [Isaiah 53] he preached Jesus to him” (verse 35). In the Book of Acts the appeal is always to Scripture (10:43; 13:27; 18:4-5; 24:14; 26:22-23, 27; 28:23). The word tradition is nowhere to be found.

Let it be known that such appeals are to Scripture, not the arbitrary and nonbiblical rule of faith of “Scripture Alone.” The two are not identical, and this assumes what the Protestant is trying to prove, and is thus a circular argument (which, unfortunately, happens all the time with regard to sola Scriptura . . ., kind of like a “fish in water” scenario). Acts is also filled with St. Peter exercising his papal prerogatives and leadership among the Apostles, recently given to him by our Lord Jesus. That is very curious, if sola Scriptura is true, and the papacy false, isn’t it?:

1. Peter’s name occurs first in all lists of apostles (Mt 10:2; Mk 3:16; Lk 6:14; Acts 1:13). Matthew even calls him the “first” (10:2). Judas Iscariot is invariably mentioned last.
2. Peter is regarded by the Jews (Acts 4:1-13) as the leader and spokesman of Christianity.
3. Peter is regarded by the common people in the same way (Acts 2:37-41; 5:15).
4. Peter’s words are the first recorded and most important in the upper room before Pentecost (Acts 1:15-22).
5. Peter takes the lead in calling for a replacement for Judas (Acts 1:22).
6. Peter is the first person to speak (and only one recorded) after Pentecost, so he was the first Christian to “preach the gospel” in the Church era (Acts 2:14-36).
7. Peter works the first miracle of the Church Age, healing a lame man (Acts 3:6-12).
8. Peter utters the first anathema (Ananias and Sapphira) emphatically affirmed by God (Acts 5:2-11)!
9. Peter’s shadow works miracles (Acts 5:15).
10. Peter is the first person after Christ to raise the dead (Acts 9:40).
11. Cornelius is told by an angel to seek out Peter for instruction in Christianity (Acts 10:1-6).
12. Peter is the first to receive the Gentiles, after a revelation from God (Acts 10:9-48).
13. Peter instructs the other apostles on the catholicity (universality) of the Church (Acts 11:5-17).
14. Peter is the object of the first divine interposition on behalf of an individual in the Church Age (an angel delivers him from prison – Acts 12:1-17).
15. The whole Church (strongly implied) offers “earnest prayer” for Peter when he is imprisoned (Acts 12:5).
16. Peter presides over and opens the first Council of Christianity, and lays down principles afterwards accepted by it (Acts 15:7-11).
17. Peter is often spoken of as distinct among apostles (Mk 1:36; Lk 9:28,32; *Acts 2:37*; 5:29; 1 Cor 9:5).
18. Peter is the first to recognize and refute heresy, in Simon Magus (Acts 8:14-24).
19. Peter’s proclamation at Pentecost (Acts 2:14-41) contains a fully authoritative interpretation of Scripture, a doctrinal decision and a disciplinary decree concerning members of the “House of Israel” (2:36) – an example of “binding and loosing.”
20. Peter was the first “charismatic”, having judged authoritatively the first instance of the gift of tongues as genuine (Acts 2:14-21).
21. Peter is the first to preach Christian repentance and baptism (Acts 2:38).
22. Peter (presumably) takes the lead in the first recorded mass baptism (Acts 2:41).
23. Peter commanded the first Gentile Christians to be baptized (Acts 10:44-48).
24. Peter was the first traveling missionary, and first exercised what would now be called “visitation of the churches” (Acts 9:32-38,43). Paul preached at Damascus immediately after his conversion (Acts 9:20), but hadn’t traveled there for that purpose (God changed his plans!). His missionary journeys begin in Acts 13:2.

Furthermore, the book of Acts, which DeMar claims as a de facto “Protestant book,” upholding sola Scriptura, condemns the sectarianism and division so typical of Protestantism (4:32), and speaks explicitly of bishops (20:28; cf. 20:17). It is in Acts as well that we find an explicit biblical proof of apostolic succession, a key element of the Catholic ecclesiological viewpoint, over against the Protestant notion of sola Scriptura:

St. Paul teaches us (Ephesians 2:20) that the Church is built on the foundation of the apostles, whom Christ Himself chose (John 6:70, Acts 1:2,13; cf. Matthew 16:18). In Mark 6:30 the twelve original disciples of Jesus are called apostles, and Matthew 10:1-5 and Revelation 21:14 speak of the twelve apostles. After Judas defected, the remaining eleven Apostles appointed his successor, Matthias (Acts 1:20-26). Since Judas is called a bishop (episkopos) in this passage (1:20), then by logical extension all the Apostles can be considered bishops (albeit of an extraordinary sort).

If the Apostles are bishops, and one of them was replaced by another, after the death, Resurrection, and Ascension of Christ, then we have an explicit example of apostolic succession in the Bible, taking place before 35 A.D. In like fashion, St. Paul appears to be passing on his office to Timothy (2 Timothy 4:1-6), shortly before his death, around 65 A.D. This succession shows an authoritative equivalency between Apostles and bishops, who are the successors of the Apostles. As a corollary, we are also informed in Scripture that the Church itself is perpetual, infallible, and indefectible (Matthew 16:18, John 14:26, 16:18). Why should the early Church be set up in one form and the later Church in another?

All of this biblical data is harmonious with the ecclesiological views of the Catholic Church. There has been some development over the centuries, but in all essentials, the biblical Church and clergy and the Catholic Church and clergy are one and the same.

No Tradition in Acts? DeMar has not looked very closely, has he, and when he did, it was obviously with “Protestant-colored” glasses . . .

Scripture and Tradition
*
But what of those verses that discuss the validity of tradition? These were very troubling to Scott and Kimberly Hahn, especially 2 Thessalonians 2:15: “So then, brethren, stand firm and hold to the traditions which you were taught, whether by word of mouth or by letter from us.” Before we look at this verse, consider the Old Testament. Prior to its inscripturation, most people heard God’s Word “in many portions and in many ways” (Hebrews 1:1). Some of this revelation came by way of oral instruction and written communiques. Over time this revelation came together in inscripturated form designated “Scripture” in the New Testament. By the time of Jesus’ birth this body of written revelation was recognized as being authoritative (Matthew 2:5; Luke 2:22-24). No church council was called to place its imprimatur on these Old Testament books. The Old Testament canon – Scripture – was not the product of the Old Testament church. “The church has no authority to control, create, or define the Word of God. Rather, the canon control, creates and defines the church of Christ.”(6)

Once the completed written revelation was in the hands of the people, appeal was always made to this body of material as Scripture. Scripture plus tradition is not a consideration.

But this is simply not true, as I have shown. If Scripture was intended to be the “death blow” of all Tradition, then certainly inspired Scripture itself would not have cited it, as I have clearly shown. Nor is this particular principle (that sola Scriptura would apply after the Bible canon was completed), itself found in the Bible; it is a completely arbitrary tradition of men. Nor is it even possible, since the canon was formulated by Church and Tradition in the first place (so that it is a self-defeating position). Lastly, the Fathers certainly weren’t aware of this allegedly ironclad principle. Why is it that they were so ignorant as to constantly cite Tradition as a piece with Scripture? St. Augustine even explicitly sanctions oral tradition!

In fact, Jesus condemns the Pharisees and scribes because they made the claim that their religious traditions were on an equal par with Scripture (Mark 7:1-13).

Absolutely not. The above passage never states this. It is simply assumed – as so often in the defense of sola Scriptura: endless circular arguments. Jesus is condemning false tradition as opposed to true Jewish/Christian Tradition, precisely as Catholics argue with regard to Jesus’ attitudes toward tradition in general. Jesus says, “You abandon the commandment of God and hold to human tradition” (Mk 7:8; NRSV; cf. Mt 15:3). But the phrase “commandment of God” is not restricted to the written word of the Bible. That is a gratuitous assumption.

Furthermore, He says that the Pharisees are “making void the word of God through your tradition that you have handed on” (Mk 7:13; cf. Mt 15:6). “Word of God” is also not restricted to the Bible: that is a very silly (but unfortunately frequent) Protestant assumption. “Commandment” is used in a generic sense of God’s truth (Tradition, if you will) — not necessarily restricted to the OT, in the following verses: Rom 7:8-13 (6 times), 16:26, 2 Pet 3:2, 1 Jn 2:7. “Commandment” (i.e., singular), “word of God,” “gospel,” and “tradition,” are indeed all essentially synonymous and used interchangeably, as the following biblical comparisons (RSV) demonstrate:

1 Corinthians 11:2 . . . maintain the traditions . . . even as I have delivered them to you.

2 Thessalonians 2:15 . . . hold to the traditions . . . taught . . . by word of mouth or by letter.

2 Thessalonians 3:6 . . . the tradition that you received from us.

1 Corinthians 15:1 . . . the gospel, which you received . . .

Galatians 1:9 . . . the gospel . . . which you received.

1 Thessalonians 2:9 . . . we preached to you the gospel of God.

Acts 8:14 . . . Samaria had received the word of God . . .

1 Thessalonians 2:13 . . . you received the word of God, which you heard from us, . . .

2 Peter 2:21 . . . the holy commandment delivered to them.

Jude 3 . . . the faith which was once for all delivered to the saints.

In St. Paul’s two letters to the Thessalonians alone we see that three of the above terms are used interchangeably. Clearly then, “tradition” is not a dirty word in the Bible, particularly for St. Paul. If, on the other hand, one wants to maintain that it is, then “gospel” and “word of God” are also bad words! Thus, the commonly-asserted dichotomy between the gospel and tradition, or between the Bible and tradition is unbiblical itself and must be discarded by the truly biblically-minded person as (quite ironically) a corrupt tradition of men.

These considerations, when applied to the interpretation of Mark 7:1-13, make mincemeat of DeMar’s interpretation, in my opinion. The passage has nothing to do with Scripture vs. Tradition; rather, it is all about True Tradition (including Scripture) vs. False (Pharisaical) traditions of men.

The Roman Catholic answer to this is self-refuting: “Jesus did not condemn all traditions; he condemned only erroneous traditions, whether doctrines or practices, that undercut Christian truths.”(7) Precisely. But how does one determine whether a tradition is an “erroneous tradition”? Sola scriptura!

No!!!; according to both the Bible and the Fathers, it is – in the final analysis – the historical test of “what has been received,” not the Bible Alone. This is easily demonstrable. Since Protestants have – by and large – abandoned apostolic succession, they are thrown back upon their own competing, subjective biblical interpretations in order to resolve doctrinal controversies (which method is clearly an abominable failure).

The Catholic Church maintains that the appeal must be made to the Church whose authority is based on Scripture plus tradition. But this is begging the question. How could anyone ever claim that a tradition is erroneous if the Catholic Church begins with the premise that Scripture and tradition, as determined by the Catholic Church, are authoritative?

It is not circular, because the claim of the Church is always based upon both Scripture and apostolic Tradition, as just explained. If it can be traced historically, it is not simply a “blind faith belief” based on unsubstantiated Catholic authority alone (precisely as is true concerning the very Resurrection of Christ, which is historically-based and grounded in eyewitness testimony, NOT just the word of some church). DeMar – I hate to say – exhibits gross ignorance, both of Church history and of Catholic ecclesiology.

How, then, is Paul using tradition in 2 Thessalonians 2:15? New Testament tradition is the oral teaching of Jesus passed down to the apostles. This is why Paul could write:

1 Corinthians 15:1-4 Now I make known to you, brethren, the gospel which I preached to you, which also you received, in which you also stand, by which also you are saved, if you hold fast the word which I preached to you, unless you believed in vain. For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures, and that He was buried, and that He was raised on the third day according to the scriptures.

In time, these New Testament doctrines — traditions — became inscripturated in the same way Old Testament doctrines became inscripturated. When the Old Testament canon closed, the canon was referred to as Scripture. The same is true of the development of the New Testament canon. After a complete end had been made of the Old Covenant order in A.D. 70, the canon closed. All New Testament books were written prior to the destruction of Jerusalem in A.D. 70. All that God wanted His church to know about “faith and life” can be found in Scripture, Old and New Testament revelation. The Westminster Confession of Faith states it this way:

All synods and councils, since the Apostles’ times, whether general or particular, may err; and many have erred. Therefore they are not to be made the rule of faith, or practice; but to be used as a help in both (Ephesians 2:20; Acts 17:11; 1 Corinthians 2:5; 2 Corinthians 1:14) (WCF 31:4).

This entirely begs the question, because DeMar merely assumes what he thinks he is proving, without argument and proof – the following tenet:

“All that God wanted His church to know about “faith and life” can be found in Scripture, Old and New Testament revelation.”

This needs to be proved!, and it seems to me that the idea ought to be in Scripture itself, if indeed it is true. It is no proof at all to bring forth endless citations of Scripture as allegedly “proving” sola Scriptura. That is not inconsistent with the Catholic or patristic view, and I have shown that the Bible also appeals to non-biblical opinions as well. That in itself is not fatal to sola Scriptura (since the biblical writers could cite any work which contained kernels of truth). What it does, do, however, I believe, is mitigate against this notion that nothing outside Scripture could any longer hold any authority, after the canonization of Scripture.

Any “tradition” that the church develops after the close of the canon is non-revelational.

But we agree with that. We hold that public revelation ceased with the Apostles, and merely develops thereafter.

Its authority is not in any way equal to the Bible. All creeds and confessions are subject to change based on appeal to Scripture alone.

Scripture, Tradition, and Church are the three legs of the “Christian stool,” and all of a piece, so we think it is foolish and nonsensical to try to pit them against each other. We contend that such a view is the biblical (and patristic) outlook. I have tried to demonstrate that with dozens of biblical proofs – and ours are relevant to our views, whereas the sola Scriptura “proofs” offered so far are non sequiturs and circular. I have seen no “proof” thus far approaching a relevant one, let alone strong or compelling. And this has always been the case, in my experience. I have more debates on this topic on my website than any other topic.

The denial of sola scriptura is Roman Catholicism’s foundational error.

If that is so, then we are in great shape, as sola Scriptura is perhaps the weakest link in the Protestant chain. DeMar needs to change the above wording a bit to be accurate: “The espousal of sola scriptura is Protestantism’s foundational error.”

If someone wants to contact Dr. DeMar and ask him if he is willing to defend his thesis against my critiques, I would eagerly welcome that. I will even print his replies on my website and let the world judge who has Scripture on their side. In my opinion (with all due respect), Dr. DeMar has made an insubstantial and fallacious attack upon the Catholic Church.

In Christ,

Dave Armstrong

Letter from Gary DeMar: 23 January 1999
Dear Dave,

Thank you for your interest in the Sola Scriptura article. I’m amazed how many people have read and benefited by it. The article was designed to respond to a poorly reasoned book by the Hahns; it was not meant to be a comprehensive statement on Sola Scriptura. Having been a Roman Catholic, I cannot imagine anyone converting. That was the essence of the article. There are enough Protestant apologists out there who are doing a good job in pointing out the errors of RCs. I have too many writing projects on my plate to get bogged down in another debate that was settled for me in 1973.

Gary DeMar

Concluding Comments and Challenges (August 2000)
1. If the above examples are the sort of reasons that caused Gary DeMar to “settle” his own difficulties and to leave Catholicism (I don’t know, but one would suspect as much), they are certainly far more insubstantial and “poorly reasoned” than Scott Hahn’s many biblically oriented reasons for converting to Catholicism.

2. I understand priorities and time commitments, though I am most disappointed that Dr. DeMar does not thus far wish to take up this golden opportunity to defend his thesis, and have his words published in their entirety on a major Catholic website (an audience he would clearly wish to convince). Perhaps, then, one of these other Protestant apologists he cites would like to take a shot? As for me, I am willing to defend any of my published papers against anyone at any time, and fully interact with critiques. And if my reasoning in any individual instance is shown to be faulty, unbiblical, or illogical, I will either retract it or modify it, as the case may be. If it is not shown to be fatally flawed, I retain my present position, as should be expected.

3. Dr. DeMar “cannot imagine anyone converting [to Catholicism].” He is entitled to his opinion, but again, if his reasons for that opinion are the ones above, or as poorly argued, fallacious, and as unsupported from Holy Scripture as the foregoing, then I cannot imagine any fair-minded and biblically oriented person being swayed by them, having seen how a Catholic would reply (and with a great abundance of Scripture at that). I welcome Dr. DeMar or any other Protestant apologist to critique my own conversion story and reasons for my move (in 1990). It is available on my website in several variations.

2017-05-27T11:15:47-04:00

PaulConversion3

The Conversion of St. Paul (1600), by Caravaggio (1571-1610) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

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Joshua Scott is a Protestant who responded to my challenge to interact point-by-point with one of my articles. He chose to wrangle with the section on the Jerusalem council from my book, The Catholic Verses (2004), and some additional material in an older paper on this topic. His words will be in blue. My words from the book will be in green, and my present counter-replies in regular black.

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In the Jerusalem Council (Acts 15:6-30), we see Peter and James speaking with authority. This Council makes an authoritative pronouncement (citing the Holy Spirit) which was binding on all Christians:

Acts 15:28-29: For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things: that you abstain from what has been sacrificed to idols and from blood and from what is strangled and from unchastity.  In the next chapter, we read that Paul, Timothy, and Silas were traveling around “through the cities,” and Scripture says that:

. . . they delivered to them for observance the decisions which had been reached by the apostles and elders who were at Jerusalem. (Acts 16:4)

This is Church authority. They simply proclaimed the decree as true and binding — with the sanction of the Holy Spirit Himself! Thus we see in the Bible an instance of the gift of infallibility that the Catholic Church claims for itself when it assembles in a council.

Well, it’s Apostolic authority certainly, but to conflate Apostolic authority with conciliar/church authority requires more than an ipse dixit.  The Apostles were, by any Biblical standard, prophets, and thus had the same authority prophets always had in the OT, namely, the authority of God Himself, Who spoke by/through them.  But they had to provide evidence of that authority to differentiate themselves from false prophets, since anyone could claim to be a prophet.  So the question is, who is a prophet?  How do we know they have prophetic authority?  This question has to be answered in such a way that we can say church councils are full of prophets for this point, as argued here, to be more than a non sequitur.  Alternatively, you would have to show that what made the Acts 15 decision authoritative was not that it was prophetic/Apostolic, but rather because it was done in council.  Since this is just the broad outline of the argument, I’ll reserve discussion of those questions for later as they arise.

It was a council, not just of apostles, but also “elders.” I made an argument along these lines in an article of mine. Here is a good chunk of it:

The Jerusalem council presents “apostles” and “elders” in conjunction six times:

Acts 15:2 (RSV). . .  Paul and Barnabas and some of the others were appointed to go up to Jerusalem to the apostles and the elders about this question.

Acts 15:4 When they came to Jerusalem, they were welcomed by the church and the apostles and the elders, . . .

Acts 15:6 The apostles and the elders were gathered together to consider this matter.

Acts 15:22 Then it seemed good to the apostles and the elders, with the whole church,  . . .

*

Acts 15:23. . . “The brethren, both the apostles and the elders, to the brethren who are of the Gentiles in Antioch and Syria and Cili’cia, . . .

Acts 16:4 . . . they delivered to them for observance the decisions which had been reached by the apostles and elders who were at Jerusalem.

“Elders” here is the Greek presbuteros, which referred to a leader of a local congregation, so that Protestants think of it primarily as a “pastor”, whereas Catholics, Orthodox, and some Anglicans regard it as the equivalent of “priest.” In any event, all agree that it is a lower office in the scheme of things than an apostle: even arguably lower than a bishop (which is mentioned several times in the New Testament).

What is striking, then, is that the two offices in the Jerusalem council are presented as if there is little or no distinction between them, at least in terms of their practical authority. It’s not an airtight argument, I concede. We could, for example, say that “bishops and the pope gathered together at the Second Vatican Council.” We know that the pope had a higher authority. It may be that apostles here had greater authority.

But we don’t know that with certainty, from Bible passages that mention them. They seem to be presented as having in effect, “one man one vote.” They “consider” the issue “together” (15:6). It’s the same for the “decisions which had been reached” (16:4).

Therefore, if such a momentous, binding decision was arrived at by apostles and elders, it sure seems to suggest what Catholics believe: that bishops are successors of the apostles. We already see the two offices working together in Jerusalem and making a joint decision. It’s a concrete example of precisely what the Catholic Church claims about apostolic succession and the sublime authority conveyed therein. . . .

The subject at hand is “whether sola Scriptura is the true rule of faith, and what the Bible can inform us about that.” I made a biblical argument that does not support sola Scriptura at all (quite the contrary).

Before going any further, I should describe what I mean by “sola Scriptura,” since my view is probably different than that of the average Protestant.  My approach to the issue starts with the basic position that claims to authority require evidence.  I think everyone would assent to this (if not, I’ll make my claim to authority now and ask you to hand over all your money, thank you very much!).  With that as a given, once I accept Christianity I have to ascertain what sources (be they men or writings or what-have-you) are authoritative based on the best evidence available.  My review of the evidence (and I don’t claim to be an expert by any means, but I’ve studied this more than the average Christian) leads me to conclude that Scripture has met the burden of proof required to be considered authoritative.  Thus far, I have not found any other claims to have met this burden of proof.  Thus, my view of sola Scriptura is not a doctrinal position that Scripture is the only authority so much as an epistemological conclusion (and a tentative one at that) that Scripture has met the requisite burden of proof, while other people/things claiming authority have not met that burden.  If a person came along and started doing things like Jesus and the Apostles did, and did not contradict Scripture or otherwise teach me to abandon God, I would probably consider that person an authority because he would be a prophet.

Everyone agrees that Scripture is an authority, and indeed is inspired. The question is whether it is the only final infallible authority in Christianity. Our argument is that inspired Scripture itself refers to an authoritative Church and tradition (both of which can bind Christians to their teachings); therefore, they are authorities, too, and part of the rule of faith. The Jerusalem council is an example of the biblical teaching on an authoritative Church.

This argument concerning the Jerusalem Council was used in expanded form in my book, The Catholic Verses: 95 Bible Passages That Confound Protestants. Here is that portion of the book, in its entirety (indented):

THE BINDING AUTHORITY OF COUNCILS, LED BY THE HOLY SPIRIT

Acts 15:28-29: “For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things: that you abstain from what has been sacrificed to idols and from blood and from what is strangled and from unchastity. If you keep yourselves from these, you will do well. Farewell.”

Acts 16:4: “As they went on their way through the cities, they delivered to them for observance the decisions which had been reached by the apostles and elders who were at Jerusalem.”

These passages offer a proof that the early Church held to a notion of the infallibility of Church councils, and to a belief that they were especially guided by the Holy Spirit (precisely as in Catholic Church doctrine concerning ecumenical councils). Accordingly, Paul takes the message of the conciliar decree with him on his evangelistic journeys and preaches it to the people. The Church had real authority; it was binding and infallible.

This is a far cry from the Protestant principle of sola Scriptura — which presumes that councils and popes can err, and thus need to be corrected by Scripture. Popular writer and radio expositor R.C. Sproul expresses the standard evangelical Protestant viewpoint on Christian authority:

For the Reformers no church council, synod, classical theologian, or early church father is regarded as infallible. All are open to correction and critique . . .

(in Boice, 109)

This doesn’t really add anything new to the basic argument above, so my comments there hold.

This is the very topic I understood we were debating: my argument about the Jerusalem council! I proposed just the portion from my book for you to respond to, but you went and replied to the entire paper, and have dismissed this (a key part of the argument) without reply.

One Protestant reply to these biblical passages might be to say that since this Council of Jerusalem referred to in Acts consisted of apostles, and since an apostle proclaimed the decree, both possessed a binding authority which was later lost (as Protestants accept apostolic authority as much as Catholics do). Furthermore, the incidents were recorded in inspired, infallible Scripture. They could argue that none of this is true of later Catholic councils; therefore, the attempted analogy is null and void.

But this is a bit simplistic, since Scripture is our model for everything, including Church government, and all parties appeal to it for their own views. If Scripture teaches that a council of the Church is authoritative and binding, then it is implausible and unreasonable to assert that no future council can be so simply because it is not conducted by apostles.

Here you respond to an argument (similar to mine above) that the council is not binding qua council with an assumption that Scripture teaches that councils are authoritative qua councils.  This begs the question without answering it.

I haven’t begged any question. The council is obviously authoritative (as a council): having been led by apostles (with elders), with the direct assistance of the Holy Spirit, and as indicated in the way that the Apostle Paul proclaimed its binding decision to all and sundry (Acts 16:4 above, that you ignored).

Scripture is our model for doctrine and practice (nearly all Christians agree on this). The Bible doesn’t exist in an historical vacuum, but has import for the day-to-day life of the Church and Christians for all time. St. Paul told us to imitate him (see, e.g., 2 Thess. 3:9). And he went around proclaiming decrees of the Church. No one was at liberty to disobey these decrees on the grounds of “conscience,” or to declare by “private judgment” that they were in error (per Luther).

It would be foolish to argue that how the apostles conducted the governance of the Church has no relation whatsoever to how later Christians engage in the same task. It would seem rather obvious that Holy Scripture assumes that the model of holy people (patriarchs, prophets, and apostles alike) is to be followed by Christians. This is the point behind entire chapters, such as (notably) Hebrews 11.

Besides the fact that you’ve so far not addressed the key distinction of Apostles having authority vs. a council qua council having authority,

Now I have (lengthy citation of my own article above): mere elders seemed  to have equal practical authority in the council. It wasn’t just a matter of apostles, but men just like you and I, who are non-apostles.

I would also point out here that admonitions to imitate holy people (Apostles included) are about private behavior.  We have explicit passages on how to handle church governance, such as Jesus’ admonition in Matthew 18 to take your quarrel to your brother alone, then to 2-3 witnesses, then to the church (congregation is how I would take that), and some material in the pastoral epistles on offices and whatnot, but to say that because Apostles (who no longer walk among us) held a council to address a particular question is hardly an explicit directive that all such disputes would be handled thus by later councils not composed of Apostles/prophets.

See my previous reply. Yours is the usual Protestant response (insofar as the council is dealt with at all). The elders being involved jointly in the decision-making process, overcomes the objection.

When the biblical model agrees with their theology, Protestants are all too enthusiastic to press their case by using Scriptural examples. The binding authority of the Church was present here, and there is no indication whatever that anyone was ever allowed to dissent from it. That is the fundamental question. Catholics wholeheartedly agree that no new Christian doctrines were handed down after the apostles. Christian doctrine was present in full from the beginning; it has only organically developed since.

John Calvin has a field day running down the Catholic Church in his commentary for Acts 15:28. It is clear that he is uncomfortable with this verse and must somehow explain it in Protestant terms. But he is not at all unanswerable. The fact remains that the decree was made, and it was binding. It will not do (in an attempt to undercut ecclesial authority) to proclaim that this particular instance was isolated. For such a judgment rests on Calvin’s own completely arbitrary authority (which he claims but cannot prove). Calvin merely states his position (rather than argue it) in the following passage:

. . . in vain do they go about out of the same to prove that the Church had power given to decree anything contrary to the word of God. The Pope hath made such laws as seemed best to him, contrary to the word of God, whereby he meant to govern the Church;

This strikes me as somewhat desperate argumentation. First of all, Catholics never have argued that the pope has any power to make decrees contrary to the Bible (making Calvin’s slanderous charge a straw man). Calvin goes on to use vivid language, intended to resonate with already strong emotions and ignorance of Catholic theology. It’s an old lawyer’s tactic: when one has no case, attempt to caricature the opponent, obfuscate, and appeal to emotions rather than reason.

I’m not here to defend Calvin, but I will point out that another possible way to read his remark that doesn’t make it a straw man is to read him as saying that Catholics believe the Church has power to decree X, which happens to be contrary to Scripture, and thus Catholics are wrong on that point but don’t realize it because of their mistaken view of Scripture.  Granted, I’m not seeing the full context here, but on its face that seems like a plausible reading.

You’re still not addressing the central issue here: the binding nature of the conciliar decree.

Far more sensible and objective are the comments on Acts 15:28 and 16:4 from the Presbyterian scholar, Albert Barnes, in his famous Barnes’ Notes commentary:

For it seemed good to the Holy Ghost. This is a strong and undoubted claim to inspiration. It was with special reference to the organization of the church that the Holy Spirit had been promised to them by the Lord Jesus, Matthew 18:18-20; John 14:26.

In this instance it was the decision of the council in a case submitted to it; and implied an obligation on the Christians to submit to that decision.

Fortunately, I don’t have to believe Barnes.  Matthew 18:18-20 deals with 2-3 witnesses, then a full congregation, by my reading, not a hierarchy.  John 14:26 has Jesus speaking to his disciples personally without any reference to those who follow them in some visible institution, so there’s no particular reason to believe what he says has application beyond those he was directly speaking to (the Apostles).

You continue to ignore the issue at hand: the council and its authority. I suppose you can skirt around it and avoid it if you like, but then we’re not discussing it. I lose patience with that very quickly.

Barnes actually acknowledges that the passage has some implication for ecclesiology in general. It is remarkable, on the other hand, that Calvin seems concerned about the possibility of a group of Christians (in this case, a council) being led by the Holy Spirit to achieve a true doctrinal decree, whereas he has no problem with the idea that individuals can achieve such certainty:

. . . of the promises which they are wont to allege, many were given not less to private believers than to the whole Church [cites Mt 28:20, Jn 14:16-17] . . . we are not to give permission to the adversaries of Christ to defend a bad cause, by wresting Scripture from its proper meaning. (Institutes, IV, 8, 11)

But it will be objected, that whatever is attributed in part to any of the saints, belongs in complete fulness to the Church. Although there is some semblance of truth in this, I deny that it is true. (Institutes, IV, 8, 12)

Calvin believes that Scripture is self-authenticating. I appeal, then, to the reader to judge the above passages. Do they seem to support the notion of an infallible Church council (apart from the question of whether the Catholic Church, headed by the pope, is that Church)? Do Calvin’s arguments succeed? For Catholics, the import of Acts 15:28 is clear and undeniable.

For reasons I’ve already adduced, the import of Acts 15 is not so clear.  Whether Calvin’s own view is correct is not really pertinent to my argument, and since the quote seems to be lacking some significant context I’ll forego comment.

See my previous reply.

Are not apostles models for us? Of course, they are. St. Paul tells us repeatedly to imitate him (1 Cor 4:16, Phil 3:17, 2 Thess 3:7-9). [James] White would have us believe that since this is the apostolic period and so forth, it is completely unique, and any application of the known events of that time to our own is “irrelevant.” He acts as if the record of the Book of Acts has no historical, pedagogical import other than as a specimen of early Christian history, as if it is a piece of mere archaeology, rather than the living Word of God, which is (to use one of Protestants’ favorite verses) “profitable for teaching . . . and for training in righteousness” (2 Tim 3:16-17). So now the historical passages of the New Testament are “irrelevant”? Only the straight-out doctrinal teaching can be used to ascertain correct doctrine? If so, then where is that taught in Scripture itself, etc.? Passages like Hebrews 11, which recount the deeds of great saints and biblical heroes, imply that they are a model for us.

That depends on what you mean by “models.”  I can’t model Peter and Paul entirely because I don’t have the signs and wonders they had to back me up.  Neither does the Pope, nor the bishops (even in council).  That’s a relevant difference.  To pretend it isn’t is to ignore basically all Biblical teaching about how to handle prophets.  Which, by the way, is why it’s a straw man to say White’s argument makes the Apostolic period unique–it actually makes that period just like every other period during which a prophet lived.  As to the pedagogical import of Acts, you don’t believe the prohibition of blood and strangled things still applies today, I presume, so even you don’t think everything in Acts has direct application for all Christian history.  Any time you want to discuss relevance, you have to determine why something is relevant.  The Mosaic Law isn’t terribly relevant to us today in some ways, but it is in others.  I would say the same as to the Jerusalem council–it doesn’t necessarily tell us how we should handle doctrinal disputes, but it does tell us important things that are useful to know for other reasons (more on that at the end).

Why does Paul consider it binding for all Christians?

White’s viewpoint as to the implications of the Jerusalem Council is theologically and spiritually naive or simplistic because it would force us to accept recorded, inspired apostolic teaching about the Church and ecclesiology (whatever it is), yet overlook and ignore the very application of that doctrine to real life, that the apostles lived out in that real life. We would have to believe that this council in Jerusalem had nothing whatsoever to do with later governance of the Church, even though apostles were involved in it. That, in effect, would be to believe that we are smarter and more knowledgeable about Christian theology than the apostles were. They set out and governed the Church, yet they were dead-wrong, or else what they did has no bearing whatsoever on later Christian ecclesiology. Since this is clearly absurd, White’s view that goes along with it, collapses.

Force us to accept what recorded teaching about ecclesiology?  The application of what doctrine?  Nowhere in the Bible does it record the Apostles or Jesus as saying as a matter of doctrine that disputes should be handled by a council. 

That’s what the Jerusalem council provides: a model for just that. You referred above to: “Jesus’ admonition in Matthew 18 to take your quarrel to your brother alone, then to 2-3 witnesses, then to the church (congregation is how I would take that)”. That’s already some sort of collective. It’s the church; it’s authorities.

Thus, all we are left with, again, is the bare fact that in this case a council convened and a decision was handed down by Apostles who had signs and wonders

And by elders, as I have pointed out . . .

Absent a clear teaching that the authority they had would be passed to others, I have no obligation to believe such a thing, and in fact to argue from Acts 15 for such passing on of authority is simple non sequitur. 

Apostolic succession is that argument, which I have made in many articles.

Where much is given, much is required (Luke 12:48), and by implication if little is given, little is required.  If I’m not given reason to believe in the passing down of authority, I’m not required to believe it, and thus I would fall back on the default position that prophets have authority, and non-prophets don’t. 

Okay. You would have to familiarize yourself with the many arguments for apostolic succession. Check out my papers on the topic on my Church web page.

Moreover, this is a foolish approach because it would require us to believe that Paul and other apostles were in error with regard to how Christian or Church authority works. The preached a certain thing in this instance. If they believed in sola Scriptura (as models for us), then they would have taught what they knew to be Scripture (in those days, the Old Testament), and that alone, as binding and authoritative (for this is what sola Scriptura holds). If they didn’t understand authority in the way that God desired, how could they be our models? And if the very apostles who wrote Scripture didn’t understand it, and applied it incorrectly in such an important matter, how can we be expected to, from that same Scripture? A stream can’t rise above its source.

It seems pretty clear that this is a straw man of even White’s view of sola Scriptura.  Neither he nor I argue that sola Scriptura is always the rule.  Clearly, when you have prophets (as the Apostles were) walking in your midst, you heed them.  Thus, when a prophet tells you something, you treat it as God’s word even if it isn’t yet written in Scripture.  Although interestingly, in this particular case, I think it’s fair to say that part of the decree was, in fact, merely application of OT Scriptures, but I’ll explain that at the end.

Once again, you ignore the fact that elders co-presided at the council. We’re just going around in circles. Nothing is being accomplished.

Joshua at this point keeps replying to parts of my paper that I didn’t propose debating in the first place . . .

there’s not much for me to say here except to refer back to my point about prophets.  Either we need reasons to believe current councils are composed of prophets, or we need evidence that councils qua councils are meant to have essentially the same teaching authority as prophets.  So far that’s merely an assumption on your part.

I also wrote in my paper on the Jerusalem council, cited at length above:

The council, by joint authority of apostles and elders, sent off Judas and Silas as its messengers, even though they “were themselves prophets” (15:32).  Prophets were the highest authorities in the old covenant (with direct messages from God), and here mere “elders” are commissioning them.

You keep referring to the “example” set by the Apostles.  I’ve mentioned before that their example, to the extent we are explicitly told to follow it, seems to be more about personal character than church governance (the contexts of I Corinthians 4:16 and 11:1 seem to pretty clearly indicate this, in my opinion).  But let’s assume for a minute that we can’t really know Paul meant it that narrowly.  What other examples are the Apostles setting?  Assuming the Jerusalem Council is an example, is it an example of a council qua council making infallible decisions, or an example of a council of prophets making infallible decisions?  How could you know which of the two is the case? 

By the fact that elders participate, and instruct those who call themselves “prophets.”

Everyone who speaks at the Council is an acknowledged leader.  Even James, who was not one of the Twelve Apostles, presumably had the gifts of the Spirit to back up his own claims to authority or he wouldn’t have been considered a pillar of the church.  So even if the Council is an example, it’s unclear that any old council, whether it had prophets or not, would be following the “example.” 

Paul said that we ought to imitate him, and he proclaimed the conciliar decisions as binding upon all Christians.

In wrapping up my direct response, I would point out that your argument here seems entirely based on the unwarranted, unsupported assumption that because prophets (the Apostles) met in a council to decide a matter, future councils (without prophets) would have similar authority.  And even that assumption begs several questions about what a proper “church council” is, how to know when you have properly constituted one, what kind of majority or quorum one needs, etc.  Rather than substantively supporting these arguments, you simply try to show that White’s counterargument is not provable from Scripture.  While that might be true, neither is yours, based on my comments above, so you’re both in the same position, best I can tell.  In fairness, maybe this is because the article is in the nature of a response rather than stand-alone argument, but the point remains that this article doesn’t substantiate your view, in light of my responses above regarding verses about oral tradition, unrecorded teachings, etc.

My position is that claims to authority require proof, as stated above.  If you’re going to claim church councils have authority over me, you have to give me evidence of that.

Acts 16:4 is that evidence.

For the reasons stated above, I don’t think you’ve provided such evidence.  You can’t show that the Apostles or Christ intended for all disputes to be handled by councils (indeed, it’s not clear the issue couldn’t have been settled in a private discussion between Paul, Peter, and James, since they’re the only ones we know spoke), and you can’t even prove Christ and the Apostles taught anything that wasn’t at some point recorded in Scripture.

Paul and Barnabas did not settle the question themselves, and so they went to the council to settle it:

Acts 15:2  And when Paul and Barnabas had no small dissension and debate with them, Paul and Barnabas and some of the others were appointed to go up to Jerusalem to the apostles and the elders about this question.

Note how apostles went to a council with apostles and elders, to settle the question. This shows that a council was the way to go about it.

So, in my view, your case remains to be made.  That’s all well and good, but one needs a good explanation as an alternative.  If I have no alternative to your theory, then yours still wins by default as having no competitors.  So now I’m going to set forth my basic theory of what’s going on in Acts 15.

The background, of course, is that Jews were telling Gentile converts they had to be circumcised.  That was the question they were all there to discuss.  The answer, I submit, was already known.  Peter had already told the believers in Jerusalem about Cornelius’ conversion, and how he had received the Holy Spirit without being circumcised, and even before he was baptized.  At that point, the believers rejoiced that the gospel was given to the nations (Acts 11:18).  There was no indication that anyone question whether uncircumcised Gentiles could be saved–indeed that was basically the whole point of the episode in Acts 10-11, starting with Peter’s vision.

So when the “decision” of the council comes down, it’s not new to the extent it says Gentiles don’t need to be circumcised.  The other half of the decree is the four-item list of things Gentiles do need to observe from the Law–No blood, no strangled things, no pollutions of idols, and fornication/unchastity. 

It may not be totally new, but what was new then, and most unProtestant now, is the fact (confirmed by Paul) that it is binding upon all.

The question is, why those four?  My answer would be that those four things are immoral, but not obvious if you weren’t already a Jew who knew the history contained in Genesis and the precepts of the Law.   This is why James says in Acts 15:21, after listing the four things, “for Moses has had throughout many generations those who preach him….” So for blood and strangled animals (essentially the same prohibition, since a strangled animal still has the blood in it), the basis for that goes all the way back to Noah, when God first gives humans permission to eat animals but forbids consumption of blood because that is for atonement (see Genesis 9:3-4 and compare Leviticus 17:10-11).

A Gentile wouldn’t understand that consuming blood was problematic because they wouldn’t know that God from the beginning set that aside for atonement purposes.  Similarly, it wouldn’t be obvious to a Gentile that idols were something that represented actual demonic forces or fallen angels, and that being associated with them in certain ways had more import than the merely surface level.  Finally, a Gentile would also not necessarily understand why any given kind of sex would be wrong, since it seems like a natural thing to do even outside the marriage context.

So what the decree is getting at is that Gentiles don’t need to keep the whole Law, but there are aspects of it they do need to keep.  Some of those are obvious (don’t murder), but some aren’t.  The ones that aren’t obvious are the ones listed in the decree.  So when it says “it seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us,” I think there’s a two-fold meaning there: 1) We already knew from the Holy Spirit, through Peter, that you Gentiles didn’t have to keep the whole Law; 2) But the Spirit also guided us to know which things you should be made aware of as moral precepts which wouldn’t be clear to you since you don’t have a background in Judaism.

Even though point #2 implies some divine guidance in the council itself, the decision is still based on the OT Scriptures, which if studied carefully enough would have revealed the same thing without divine guidance, though it would have taken much longer and required a fairly astute mind to figure out.

That’s just it: there was no tradition in the old covenant saying that circumcision was not required to enter into the covenant. You have it exactly backwards.

Does this imply that councils after the Apostles would receive the same guidance?

Yes.

I don’t see how it does. 

You have not seen a lot of things, so it doesn’t surprise me at all. What people see is guided by (almost determined by) their prior presuppositions.

Bear in mind the central question already had an answer for anyone paying attention.  Paul and Barnabas went to dispute this with the elders in Jerusalem not so much to get new information, then, but to have Peter and the other elders set the renegade Judaizers straight, which explains Peter’s remarks in Acts 15:7-10, where he refers back to his meeting with Cornelius as something they all know and which showed God counted Gentiles as pure.  He’s literally pointing out that everyone already ought to know this, just not in those words.

Also, these were the Apostles, with signs and wonders to back up their authority.  I’ve harped on this point quite a bit, but it bears repeating: Absent solid evidence that a council is made up of prophets, or that councils were intended to be infallible, we have no reason to believe a given council is infallible just because it’s a council.  We don’t have the former, and for reasons I’ve given above I don’t think we have the latter either.

And I have repeated over and over that elders participated in a seemingly equal status with apostles. These elders even send or appoint apostles, as we see in Acts 15:2-3 and again in 15:25, and they send and appoint prophets as well, as seen in 15:27, 32.

You don’t think it’s just a tad unfair that after I explicitly asked you if you thought I missed something, to let me know so I could clarify, that you then publish it and say that I just ignored a bunch of stuff? Also, your response to my comment about James, the one non-Apostle named as a participant, is utterly non-responsive, and you fail to realize it’s implications for the other parts of my argument (where admittedly I sloppily referred only to Apostles, which I meant to edit but forgot).

And relatedly, your reliance on the presence of “mere” elders is misplaced. Peter was an elder (I Peter 5:1), so there’s no reason to think the elders in the Council were necessarily less weighty than James, at worst. Other than, of course, your own presupposition. And in any event it’s you, not me, who ignored key points of argument–you repeat in your response the same question-begging argument that because the issue was debated in a council, it was the conciliar nature that made the decree binding. It’s like you don’t even grasp the distinction I’m making between Council qua Council and Council as lead by prophets with signs and wonders.

This is untrue. You wrote: “Assuming the Jerusalem Council is an example, is it an example of a council qua council making infallible decisions, or an example of a council of prophets making infallible decisions? How could you know which of the two is the case?”

I replied: “By the fact that elders participate, and instruct those who call themselves ‘prophets.’ . . . These elders even send or appoint apostles, as we see in Acts 15:2-3 and again in 15:25, and they send and appoint prophets as well, as seen in 15:27, 32.”

You never even address the issue of signs and wonders at all. Which means you ignored the crux of my entire response.

I didn’t, because it was completely irrelevant to the discussion (why discuss elementary things that are obvious in Scripture?). There were no signs and wonders at the council. And there weren’t because they weren’t necessary in a Church council of all Christian elders and apostles. Signs and wonders are for nonbelievers, not believers:

Acts 4:29-31, 33 (RSV) And now, Lord, look upon their threats, and grant to thy servants to speak thy word with all boldness, [30] while thou stretchest out thy hand to heal, and signs and wonders are performed through the name of thy holy servant Jesus.” [31] And when they had prayed, the place in which they were gathered together was shaken; and they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and spoke the word of God with boldness. . . . [33] And with great power the apostles gave their testimony to the resurrection of the Lord Jesus, and great grace was upon them all.

Acts 5:12 Now many signs and wonders were done among the people by the hands of the apostles . . .

Acts 14:1-3 Now at Ico’nium they entered together into the Jewish synagogue, and so spoke that a great company believed, both of Jews and of Greeks. [2] But the unbelieving Jews stirred up the Gentiles and poisoned their minds against the brethren. [3] So they remained for a long time, speaking boldly for the Lord, who bore witness to the word of his grace, granting signs and wonders to be done by their hands.

Acts 15:12 [during the council] . . . and they listened to Barnabas and Paul as they related what signs and wonders God had done through them among the Gentiles.

Romans 15:18-19 For I will not venture to speak of anything except what Christ has wrought through me to win obedience from the Gentiles, by word and deed, [19] by the power of signs and wonders, by the power of the Holy Spirit, so that from Jerusalem and as far round as Illyr’icum I have fully preached the gospel of Christ,

2 Corinthians 12:12 The signs of a true apostle were performed among you in all patience, with signs and wonders and mighty works.

Hebrews 2:3-4 how shall we escape if we neglect such a great salvation? It was declared at first by the Lord, and it was attested to us by those who heard him, [4] while God also bore witness by signs and wonders and various miracles and by gifts of the Holy Spirit distributed according to his own will.

Of what use are signs and wonders, designed to cause people to believe, for those who already believe? Therefore, it’s irrelevant with regard to the council and its import and significance. So why do you seek to make it a factor in this discussion?

*****

I wrote on Facebook about Joshua’s last response above: “I’ll add this snotty, snide “reply” to the dialogue. I wouldn’t want anyone to miss it.”

Snotty and snide, eh? Because you’re just the paragon of fairness. This is rich. I don’t even see how my response is snotty to begin with. Those are substantive (and accurate) points.

And incidentally, in your article you say that I chose this topic, when in fact you chose it and stuck by it when I questioned your choice. You offered to let me skip your back and forth with White “if I liked,” but in the article you say I continue to argue about things you didn’t propose to debate in the first place. You chose the article, so the presumption was that your preference was that I handle the entire thing. If you didn’t, you could have left the additional remarks out of the article. Not to mention you could have been honest about who chose this topic to begin with. Instead, you twist it to make it look like I picked a topic, ignored selective bits of it, and irrationally added comments that were irrelevant.

And on the topic of ignoring parts, if you can explain to me why the additional verses you cited from Acts 15 and 16 are relevant to showing that the Jerusalem Council’s decree was binding because it was a council, please do so, because as far as I can tell they don’t add one iota of evidence that wasn’t already addressed in my first long paragraph on the topic.

Jeremiah 13:23 (KJV): Can the Ethiopian change his skin, or the leopard his spots?

I think you just proved they can’t. If you can’t even admit you were at best inaccurate about who chose this topic, we have nothing more to say to each other.

I agree:


2 Timothy 2:23 (RSV) Have nothing to do with stupid, senseless controversies; you know that they breed quarrels.
*
Titus 3:9 But avoid stupid controversies, genealogies, dissensions, and quarrels over the law, for they are unprofitable and futile.


*****

2017-05-14T13:34:04-04:00

LutheranChurch

St. John’s Lutheran Church in Zanesville, Ohio [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

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(4-6-09)

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This is an exchange I had with a friendly Lutheran woman, on the Coming Home Network board; posted with her permission. Her words will be in blue.

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Hi [name],

So nice to “meet” you, and welcome to our forum. I hope you enjoy it here and find what you want and need.

I hope you all can help me. I have a few specific questions that may seem like I’m trying to play devil’s advocate or to stir up trouble, but I assure you I’m not; I am a sincere seeker! I converted to Catholic many years ago but didn’t stay in very long, and even though I joined the Lutheran church a few years ago, I read Catholic web sites all the time. Hmm, what does that tell me?

Understood. I’ll try my best to offer some decent answers.

Anyway. Here are some things I thought of yesterday while sitting in church. I’ve read a whole lot of posts here but have not been able to find any answers written in the way I’m asking these questions. My faith issues are sort of reaching critical mass. (no pun intended!)

Please don’t get too scholarly on me though; I’m not that bright!

Depends on how difficult the questions are to answer! Sometimes an objection can be voiced in one sentence, but it takes 10 pages to properly answer. But I’m just a regular old layperson and not a scholar. I have no formal training in theology.

1. The thing that set this off most recently was a Bible study about marriage. Even the pastor couldn’t come up with a definitive answer about divorce; he allowed as how the person could divorce for infidelity or desertion, and “there’s always forgiveness”, and that was about that. Not only that, but some participants in the class didn’t even agree with him, taking the stance of no divorce allowed. Well, even though I’m a Lutheran, I don’t think that’s right. That’s not a question so much as it is an expression of frustration. I don’t see any ultimate authority being exercised there. Maybe Protestants don’t need ultimate authority despite all that has been written on the subject. It just doesn’t sit right with me. Oh, and by the way, I am even divorced and remarried and I’m still uncomfortable with it.

The traditional Catholic position is that a valid sacramental marriage between two baptized Christians is indissoluble. You are right to be uncomfortable, because you instinctively know that marriage was meant to be lifelong. Catholics, of course, have this thing called annulments: which is a determination that an ostensible marriage may not in fact have been so, because key conditions were not met.

2. Catholics say that the Church is protected from error by the Holy Spirit so the Catholic Church has to be the right one. Well, what if the invention of the printing press and Luther’s hellraising was God’s way of making sure the gates of hell did not prevail against the church? You know, like the guy sitting on top of the house in a flood, praying for God to rescue him, waving off helicopters –with God answering, “I sent you three helicopters, why didn’t you take one of them?” What if the road made a major fork back in the 16th century and Catholics don’t recognize it; sort of like the Jews not recognizing Jesus as the obvious Messiah?

I understand the reasoning (having once held it myself) but I don’t think that case can be made, because many things in Luther’s teaching essentially departed from what came before. If indeed, this was a true reform (as is claimed by Lutherans and Protestants in general) and not a revolt or revolution, then it would have to be shown that distinctively Lutheran teachings were consistent with prior Church history. I’ve documented myself how Luther introduced at least 50 doctrinal novelties, even before he was excommunicated (in his three great treatises of 1520).

Lutherans often claim, e.g., that their teachings are more in line with the Church Fathers than Catholic teaching is. I think (with all due respect; and I do love and respect my Lutheran brothers and sisters) that if that debate takes place, the Lutheran loses every time. They just don’t have the historical facts on their side. It’s a question of fact. I’ve engaged in several of these debates myself, with educated Lutherans (one of them a professor of history). Each issue has to be approached in its own right, and then it is an historical discussion. What did the Fathers believe?

3. Luther’s personal offensiveness is justifiably castigated by Catholics: “How could such a vulgar, rude, (etc.) man possibly be used by God for His purposes?” Well, I can see that, but how about St. Peter himself who denied Jesus three times? Or, other saints or religious who had great saving faith but might have been obnoxious as well? The Pope when teaching about faith and morals is said to be infallible, but everyone knows that there have been personally reprehensible Popes in history. Maybe Luther was a guy like that?

Yeah; we understand the difference between impeccability and infallibility. You are right. There is, however, a big difference in Luther’s case. St. Peter wasn’t introducing anything himself, of his own authority. He was a disciple and eyewitness of Jesus, and simply passed on what he had seen and had been taught.

Luther, on the other hand, was introducing new teachings that hadn’t been held prior to his time (contrary to the claims made), and he was dogmatically claiming that he was right and that the entire Catholic Church, with its 1500 year history, was wrong. This is vastly different from Peter or indeed any pope whatever. I recently did a big study of Erasmus’ response to Luther, in the former’s book, Hyperaspistes (1526). He makes several cogent points about Luther’s anti-traditionalism and how implausible it was. Here are a few examples:

We are dealing with this: would a stable mind depart from the opinion handed down by so many famous men famous for holiness and miracles, depart from the decision of the church, and commit our souls to the faith of someone like you who has sprung up just now with a few followers, although the leading men of your flock do not agree either with you or among themselves . . . (p. 203)

And here once more you have the impudence to scoff at orthodox Greek writers whom you deprive of all authority by a marvellous assumption, that the saints have sometimes erred because they are human . . . (p. 207)

Therefore do not insist that on the issue of free will you have the advantage of having Augustine so often on your side — as you boast, though I will soon show that this is quite false — lest we turn your comparison back against you. Or if you deprive them [the Church Fathers] of all authority, stop making use of their testimony. If they said many things devoutly, many things excellently, although they sometimes made mistakes, allow us to make use of what they said well, as you claim the right to do also. (p. 208)

. . . you demand that we reject their [the Church Fathers’] authority, that we hold to your teachings as if they were articles of the faith. At least grant us, for their teachings as well as yours, the same right to suspend judgment about either. (p. 225)

. . . I called into question which interpretation we should follow, that of the ancient Fathers, which has been approved for so many centuries, or yours, which has sprung up so recently. (p. 244)

Now look at the laws which you prescribe, though you are not yet the victor: lay down whatever arms are supplied by the ancient orthodox teachers, the schools of the theologians, the authority of councils and popes, the consensus of the whole Christian people over so many centuries; we accept nothing but Scripture, but in such a way that we alone have authoritative certainty in interpreting it; our interpretation is what was meant by the Holy Spirit; that brought forward by others, however great, however many, arises from the spirit of Satan and from madness; what the orthodox taught, what the authority of the church handed down, what the people of Christ embraced, what the schools defend is the deadly venom of Satan; what I teach is the spirit of life; believe that in Scripture there is no obscurity at all, not even so much as to need a judge; or, though all are blind, I am not blind; for I am conscious that I have the Spirit of Christ, which enables me to judge everyone but no one to judge me; I refuse to be judged, I require compliance; let no one be the least bit moved by the multitude, the magnitude, the breadth and depth, the miracles, the holiness of the church’s saints; they all were lost if they meant what they wrote, unless perhaps they came to their senses before the last day of their lives; whoever does not believe my proofs either lacks common sense or commits blasphemy against the Holy Spirit and subverts Christianity. If we accept such laws as these, the victory is indeed yours. Then again, you demand that we not believe the ancient orthodox Fathers because they sometimes disagreed amongst themselves, whereas the few of you fight very much with each other about the prophets, images, church rules, baptism, the Eucharist; and you want us nevertheless to believe your teachings, especially because every day we expect new ones. And we are called blasphemous because we still cling to the old church and do not dare to join your camp . . . I am not making any of this up; I am saying what is certain and well known. (p. 261)

4. It seems to me that the Protestant way of looking at Sola Scriptura is not really that they think/claim the Bible says of itself that it is the only thing to rely on in faith and practice, but that it is evident from years of objective analysis of what’s said in the Bible. That all that is needed for salvation is put forth in the Bible without needing to rely on Tradition or the Magisterium. Of course I know that this way of thinking has caused endless Protestant variations which I think is wrong. Also, this is not to call into question how Protestants got the Bible or anything. What I mean is, I’ve never heard of a Protestant saying that the Bible itself states that the Bible is all that is needed.

Sola Scriptura means (from many Protestant definitions that I have seen) that the Bible is the only infallible authority, and that no church or pope or particular Christian tradition is infallible. It was a frontal assault against the authority of the Catholic Church. Catholics believe that the Bible is materially sufficient, but not formally sufficient, meaning that all that is required for salvation can be found there, but that authoritative proclamation of correct doctrine is still needed, because men on their own split into innumerable factions, as Protestantism itself has proven beyond any doubt.

5. For the more “obscure” teachings like Purgatory and the Marian doctrines, Protestants seem to draw a line that they won’t cross, saying that those teachings aren’t in the Bible even though Catholics point to those teachings’ “seeds” in the Bible. So where is that line that they won’t cross, delineating which teachings are/aren’t in the Bible? Right, I should ask a Protestant theologian that question, but maybe a Catholic could enlighten me without getting defensive, dismissive, or stymied.

It’s pretty simple, in the final analysis, I think. For the most part, the “line” is simply that (what is now seen as) distinctively Catholic tradition was rejected by Protestants. The “line” is wherever the Catholic Church disagreed with Luther. It has far more to do with that than it does with what is supposedly “biblical” and what isn’t. Also, the line comes as a result of the premises involved in Protestant distinctives, which rule out various traditional Catholic doctrines by logical reduction. A choice was made, and every time we make one choice, many other things are logically excluded.

For example, Luther held to sola fide, which meant that God declares someone righteous (imputed or extrinsic justification). This is how he is saved. This one belief (which I argue is most unbiblical) takes out notions of merit, purgatory, penance, and moral assurance of salvation, as opposed to an absolute assurance. Of course, for many Protestants, the same belief takes out baptismal regeneration. But Luther didn’t go that far, and retained that. He was still sacramental to a large extent. The Real Presence is rejected by most Protestants on largely the same basis, because they don’t think realism and sacraments are necessary to pass on God’s grace. But Luther (and, I contend, the Bible itself) profoundly disagreed. Nevertheless, he felt compelled to reject the Sacrifice of the Mass, that was also firmly taught by the Church Fathers.

Luther also rejected purgatory, also, because he came to believe in a sort of “soul sleep” that even Calvin rejected, as I recently discovered, to my surprise.

That’s a classic case of false premises causing one to reject something else. If souls after death are unconscious, then obviously purgatory is a senseless position. Luther saw that purgatory was clearly taught in 2 Maccabees. When a few years later he rejected belief in purgatory (he hadn’t yet in 1517 or even by 1519 in his famous Leipzig Disputation with Eck), then he also rejected 2 Maccabees. So now part of what was the accepted Bible in Christianity for 1100-1200 years is rejected because Luther had this goofy, heretical, unbiblical view of soul sleep. One thing affects another.

Luther taught sola Scriptura. This takes out (by the nature of logical contradiction) apostolic succession, an infallible church, infallible councils, infallible popes, infallible apostolic tradition, and the hierarchical or episcopal form of Church government. All of that goes once sola Scriptura is asserted. But sola Scriptura was not the patristic or biblical position. I have shown the former in over 100 pages in my book on the Church Fathers and Catholicism. The latter was shown in an entire book, and even from Scripture alone in over 100 pages in my latest book [Bible Proofs for Catholic Truths].

You can have an e-book copy of that, too, for free, if you like.

Does the way I’ve asked any of these questions make any sense?

It makes perfect sense, coming from your Lutheran presuppositions. One thing follows from another. You seem to be questioning some of those presuppositions (or you are willing to subject them to scrutiny, anyway) and wondering if they can hold up. I maintain that they cannot. Whatever is true in Lutheranism, was already true and present in Catholic teaching for 1500 years.

Truth be told, I’m getting bored like anything going to the Lutheran church. Same old Law & Gospel, same old “faith alone” (except where St. James says not by faith alone!), same old “silent where the Bible is silent” etc. etc. etc. BTW, I don’t mean to offend any Lutherans/Protestants who read this.

I think there is a lot more to Christianity than Lutheranism (or any form of Protestantism) offers. That’s why I am a Catholic (I came in in 1991 after being a fervent evangelical for 13 years, including three spent at a Lutheran church: though I was not fully Lutheran in a doctrinal sense). We believe that Catholicism offers the fullness of fully-developed apostolic Christianity.

Thank you SO much…

My pleasure, I hope my answers (agree or disagree) are helpful to you, in working through these issues; and I’d be delighted to discuss any of these things further. I particularly enjoy dialoguing with Lutherans, as I’ve had a lot of good dialogues with them (including a series of big, meaty dialogues with two friendly Lutheran pastors).

Dave, I look forward to reading the links you provided. I gotta say, the quote from Erasmus to Luther was kind of surprising. Well, not that a Catholic defending his faith is surprising of course, just that Erasmus’ calling out Luther on his attitude shows me that there must be lots of stuff Luther thought that maybe most Lutherans don’t know about.

I guess that means that it’s over and above Luther’s personality, that his basic errors from “stuff he made up” would mean that it’s just not a case of God using an imperfect man to keep the Church going? OK, I get that; in fact from the Erasmus quote you provided, it looks as though Luther was trying to have things both ways and even hypocritical, e.g. “don’t quote Church fathers if you don’t accept their authority” and this in particular, “though all are blind, I am not blind; for I am conscious that I have the Spirit of Christ, which enables me to judge everyone but no one to judge me; I refuse to be judged, I require compliance” which really does uncover Luther’s attitude.

It’s nice to hear from people who used to be Protestant too! I think your background probably places even more emphasis on Bible study than Lutherans do. We have an anemic Bible study before worship service (as I alluded to with the marriage one) but that’s about it.

The books are on their way, in your regular e-mail. Enjoy! And feel free to keep the discussion going in whatever direction you want to take it.

Dave, thanks for your downloads, from what I’m reading so far they’ll help me a lot! I will read all of your links as time permits too. Dave, I have just finished the papers you wrote about Erasmus answering Luther. And, I also read a couple of papers having to do with the movie “Luther”, Luther’s polemics, his unintentional advocacy of the peasants’ uprising, and his EXTREME nastiness, vulgarity, etc. It took me a while but–even though I knew about his personality (as I’d asked about in my original post) –good grief, this man was horrible! I won’t get into specifics, but I will say that I found myself cheering Erasmus on, and picturing some honest, erudite politician (yeah, assuming there are some still around) having to defend himself and the whole Western Tradition against some unhinged radical who unleashes the devil against it all. (Your turnabout essay about Catholics doing the same thing against the Protestants in modern-day America was brilliant!) Now I will delve into the two you sent me; it does take a while to read while I’m waiting for stuff to happen at work, but I will get it done!

Thanks for reading, [Name], and I am happy to be of any service. You can also have my book about Luther if you like, but most of what is in it is on my Luther page somewhere already.

God bless you as you ponder all these things. I don’t believe Luther was a “bad” man, but certainly many of his notions and doctrines can be opposed on the grounds of Scripture and apostolic and patristic tradition.

I am WELS [Wisconsin Evangelical Lutheran Synod] . . . I am starting to feel increasingly judgmental and thinking about a Catholic Mass when I’m at church, rather than focusing on the sermon. Like, trying to notice when the pastor says stuff about Luther or what Lutheranism teaches, and instead thinking about what the Catholic church teaches, as far as I’m able to. Obviously there’s a whole lot of stuff I don’t know! . . . I’m continuing to read and think and pray; I always pray and ask God to lead me to the truth, no matter where it is.

2017-05-13T18:54:55-04:00

ChurchDoors3

Church in Malta [PublicDomainPictures.Net / CC0 license]

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(July 2000; some revisions on 12-8-11)

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Fundamental Epistemological Reasons for Accepting Catholic Principles of Authority

When faith is brought in, we can have a “certainty” in the biblical or spiritual sense. But as for “absolute certainty,” I have made the same argument about Protestants (Calvinist and eternal security Baptist-types) and their notion of absolute assurance of salvation. I have argued that one cannot know that with certainty, as they don’t know the future absolutely. I don’t see any philosophical difference here — there is an equivalency.

The way in which Calvinists hold to absolute assurance is precisely how we hold to the “absolute assurance” of the infallibility of the Church, as the Guardian of Tradition and the Faith. Calvinists say that their salvation and the certainty of it is grounded in the promises of God and election (and Scripture, of course).

We say that the Church’s infallibility is also grounded in God’s promises: in the Person of the Holy Spirit: the Paraclete and Spirit of Truth, Who guides His people (corporately, the Church) into all truth (not to mention the papacy and all the Petrine data). And we, too, find this in the many explicit biblical indications of such an authoritative, visible, hierarchical Church. What’s the epistemological difference? I see none. There is a huge theological difference, but not a methodological, philosophical one.

In a practical sense, here is the flaw in Protestant “absolute assurance” (an argument I made for years, as an Arminian Protestant): when someone seems to be a good little Calvinist, knows all the buzz phrases and evangelical/Reformed lingo, etc., and goes to Church and leads a moral life according to Reformed teaching, then he is one of the “elect,” and no one really doubts this in the everyday, practical sense.

Now say for the sake of argument that he “falls away” in the sense that he no longer fits these criteria? He starts falling into sin (say adultery or blatant unbelief in Jesus). Then the Calvinist — “prisoners” of their system — simply say (with the marvelous benefit of hindsight) that he never was one of them; one of the elect. We don’t have to play that game, because we believe one can truly be in God’s graces and then truly fall away, and possibly return to a state of grace (we call it repentance and confession).

No Calvinist knows with this “absolute certainty” who is saved or in the elect. They claim that they do, but they cannot, for the simple reason that they don’t know the future and the eschatological destiny of each soul (they are not omniscient; nor do they possess foreknowledge). Otherwise, they would know that “brother X” was gonna be sleeping with a prostitute or another man’s wife in the future, and hence was never in the elect (because Scripture says “fornicators will not inherit the kingdom,” etc.).

The Catholic accepts the infallibility of His Church in the same fashion that most Protestants accept the “certainty” of their supposedly already accomplished salvation. Here is epistemological parallelism and equivalency. No one can know with certainty his own eternal destiny; we can only know at the moment if we are in the good graces of God, by a thorough examination of conscience. Catholics call that a “moral assurance” of salvation, and we assert that this is the biblical, apostolic, and patristic belief.

No one expect the Catholic apologists who have never been Protestant to understand every variation of Protestantism. It would take a lifetime to master all those, and who wants to anyway? Even converts like myself don’t have first-hand experience of all the different brands. We are forced to generalize by the nature of the case, and then Protestants always have the convenient out of saying “but that’s not us.” There is a lot of truth in such replies, of course, but in a sense it’s a bit like the standard campus Marxist reply that every corruption and Communist atrocity and despot does not represent “true” Marxism — the result being that such a utopian Marxism never existed and cannot be pointed out in the real world.

The “Infallibility Regress” Argument of Protestant Apologists, Concerning Catholic Reliance Upon Church Authority

The Catholic rule of faith is not simply a reliance upon the Church in blind faith; it is, rather, the combination of Church authority, patristic consensus, and the biblical material: Church, Tradition, and Bible: the “three-legged stool.” We say that this was the methodology of the Fathers themselves, in their appeal to apostolic succession or Tradition (see, e.g., Irenaeus). It is essentially an historical, typically Jewish argument, not a philosophical one (philosophy deriving from the Greeks).

The whole point is that there is an identifiable apostolic deposit which is passed down, and Catholics accept that, as clarified by their Church. We don’t reinvent Christianity in each generation; we accept what has been given to us, just as the Apostles and Fathers before us did. This is not a philosophical matter; it is one of faith and legal-historical grounds of ascertainable fact. It makes at least as much sense as Protestant “certainty” on any number of issues.

Everyone accepts the Scripture; that is not at issue. The alleged “self-attesting” nature of it is a real issue I have dealt with at great length. The “secondary testimony” here is that of the “mere creatures” Luther and Calvin. If Scripture speaks of an infallible and indefectible Church, then that notion is relying on the Word of the LORD. We rely on the apostolic Tradition passed down, verified and developed by the Fathers, Councils, great Doctors, and popes, and ultimately in the materially-sufficient Holy Scriptures.

Protestants rely on the fallible, late-arriving distinctives of Luther and Calvin, and in effect grant them apostolic authority. They can flat-out invent doctrines and claim they are both historical and biblical. No pope could even dream of doing that. They wouldn’t dare do it (on a few occasions when they came remotely close to that a mass uproar occurred). They are strictly dependent upon received precedent. Not so for Luther and Calvin, the Super-Popes. That’s why I say Protestantism is fundamentally man-centered at its very roots.

Believing Christians and Jews have always possessed “certainty” (I recommend Newman’s Grammar of Assent in this regard). It is a rational faith, backed up by eyewitness testimony and historical evidences, and the history of doctrine. It is not mere hyper-rationalistic, Enlightenment-inspired philosophy, as so much of Protestant apologetics appears to be. Not to mention theological liberalism: another wonderful benefit bequeathed to my Church by my Protestant brethren, causing the ruin of many souls. No one is saying (or should say) that there is an absolute certainty in a strict philosophical sense (I can play the game of philosophy quite well if I need to — I took a lot of it in college). But there is certainty in the sense of faith.

It’s like any acceptance of authority: it won’t work if we are blinded by a closed mind and a prideful, self-centered will (compounded by the level of individual ignorance or prior misinformation). That is true of any teaching system, including Catholicism. But that doesn’t, of course, disprove the Catholic system. It is not private judgment per se which leads one to accept Catholicism; it is precisely the opposite: it is yielding up one’s private judgment in the act of recognizing the Church for what it is: the spiritual authority ordained by God. One can do this reasonably by applying historical criteria, just as Christians have always done.

When I say “private judgment” I am talking about Christian authority and ecclesiology; not philosophical epistemology. I refer (per my many dialogues on this subject) to the Protestant formal system of sola Scriptura which places the individual in the position as the supreme and final arbiter of his own theology and destiny. This is a formal system of Christian authority, over against the Catholic three-legged stool of “Church, Tradition, and Scripture” – all harmonious and not contradictory or competing.

So the Protestant — by the exercise of this self-granted prerogative — can stand there and judge all three legs of the stool (as Luther at Worms did), making his own conscience supreme (the corollary of private judgment). This we reject as unbiblical and against the entire previous history of the Church. And all Protestants do this — by definition. Some variants may be more subtle, nuanced, and fine-tuned, and much less ahistorical, but all the versions boil down to a rejection of the apostolic authority of the Catholic Church.

Ultimately Protestants reserve the right to interpret Scripture against the Fathers, if their views do not correspond to the theological system you espouse (e.g., a rejection of the Real Presence in the Eucharist and baptismal regeneration: both virtually unanimous views of the Fathers). In the end, Protestantism becomes a man-centered system (Calvin, Luther, Fox et al), rather than an apostolic, patristic, traditional-centered system, where the individual yields his judgment to the historic Christian consensus of the ages: the apostolic Tradition faithfully passed down and protected from error by the Holy Spirit.

Why would Protestants assume that God cannot protect His Church from error just as He protected His written revelation from error? On what basis do they assume that? After all (I make an analogical argument, of plausibility), the gift of infallibility is far lesser in order than the gift of inspiration, by which fallible, sinful men accurately and infallibly recorded the word of God in Sacred Scripture, without error. Both gifts are supernatural and divinely granted.

It seems to me that if God could and would do one thing, then He would certainly do the other, so as to maintain a unified truth and a consistent witness to the world. I think most people would agree that it was not God’s plan to bring about the chaos and relativism in Protestantism today (Calvinists are always lambasting non-Calvinist Protestants as much-inferior and as outside the true “Reformation” heritage). Error (which must be present when views contradict) does not come from the Spirit of God, but from below.

I have always maintained that the Christian notion of truth and authority is historically-based, as opposed to philosophically-based. And it requires faith. Catholic authority is not an airtight philosophical proposition. But Protestantism is not, either, and contains within itself far more problematic elements. The double standard, therefore, resides in the Protestant contra-Catholic polemic. I say that our view is biblical, consistent, apostolic, and patristic, and therefore far preferable to the Protestant Johnny-come-lately system of sola Scriptura.

Apostolic and patristic Christianity was much more analogous to Old Testament Judaism, than to, say, Greek philosophy, with its abstract “epistemology” (and I say this as a Socratic myself; one who loves philosophy). Authority flowed always from commonly acknowledged miraculous historical events and historical criteria: a sort of “Christian mythology” (i.e., a corporately-preserved story of origins) but what C. S. Lewis would describe as “true mythology.”

Our claim is that the Church is infallible, and that the individual yields up his private judgment to the authority of the Church, based on apostolic succession. We have faith that God will guide His Church. It is a reasonable faith, which can be backed up by many sorts of reasonable evidences (primarily historical), though it ultimately transcends them all, as all matters of faith do.

We believe Scripture is materially sufficient, but not formally sufficient without the Church as a Guide. We believe that Scripture and Tradition are “twin fonts of the same divine wellspring,” as Vatican II states.

He performed miracles, and many people observed these. He rose from the dead, and proved the reality of that by appearing to more than 500 people, eating fish, showing that He possessed flesh and bones, etc. This is all historical, and a matter of eyewitness testimony (so one might say it is a historical-legal approach to theological truth). Likewise with the Church. There was one, recognized deposit of faith, passed on from our Lord Jesus to the disciples and Apostles, which Paul repeatedly refers to.

Jesus established a Church, with Peter as the head (Matthew 16:13-20). This Church has definite and discernible characteristics, described in the Bible. There were Apostles, and their successors were and are bishops. There were popes as well, and they exercised authority over the Church Universal.

Now, how was this Church identifiable in the early days and in the patristic period? Again, it was the historical criteria of authenticity. The Fathers always appealed to apostolic succession (a demonstrable historical lineage of orthodoxy) and Scripture, not Scripture Alone. The heretics were the ones who adopted Scripture Alone as their principle, because they knew that they couldn’t produce the historical lineage (hence an early manifestation of the unChristian and unbiblical a-historicism which has been a dominant flaw of Protestantism ever since its inception). Protestants thus adopted the heretical principle of formal authority, whereas Catholics have consistently adopted apostolic succession as the criteria of Christian truth and legitimate, divinely ordained authority. The Catholic Church traces itself back to the beginning in an unbroken line, centered in the Roman See and the papacy.

So when someone like me (a very low-church evangelical) becomes convinced of Catholicism, it is not merely another Protestant exercise of private judgment and de facto alleged self-infallibility. It is,to the contrary, the yielding up of private judgment and the acknowledgement of something far greater than oneself: an entity which is “out there;” which has always been there since Christ established it, preserving (only by God’s enabling grace and will) apostolic Christian truth in its fullness and undiluted splendor. So one accepts it based on the historical criteria, just as one would accept the historicity of the Resurrection or the Virgin Birth, or the authority of the Bible — itself grounded in historically-verifiable elements (e.g., fulfilled prophecy, the continuance of the Jews, the astounding transformation of the early Christians, etc.). It is on the basis of history (and, of course, faith as well), as opposed to some alleged prideful, illusory, self-infallibility. Popes and Ecumenical Councils are just as bound to the received deposit of faith, as I am.

To learn further about how my own particular spiritual odyssey progressed (for anyone who might be curious), see my paper: “How Newman Convinced Me of the Apostolicity of the Catholic Church.” Newman himself accepted the Catholic Church based on undeniable historical realities, and thus was able to reject the man-made Anglican edifice of the Via Media. Likewise, I came to see (after also studying the so-called “Reformation”) that evangelical Protestantism could not in any way, shape, or form fit the bill of the fullness of apostolic Christianity either. Only Catholicism could do that.

And I wanted apostolic, biblical Christianity: the Christianity which Jesus taught the disciples; not man-made variants, each containing maybe a few noble emphases left over from historical, apostolic Christianity, but always in the final analysis grossly-deficient (though also quite beneficial and good insofar as they do contain many valid Christian truths).

Orthodoxy also possesses apostolic succession. I decided between the two options precisely on the same grounds: Orthodoxy had departed from a few universally held beliefs of early Christian Tradition (namely, the prohibition of divorce and contraception). So history was determinative. This is how it has always been in the Christian faith until Luther brought in the radically subjectivistic notion of faith and authority, thus leading to the present doctrinal relativism, ecclesiological anarchy, and moral chaos of Protestantism.

All of these issues are complex in and of themselves, but that is the Catholic answer: we appeal to the patristic and apostolic (Pauline) methods of determining theological and apostolic truth. The Bible is central in all this as well (absolutely!); it is just not exclusive of Church authority. How can it be? Its very parameters were authoritatively declared by this self-same Church. Before then, various Fathers disagreed somewhat on the canon. Again, it is not a matter solely of sin. Authority was truly needed to settle that issue, just as it is needed to settle theological issues. Scripture Alone will not suffice.

Besides, Scripture itself points to the teaching authority of the Church, anyway, so it is a false dichotomy from the get-go, to pit the Church against the Bible, as if there is some inherent contradiction or “competition” between them. The Apostles and Fathers saw no such dichotomy. I imitate Paul, just as he imitated Christ (as he commanded me to do). I reject the Johnny-come-lately novel notions of Luther, because they can’t be traced back to the Apostles in an unbroken line — thus are corruptions insofar as they differ from Catholic dogma.

Bible, Sola Scriptura, and Canonicity Issues

We don’t view Scripture in isolation from Church and Tradition, which it itself constantly refers to. This is the biblical outlook. “Bible Alone” (in the sense above) is not taught in Scripture. Canonicity is an historical process, thus supporting the premise that historical and human (and ecclesiological) factors are necessarily involved in the dispute over authority. It is too simple to merely proclaim “Scripture, Scripture,” and to downplay the Church when that very Church was necessary in order to authoritatively proclaim the parameters and content of Holy Scripture.

Some Protestants believe in Holy Scripture without necessary “evidentialist” proofs, while they frown upon Catholics who do the same with regard to the Catholic Church: often lacking the “proofs” which they demand for them to have, while giving themselves a pass. After all, the Church is as divinely willed as the Bible. We may disagree on its location and nature, but we are talking about philosophical premises here, which most people implicitly hold, without conscious reflection.

Faith is always required; of course. But that faith is rational and not irrational. It goes beyond mere rationality and philosophy (it is not epistemologically airtight — very few things are in any field of study), but it is not contrary to right reason. I have held this belief for 20 years now. Again, I think this eventually backfires on Protestants, because the Catholic, too, believes in his notion of what the Church is, and which claimant is the Church. The same Augustine also stated that he would not believe the Gospel but for the Catholic Church, which proclaimed it. He never marginalizes the Church, as Protestants end up doing every time.

The Catholic Church merely proclaimed what was already inherently the Word of God; inspired Revelation. Vatican I and II state this. The Church was, however, still absolutely necessary in a practical sense, and — this being the case — it is reasonable to assume that it possesses authority to proclaim on other issues as well, and to command obligatory obedience of its followers.

The authority lies in the proclamation of the biblical canon. Protestants think it has that supreme authority concerning the actual extent of Scripture, while denying its prerogative to proclaim on any individual doctrine of Scripture. I find that remarkably arbitrary and implausible.

In this scenario, God allows one exception to sola Scriptura: the Church proclaiming what the Scripture is (but also a few other things, such as the Two Natures of Christ). Then it fades into the background and is able to be judged by each individual Christian with the Bible and the Holy Spirit. I find this utterly ludicrous. Why — on these premises — should a Christian not reject Chalcedonian Christology or Nicaean trinitarianism (as many heretics have in fact done)? More exceptions have to be allowed because the Church “got it right” in those instances. We merely say that the Church always “got it right” in Ecumenical Councils, because it was protected by the Holy Spirit from error, not because God decided to protect it now and then. These things are consistent with our formal principles, but are frequent anomalies and exceptions in Protestantism. The more exceptions to a “rule,” the weaker and less worthy of belief such a “rule” is.

The early Protestants didn’t believe that God could protect His Church from error, yet they had no trouble believing that individuals can be so protected, and persist in this belief as a formal principle, despite 10,000 internal contradictions and endless schism and moral compromise in the Protestantism which is the offspring of this false first premise. Very weird, from where I sit . . . Once I saw that Catholic distinctives could be established from Scripture (now the theme of my website and upcoming book), and understood development of doctrine, I immediately abandoned this thoroughly incoherent position.

2017-05-09T17:59:32-04:00

  Dave - Temple Mount

Dave Armstrong at the Temple Mount in Jerusalem; Dome of the Rock (the third holiest spot in Islam) in the background (October 2014)

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(5-14-04)

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Critique of the full text of the paper, Was Jesus Perfect God and Perfect Man at the Same Time? (from the web page, Islam Answers Back). Mr. Ally’s words will be in blue.

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According to Orthodox Christian belief, Jesus was perfect man and perfect God at the same time. This belief is necessary for salvation according to the Athanasian creed held dear by most Christians. Modern Christian scholars reject this idea not because it is difficult to understand but because it cannot be meaningfully expressed.

No; they reject it because they are more “modern” than “Christian” and because they have forsaken the historic Christian faith. If a “modern” Islamic scholar had rejected traditional tenets of Islam, would Mr. Ally continue to even call him a Muslim? Would he appreciate a Christian doing so, in making his argument against Islam? I highly doubt it. So Christians would ask to be accorded the same respect and consistency in terminology. He acts as if “orthodox” Christianity is self-evidently inferior to the “modern” versions of “revised Christianity.” Again, if we were to return the favor and say that “modern Islam” is superior to “orthodox [traditional] Islam,” would Mr. Ally appreciate that? It is one thing to disagree honestly with Christianity; quite another to redefine it from the outset according to one’s rhetorical goals, by referring to those who reject traditional Christianity as “modern Christian scholars.”

Both religions obviously are burdened by people who go by the name but no longer believe what the religion has always held. Mr. Ally cites the people who no longer believe a thing to show that the thing is irrational and unworthy of belief. Isn’t that like citing atheists to show how theism is unbelievable, while ignoring what the theists say about it? This is an unfair, somewhat insulting methodology. If Mr. Ally disagrees with Christianity, he can simply produce his own arguments as to why, without incorporating the arguments of people who themselves dishonestly redefine what the word “Christian” means.

It would be far better to not accord the liberals and apostates in both our religions the respect of still referring to them as “Christians” or “Muslims” than to cite such a “Christian” against an orthodox Christian. I wouldn’t do that to a Muslim, and a Muslim shouldn’t do it to a Christian, as a matter of respect for the other’s self-definition and self-understanding, and intellectual consistency.

The doctrine cannot be stated in any way that is free from contradictions. It is impossible for Jesus to have been perfect man and perfect God at the same time, for this would mean that he was finite and infinite at the same time, that he was fallible and infallible at the same time. This cannot be.

Mr. Ally’s “logic” here is “what cannot be.” This is simply not a contradiction because it is one person having two natures, one of which is finite and the other infinite. It would be like saying that of my two arms, one has unlimited power and can lift anything in the universe, while the other does not. That’s not contradictory; it is simply a differentiation between the two arms. A true contradiction would be something like saying that “one arm can lift anything in the universe and cannot do so, at the same time.” Likewise, Jesus has two natures, rather than one, as we have. He is both God and man. As God, He has infinite capacities; as man, He does not. He can, therefore, do some things as God and others as a man, with the usual limitations we are all subject to.

Thus, if Jesus indeed had two natures, as we believe, the difficulty is resolved. If He had one nature that possessed contradictory properties, then there would be a problem. Therefore, the discussion comes down to the possibility or impossibility of God becoming a man who possesses both a divine and a human nature (and the antecedent question of what a nature is). More on this below, concerning God becoming man, and whether this is logically and actually possible or not . . .

What the creed denies is also quite significant. The creed was formulated in response to the claims of various early Christian groups, and so includes clauses that deny the beliefs of those groups. In response to the Arians who believed that Jesus was not God, the Council of Nicea (325 A.D.) decreed that he was fully God. In response to the Apollinarians who believed Jesus was God but not fully human, the council of Constantinople (381 A.D.) decreed that Jesus was fully human.

Those are not “Christian” groups, but heretical groups wrongly claiming the name “Christian.” That brings us back to the definitional problems again. Does not Islam have breakaway groups which no longer adhere to traditional Islamic beliefs? Look at the “Muslim” terrorists for example: the people who flew planes into the World Trade Center. Those were not really Muslims (but they claimed to be). I understand that the original Nation of Islam in America (“Black Muslims”) was such a group (though I may be wrong). They taught that all white men were “devils.” After Malcolm X (a man I admire quite a bit) left that group and took his pilgrimage to Mecca, he saw that this was not true, and that sinfulness was not specifically or particularly confined to one racial group. These counterfeit groups (concerning both Islam and Christianity) can also be designated as such on the basis of false doctrine, not just sinful behavior or beliefs.

Then there was Nestorianism: the belief that started when Nestorius denied that Mary could be called Mother of God. To him, Mary was mother of the human Jesus only. This implied that there were two Christs: one divine, the other human. Against Nestorius, the council of Ephesus (431 A.D.) decreed that the two natures of Jesus cannot be separated. Everything Jesus does is done by both the humanity and divinity in him. Likewise, everything that happened to him happened to both the man and God that he is. Therefore Mary gave birth to both, both died on the cross, etc.

Correct.

At yet another council, the council of Chalcedon (451 A.D.) the creed received some finishing touches and the Athanasian creed was declared official church teaching. Most Christians are not familiar with the detailed implications of the creed and in their own minds conceive of Jesus in the very ways the creed was formulated to deny. This tendency results from the fact that the creeds definition of Jesus is impossible for any human mind to comprehend.

No; it stems from the fact that there are people in all religions who do not adequately study to understand what their own religion teaches in the first place. It is a function of ignorance, not impossibility of comprehension. The Holy Trinity and the Two Natures of Christ are very difficult to comprehend and conceptualize, we freely grant. But that doesn’t make them impossible to rationally accept (with the aid of faith), or contradictory. They are mysteries. Of course, there are mysteries in Islam, also, concerning the nature of Allah that are not fully comprehensible by human minds (if at all). That doesn’t mean they are unable to be accepted and believed. Here are some Islamic beliefs about Allah (many held in common with Christians) which are equally or arguably more difficult to comprehend than the Two Natures of Jesus or the Holy Trinity:

He is The Almighty (al-Jabbar) (omnipotence).[See: al-Baqarah 2:106,117; Âl ‘Imran 3:165,189; al-Anfal 8:41; at-Taubah 9:116; Hud 11:4; an-Nahl 16:40; al-Mu’min 40:68; Ha Mim Sajdah 41:39; ash-Shura 42:49; al-Hadid 57:2]

He is The All-Knowing (al-`Alim) (omniscience).
He is The All-Hearing, The Hearer (al-Sami`) (without sensory organs).
He is The All-Seeing (al-Basir).
He is The Infinite, The All-Embracing (al-Wasi`).
He is The Giver of Life (al-Muhyi).
He is The Self-Subsisting (al-Qayyum).
He is The Self-Sufficient (al-Ghani).
He is The Eternal (al-Azali).
He is The Everlasting (al-Baqi).
He is beyond definition (az-Zukhruf 43:82; al-Mulk 67:12).
A day for Him is a thousand human years (al-Hajj 22:47; as-Sajdah 32:5).
He exists without a place.
He knows what is beyond comprehension.

[See: al-An`am 6:59,73; at-Taubah 9:94,105; ar-Ra`d 13:9; as-Sajdah 32:6; Saba’ 34:48; al-Fatir 35:38; az-Zumar 39:46; al-Hujurat 49:18; al-Hashr 59:22; al-Jum`ah 62:8; at-Taghabun 64:18; al-Jinn 72:26; al-Mudathir 74:31; al-A`la 87:7]

He is unknowable, even though “he is closer to man than his jugular vein” (Qaf 50:15).

Al-Ghazali, arguably the most preeminent Islamic theologian of all time, wrote:

The end result of the knowledge of the `arifin is their inability to know Him, and their knowledge is, in truth, that they do not know Him and that it is absolutely impossible for them to know Him. (Fadlou Shehadi, Ghazali’s Unique Unknowable God, Leiden, E. J. Brill, 1964, p. 37. The `arifin, literally “the knowers”, used by mystics in the sense of “gnostics”)

Does Mr. Ally wish to contend that all Muslims perfectly understand and comprehend all these attributes? I doubt it. Why, then, does he make such an argument where Christians are concerned? I fail to see how the Two Natures of Jesus is a notion of an entirely different order of incomprehensibility than the above attributes of Allah, as believed by Muslims. The concept of impossibility of knowing Allah is but one example that shows this very clearly. If one cannot even possibly know Allah; if He is utterly unknowable because He is so unlike man, then obviously here is one aspect of Allah that is “is impossible for any human mind to comprehend,” precisely what Mr. Ally states about the Two Natures of Jesus!

But Mr. Ally claims that the Two Natures is contradictory, and therefore unable to be believed by anyone. The only problem is that one could not believe in Allah, on the same grounds. So Mr. Ally’s argument clearly proves too much. If what he thinks he has “proven” backfires on his Islamic theology just as much as it “disproves” or renders Christian theology unworthy of reasonable belief, then obviously it is no effective argument against Christian belief (i.e., when offered by a Muslim), and must be discarded as not only false, but blasphemous, according to Mr. Ally’s own Islamic beliefs, because it applies to his own viewpoint in equal or greater measure.

We would (or should) fully expect that there are mysteries and difficult things for the human mind to accept, where God is concerned. He is an extraordinary Being, in both our views. Faith is required, after all, as in all religions. Religion is much more than simply philosophy and human reasoning. God’s revelation, whether believed to be in the Bible or the Qur’an, teaches some things that seem “novel” or “strange” to us, but we accept them because we have faith that these books are revelation: God’s revealing of Himself to mankind. That’s why Christians believe the things we do: based on God’s revelation, not our own human reasoning apart from that revelation (God forbid!).

One can only repeat the words, but cannot grasp the meaning of the required belief. Therefore most just repeat the creed with their lips but in their minds turn to views of Jesus that are less taxing on the intellect, even though those views were declared by the Church to be heretical.

Are there not many Muslims who do the same thing in an Islamic context? This is a secondary, irrelevant issue. It proves nothing more than that many people’s beliefs are inconsistent with the historic, orthodox teaching of their professed religion. The argument has to be made on other grounds. This is merely a variation of the ad populum fallacy.

The orthodox doctrine is logically impossible. As Huston Smith, scholar of comparative religion, points out, it would not have been logically impossible if the creed said that Jesus was somewhat divine and somewhat human.

The exact opposite is true. One cannot be “somewhat divine,” because divinity is absolute and cannot be watered-down or made a part of what it is. It cannot be other than what it is, so it is impossible (logically and in actuality) for it to be “somewhat” present. But divinity and humanity existing side-by-side is entirely conceivable and not logically contradictory, let alone impossible, at all. Mr. Ally once again undercuts his own case by expressing it in extreme terms.

But this is expressly what the creed denies. For orthodox Christians, Jesus cannot possess only some human qualities; he must possess all. He must be fully human. At the same time, he cannot possess only some divine qualities; he must have all.

That’s right. This follows by the very definition of God: Pure Being; the Supreme Being, the Self-Existent One, or, as Muslims say, the Self-Subsisting (al-Qayyum), and Self-Sufficient (al-Ghani) One.

He must be fully divine. This is impossible because to be fully divine means one has to be free of human limitations.

Not if He chooses to become incarnate without yielding up His inherent divine qualities. That’s not impossible at all. To claim that is to limit God’s omnipotence, which Muslims and Christians both accept as an essential attribute of God. In fact, that is probably why Mr. Ally overstates his argument in terms of “impossibility,” because an omnipotent Being is only limited with regard to logically impossible things. Therefore, unless Mr. Ally proves that becoming a man is a logically impossible thing for God (a proposition such as existing and not existing at the same time, etc.), he has no case at all, for God can do anything which is logically possible to do. But Mr. Ally simply hasn’t demonstrated that the Incarnation is a logical impossibility.

If he has only one human limitation then he is not God. But according to creed he has every human limitation. How, then, can he be God?

By being fully God and fully man; having two natures. But Christians believe that Jesus had every human limitation with the exception of sin. Sin results from fallen human beings, and Jesus is not fallen; He is perfectly righteous, being God in the flesh.

Huston Smith calls this a blatant contradiction. In his book The World’s Religions, he writes:

We may begin with the doctrine of the Incarnation, which took several centuries to fix into place. Holding as it does that in Christ God assumed a human body, it affirms that Christ was God-Man; simultaneously both fully God and fully man. To say that such a contention is paradoxical seems a charitable way to put the matter it looks more like a blatant contradiction. If the doctrine held that Christ was half human and half divine, or that he was divine in certain respects, while being human in others, our minds would not balk. (The World’s Religions, p. 340).

If it was said that Jesus was partly human and partly divine that would not be logically impossible but only scripturally impossible.

First of all, technically, Smith did not say it was a contradiction, but that “it looks more like” one. Secondly, he has not shown (at least not in this citation; hence, not in Mr. Ally’s argument) that it must be a contradiction by the rules of logic. Thirdly, he explains the doctrines of the Two Natures and the Trinity in a fairly sympathetic manner in this same work (my copy is called The Religions of Man [New York: Mentor, 1958]; the above citation is on my p. 295). Fourthly, he argues that the strictest interpretation of logic is not always true to deeper realities (as in some scientific ideas). Smith was a philosopher, and his comments here were much more nuanced and subtle than readers would realize, if they had only this one quote to go by. One might argue, then, that it has been pulled out of context. I shall provide that context now, to make Smith’s overall view more apparent:

The Church has always admitted that such assertions are anomalous to man’s present understanding. The question is whether this is the last word on the matter. Actually we can ask the same question of science. There are so many findings in contemporary physics that refuse to be correlated in a single logical framework that Robert Oppenheimer has proposed a Law of Complementarity as the basic working concept in the field, meaning by this (in part) that opposing facts must be held in tension even where logically they are at odds if they can help account for phenomena observed. In more than one field, it seems reality can be more subtle than man’s logic at any given moment. Whenever we are forced to sacrifice either logic or evidence it would seem wise to stick with evidence, for this can lead to a wider logic whereas a rigid adherence to consistency can easily close the doors to ampler truth.. . . A bridge must touch both banks, and Christ was the bridge between God and man . . . To say that Christ was God is to say that the absolute love he embodied is the ultimate fact of the universe. To say that he was man as well is to insist that God’s love is really love, being willing to assume the full conditions of humanity and to suffer . . .

The third crucial concept is that of the Trinity . . . The basis of this doctrine, like the two preceding ones, is contained in the New Testament . . . In his final commission to the Apostles he collects these three persons of the Godhead into a single statement: “Go ye therefore into all the world, baptizing in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost.”

No concept of Christendom has enjoyed a greater reputation for obscurity than this. The Church itself has confessed it to be a mystery, true but beyond the reach of mind to fathom completely. Nevertheless, as nothing important in religion is entirely removed from human experience, here again it is possible to suggest by analogy something of what the doctrine involves . . . .

Every instance of seeing is a real unity. Nevertheless three distinguishable aspects are involved: the object seen, the act of vision, and the mental interpretation . . .

Dorothy Sayers’ play, The Zeal of Thy House, proposes the analogy of the artist’s creative act. First there is the Creative Idea, effortless and serene, beholding the entire work in an instance, a complete and timeless whole; this is the image of the Father. Next, not in time but in enumeration, there is the Creative Energy, working out the Idea in space and time with sweat and passion; this is the image of God incarnate, the Son, the Divine Word. Finally there is the Creative Power, the response the work elicits from the lively soul that perceives it; this is the image of the in-dwelling Spirit. “And these three are one, each equally in itself the whole work, whereof none can exist without [the] other: and this is the image of the Trinity.”

. . . distinctiveness is required by the Godhead itself. For God is love, and love is meaningless except between persons.

(pp. 295-297, 299-301)

The Bible nowhere teaches that Jesus was divine in any way.

This is sheer nonsense. I refer readers to the overwhelming biblical evidence, from my papers, Jesus is God: Biblical Proofs, and The Holy Trinity: Biblical Proofs. I always say that to not see such evidence, proven by literally hundreds of passages, is the equivalent of looking up in the sky and not seeing the sun at high noon on a clear summer day. Again, if one chooses to not accept the New Testament as inspired divine revelation, that is one thing, but to deny that it teaches what it clearly does teach (believe it or not) is quite another.

Furthermore, if he was only partly divine then he was not the One True God of the Old and New Testaments. God is All-Powerful, not somewhat all-powerful; God is All-Knowing, not somewhat all-knowing.

Exactly; that’s why we believe He is fully God and fully human, in two natures. Being partially divine is nonsensical, and impossible by the nature of things, in both religions, as Mr. Ally shows.

C. Randolph Ross is a Christian. In his book Common Sense Christianity he debunks the orthodox view not because it is difficult to understand, he says, but because it cannot meaningfully be said. He rejects it because it is impossible, he says. (Common Sense Christianity, p. 79).

Here we go again, with the re-defining of terms (if he is not orthodox, he is not a Christian, as there is only one correct Christian belief, and in this matter, it is trinitarianism and the Two Natures), and extravagantly excessive and wishful claims. To demonstrate that Ross is no Christian at all, but that he denies beliefs concerning God that Muslims and Christians hold in common, I would like to cite a review of this book on amazon.com, from one Brian Albert:

He loses me in chapter three when he argues that since his common sense won’t allow him to believe that a loving God can allow suffering, therefore God must not affect and must not even be in charge of earthly events. Having made that assumption, he goes on to say that the Bible is in error wherever it reveals God to be omnipotent, a loving Father (what kind of father isn’t involved in his children’s lives?), or an indwelling counselor. He believes Jesus performed no miracles except for a few faith healings.Using his common sense again, he states that Jesus is not really equivalent with God, because he doesn’t see how man and God can exist in one being. He says that all the writings of John and Paul that reveal Jesus to be God are either flawed theology or have been misinterpreted. He also believes that no atonement is necessary for sin, so the crucifixion and resurrection are religiously unimportant.

I may be an independent thinker, but I believe that the Bible must be an accurate representation of who God is, what He has done for us, and what He expects from us. Mr. Ross throws most of it away, reducing his religion mostly to the three synoptic gospels. However, even the synoptics clearly show Jesus to be God (“When the Son of Man comes in His glory and all the angels with him, …” Matt 25:31) and God to be very much involved in the lives of His children (“Are not two sparrows sold for a penny? Yet not one of them will fall to the ground apart from the will of your Father” Matt 10:29).

This is Christianity? Hardly! It is a classic case of someone who no longer believes in Christianity, trying to dishonestly co-opt the name, while thoroughly redefining it beyond all recognition. And to use such a person to argue against Christianity is a highly-objectionable method, per my remarks near the beginning of this paper. He simply is not a Christian to begin with. Once one denies the Trinity within an alleged Christian framework, they almost always reject other central doctrines, too. So Ross denies that God is all-powerful. He is no longer sovereign, and the Bible states falsehood wherever it states this.

But he (unlike Mr. Ally) knows full well that the writings of Paul and John clearly teach the divinity of Christ. So, rather than denying this, he simply concludes that those books are not trustworthy. At least in this way he is more internally consistent than Mr. Ally is. The crucifixion and resurrection are unimportant in Ross’s view, yet Mr. Ally considers this man a Christian? Has Mr. Ally ever heard of the holy days of Good Friday and Easter?

Thus we see the seriously-flawed nature of the citations Mr. Ally has brought to the table thus far. Huston Smith was cited incompletely, and his fully-expressed view is far closer to my perspective than the point of view that Mr. Ally is setting forth. C. Randolph Ross, on the other hand, introduced as a “Christian,” is severely skeptical of the Bible itself. He rejects beliefs that are central to Christianity by any conceivable sensible, traditional definition of the term, and even beliefs such as the omnipotence of God, which Muslims and Christians both adhere to. Furthermore, he rightly assumes that St. John and St. Paul taught the divinity of Christ (at least if we grant that the books by their name reflect their opinions), and so simply rejects their writings, whereas Mr. Ally denies that the entire New Testament teaches the divinity of Jesus.

In both cases, they simply reject (for all the wrong reasons) beliefs which are unacceptable to them. One denies in a sweeping fashion what the New Testament clearly teaches, and the other holds that those portions of the Bible which teach the divinity of Christ more plainly than others are not part of the “real” New Testament in the first place.

His arguments are so persuasive that I can do little better than just repeat them. To be human means to be limited, lacking in knowledge, prone to mistakes, imperfect. To be God means just the opposite: unlimited, complete in knowledge, infallible, perfect. You cannot have it both ways. You cannot say of one person that he was both. Either he was one or the other.

That has been covered above, but I will get in more depth below, by offering several different arguments suggesting the plausibility of the Two Natures and the Holy Trinity.

THIS IS NO PARADOX

To those who say this is a paradox, Ross answers nicely. It is important to understand first of all what is a paradox. A paradox is something that seems impossible but can be demonstrated to be true. On the other hand, the creedal statement may seem true to some people but logic demonstrates it to be false. Ross argues with an example that makes the point succinct:

Ah! some will say. Thats the paradox! No, it isnt a paradox. This is a very important point, so please take special note: a paradox is something which seems impossible but which is demonstrably true. Thus, it was a paradox when some scientist carefully analyzed bumblebees and concluded that according to the laws of physics they couldnt fly. There was contradiction and apparent impossibility, but bumblebees kept on flying.However, for an individual to be both perfect and imperfect is the reverse of this: it may seem true to some, but it is demonstrably impossible. And not just impossible according to our understanding of the laws of nature, which can be wrong (as with the bumblebee), but impossible according to the rules of logic upon which all our reasoning is based. (p. 82)

Let me elaborate this last point.

I’m glad, because, once again, the citation does not by any means prove Ross’s assertion.

Human observation and analysis can turn out to be incorrect. This was the case with the scientist who figured that according to the laws of Physics bumblebees could not fly. The flaw in his procedure is that our understanding of the laws of nature is always improving. New knowledge often declare old to be false. But with the rules of logic things are different. What is true by definition will always remain true unless we start redefining things. For example, 2+2=4. This equation will always remain true. The only way this can ever become false is if we decide to change the definitions of the component parts.

I agree, as far as this goes. It is in the false application of logic to the question at hand, where Mr. Ally goes astray.

Now, by definition, a thing cannot be the opposite of itself. A thing cannot be perfect and imperfect at the same time. The presence of one of these qualities implies the absence of the other. Jesus was either one or the other. He cannot logically be both. Ross is very eloquent on this:

To say someone is perfect and imperfect is like saying that you saw a square circle. This is an impossibility. Are you saying the circle was not round, in which case it was not a circle? Or are you saying the square was circular? This is not a paradox; this is meaningless nonsense, however imaginative it might be. (p. 82)

To develop this point further, I tried to relate it to what can and cannot be said about Jesus according to the creed. In the diagram we see a figure that is somewhat round and somewhat square. It is unorthodox to say that Jesus was somewhat man and somewhat God. Even the models that combine a circle and a square one inside the other do not work, for in each case you have two objects clearly separable. Orthodoxy does not allow this for the two natures of Jesus. To satisfy the requirements of orthodoxy we must find an object which is at once a circle and a square. By definition, such an object cannot exist (see accompanying diagram, next page).

But this is not what the doctrine entails; it is a distortion of the Two Natures. The very fact that there are two natures saves it from contradiction. One Person who has Two Natures: a Divine Nature and a Human Nature. Therefore, it is not expressing the following scenario, which is indeed contradictory:

1. Jesus is a person who is represented by a square and only a square (humanity).

*

2. Jesus is a person who is represented by a circle and only a circle (divinity).

Rather, the doctrine holds:

1. Jesus is a Divine Person.

2. A Divine Person is such that (unlike a merely human person) He can remain Divine while incorporating also a human nature (the Christian doctrine of the Incarnation; literally, “taking on flesh”).

3. Jesus is a Divine Person such that he can possess a divine nature (a “circle”) and a human nature (a “square”).

4. The two natures differ, but exist side-by-side, as attributes of one Divine Person.

Five Models That Fail to Demonstrate the Two Natures of Christ in Christian Theology:

1. A circle representing divinity. This fails because Christ is said to be both divine and human.

2. A square representing humanity. This fails because Christ is said to be both divine and human.

3. An object somewhat square and somewhat round, representing humanity and divinity. This fails because Christ is said to be completely divine and completely human.

4. One object inside another [Dave: a circle inside a square, per the diagram]. This fails because they say that God became man, not just that God was inside the man.

5. A square inside a circle. This fails for a reason similar to #3.

The One Model That Demonstrates the Two Natures of Christ in Christian Theology:

6. See if you can draw here any diagram to show how Christ can be God and man at the same time.

Sam Shamoun, a Reformed Protestant and critic of Islam, has answered this challenge quite adequately, I think (in personal correspondence to me):

This first part I got from Alister McGrath in one of his books: The problem with the squared circle analogy is that it assumes that God and man, much like squares and circles, belong to the same category. For instance, both squares and circles belong to the same category of shapes, but God and man belong to two different categories of Being.

Hence, one can take things from two different categories and unite them, for instance you can have a red circle or a blue square since one belongs to the category of colors and the other belongs to the category of shapes. Likewise, God can unite himself to the category of man without ceasing to be God since it is within his ability to do so. Man cannot do so since it is not within his capacity.

Secondly, even assuming that the analogy with a square and circle validly described the Incarnation, this still doesn’t entail a logical contradiction. They actually are gross misrepresentations of the doctrine.

For instance, a more valid example would have been to take a square and attach it to a circle. In other words, you would have a square and a circle united to each other, coexisting side by side. You would not have a squared circle, nor would you place a square within the circle or the circle within the square. You would have instead a square and a circle coexisting together at the same time.

The difficulty is not with believing what the creed says. The problem is that the creed in effect says nothing. When we are told two opposites what then are we to believe? Ross puts it nicely:

To say that someone is perfect and imperfect at the same time is to say that X and not-X can both be true. This is either to abandon the meaning of these words or else to abandon logic, and in either case this means we are speaking nonsense that can have no meaning for us. (p. 82)

The orthodox say that Jesus was imperfect with regards to his human nature but perfect with regards to his divine nature. The problem with this position is that it implies the existence of two persons occupying the one body of Jesus: one perfect, the other imperfect. You need for this two minds, two wills, two characters. But the creed does not allow this necessary conclusion and insists that Jesus was not two persons but one only. Now, this one person had to be either perfect or not, infallible or not, unlimited in knowledge or not. You cannot say of the same person that he was both.

Two Natures; two Natures, in one Divine Person!

Now let us closely examine this assertion that the Incarnation and the Two Natures of Jesus (and by inevitable implication, the Holy Trinity also) are logically impossible, meaningless propositions. Upon close scrutiny, all these arguments utterly collapse, and it will be plain to see that they do, and why they do.

First of all, the most obvious difficulty has to do with God’s omnipotence, which Muslims and Christians both accept. Now, the claim is that God could not become a man, because it is “logically impossible” (God and man being different and thus, unable to be merged in a single being). This involves a logical absurdity, seen in the following straightforward chain of reasoning:

1. God is omnipotent, meaning that He possesses all power and can do everything which is logically possible to do.

2. God created man out of nothing, as Creator (which is a function of His omnipotence and His nature as the Essential, Pure, Self-Existent, Self-Sufficient, Self-Subsisting, Infinite, Eternal Being).

3. Furthermore, we are told that man was created in God’s image (Genesis 1:27).

[Muslims have traditionally believed that the Old Testament and especially the first five books, or Torah, is an inspired revelation. See: What Does the Qur’an Say About the Jewish and Christian Scriptures?, by Samuel Green]

4. And God, on several occasions, took on human form, according to the Old Testament (what are known as “Theophanies”):

GENESIS 18:1 And the Lord appeared unto him in the plains of Mamre: and he sat in the tent door in the heat of the day. (KJV; cf. 18:13, 17, 22)

GENESIS 32:24, 30 And Jacob was left alone; and there wrestled a man with him until the breaking of the day . . . (30) And Jacob called the name of the place Peniel: for I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved. (cf. 35:9-15)

EXODUS 24:10 And they saw the God of Israel: and {there was} under his feet as it were a paved work of a sapphire stone, . . .

ISAIAH 6:1 In the year that king Uzziah died I saw also the Lord sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up, and his train filled the temple.

EZEKIEL 43:6-7 And I heard {him} speaking unto me out of the house; and the man stood by me. (7) And he said unto me, Son of man, the place of my throne, and the place of the soles of my feet, where I will dwell in the midst of the children of Israel for ever, and my holy name, shall the house of Israel no more defile, . . .

5. God also appeared in the form of the “Angel of the Lord.” An angel is a creation, not an eternal being, so if God appeared as an angel, He assumed a form and a nature (as in the Theophanies above) that is not intrinsically God; much like the Incarnation itself:

JUDGES 2:1 And an angel of the Lord came up from Gilgal to Bochim, and said, I . . . have brought you unto the land which I sware unto your fathers; and I said, I will never break my covenant with you.

JUDGES 6:12, 14 And the angel of the Lord appeared unto him, and said unto him, The Lord {is} with thee, thou mighty man of valour . . . (14) And the Lord looked upon him, and said, Go in this thy might, and thou shalt save Israel from the hand of the Midianites: have not I sent thee? (cf. 6:16, 20-23)

ZECHARIAH 12:8 In that day shall the Lord defend the inhabitants of Jerusalem; and he that is feeble among them at that day shall be as David; and the house of David {shall be} as God, as the angel of the Lord before them.

(cf. Genesis 31:11-13; Exodus 3:2-6, 14-16; Joshua 5:14-15)

6. What do these Theophanies suggest? The Bible described God as able to be “seen” in the above passages, and others (such as Genesis 17:1, 33:11, Numbers 12:7-8, Deuteronomy 34:10, Judges 13:22, and Isaiah 6:5). For those who deny the incarnation of Christ, Theophanies do show that the notion of God becoming a man is not altogether incomprehensible or impossible, but rather, downright plausible. Theophanies might be considered precursors (along with verses such as Isaiah 9:6 and Micah 5:2) of the incarnation of the Messiah Jesus, the Son of God. Now how is it possible for the invisible God, Who is a Spirit, to be seen, and to have a body? Yet this is what we are told in the Old Testament. This is scarcely any different from the incarnation, yet Mr. Ally tells us that the latter is “logically impossible”!

7. How is it, then, that Mr. Ally believes that the incarnation cannot possibly happen, based on purely logical considerations? We start with an omnipotent God. He makes man in His image; He appears as a man; He appears as the angel of the Lord (and angels are not eternal, and they are creatures; so this — like the Theophanies — is a supposed “contradiction” since it opposes God’s Nature). He can and does do all that, yet supposedly He can’t become a man. This is what is logically absurd, not the incarnation, as seen in the following logical chain:

A. God has all power.

B. God appeared as a man, supposedly “contrary” to His nature as invisible, eternal, and a non-creature (which man is).

C. God appeared as an angel, supposedly “contrary” to His nature as invisible, eternal and a non-creature (which an angel is). Angels are normally invisible, but they can materialize, and 1 Corinthians 15:35-44 hints that they can have “celestial” or “spiritual” bodies.

D. God created man in His own image.

E. But God cannot become a man. This is logically impossible.

Oh??!! How is it logically impossible for a Being with all power, Who appears as a man and an angel, and Who creates man in His own image, to become a man? By what ironclad, indisputable logic do we completely distinguish the concepts of appearing like a man or an angel in all outward aspects, and becoming an actual man? Certainly the two notions are quite close, and if one is actual, we cannot plausibly rule out the other concept as “impossible.” We might be able to reasonably infer (apart from revelation and faith considerations) that it didn’t happen in fact, but we can’t reasonably infer that it is “logically impossible.”And that is because of the well-known maxim and prior widely-accepted axiom that “the stream can’t rise above its source.” If God can make a man, He can easily become one, without yielding up His divinity, which cannot by definition ever be given up. To say that He could not do so would be to say that a mere creature possesses attributes (existence in human form) that the Almighty God does not and cannot possess, and that is absurd.

Contingent and derivative creatures can never be greater than their own cause: the First Cause and Prime Mover and Creator of all: the Almighty God. If God switched from being God to being a mere man, that would be absurd, because of the immutability (unchangeability) of God. But if He takes on human nature in addition to His Divine Nature, which He always has, and cannot ever lose, it is no contradiction at all; it is simply part and parcel of His omnipotence. The legitimate reasoning chain, therefore, works as follows:

A. God has all power.

B. God created man.

C. Man has the attribute of existence in human form.

D. Therefore, existence in human form is logically possible, because it exists and is manifestly apparent.

E. An omnipotent God can do all that is logically possible.

F. Existence in human form is logically possible (D).

G. Therefore, God can so exist as well (while simultaneously and necessarily remaining God), since He created the human form, and made the human form in His own image, and even assumed it in the Theophanies (and in angelic forms).

H. Otherwise, He is not omnipotent, for man would be able to do something (exist as a man) that the very Creator of man, Whose image man reflects, cannot do.

I. Omnipotence is central to the definition of God. Therefore, H must be false (granting the theistic nature of God), and G must be true.

J. Ergo, the Incarnation is not only not logically impossible; is quite plausible from reason alone, and an actuality, based on reason and revelation and historical argument.

When Jesus faced death on the cross according to Christian belief, either he faced it with the human belief that he would be raised on the third day, or he faced death with the infallible knowledge that he would be so raised. If he believed with human faith in Gods power to raise him then he himself was not God. If, on the other hand, he faced death with infallible divine knowledge that he would be resurrected, then he was not taking any real risk in letting himself die. If the divine nature in him knew he would be raised, but he did not know this, then it was not his divine nature. If the divine nature knew something he did not, we are back to two persons.

Not at all, based on the above reasoning. This is thoroughly muddleheaded and inconsistent and incoherent. First of all, false dichotomies are created. Even if Jesus were merely a human being, God could have supernaturally given Him the knowledge that he was to die on a cross, so we need not choose between “human belief and faith” and “divine infallibility.” Secondly, we know from many passages in the New Testament that Jesus knew what was to happen, while simultaneously having some of the usual human limitations and divine attributes as well, in His divine nature. He didn’t “believe” it, He knew it. He even stated that this was the purpose He had come to earth from heaven. So this shows He is God in the flesh.

Thirdly, as for knowledge of what was to happen meaning that it was no “risk,” this is a non sequitur, since the nature of His death was one of the most terrible known to man, and His isolation and taking on the sins of the whole world was an unfathomably horrible, unimaginable suffering. Fourthly, He not only knew what was to happen, and that He would be resurrected, but He resurrected Himself, which only God can do. But the Bible also says that God the Father and the Holy Spirit raised Him. This is a clear proof of the Trinity in the Bible:

GALATIANS 1:1 . . . God the Father, who raised him from the dead;) (cf. 1 Thess 1:10) (KJV)

ROMANS 8:11 . . . the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, . . .

JOHN 2:19 Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.

JOHN 10:17-18 Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. (18) No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father.

This could get more difficult to explain as we look at the deeds reported of Jesus in the gospels and ask whether the divine or human nature or both performed those deeds.

Jesus performed all of them, and he possessed both Natures, so this is another non-issue and non sequitur. It’s a red herring.

Let us consider the episode where Jesus curses the fig tree. First, the account as it appears in Mark:

Jesus was hungry. Seeing in the distance a fig tree in leaf, he went to find out if it had any fruit. When he reached it, he found nothing but leaves, because it was not the season for figs. The he said to the tree, May no one ever eat fruit from you again. (Mark 11:12-14, NIV)

As a result, the tree withered from the roots (v. 20). Now, a few things are clear from this episode.

1. Jesus did not know the tree had no fruit until he went up to the tree and found nothing but leaves.

That doesn’t follow. The passage might be in phenomenological or observational terms: simply describing the situation as a normal being would perceive it. Or, it could simply be an instance which is describing His normal human limitations. That doesn’t mean that He ever ceased having the quality of omniscience in His Divine Nature.

2. When Jesus saw leaves from a distance he hoped to find fruit on the tree.

3. It was not fig season, and this is why the tree had no figs. This comment from Mark clearly, implies that it was a perfectly good tree. If the tree was barren, Marks comment about the season would have been pointless and misleading.

4. Jesus did not know it was not fig season. If he had known this, he would not have expected the tree to have fruit, and he would not have cursed the tree for having no fruit.

5. The whole thing began when Jesus felt hungry.

All of this is so much ado about nothing, since the whole point of this passage is as a parable, which was a teaching device to make a point. It was not an ontological treatise on the Nature of God or the Incarnation. For further reading and an in-depth discussion of the fig tree and other excellent related material, see Sam Shamoun’s article (also in response to Shabir Ally): A Christian Response to “Jesus is Not All-Powerful, and Not All-Knowing.”

Now it is easy to understand that the human Jesus felt hunger, and that the human Jesus did not know it was not fig season and so mistakenly expected the tree to have fruit. A divine Jesus would have known all these, and would not have to go to the tree to discover it had no fruit; he would not have been hungry in the first place.

Jesus had both Natures. God as an omnipotent Being can willingly limit Himself if He so chooses, insofar as the Incarnation is concerned (per the reasoning in my logical chains above). This is clearly expressed in Philippians 2:5-7 (RSV):

. . . Christ Jesus, who, though he was in the form of God . . . emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men.

Now the cursing of the tree is a little more difficult for those who assert the divinity of Jesus. His miracles, they say, are performed by his divine nature. Okay, so the divine Jesus cursed the tree. But why? Why ruin a tree which in Marks view was a perfectly good tree? Come fig season this tree would have had fruit and others could have eaten from it. The reason was that the human Jesus made a mistake. But why did the divine Jesus act upon the mistake of the human Jesus? Does the human mind in Jesus guide the divine nature in him?

This is all beside the point of the act and the parable Jesus wished to convey: that physical obstacles could not hinder the disciples in following God; rather it was lack of faith. Thus, when they saw that the tree had withered (Mark 11:20), Jesus uses it as a lesson to enjoin faith (11:22-24), using an exaggerated example of a mountain being cast in the sea by virtue of faith.

Actually, there is no warrant for all this speculation, for scripture nowhere says that Jesus has two natures. Those who want to believe contrary to scripture that Jesus was fully human yet fully divine can go on speculating.

Again, it is all over Scripture, which shows Him with human limitations, but simultaneously with divine characteristics. Philippians 2:5-8, which I partially cited not far above, states it fairly explicitly. John 1:1, 14, 18 states both notions also:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God . . . And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us . . . No one has ever seen God; the only Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he has made him known. (RSV)

It is true that the doctrine developed historically (as all doctrines do), but all essentials necessary for it are clearly present in Scripture. Even Mr. Ross, whom Mr. Ally cites (describing him as a “Christian”) against the doctrine, knows this, because he rejects the writings of Paul and John rather than accept what they plainly teach (because he has decided he doesn’t like them, and doesn’t care what is taught in the Bible).

Some will say that everything is possible with God, and that we are using words here with their human meanings. This is true. Everything is possible with God. We believe that. If you tell me God did such and such and He is such and such I cannot say it is impossible. But what if you say God did and did not, or He is and is not? Your statements are meaningless. When you say that Jesus is perfect God and perfect man at the same time you are saying two opposite things. Therefore, I reply, Impossible!

This is untrue, as shown. Simply repeating his fallacious logic over and over does not make Mr. Ally’s flawed argument become a true one.

So what we need here is to hear it said with meaning. If you think that the words have a different or deeper meaning, when applied to God I cannot help agreeing with you. But I would like to know with what meaning you are using those words. Ross explains:

If you wish to redefine some of these words, thats fine, as long as you can tell us the new meanings that you are using. The usual practice, however, seems to be to say that while one cannot say precisely what these new meanings are, one is nevertheless sure that they fit together in a way that makes sense. This, of course, is simply an effort to duck the requirements of logic. But if you do not know the meanings of the words which you are applying to Jesus, then you are simply saying Jesus is X and Jesus is Y, X and Y being unknowns. This, of course, is to say nothing at all. (p. 83)

As a result of this confusion, many Christians revert to the idea that Jesus had two natures that are separable. Sometimes he acts as a human and sometimes he acts as God.

So what? The God of the Old Testament does the same thing. When He took the form of a man, and wrestled with Jacob, He was acting as a human. When He creates and predicts the future, and judges whole nations, and does other extraordinary things like that, He is acting as only God can act, and how man cannot act. So where is the beef? This is simply irrelevant, illogical skepticism, typical of a man who was arrogant and absurdly self-important enough to pick and choose what he wants to believe in the Bible, and reject the rest, yet continue to call this “Christianity.” What would Mr. Ally think of a Muslim who treated the Qur’an so disrespectfully, arbitrarily, and with such contempt? If he wouldn’t allow that (as I suspect, or hope, anyway), then why does he use such a man as a central “plank” in his argument against Christianity? Why doesn’t he just go to the Bible, which he knows that real Christians (unlike Mr. Ross) actually accept as inspired revelation?

This, of course, is not supported by scripture, and it would have been wiser to move to the scriptural position that Jesus was a man and a servant of God (See Matthew 12:18, Acts 3:13, Acts 4:27 in the Holy Bible, Revised Standard Version).

Mr. Ally is welcome to refute all the hundreds of evidences to the contrary, that I have compiled in my papers, Jesus is God: Biblical Proofs, and The Holy Trinity: Biblical Proofs.

William Ellery Channing is one of many Christians who have moved to that scriptural position. He wrote thus:

Where do you meet, in the New Testament, the phraseology which abounds in Trinitarian books and which necessarily grows from the doctrine of two natures in Jesus? Where does this divine teacher say, “this I speak as God, and this as man; this is true only of my human mind, this only of my divine? Where do we find in the Epistles a trace of this strange phraseology? Nowhere. It was not needed in that day. It was demanded by the errors of a later age.We believe, then that Christ is one mind, one being, and, I add, a being distinct from the one God. That Christ is not the one God, not the same being with the father, is a necessary inference from our former head, in which we saw that the doctrine of three persons in God is a fiction . . . . Jesus, in his preaching, continually spoke of God. The word was always in his mouth. We ask, does he by this word ever mean himself? We say, never. On the contrary, he most plainly distinguishes between God and himself, and so do his disciples. (William Ellery Channing, Unitarian Christianity and Other Essays, edited by Irving H. Bartlett (U.S.: Liberal Arts Press, 1957) pp. 17-18)

I appeal to my two papers above. Channing is as abysmally misinformed about the content of the Scriptures as Mr. Ross and Mr. Ally are (with all due respect). I don’t claim to “know” about the Qur’an (“knowledge” that a Muslim like Mr. Ally would consider a bunch of nonsense). I don’t know much about it at all. So I refrain from making sweeping statements about it. I respectfully submit, then, that Muslims, by the same token, ought to stop making silly, unsubstantiated claims about the Bible and other religions.

It is disrespectful and merely shows their own lack of knowledge, just as my behavior would be if I went on and on about the Qur’an, and cited “liberal” Muslims who no longer believe what traditional Islam teaches, and has always taught; stating things that any educated, practicing Muslim would immediately detest as falsehood and distortion. Channing is no Christian, and shouldn’t be cited as one. On a web page affiliated with the Christian History Institute [link no longer works], the radical, unChristian nature of Channing’s beliefs were described as follows:

At the ordination of his protégé, Jared Sparks, held on this day, May 5, 1819, he delivered the speech which separated the Unitarians from the Calvinists and soon made them an independent denomination.The first half of his speech defended the use of human reason in interpreting scripture. His arguments ignored the role of the Holy Spirit in illuminating scripture. In the second half of the speech, he sported the results of a theology of the unaided human mind. Not surprisingly, the subtle concepts of the Trinity were first to go. “We object to the doctrine of the Trinity, that it subverts the unity of God.”

Rejecting the Trinity, the Unitarians rejected much other Christian doctrine. Channing expressed these views forthrightly in his speech. Christ was not both God and man, nor a member of the godhead. The vicarious atonement of Christ for sin was absurd. Election by grace was a preposterous notion. In short, virtually every doctrine which seems fundamental to Christian religion, Channing renounced that day. He was, of course, not the first to do so, and he surely wasn’t the last.

Some “Christian,” huh? He renounced “virtually every doctrine which seems fundamental to Christian religion,” yet Mr. Ally chooses him to bolster his argument and presents him as a “Christian.” I’m as much a Muslim as Channing was a Christian! I know virtually nothing about the Qur’an; Channing obviously knows next to nothing about the Bible, in order for him to ludicrously present his views as “Christian.” Mr. Ally himself speaks in terms of orthodox Christianity and writes things like, “those views were declared by the Church to be heretical.” “The Church” is an historical entity. This was and is Christianity. Words meansomething.

If Mr. Ally wants to argue that heterodox or so-called “modern” Christianity is superior to the historic, “orthodox” Christianity of the creeds (as suggested by the sort of ultra-liberal apostate “Christians” he cites), then he could not object to a Christian doing the same thing in analyzing Islam: tearing apart the Qur’an, citing “Muslims” who no longer accept the authority of the Qur’an and traditional orthodox Islamic teaching, yet insist on being called “Muslims” all the same. Something tells me he would not appreciate such a method much at all, and he would be perfectly justified in taking such a dim view of it. If that is the case, then why does he act in precisely this fashion in his critique of Christian views?

Channing contends that since the doctrine of the two natures is so strange, so difficult, so remote from all the previous conceptions of men, it would have been taught with utmost clarity in the Bible had it been a necessary belief for Christians.

That doesn’t follow. Many teachings are not all that explicit in the Bible. In fact, the very notion that a doctrine ought to be present in the Bible with “utmost clarity” in order to be a required Christian belief, is not itself even remotely present in the Bible. It is merely Channing’s own arbitrary human tradition. Yet he acts as if this is decisive. The listing of the books of the Bible is not in the Bible at all. That had to come from Sacred Tradition and Church authority. Yet Channing assumes that a thing called the “Bible” is self-evident. His position, is, therefore, shot through with self-defeating notions.

But no such teaching can be found in the Bible. Some Christians say, however, that some passages ascribe divine qualities to Jesus and others human qualities. To reconcile all these necessitates the said doctrine. Channing replies that those passages that seem to ascribe divine qualities to Jesus can be easily explained without resorting to the doctrine.

So he says, but he could not prove this from the Bible. It would be like trying to patch up a bucket with 200 holes in it (his ludicrous “biblical case” against orthodox Christology), with ten blades of grass.

He regards with disdain what he understands to be the solution proposed by other Christians:

In other words, for the purpose of reconciling certain difficult passages, which a just criticism can in a great degree, if not wholly, explain, we must invent a hypothesis vastly more difficult, and involving gross absurdity. We are to find our way out of a labyrinth by a clue which conducts us into mazes infinitely more inextricable. (p. 17)

His disdain contradicts previous Christian teaching of at least 1500 years. My disdain for his arbitrary, Johnny-come-lately view does not require any such internally-incoherent and arbitrary scenario. Christians believe that historic Christianity means something. Protestants place less confidence in historical Christianity than catholics, but in this area, there is no difference between the two: both fully agree where Christology is concerned.

Many, like Channing, after thorough study have concluded that Jesus was simply a man chosen by God to deliver His message. The mighty works he did were by the permission and aid of God. Jesus of his own could do nothing. The book The Myth of God Incarnate, edited by John Hick, is a collection of essays written by practicing Christian theologians and clergymen. Anyone who still has a doubt about this matter should read that book.

This is just more skepticism, loss of faith, and appeals to ultra-liberal so-called “Christians.” Mr. Ally’s case gets less impressive the longer he tries to plead for his lost cause.

Finally, we must turn to God for His guidance. He sent His final book, the Quran to rescue mankind from the theological traps of humanly invented dogmas. The Quran addresses Christians and Jews:

O people of the Scripture! Now hath Our Messenger come unto you, expounding unto you much of that which ye used to hide of the Scripture, and forgiving much. Now hath come unto you light from Allah and a plain Scripture, whereby Allah guideth him who seeketh His good pleasure unto paths of peace. He bringeth them out of darkness into light by His decree, and guideth them unto a straight path. (Quran 5:14-15)

And again:

Say: O People of the Scripture! Stress not in your religion other than the truth, and follow not the vain desires of the folk who erred of old and led many astray, and erred from the plain road. (Quran 5:77)

Let us pray to Allah for His help. Nothing is possible without His help. O Allah! Guide us and guide all of humankind on the straight path.

If I were to adopt Mr. Ally’s methodology concerning these passages and the Qur’an in general, I would simply produce a self-defined “Muslim” who no longer believes in what the Qur’an teaches, cite him at length, conclude that he is far more reasonable than some 1400 years of Islamic history, tradition, and theology, and dismiss the latter as “impossible to be believed” and logically absurd. If Mr. Ally wouldn’t care for that method, then he ought to cease utilizing it himself. I find that his case collapses at all crucial points.

In conclusion, I would like to point out that every human being has a body, soul, and spirit. According to Mr. Ally’s incoherent reasoning above, this would have to be a contradictory and impossible state of affairs. How could a body be merged with a soul and/or spirit, because a body is material and spirit is not, and that is (so he tells us) contradictory! How can one being possess both qualities at the same time? If I say “I am a troubled soul,” I am referring to me as a person (both body and soul) having a troubled mind or conscience or soul (which is immaterial). Both exist simultaneously. When we say, “the spirit is willing, but the flesh is weak,” we make a similar distinction. We talk about “one day I will die.” What does that mean? All it means is that my soul will become separate from my body. But I won’t die, if by that one means I will cease to exist. My soul will continue on eternally. If I say, after running a mile, “I am tired,” technically, that means “I” as my whole person, but physical tiredness does not refer to a spirit or soul, only a body. A spirit cannot become tired because it is not material.

The mind-body question is one of the most difficult problems in philosophy, both today and historically. But it is not thought to be “impossible” by many many philosophers for a body and a soul to exist together in some mysterious fashion. If we can’t even figure out these sublime mysteries about the nature of human beings, who are we to state dogmatically that something is “impossible” for God? It makes no sense. It is entirely possible, then, for God to take on human characteristics which are different from divine ones.

Another illustration comes from the world of modern physics, which holds to a notion of many more dimensions than we experience as human beings: dimensions that exist but that we have no awareness of. There are serious theories which posit entire universes just as real as ours, passing right through the one we know about. With this sort of extraordinary thing being seriously talked about in science, which is based on physical observation, why should we think we can casually rule out Jesus having Two Natures, which cannot even be seen in a micrscope?

Lastly, Christian apologist C.S. Lewis gives a great illustration of the Trinity by talking about dimensions and the limitations in perception that they cause. If we imagined a world with one dimension only, everything would be lines, and lines only. A conscious creature in that world would probably not be able to imagine anything different. Likewise, if we imagine a two-dimensional world, or what Lewis calls “flat land,” then length and width are possible, but not depth. Thus, such a world can conceptualize a square. But it cannot conceive of a cube, which is a three-dimensional shape.

In the same way that a flatlander cannot comprehend a third dimension and a cube or a box or a cylinder or a pyramid shape, we cannot comprehend a God who is not limited to one person, as we are, but subsists in three persons. We cannot imagine it, based on categories with which we are unfamiliar, but that doesn’t make it logically impossible. Who is to say that God is not a Being such that He consists of three persons? In our world, each person is one person, and each person is different in some way from every other person. But God is of an entirely different order of being than we are. We can only learn so much about Him, short of revelation, and the Christian revelation describes God as being one being in three Persons, and that these three are equal in essence, power, and glory. They are completely merged in a oneness that maintains the oneness of God and monotheism. There is one God, not three. This God subsists in three Divine Persons.

Muslims, of course, disagree with that, but disagreement is not the same thing as logical impossibility in any conceivable world. We cannot even conceive of all worlds, so we would obviously be unable to conceive of all the attributes of God, Who is an infinite, eternal, all-powerful, self-existing, uncaused Pure Being. Since we cannot do so, it is foolish to start to rule things out, where God is concerned, based on reason alone. Revelation is another thing, but insofar as reason is used in one’s argument (as Mr. Ally’s argument basically is), trinitarianism cannot be ruled out a priori, nor can the Two natures of Christ, by the same token.

If Mr. Ally, on the other hand, wished to argue from revelation; he accepts the Qur’an as God’s fullest revelation, and if it teaches that trinitarianism is untrue, Mr. Ally will accept that, and is duty-bound to accept it as a faithful Muslim. But the argument for what is and isn’t an inspired divine revelation is an entirely different one, and if Mr. Ally thinks it upholds the Qur’an in a unique way, I can come back on the same basis and say that I believe it upholds the Bible. Then I simply say the Bible teaches trinitarianism (as it clearly does) and the argument is over (short of a giant “Bible vs. Qur’an” discussion). But on a purely logical, rationalistic basis, neither the Trinity nor the Two Natures of Christ are impossible and contrary to logic. They are paradoxical and extremely difficult for us to conceptualize, sure, but not logically impossible.

* * * * *
Response to a Criticism From a Catholic Reader

 

Dave, in the discussion with the Muslim about the Incarnation, you were right that there is no “iron-clad logic” which denies an omnipotent God the power to take on a human nature. But your arguments do no justice to how scandalous the Incarnation is to the intellect, how it confounded even the angelic intelligence of the seraphim and the cherubim when it was revealed to them, and, according to some patristic teaching (which I regret I do not know well enough to cite specifically), the mystery of the Incarnation, when it was revealed to Lucifer in the beginning of creation, played a role in his decision to rebel against God. I totally sympathise with those who cannot wrap their minds around this mystery, for which supernatural faith ( a gift of God’s grace, and not a natural attribute) is required. We must pray that God grant such people grace, not scold their logic as if they were just dim bulbs, not bright enough to -get it-. We who believe this do not –get it– either.The fact that you compare the notion of the Incarnation with theophanies and say that these are close –AS NOTIONS — illustrates this. They are close only in the imagination, where you can “picture” a theophany, and picture Jesus, and see a similarity in the mental image. In the abstarct meaning of these ideas, they are infinitely distant. Angels can appear as human beings, too, but their ability to produce “angelophanies” in no way makes it possible for them to Incarnate the way God did by taking on flesh and becoming the Man who is our Blessed Lord Jesus Christ. That self-emptying love took every last ounce of his omnipotence, so to speak. It required all the power of God for God to become a Man. No angel can do that, though they can present the appearance of doing so. The difference between appearance and reality, so central to ourt faith in the Eucharist, is undervalued by your argument. Perhaps you let your passion get the better of your reason at that moment.

I include here the offending quote:

Oh??!! How is it logically impossible for a Being with all power, Who appears as a man and an angel, and Who creates man in His own image, to become a man? By what ironclad, indisputable logic do we completely distinguish the concepts of appearing like a man or an angel in all outward aspects, and becoming an actual man? Certainly the two notions are quite close, and if one is actual, we cannot plausibly rule out the other concept as “impossible.”

You make an interesting point; something certainly well worth pondering. I’m not sure supernatural faith is required to believe in the Incarnation. Perhaps you are right to distinguish between a mental assent and actually embracing the notion in belief and faith. Supernatural faith helps us, no doubt, to believe in many things we otherwise would not believe. I’m just not sure this is one of them.

Remember the context of my debate with the Muslim. He was not only contending that the Incarnation was untrue as a matter of fact, but that it was literally logically impossible, which is a far stronger claim indeed (maybe the strongest that can be imagined with regard to the falsity of a particular claim). My response was, therefore, intended to put forth the argument that it was not logically impossible at all. You admit yourself that — as a point of logic — I was correct.

Therefore, I think your criticism (which I appreciate, as I do all articulate criticisms) is a bit off the mark, because of the exact nature of what I was trying to accomplish in that discussion. You stated, “your arguments do no justice to how scandalous the Incarnation is to the intellect.” Sure, I accept that, just as I agree (with St. Paul) that the cross itself (and the bodily resurrection, etc.) is “foolishness” to the natural intellect. But scandal and difficulty is much different from logical impossibility, and it was the latter I was addressing, not the former. It’s the difference between the following propositions:

1. I don’t believe Jesus atoned for the sins of the world when he died on the cross.

2. I don’t believe Jesus died by crucifixion.

3. I believe it is logically impossible that Jesus atoned for the sins of the world when he died on the cross.

The first is a matter of belief, faith, and assent. Christians believe this; non-Christians do not. The second has no theological implications, as stated, and is a matter of historical fact only (whether an event happened or not): it can be determined as true or false by the usual historiographical methodology. The third, however, is in a vastly different category. To claim that something is logically impossible is akin to declaring it nonsense in and of its very nature.

It is like saying, “it is impossible that I exist and not exist at the same time,” or “the sun and the moon can be at the same place at the same time.” There is no logical impossibility in #3; nor is there for the Incarnation or the Trinity. Difficult? Sure, absolutely. Hard to comprehend and believe? Yep, you bet. But logically impossible?! No, not at all. When one tries to claim too much for their argument, they make it very weak and unpersuasive and unbelievable.

You wrote:

We must pray that God grant such people grace, not scold their logic as if they were just dim bulbs, not bright enough to — get it –. We who believe this do not — get it — either.

I don’t think I was doing that (I certainly don’t wish to do it, and it would never be my intent, though admittedly I have little patience for truly dumb ideas). The argument wasn’t that he was so “dumb” or “dim” that he couldn’t grasp some simple thing. It was, rather, that his claims of logical impossibility were extravagant and presumptuous. And the nature of his argument is offensive to a Christian.

He was claiming far more than he could demonstrate by force of argument. He wanted to go beyond saying that Christianity or the Incarnation were untrue, to saying that they couldn’t possibly be true, according to the very rules of logic and thinking. Among other things, I showed him that there were many difficult mysteries in Islam, that he himself accepted, so that he should not be arguing in such a manner because it would backfire on his own beliefs.

It is presumptuous because he was being quite offensive in trying to imply that our Christian beliefs are so “illogical” and implausible and obviously false, that no one could possibly believe them and remain sensible and logical, rational thinkers. Think of it!: how extraordinary this claim is! It is one thing to simply believe your thing and recognize that others believe something different, and to try to understand why they do so. But to claim logical impossibility is truly calling us the “dim bulbs”, if anyone is doing that here. I don’t go around saying that “Islam is logically impossible to believe: no rational person could possibly accept it.” And I don’t imagine my Muslim opponent would take very kindly to that if I did so. Yet this is what he does to us (along with other unsavory methods in citation that I critiqued).

So my response was to show that his claim was false, by using his own presuppositions, that he shares with us (omnipotence of God, God as Creator, and some belief in the OT, where theophanies occurred). In other words, my reasoning was:

“You and I agree on these premises; I am trying to demonstrate how the Incarnation is not impossible at all for an omnipotent God, based on the premises and reasoning x, y, z which is derived from them . . . “

Now, you stated:

I totally sympathise with those who cannot wrap their minds around this mystery, for which supernatural faith (a gift of God’s grace, and not a natural attribute) is required.

That is fine in and of itself, but what you neglect to take into account is that the Muslim already believes many such things that are also beyond the human intellect to fully grasp (omnipotence, eternity, self-existence, creatio ex nihilo, spirit-being, etc.). In other words, since he already believes many such mysteries, it is foolish and a double standard for him to choose our Christian mysteries and claim that they are logically impossible for us to believe (it’s much different for a Muslim to make the argument than an atheist, because of the many assumptions he shares with the Christian). For he hasn’t shown that one is more “logically impossible” than the other.

I think you go too far, too, in your analyses of the Incarnation vis-a-vis God’s omnipotence:

That self-emptying love took every last ounce of his omnipotence, so to speak. It required all the power of God for God to become a Man.

By what chain of reasoning do you arrive at this conclusion? I don’t agree with this (but maybe you’re right: who knows?). I don’t see that it requires “every last ounce” and “all [God’s] power” to become a man. It’s not logically impossible: God created man, and in His own image; therefore He can become one if He so chooses. What needs to be explained is how God could create a man, but somehow it is unthinkable for Him to become that which He designed and created. I grant that it is difficult to believe as an actuality, but not toconceptualize.

And again, logical impossibility involves being unable to conceptualize a thing at all: and a reduction of that thing to literal nonsense or absurdity in its very nature. Furthermore, our Muslim friends believe in revelation as we do. We believe the Incarnation because it is plainly revealed in revelation, and because the historical Jesus made the claim. Muslims believe in revelation, too, and not all revelation is immediately explainable by human reason alone. He should, therefore, understand this, and not attempt to make the extravagant claim of logical impossibility.

You wrote:

No angel can do that, though they can present the appearance of doing so.

Yes, that’s right, but this is the very point I was making: We may not be able to understand it, and an angel may not be able to do it, but an omnipotent God certainly can, because He is the Creator and it is not logically impossible. It’s not, because men exist! And if they exist only because of God Who caused them and brought them into being, how is it that He could not (even possibly!) become a man, seeing that He is all-powerful, and can therefore do anything which is logically possible?

I don’t see how my quote is offensive, either. I find my opponents’ claim infinitely more offensive than anything I wrote in reply (though I am sure I could be more charitable and gentle, which is always the case).

Thanks for your feedback. It was a very interesting discussion.

 

2017-05-05T15:22:23-04:00

JoaquimaSt
Incorrupt body of St. Joaquina Vedruna de Mas (1783-1854) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]
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(2-26-09)

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This is a follow-up post to my previous entry, “Biblical Evidence for Candles, Incense, and Related Sacramental Symbolism for Prayer and Sacrifice.” Nick, a Protestant, has been very active in the combox for that post. I wanted to interact with some of his statements there. His words will be in blue.

* * * * *

[Note: the last section of the paper above on candles, concerning “lamps” and “lampstands” (“candles” and “candlesticks” in KJV) was added after the initial exchange. So some of Nick’s initial criticisms about “explicit biblical support” for candles have now been completely overcome. He is also, part of the time, responding to another person; hence the mixture of first and third person address]

***

Not a single verse you quote mentions candles. Not one.

I didn’t claim they did, so that is a moot point.

The first three (1 from Genesis, 2 from Leviticus) are in reference to OT sacrifices/offerings to God . . . something no Christian church does.

That wasn’t the main analogy in those passages, as I saw it (though I didn’t state this): which was to the “pleasing odor” to the Lord, which is similar to the incense in revelation as symbolic of prayer. There are multiple layers of types and shadows here.

The other four refer to incense. Luke’s reference is to incense in the Jewish Temple, due to a Jewish ceremony being held there,

That’s why my first “summary” statement was the following:

Incense (i.e., a thing that burns and produce smoke and fragrances, which is similar to a candle, complete with the metaphorical smelling of the offering by God), as an image of prayer, is an explicit biblical motif.

What is biblically explicit is a burning thing that represents prayer. Later, I did find that candles themselves are explicitly mentioned, too, because I had somehow overlooked the menorah and lampstands of Hebrew worship.

and the two passages in Revelation are symbolic. The three verses from Paul are clearly metaphors.

The prayers of the saints in those passages are not metaphorical. The smoke of the incense is indeed a metaphor for prayer, which is exactly my argument. Candles are closely aligned to that, in my opinion, as I have argued.

It’s certainly not indicative of something “sacramental,” i.e. an actual physical thing that confers grace.

I meant “sacramental” in the very widest sense, which would be use of physical things. A candle in a Catholic church is indirectly a sacramental insofar as it entails a physical action that can be a blessing in some sense to the person who lights one. And they would have been blessed by a priest. So they are sacramentals, as opposed to sacraments.

I’m not claiming that candles are sinful, wrong, or that we should remove them from churches, but for you to claim that there’s “explicit” support for them in the Bible is a bit much.

I have now produced ten prooftexts that refute your contention (and many cross-references also). My initial research was simply incomplete, whereas your assertion is flat-out false, and falsified in the Bible.

A Christian service void of candles is not incomplete or un-Biblical, by any stretch of the imagination.

I didn’t make that claim, either. The purpose was to explain and justify one Catholic practice, not to run down non-Catholic worship (from which I have received a great deal in my Christian life).

I’m not opposed to the use of candles at all (along with many Protestant churches), but the Bible is basically silent on their use in Christian churches, and I just wanted to make that point. . . . the Bible is SILENT on the issue. Therefore, I make no judgement on a church, or on the Biblical soundness or validity of a given service, based on the presence or absence of candles in that service. . . . As I already said, I don’t have a problem with candles. I am not in the least making it a “moral issue.” Dave, in my opinion, made way too much of the indirect, metaphorical use of God smelling “fragrances” in the Bible to justify using candles in church. That doesn’t mean the use of candles is “wrong,” just that his Biblical defense of it wasn’t particularly strong.

It’s not “silent” at all, as I have shown.

Different people find beauty in different things; some people find beauty in very complex, fancy art, and others find beauty in very simplistic art. Also, “Protestant art” covers a huge range of forms, from very detailed and “Catholic” in style – with candles, incense, statues, and the like, to the very simplistic – perhaps a church composed of just one rectangular room with plain walls and a single cross behind the pulpit. . . . Personally, I don’t find one more inherently sinful or another more inherently spiritual. God is far more concerned with the hearts within the people in the church than what the architecture of the church is. I also understand that, for you, a candle during Mass or some other church service may represent Christ, or some other perfectly orthodox and Biblical principle. Many Protestant churches, including mine, also utilize candles in their own services. My concern (and I think, that of Protestantism in general) lies in the fact that too much emphasis can be placed on such earthly accessories. Candles don’t make us holy. If you want to light a candle in church and that represents something significant to you, cool. But having the idea in your head that that candle somehow makes you holy, or the place where you are worshipping more holy, or it gives it a “holy feel,” seems to demonstrate a huge misunderstanding of what holiness is and from whence it comes. As for “elemental” components in religious services are concerned, I’m not terribly convinced that we should include things in Christian church services just because Buddhists and Hindus are. For me that’s not really a detriment to Protestantism; it’s a selling point. But perhaps you or someone else can convince me otherwise.

The local Catholic church is a holy place precisely because we believe Jesus is there Body, Soul, Spirit, and Divinity. Now, I understand that you probably do not believe that to be the case, but it is our belief, and that’s why we think the sanctuary is holy: it is Christ-based.

That is a sacramental understanding indeed, just as the Incarnation was sacramental: God took on matter and so sanctified it by having human flesh. You and every orthodox Protestant believe in the Incarnation. Protestants (even very “low church” ones) are not entirely unsacramental. It is easy to demonstrate this. You usually have a cross in your church somewhere. There is often stained glass. Not many Protestant churches have bare white walls, Puritan-style. Protestants speak of the blood of Christ.

It depends what you mean when you say they are “sacramental.”

I’ve explained that above. Protestants are sacramental to various degrees. Martin Luther, the founder of Protestantism, was very sacramental; he believed in the Real Presence in the Eucharist and regenerating baptism.

Protestants often utilize physical things to serve as symbols for those who are worshipping, yes. You earlier said that the term “sacramental” in its “widest sense” simply means, “use of physical things.” So yes, in that sense pretty much everyone and their mother is “sacramental.”

Agreed.

But that’s a bit of a misleading definition when you’re trying to defend Catholic “sacramentalism,” because when Catholics refer to the “sacraments” and being “sacramental,” they rarely mean it in this “widest” sense.

Sometimes we do; other times we don’t.

Earlier you said that candles in a Catholic church can be a “blessing” to one who lights them, and that they have been blessed by a Catholic priest. This seems to entail more than mere symbology, no?

Yes, but it is distinct from, say, the Eucharist, which is inherently efficacious if received properly (i.e., without mortal sin). Sacramentals are effective (and in a far lesser sense than one of the seven sacraments) only insofar as a person’s internal disposition is proper.

* * *

You don’t think you are sacramental? Okay; let me ask you: if you had a vial of Christ’s blood (grant that we are sure it is His), would you treat it like any other blood? Would you throw it down the drain, to enter the sewer? If not, why?

This hypothetical of course hinges on the huge “if” of whether or not we literally have a vial of Christ’s blood drained from His physical body.

You have dodged the question (and I understand why). Hypotheticals (by nature) involve granted assumptions, as I made clear was the case with mine. We are granting for the sake of argument that it is Christ’s blood. Now, how would you treat it? It’s the “horns of a dilemma” for you, as they say in classical logic. I don’t think you would throw it down the drain like any other blood. I doubt that one Protestant in a hundred would do that. They just wouldn’t do it. I think you (and they) would revere it and treat it with the greatest respect; and to the extent that you do that you are already approaching some particular matter (our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ’s blood) as Catholics do: in the sense that some matter can convey more grace and be “spiritual” or “special” more than other matter. When Protestants refer to the blood of Christ, they get this. But in other instances they forsake the principle that they themselves accept in the example of the blood of Christ.

* * *

Would you bulldoze the site of the cross and Golgotha / Calvary and make a parking lot or a drugstore, as if it had no more significance than any other place on earth? I highly doubt it.

No, . . .

There you go. See, I knew you wouldn’t do it, and you wouldn’t with Jesus’ blood, either. Now you have to ask yourself why. The reasons you would come up with for not doing it would either be the same reasoning Catholics apply, or at least somehow leaning in our direction.

but would you kneel down and kiss the dirt on that hill?

Yes, absolutely. Protestants often kiss the Bible. What earthly reason could they give for not kissing the very ground our Lord died for us on? You’ll kiss God’s verbal revelation and written Word, but not the place where the Word, Jesus, died for you? That makes no sense. Why would you kiss the one thing and not the other? What is the difference in principle? But I say that if you kiss a Bible (or, say, a photograph of a son slain in military service), there is no inherent objection to kissing the dirt of Calvary.

Would you collect some of that dirt and take it home with you, and kiss it at night when you say your prayers? Would you try to find some splinter of the cross you think Christ was crucified on, and kiss and revere that?

Absolutely; by the same principles: because we know from the Bible that matter can convey grace. It’s very straightforward (I’m surprised that you don’t seem to know about it):

2 Kings 13:20-21 So Elisha died, and they buried him. Now bands of Moabites used to invade the land in the spring of the year. 21 And as a man was being buried, lo, a marauding band was seen and the man was cast into the grave of Elisha; and as soon as the man touched the bones of Elisha, he revived, and stood on his feet.

The bones or relics of Elisha had so much supernatural power or “grace” in them that they could even cause a man to be raised from the dead.

2 Kings 2:11-14 And as they still went on and talked, behold, a chariot of fire and horses of fire separated the two of them. And Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven. And Elisha saw it and he cried, My father, my father! the chariots of Israel and its horsemen! And he saw him no more. Then he took hold of his own clothes and rent them in two pieces. And he took up the mantle of Elijah that had fallen from him, and went back and stood on the bank of the Jordan. Then he took the mantle of Elijah that had fallen from him, and struck the water, saying, Where is the Lord, the God of Elijah? And when he had struck the water, the water was parted to the one side and to the other; and Elisha went over.

Acts 5:15-16 . . . they even carried out the sick into the streets, and laid them on beds and pallets, that as Peter came by at least his shadow might fall on some of them. 16 The people also gathered from the towns around Jerusalem, bringing the sick and those afflicted with unclean spirits, and they were all healed.

Acts 19:11-12 And God did extraordinary miracles by the hands of Paul, so that handkerchiefs or aprons were carried away from his body to the sick, and diseases left them and the evil spirits came out of them. (cf. Mt 9:20-22)

Elisha’s bones were a first-class relic: from the person himself or herself. These passages, on the other hand, offer examples of second-class relics: items that have power because they were connected with a holy person (Elijah’s mantle and even St. Peter’s shadow), and third-class relics: something that has merely touched a holy person or first-class relic (handkerchiefs that had touched St. Paul). Another example would be the woman healed by touching the hem of Jesus’ garment (which would be analogous to a piece of the cross, or His blood):

Mark 5:25-30 And there was a woman who had had a flow of blood for twelve years, and who had suffered much under many physicians, and had spent all that she had, and was no better but rather grew worse. She had heard the reports about Jesus, and came up behind him in the crowd and touched his garment. For she said, “If I touch even his garments, I shall be made well.” And immediately the hemorrhage ceased; and she felt in her body that she was healed of her disease. And Jesus, perceiving in himself that power had gone forth from him, immediately turned about in the crowd, and said, “Who touched my garments?”

Luke 8:43-48 And a woman who had had a flow of blood for twelve years and could not be healed by any one, came up behind him, and touched the fringe of his garment; and immediately her flow of blood ceased. And Jesus said, “Who was it that touched me?” When all denied it, Peter said, “Master, the multitudes surround you and press upon you!” But Jesus said, “Some one touched me; for I perceive that power has gone forth from me.” And when the woman saw that she was not hidden, she came trembling, and falling down before him declared in the presence of all the people why she had touched him, and how she had been immediately healed. And he said to her, “Daughter, your faith has made you well; go in peace.”

Jesus did say also that her faith was what made her well, but the point is that it was also with the aid of a physical object that was in contact with Jesus: as indicated precisely by its effect of causing “power” to go “forth from him.” God used the physical object for spiritual (and supernatural physical) purposes: a healing. We see it again, when Jesus heals the blind man:

John 9:6-7 As he said this, he spat on the ground and made clay of the spittle and anointed the man’s eyes with the clay, saying to him, “Go, wash in the pool of Silo’am” (which means Sent). So he went and washed and came back seeing.

Jesus could have simply declared him healed, with or without the man’s faith playing a key role (as He healed both kinds of people): it could have been a wonderfully Protestant, purely “spiritual” healing, with no material object used. But, interestingly enough, Jesus didn’t do that. He used a bodily fluid (his own), and also clay, or dirt, and then the water of the pool, and rubbed the man’s eyes, to effect the miracle (two liquids, solid matter, and physical anointing action of fingers). Obviously, then, we can’t frown upon physical things related to a holy person in some fashion, in order to perform a miracle. The example is too clear. What more proof does one require?

This is exactly how Catholics view relics. Why, then, do you frown upon these practices, and regard them as foolish, excessive, and unbiblical, with all of this clear biblical proof of them? If you claim to follow what the Bible teaches, I’ve just shown it to you, with regard to physical means of grace, and specifically relics.

I’ve written about the altogether insubstantial Protestant arguments that attempt to overthrow this plain biblical data.

Would you think the presence of those things would make your house more “holy,” simply by being there when you pray? We can both cite extreme examples in either direction.

It’s not extreme at all. There are such things as holy objects and holy places. The ark of the covenant was one such thing. It was so holy that a man could die by just touching it (and the Bible records one such incident). The tabernacle which contained the ark was holy, as was the temple (which had the holy of holies inside of it). Wherever God is, is holy (e.g., the “holy ground” near the burning bush: Exodus 3:5). It’s because Protestants don’t believe that God can be specially present (not just in his omnipresence); even physically present, anymore, that they don’t believe in holy places. We do; because we follow the Bible far more closely than you do.

When I searched for the phrase “holy place” in RSV, for the whole Bible, it came up with 70 matches (taking out 15 from the Deuterocanon that you don’t accept). And that includes NT proof: Jesus referred to a “holy place” in Matthew 24:15. Paul used the analogy of Christians being temples (and therefore holy), because of the indwelling Holy Spirit inside of us:

1 Corinthians 3:16-17 Do you not know that you are God’s temple and that God’s Spirit dwells in you? If any one destroys God’s temple, God will destroy him. For God’s temple is holy, and that temple you are.

1 Corinthians 6:19 Do you not know that your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit within you, which you have from God? You are not your own;

2 Corinthians 6:16 . . . For we are the temple of the living God . . .

Erasmus was quite put off by the hyper-sacramentalism of Rome when he visited there. I can’t remember the exact quote, but he said something to the effect that, “After all the shoes that we’ve had to kiss, are you going to bring us the dung of a saint to kiss as well?” The point is, too much can be made of these “sacramental” elements that are included in church services.

Sure, there have been excesses (I freely acknowledge them; people being people, and prone to extremes), but that doesn’t nullify the biblical principle of relics and sacramentalism. We don’t throw out the baby with the bathwater. Erasmus wouldn’t have denied that. He claimed many times that he accepted all that the Church taught (I know, because I recently studied one of his primary writings: the Hyperaspistes).

* * *

And you wouldn’t [toss out Jesus’ blood or bulldoze Calvary] because you have a sense of the sacred and of holy places, even though you may wish to argue against it when Catholics refer to it.

Don’t assume that I’m rejecting anything just because “a Catholic said it.” Catholics can make perfectly valid points in theological discussions as well. What I argue against is the near-obsession that many Catholics have with physical objects of adoration.

You have neither shown that it is always an obsession, nor that it is unbiblical, whereas I have shown that the justification is quite explicitly biblical; thus, that there is a proper use of this sort of piety and devotion.

I am not trying to argue against the sense of “sacramental” that you described earlier, if I understand what you meant. What I am trying to say is simply that the inner spirituality of a church is more important than its outer adornment. Fair enough?

But you want to deny the validity of relics and holy places, when the Bible doesn’t do that at all. We fully agree with you that the inner disposition and the heart is fundamentally important. That’s why we teach that it is a great sin to partake of Holy Communion in a state of mortal sin, and that absolution after confession can’t take place if the person wasn’t truly repentant. We don’t dichotomize the “inward” and “outward” elements. But Protestants so often want to eliminate the physical, outward elements altogether, because their spirituality is not large enough to imagine a harmonious conjunction of both. They tend to equate “spirit” with good and matter with evil, as the ancient Gnostics and Docetics did. But that is a far more pagan Greek attitude (the folks who didn’t like the Resurrection because it was physical) than Christian and biblical.

* * *

Candles reflect this holiness because the symbol of ascending smoke for prayer and sacrifice is a biblical motif, as I have shown, and part of the practice of Jews and Christians for at least four millennia.

We don’t think a candle makes us holy. That is ridiculous. We think it helps foster an atmosphere of reverence and sacredness, just as stained glass, statuary, stations of the cross, etc. do. I myself have found that I am able to far more easily and deeply, reverently worship and concentrate on worshiping Jesus in my German Gothic cathedral parish than in the YMCA gyms that I sometimes worshiped in as a Protestant, and that is because beauty and truth are closely related. The beautiful fosters reverence.

Catholicism uses human impulses that are morally neutral and co-opts them for Christ. It utilizes whatever in paganism is a good thing (or at least neutral and not bad) and “baptizes” it for Christianity. The Apostle Paul did this on Mars Hill in Athens (Acts 17:16 ff.). He commended the Athenians for their religiosity and the tomb to the unknown god (17:22-23), cited two of their poets / philosophers (17:28), and, building upon that knowledge, proclaimed the gospel to them (17:23-31). He didn’t run their present knowledge down as heathen garbage, but rather, used it as a bridge to the gospel.

The Catholic Church does the same in many many ways. It’s sacramentalism and incorporation of beauty and physical objects into worship. That’s been done in our (Judaeo-Christian) religious tradition all the way back to the Temple and Tabernacle. God Himself used fire in the burning bush as a symbol of himself when He appeared to Moses. He used the physical object. He appeared in theophanies as a man or as the “angel of the Lord.” It’s nothing new. To the extent that Protestantism rejects all that it is being most unbiblical and against the same mode of thought that the Incarnation is included in (physical matter conveying grace).

* * *

Christ does not want you to kiss the ground where He once stepped.

Then why are you reluctant to bulldoze Calvary, if it is not a whit different than any other place on earth? Why is it that Protestants, just as much as Catholics, love to go to the Holy Land? Why bother? If it is no different from any other place, and physical conjunction with Jesus or holy men and women is utterly irrelevant, and there is no such thing as a holy place, why do they go there? That’s a Catholic idea. They implicitly accept the notion of the “holy place.” So do you. But you inconsistently apply it. You won’t kiss the ground of Calvary, but on the other hand you wouldn’t bulldoze it.

Well, if you want to preserve it because it is valuable and has meaning, what in the world is the objection to kissing it? We kiss dogs and inanimate objects that we love. You can’t produce any saying of Jesus, where He said to not do this. But I already produced an instance of touching His garment, which brought about healing in conjunction with faith. Jesus obviously believed in the holiness of the temple because He said it was His father’s house. He accepted it when the woman kissed His feet (Lk 7:38,45). Why not the ground that He died on? I say your spirituality is insufficiently incarnational and too influenced by Docetism, with all this antipathy to matter and how God uses it for spiritual purposes.

He would much rather that you obeyed His commands and used His life of love and servitude as an example to love and serve others.

This is a false dichotomy. Of course those things are commands, but pious acts involving matter are eminently biblical. It is you who have a problem with the Bible’s teaching in this regard.

My whole point is, I question just how balanced Catholicism truly is. It seems to me that there is far too much emphasis (perhaps just in individuals, not in the system officially) on the outwardness, and very little inwardness. Personally I think inwardness has to be the individual’s focus first, when one is a Christian. Going through outward motions isn’t progressing anyone spiritually. Rather, meditation/prayer, Bible study, yielding to the Holy Spirit and allowing Him to bear fruit in our lives…THOSE are the things that must come first. If we are “right” inward, the outward expressions of our inward growth will come.

We agree wholeheartedly that the inward elements are supremely important. We simply refuse to pit them against outward, sacramental, physical things, as you do. We keep both in balance, because God became man, and so sanctified matter. You practically eliminate one or so emasculate it that little good is said about it, in relation to spirituality. That’s where any imbalance lies. Yet Jesus’ very death on the cross and His Resurrection are intensely physical things.

If you understand the definition of a church to be a body of believers, then you’re going to focus on the inner spirituality of that “church.” My point was that the latter is preferable to the former.

Case in point: yet another Protestant dichotomy. The Bible uses “Church” in both senses, and we adhere to both. We don’t have to choose between them and “pick sides.” Both are important. It’s the biblical “Both/and” outlook; not the Protestant “either/or” mentality.

As I said, if you’re focus is on external THINGS, objects that you think are going to get you closer to God, then you’re not going to be focused on the internal things that Christ found so much more important (it’s not the things that go into a man that make him unclean, but the things that come out of him, out of the heart the mouth speaks, etc.) So yea, you can light a candle. But that candle doesn’t make you more holy. It doesn’t make you more spiritual. Kissing dirt where Jesus once walked doesn’t make you closer to Him or more like Him. Doing as He did, walking as He walked (through yielding to the Spirit), THAT makes you more like Him.

More false dichotomies. You reason, “because thing A is good; therefore, different thing B is not good, or less good than A.” But we reason, in accordance with the Bible: “God has revealed that both A and B are good things, so why must folks pit them against each other?”

We agree wholeheartedly with you about wholehearted devotion to God, in righteousness and holiness and right motive. That’s all wonderful. We don’t disagree with any of it. Read The Imitation of Christ some time if you want to see a Catholic treatment of that. It’s fabulous. But you disagree with sacramentality and physical objects used for spiritual purposes (you seem to collapse every instance of it into extremity and inferior spirituality). I have shown that this is a most unbiblical position to take. Your burden now is to refute the biblical arguments provided. Your fight in this respect is not ultimately with Catholics, but is, I believe, with the Bible and with the God Who wrote the Bible, and how He chose to do and reveal things.

* * * * *

A certain forum dominated by cynics and relentless critics of anything I do has a thread devoted to mocking and making ridiculous comments about the photograph posted at the top of this dialogue [initially it was a depiction of the Passion of Jesus]. This mentality highlights once again the odd Protestant antipathy to physical things in Christianity: even, in this case, the nature of the crucifixion itself.

The nice European, blond-haired, blue-eyed Jesus (who looks sort of like a guy in a 70s country rock band: like Kenny Rogers or something), used to be mocked, and rightly so. But let anyone dare show what truly happened when He was beaten and crucified for our sake, and sure enough, that has to be made fun of with idiotic remarks, as if a Catholic enjoys and gets a charge out of seeing what they did to our Lord and Savior (in other words, that it is — what else? — abnormal, mentally questionable behavior). I can understand agnostics saying this (it is one of their brain dead, garden-variety blasts against Christianity), but other Christians? Very odd and strange. The entire point is missed, as usual.

I didn’t make the crucifixion what it is. But I know it is good and pious to meditate upon the suffering of Jesus for our sake. Paul did that so much that he writes about taking into his own body the sufferings of Christ (2 Cor 4:10, Col 1:24) and that Christians are to share His sufferings (Rom 8:17; Phil 3:10). I guess, then, he is about as morbid as they come: obsessed with all the blood and gore, etc. We’ll have to give Paul a Protestant, secularist American re-education and get him up to speed. Meanwhile, look at the violent movies our culture produces. That’s fine and dandy. Instead it is considered chic and intelligent and sophomoric-clever to mock a Catholic meditation on the central event in the Christian faith, as if this were not a thoroughly Christian and “biblical” thing to do.

But whatever we do, we dare not meditate on the cross! We can’t have that. We must have a sanitized, bleached, streamlined feel-good, warm fuzzy, non-physical religion, just like the Gnostics and Greek pagans did. We must forget the cross at every turn. It’s too bloody. We can only have a bare cross or one with a Jesus on it who looks like he is from a junior high play. These cynics want to be more like pagan Greeks than Christians in this respect, like the ones St. Paul commented upon: “but we preach Christ crucified, a stumbling block to Jews and folly to Gentiles” (1 Corinthians 1:23).

As it is, the main reason I posted the “bloody picture” was because it had a direct relationship to one of the arguments in the paper: about the blood of Christ and how a Protestant would treat it if he had a hypothetical vial filled with it. But I don’t expect that to be grasped, either, by folks who consistently show a profound inability to comprehend what I write, or what my argument is, or even my reason for making any particular argument. Even my explaining it now won’t matter a hill of beans, because hostility clouds one’s intellectual capacities and makes one illogical, as well as silly beyond words.

2017-04-17T16:01:43-04:00

YomKippur
Jews Praying in the Synagogue on Yom Kippur (1878), by Maurycy Gottlieb (1856-1879) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]
*****
(1982; revised somewhat on 19 February 2000)
***

Way back in 1982, when I was an evangelical Protestant highly interested in Judaism (an interest I retain today, as a Catholic), I did a study of the Jews and their attitudes towards Jesus, and also their own notion of what the Messiah was to be like; what he would do, etc. I utilized many Jewish primary sources. I was particularly interested in what they thought about the Messiah prior to Christ (so that Jewish-Christian polemics and controversies would not be a factor), and which Old Testament passages they regarded as messianic, and how they specifically interpreted them.

I will proceed now to recount some of the fascinating results I found in my studies, with regard to the above factors. Unfortunately, I didn’t record many individual page numbers of citations, but passages in quotes are direct quotes; the rest is a paraphrase of the author’s conclusions. All sources are Jewish unless otherwise noted:

1) The Messianic Idea in Judaism, Gershom Scholem, New York: Schocken Books, 1971:
*
Historically, there were two types of messianism: restorative and utopian. Restorative messianism became more prominent within Judaism with the rise of the rational philosophies of the Middle Ages, of which the chief proponent was Maimonides (d. 1204). But the Middle Ages also gave rise to Jewish mysticism, as taught in the Kabbalah and Zohar. Utopian messianism was prominent there. After the Enlightenment, rational utopianism prevailed and was secularized to form the notion of the inevitability of progress, but this development was largely restricted to the more “liberal” facets of Judaism.
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“In the 19th century, apocalypticism seemed finally liquidated, and possessed, at least for the Jewish rationalists, no urgency or force whatever. For them it had become meaningless, empty nonsense.”
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Maimonides sought to minimize apocalypticism, miracles, and other signs. The Messiah must prove his identity not by miracles, but by historical success. The messianic age is a public event and has nothing to do with salvation of individuals. He doesn’t recognize a causal relationship between the coming of the Messiah and human conduct. He did hold that Zech 9:9 and Is 11:1-5 were messianic.
*
The Apocalyptists, on the other hand, read messianic and Last Days connotations into a great number of passages, while their opponents denied same. Many passages, like Isaiah 53, are interpreted by one group to refer to the Messiah, and by the other as predictions regarding the destiny of the entire Jewish people. The rationalists stood in the forefront of the theological defenses mounted against the Church. This motive was a major factor in explaining their prominence.
*
“The more biblical exegesis could reduce the purely Messianic element, the better it was for the defenses of the Jewish position. But the apocalyptists were not in the least interested in apologetics . . . they are not concerned with fortifying the frontiers. This is no doubt why the statements of the apocalyptists often appear freer and more genuine than those of their opponents who often enough must take into account the diplomatic necessities of anti-christian polemics. In rare individuals the two tendencies come together.”
*
“The most important codifications of the Messianic idea in later Judaism are the writings of Isaac Abravanel (c. 1500) and The Victory of Israel, by the Rabbi Judah Loew ben Bezalel of Prague (1599). The authors endeavor to embrace the legacy of ideas as a whole which have been transmitted in such contradictory traditions. They richly avail themselves of the apocalyptic traditions.”

*

2) The Messianic Idea in Israel, Joseph Klausner, New York: Macmillan: 1955 (orig. 1921):

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“The elements of the belief in the Messiah were continually changing under the influence of historical events. In times of national freedom, the worldwide universalistic hope was the basic element, but in times of trouble and distress the nationalistic element was stressed much more.”
*
The figure of Moses was the forerunner and first example of the Messiah. Moses delivered Israel from bondage, from its material troubles, political servitude, and also its spiritual ignorance and bondage. He was also a prophet and lawgiver. The Judges were “messiahs” of a sort, but lacked the spiritual-ethical characteristics of Moses. Samuel, the last judge, had the spiritual characteristics but not the political. Saul did not qualify as a Messiah-type. David was the true prototype. He had great political talents, heroism, courage, and spirituality, like Moses (Hos 3:5). In the Talmud. it is written that the Messiah would be David, or at least have his name.
*
Hosea develops the messianic theme. “Birth pangs of the Messiah” is derived from Hos 13:13, as well as Is 13:8. Hosea mentions a personal Messiah, “David their king” (3:5; cf. Jer 30:9), earthly bliss (14:5-7) spiritual bliss (2:19-20), and changes in nature (2:18). Klausner says that most scholars (even liberal ones) regard Is 9:6 and 11:1-5 as messianic. Is 2:2-4 is regarded as the quintessential prophecy of the Kingdom. Klausner, however, interprets the “servant” passages (Is 40:1-9, 42:1-7, 50:4-9, 52:13-15, 53:1-12) as referring to Israel, which collectively suffers for mankind and becomes the redeemer of the world. He regards Zech 9:9-10 as a messianic passage.
*
“The Jewish Messiah, no matter how noble and how spiritual, is nevertheless a human being, a king of flesh and blood.”
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Around the 2nd century A.D. evolved a doctrine of two Messiahs: Messiah ben David and Messiah ben Joseph. The latter was primarily a warrior who would eventually be slain in battle. Psalm 2:7-8 is regarded as messianic in Sukkah 52a. In the same passage the death of Messiah ben Joseph is mentioned matter-of-factly. Messiah ben Joseph would fight and defeat Gog and Magog. After he was killed, Messiah ben David could become the sole king of the earth.
*
“This inner contradiction between the political and the spiritual Messiah was inherent in the Jewish conception of the Messiah from the earliest times. But as long as the political tendency dominated, this contradiction was not readily apparent. Thus it came about that Rabbi Akiba could join himself to a Messiah (Bar-Kochba) who was distinguished for no spiritual qualities whatever. Only after the political hope of redemption by war had been dashed by historical events themselves – only then was the contradiction felt with full force. Then the spiritual and religio-ethical tendency in the messianic faith inevitably gained the upper hand.”
*
3) The Messiah Idea in Jewish History, Julius H. Greenstone, Philadelphia: Jewish Pub. Society, 1906:
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Most Jews regard belief in the Messiah as a dogma of Judaism, even though the conception and nature of the dogma varies widely. Greenstone regards Is 7:14, 9:5, and 11:1-5 as messianic passages.
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“The immediate success of Christianity can be accounted for only when we consider the intense messianic hope that existed among the Jewish people during the period of Roman supremacy.”
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Rabbi Akiba taught that the Messiah occupied a throne next to God and was rebuked by R. Jose the Galilean (Hagigah 14a; Sanhedrin 38b).
*
Zohar means literally “splendor” (derived from Daniel 12:3). It is a mystical commentary on the Pentateuch. In many Jewish communities, study of the Talmud was superseded by that of the Zohar, since it was regarded as a direct revelation from God and spiritually equal to the Bible. Modern scholars are convinced that the primary author was Moses de Leon of Spain (1250-1305). The influence of the Zohar was still strong in the 18th century.
*
“There are various references in the Zohar to the idea of a suffering Messiah. The Messiah takes upon himself all the maladies destined for Israel. In this manner, the Messiah constitutes himself the sin-offering, which can no longer be brought by Israel, since the Temple is destroyed.”
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“The pre-existence of the Messiah is assumed, and his almost Divine character repeatedly emphasized. He is suffering for the sins of his people, and helps them carry the burden of punishment.”
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Hasidism was formed as a new sect by Israel Baal-shem (1698-1759) as a reaction to Talmudic study methods. Modern Hasidic Jews are firm believers in the sanctity of the Zohar, in the powers of the Kabbalah, and in the influence exerted by their Zaddikim (wonder-working Rabbis) over the destinies of men. The aim of its founders was to free followers from excessive intellectualism, and to encourage prayer and religious emotion and sentiment.

*

4) A History of Messianic Speculation in Israel, Abba Hillel Silver, New York: Macmillan, 1927:

*
Isaac Abravanel (1447-1508) wrote three books about messianism. One was about Daniel, one about Talmudic passages, and the other dealing with all the messianic prophecies in Scripture. These are the most complete and thorough works of their kind in the whole field of Jewish adventism. Abravanel regarded Daniel 7:13 as messianic, and held that Daniel was a true prophet, unlike most Jews.
*
Rabbi Joshua ben Levi (Sanhedrin 98a) said that if Israel was found deserving, the Messiah would come swiftly (Dan 7:13), if they were not, then he would come upon a donkey (Zech 9:9):
*
“If they will be righteous, [the Messiah will come] on the clouds of heaven, if they will not be righteous [he will come] as a poor man riding upon an ass.”
*

Speculations on the time of Messiah’s coming were based on numerical figures in Daniel, supposed initiatory historical events, parallels of time in Scripture, numerical value of letters and astrology.
*

5) The Messiah Texts, Raphael Patai, Detroit: Wayne State University Press, 1979:
*
Concerning the suffering servant of Isaiah 42, 49, 50, 52, 53, Patai writes:
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“The Aggada, the Talmudic legend, unhesitatingly identifies him with the Messiah, and understands especially the descriptions of his sufferings as referring to Messiah ben Joseph.”
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Patai considers Daniel 9:24-27 messianic, including the death of the Messiah:
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“It is quite probable that the concept of the suffering Messiah, fully developed in the Talmud, the Midrash, and the Zohar, has its origin in the biblical prophecies about the suffering servant.”
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Patai also lists Isaiah 9:6-7, 11:1-12, Daniel 7:13-14, and Zech 9:9-10 as messianic passages.
“Ever since Ezekiel, ‘Son of Man’ has been a designation signifying special nearness to God of the person so called.”
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“Others applied to him the name of God.”
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“R. Shim’on ben Jaqish explained: ‘And the spirit of God hovered over the face of the water’ (Gen 1:2) – this is the spirit of King Messiah, as it is written, ‘And the spirit of the Lord will rest upon him.’ (Is 11:2).” (Gen Rab. 2:4)
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“You find that at the beginning of the creation of the world King Messiah was born.” (Pes. Rab. ed. Friedmann, p.152b)
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Some rabbis named the Messiah, “The Leprous of the House of Study,” based on Isaiah 53:4 (B. Sanhedrin 98b).
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R. Jose the Galilean names the Messiah “Peace,” based on Is 9:6 (Pereq Shalom, p. 101). He also mentions Is 52:7, concerning the messenger of peace.
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“R. Nahman said to R. Yitzhaq: ‘Have you perhaps heard when Bar Nifle (Son of the Clouds) will come?” (B. Sanhedrin 96b-97a).
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“‘Anani’ (He of the clouds) is King Messiah.” (Targum to 1 Chr 3:24)
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“King Messiah will come with the clouds of heaven.” (Pirqe Mashiah BhM 3:70)
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“God will liberate Messiah ben David and make him ride on a cloud.” (Midrash fragment, ed. Mamorstein, REJ 52 {1906}, p. 184).
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The rabbis believed in a seven-year tribulation (B. Sanhedrin 97a).
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“The Holy One began to tell him (the Messiah) the conditions (of his mission), and said to him, ‘Their sins will force you into an iron yoke, and they will render you like unto this calf whose eyes have grown dim, and they will choke your spirit with the yoke, and because of their sins your tongue will cleave to the roof of your mouth. Do you accept this?’ He said, ‘with gladness I accept it, so that not a single one of Israel should perish, even the dead who have died from the days of Adam until now. This is what I want.’ ” (Pes. Rab. pp. 161a-b)
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“You have suffered because of the sins of our children, and cruel punishments have come upon you . . . you were put to ridicule and held in contempt by the nations of the world because of Israel . . . All this because of the sins of our children . . . great sufferings have come upon you on their account. And (God) says to him, ‘Be you the judge over these peoples, and do to them whatever your soul wishes . . . all of them will die from the breath of your lips.’ ” (Pes. Rab. ch. 36)
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“Elijah . . . says to him: ‘Endure the sufferings and the sentence of your Master who makes you suffer because of the sin of Israel.’ And thus it is written: ‘He was wounded because of our transgressions.’ . . . (Is 53:5) – until the time when the end comes.” (Mid. Konen, BhM, 2:29)
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“As long as Israel dwelt in the Holy Land, the rituals and sacrifices removed all those diseases from the world; now the Messiah removes them from the children of the world.” (Zohar 2:212a)
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“In the second year of King Ahazia, Elijah was hidden, and he will not be seen again until King Messiah comes. And then he will be seen but will be hidden a second time, and seen again only when Gog and Magog come.” (Seder ‘Olam Rabba, ch. 17)
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Patai: “When the death of the Messiah became an established tenet in Talmudic times, this was felt to be irreconcilable with the belief in the Messiah as the Redeemer who would usher in the blissful millennium of the Messianic age. The dilemma was solved by splitting the person of the Messiah in two . . . “
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The development of the two-Messiah doctrine also had to do with a messianic parallel to Moses, who died before entering the Promised Land.
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Referring to Zech 12:10-12, “R. Dosa says: ‘(They will mourn) over the Messiah who will be slain.’ ” (B. Suk. 52a; also Y. Suk. 55b)
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“A man shall arise from my seed; like unto the sun of righteousness, walking with the sons of man in meekness, and no sin shall be found in him. And he shall pour upon you the spirit of grace, and you shall walk in his commandments . . . a rod of righteousness to the nations, to judge and save all that call upon the Lord.” (Testament of Judah, 24)

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6) The Doctrine of the Messiah in Medieval Jewish Literature, Joseph Sarachek, New York: Hermon Press, 1932:

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“In order not to expose themselves to criticism, many Jewish exegetes waived their own messianic explanations and expounded the texts as allusions to the past.”
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Solomon ben Isaac, or Rashi (b. 1040) was the most celebrated figure in the rabbinical schools of France in the last half of the 11th century. He is regarded as the greatest Jewish commentator on the Bible and the Talmud. Rashi applied Psalm 2 to David instead of the Messiah, but he believed Daniel 7:13-14 was messianic. The “anointed one” in Daniel 9:26 was Agrippa. Gen 49:10 (Shiloh) is was messianic, as are Zech 9:9 and Isaiah 11. He attributes Is 9:6 to Hezekiah and Is 53 to all Israel. The “anointed” in Daniel 9:25 was Cyrus.
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Abraham ibn Ezra (Spain, 1092-1167) was one of the greatest Jewish scholars. He considered Gen 49:10 messianic, and also Zech 13, but he refers Zech 9:9 to Maccabean times. Is 7:14 refers only to Isaiah’s son. Zech 12:10 concerns Messiah ben Joseph, and Zech 13:7 refers to the world war in his time. The “messenger” in Mal 3:1 is Messiah ben Joseph. The “son of man” in Dan 7:13 is Israel. The “anointed prince” in Dan 9:25 is Nehemiah. The “son” in Ps 2:7,12 referred to Israel.
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Isaac Abravanel (1437-1508; originally from Spain) wrote more about the Messiah than any other Jew before him. He followed the Talmud and the Midrash in his messianic interpretations. The following verses are messianic: Gen 49:10, Is 11:1-5, Is 61, Micah 5:2, Zech 9:9, chs. 12-13, Malachi 3:1. Is 9:6 applied to Hezekiah. Is 53 referred to the nation of Israel, as did the “son of man” of Daniel 7:13. The “anointed” of Dan 9:25 is not the Messiah.

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NOTE: Now we move on to a Christian source:
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7) Christology of the Old Testament and a Commentary on the Messianic Predictions, Ernst Wilhelm Hengstenberg (1802-1869; an orthodox Lutheran and eminent theologian), translated by T. Meyer, Edinburgh: T. & T. Clark, 4 volumes, 1854-1858):
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Micah 5:2: acknowledged by the Jews as messianic at all times with perfect unanimity. This is indicated in Mt 2:4-6 and Jn 7:41-42. But they explained the “eternity” in terms of the idea of the Messiah, his name, or his descent from the ancient, royal line of David. After the death of Jesus, the rabbis stated that Bethlehem referred not to birthplace, but merely to ancestry from David. This was unheard-of before Christianity arose. Many Jews claimed that Jesus was born in Nazareth, not Bethlehem.
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Isaiah 9:1-2: Some Jews believed that the Messiah would appear in Galilee. E.g., the Zoahr: “King Messiah will reveal himself in the land of Galilee.”
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Isaiah 9:6-7: The Jews (expectedly) say that the names refer to God, not to the child. But many held it to be a messianic passage: e.g., the commentary on Genesis known as Brehith Rabbah (Gen 41:44), Rabbi Jose Galilaeus in the book Ekha Rabbati. Ben Sira mentions Wonderful, Counselor, and Prince of Peace as names of the Messiah. Later Jews sought to attribute the passage to Hezekiah.
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Isaiah 11:1-5: The messianic interpretation is the most ancient one. It is found in the Targum of Jonathan, and was defended especially by Jarchi, Abravanel, and Kimchi. The word “shoot” or “sprout” is used in other passages which are messianic beyond doubt. In verse 4, he slays the wicked with his breath, a thing which is elsewhere said of God only (cf. Ps 33:6, Hos 6:5). In general, doing by the mere word is a characteristic of omnipotence.
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Isaiah 42:1-7: The Chaldean Paraphrast understood the Servant to be the Messiah, as did Kimchi and Abravanel; the latter said of the non-messianic interpretation, “all these expositors were struck with blindness.” Simeon’s reference at Lk 2:32 indicates that this was the common Jewish viewpoint at the time of Christ. The non-messianic defenders can only agree negatively; they don’t agree on who the passage is talking about. In Is 49:5-6 the Servant is contrasted with Israel and thus can’t possibly be equated with Israel. David called himself the servant of God ten times in 2 Samuel 7. The prophets are called servants of God in 2 Kings 13:3 and Jer 26:5. In Is 42:6, the Servant is a covenant to the people (Israel), thereby ruling out the possibility that “he” is Israel.
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Isaiah 49:1-9: Verses 4 and 7 foretell the rejection of the Messiah. Many Jews here equate the Servant with collective Israel – an impossibility in light of verses 5, 6, and 8.
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Isaiah 50:4-11: Verse 4 indicates that the Servant is speaking (“sustain the weary”). Verses 10 and 11 state that one’s destiny is contingent upon acceptance or denial of the Servant – the Messiah. Verses 6 and 7 indicate the suffering and rejection by the people of the Messiah. Finally, the Servant appears as the judge of his rejectors.
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Isaiah 52:13-53:12: “Shoot” and “root” in verse 2 connect this passage with other messianic descriptions elsewhere. 53:5 (“peace”) is similar to the messianic Micah 5:5: “this one will be our peace.” The phrase “cut off” (v. 8) occurs also in the arguably messianic Dan 9:26.
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“There cannot be any doubt that the messianic interpretation was pretty generally received in earlier times by the Jews. This is admitted even by those later interpreters who pervert the prophecy, e.g., Ibn-ezra, Jarchi, Abravanel and Nahmanides.”
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The whole translation of the Chaldean Paraphrast, Jonathan, refers to prophecy to Messiah. He paraphrases the very first clause: “behold, My Servant Messiah shall prosper.” The Midrash Tanchuma states: “This is the King Messiah who is high and lifted up, and very exalted, more exalted than Abraham, elevated above Moses, higher than the ministering angels.”
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There is a remarkable passage in the very old book Pesikta, cited in the treatise Abkath Rokhel, and reprinted in Hulsii Theologia Judaica, where this passage occurs, p. 309:
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“When God created the world, He stretched out His hand under the throne of His glory, and brought forth the soul of the Messiah. He said to him: ‘Will you heal and redeem My sons after 6000 years?’ He answered him, ‘I will.’ Then God said to him: ‘Will you then also bear the punishment in order to blot out their sins, as it is written, “But he bore our diseases” ‘ (53:4). And he answered Him; ‘I will joyfully bear them.’ ” (cf. Zohar, 2:212a)
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Rabbi Moses Haddarshan states: “Immediately the Messiah, out of love, took upon himself all those plagues and sufferings, as it is written in Isaiah 53, ‘He was abused and oppressed.’ ” In the Rabboth, a commentary, 53:5 is quoted, and referred to the sufferings of the Messiah. In the Midrash Tillim, an allegorical commentary on the Psalms, printed at Venice in 1546, it is said at Psalms 2:7: “The things of King Messiah are announced in the prophets, e.g., in the passage Is 52:13 and 42:1, in the Hagiographa, e.g., Ps 60 and Dan 7:13.”

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Rabbi Alschech, in Hulsii Theologia Judaica, pp. 321 ff., comments:
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    “Upon the testimony of tradition, our old rabbis have unanimously admitted that king Messiah is here the subject of discourse. We, in harmony with them, conclude that king David, i.e., the Messiah, must be considered as the subject of this prophecy – a view which is indeed quite obvious.”

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Comparatively few Jews (i.e., those who didn’t take the “servant-as-Israel” view) believed that the passage referred to a person other than the Messiah. The kabbalistic Jews still largely held to the messianic interpretation of the passage. The Messiah is called “servant” in Zech 3:8 – a passage which is unanimously regarded as messianic, and also in Ezek 34:23-24. As for the collective interpretation: not one sure analogous instance can be cited in favor of a personification carried on through a whole section, without the slightest intimation that it is not a single individual who is referred to.

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In 53:3 the subject is called a man. In 53:11-12 a “soul” is ascribed to him. “Grave” and “death” seemingly imply a singular subject. In the passages where Israel is called “Servant,” all uncertainty is prevented by the presence of the names of Jacob and Israel (Is 41:8-9, 44:1-2,21, 45:4, 48:20) and the plural is used alongside the singular (Is 42:24-25, 48:20-21, 43:10-14). Several factors in the passage rule out a collective. The Servant voluntarily bears sufferings (vss. 10,12) and he suffers quietly and patiently (v. 7).

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Daniel 7:13-14: In other passages it is always the Lord who appears with, or upon the clouds of heaven (Is 19:1, Ps 18:10, 97:2, Nahum 1:3). The word for “serve” is never used in any other sense than that of divine worship (whether paid to God or a false deity). See Dan 3:12,14,17-18,28 and Ezra 7:19. For “everlasting dominion,” a common feature of the announcement of the Messiah, see Ps 72:5,7,17, 89:37-38, Is 9:6. The Jews were almost unanimous in agreeing that the passage is messianic. The Messiah was called :man of the clouds,” a title which is espoused by the Talmud. Abravanel said: “The expositors explain these words, ‘like a son of man,’ as referring to the King Messiah.” Jesus called himself “son of man” 55 times, not counting parallels.
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Zechariah 9:9-10: The messianic interpretation prevailed among the Jews. For parallels, see Ps 72:8 and Micah 5:9.
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Zechariah 12:10-12: “They will look on me whom they have pierced.” Connection with Joel 2:28; see also Mt 24:30 and Rev 1:7. Some Jews sought to give “pierced” a figurative meaning, i.e., “grieved.” This was the view of the Septuagint also. Similar interpretation was given to Zech 13:3, where it seems even more unlikely. Elsewhere, the verb daquar is never figurative; it is always literal: Num 25:8, Jud 9:54, 1 Sam 31:4, 1 Chr 10:4, Is 13:15, Jer 37:10, 51:4, Lam 4:9. The parallel verse Zech 13:7, with its mention of the sword, gives good reason to interpret the verse literally. The Palestinian Talmud and also the Babylonian Talmud interpret the verse messianically, as do Ibn-ezra and Abravanel. Many Jews attributed the passage to Messiah ben Joseph. The Jews eventually changed the divine “Me” to “him,” even though “Me” is found in the oldest, the best, and the largest number of manuscripts.
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Malachi 3:1: The allusion to Is 40:3-5 is undeniable. Ibn-ezra thought the messenger was the Messiah. Kimchi said it was an angel (see Ex 23:30), Jarchi, the angel of death. The early Christians unanimously thought it was John the Baptist. The same messenger referred to here is called Elijah in Mal 4:5. Jesus fulfilled the other two parts of the prophecy, i.e., going to the Temple and bringing in the New Covenant. God is obviously referred to in the divine “Me” and the clause “His Temple.” The divinity of the Messiah is logically deduced from the passage.

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Postscript: Alfred Edersheim (1825-1889), a convert to Christianity from Judaism, in his Life and Times of Jesus the Messiah (2 vols., 1883), cited 456 passages in the Old Testament which Jewish commentators had interpreted as messianic (vol. II, pp. 710-743).

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