2017-03-25T15:24:08-04:00

JohnPaulII5

Pope St. John Paul II in Cali, Colombia: June 1986. Photograph by Hernan Valencias [Wikimedia CommonsCreative Commons Attribution 2.0 Generic license]

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(5-16-06)

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From: The One-Minute Apologist (2007), with additional commentary.

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THE PAPACY
How can one man be infallible?
We know that all men make mistakes, so this is an unreasonable doctrine

Initial reply

With God all things are possible. If He chooses to protect a man from error, He can do so, and in fact, we often see this in Scripture.

Extensive reply

Infallibility, according to the Catholic Church, means that the pope (or an ecumenical council in agreement with a pope) cannot err in a teaching on faith and morals that is intended as binding on all Catholics. It isn’t the equivalent of “inspiration,” and it doesn’t mean that the author is morally or otherwise perfect, more intelligent than others, etc. It’s a supernatural gift granted by God’s grace alone, for His purposes, in order to uphold and make known (with certainty, in faith) spiritual and theological truth.

Since infallibility is inferior to, and a less extraordinary gift than inspiration, we should not be more surprised at it than we are at inspiration, or think it is less likely to occur, or implausible. God worked through the writers of the Bible (inspiration means, literally, “God-breathed”), and this made it possible for the Bible to be without error. Some of the biblical writers, like David, Paul, Matthew, and Peter, had been great sinners at one time or other in their lives. Yet they were used by God to write inspired Scripture. Even in Old Testament times, some were granted this gift of special protection from error; for example, the Levites, who were teachers, among other things:

Malachi 2:6-8: “True instruction was in his mouth, and no wrong was found on his lips. He walked with me in peace and uprightness, and he turned many from iniquity. For the lips of a priest should guard knowledge, and men should seek instruction from his mouth, for he is the messenger of the LORD of hosts.”

Prophets routinely purported to proclaim the very “word of the LORD.” This is a much greater claim than infallibility under limited conditions. Papal infallibility is primarily a preventive, or “negative” guarantee, not positive inspiration. It is easy to argue, then, that infallibility is a far less noteworthy gift than the “revelation on the spot” that we observe in the prophets:

1 Samuel 15:10: “The word of the LORD came to Samuel:”

2 Samuel 23:2: “The Spirit of the LORD speaks by me, his word is upon my tongue.” [King David]

1 Chronicles 17:3: “But that same night the word of the LORD came to Nathan,”

Isaiah 38:4: “Then the word of the LORD came to Isaiah:”

Jeremiah 26:15: “. . . the LORD sent me to you to speak all these words in your ears.”

Ezekiel 33:1: “The word of the LORD came to me:” [“word of the LORD” appears 60 times in the Book of Ezekiel]

Haggai 1:13: “Then Haggai, the messenger of the LORD, spoke to the people with the LORD’s message, ‘I am with you, says the LORD.'”

Objection

But that was in the Old Testament. Prophets had to have a special word from God to proclaim their message, because they didn’t know the future. That doesn’t prove that any such gift exists today. Even if the apostles had this gift, it was only for the time when the gospel was first proclaimed (they also performed relatively more miracles).

Reply to Objection

To the contrary: the prophets received their inspiration by the Holy Spirit (2 Chron. 24:20; Neh. 9:30; Zech. 7:12). The Holy Spirit is now given to all Christians (Jn. 15:26; 1 Cor. 3:16), so it is perfectly possible and plausible that an even greater measure of the Holy Spirit would be given to leaders of the Church who have the responsibility to teach, since James wrote: “Let not many of you become teachers, my brethren, for you know that we who teach shall be judged with greater strictness” (Jas. 3:1). The disciples were reassured by Jesus: “When the Spirit of truth comes, he will guide you into all the truth” (Jn. 16:13; cf. 8:32), so surely it makes sense that shepherds of the Christian flock would be given an extra measure of protection in order to better fulfill their duties.

Blessed John Henry Cardinal Newman

If Christianity is both social and dogmatic, and intended for all ages, it must humanly speaking have an infallible expounder. Else you will secure unity of form at the loss of unity of doctrine, or unity of doctrine at the loss of unity of form; you will have to choose between a comprehension of opinions and a resolution into parties, between latitudinarian and sectarian error. You may be tolerant or intolerant of contrarieties of thought, but contrarieties you will have. By the Church of England a hollow uniformity is preferred to an infallible chair; and by the sects of England, an interminable division. Germany and Geneva began with persecution, and have ended in scepticism. The doctrine of infallibility is a less violent hypothesis than this sacrifice either of faith or of charity. It secures the object, while it gives definiteness and force to the matter, of the Revelation.

(An Essay on the Development of Christian Doctrine, 1845, Part I, Ch. 2, Sec. 3)

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Perhaps the clearest biblical proof of the infallible authority of the Church is the Jerusalem Council (Acts 15:6-30), and its authoritative pronouncement, binding on all Christians:

Acts 15:29-30: “For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things: that you abstain from what has been sacrificed to idols and from blood and from what is strangled and from unchastity.”

In the next chapter, we learn that Paul, Timothy, and Silas traveled around “through the cities” and “delivered to them for observance the decisions which had been reached by the apostles and elders who were at Jerusalem” (Acts 16:4). This is binding Church authority – with the sanction of the Holy Spirit Himself -, and an explicit biblical proof of the gift of infallibility that the Catholic Church claims for itself when it assembles in a council.

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I commented on the above passages (Acts 15:29-30 and 16:4) in my book, The Catholic Verses: 95 Bible Passsages That Confound Protestants (pp. 7-11):

These passages offer a proof that the early Church held to a notion of the infallibility of Church councils, and to a belief that they were especially guided by the Holy Spirit (precisely as in Catholic Church doctrine concerning ecumenical councils). Accordingly, Paul takes the message of the conciliar decree with him on his evangelistic journeys and preaches it to the people. The Church had real authority; it was binding and infallible.

This is a far cry from the Protestant principle of sola Scriptura – which presumes that councils and popes can err, and thus need to be corrected by Scripture.

[ . . . ]

A Protestant might reply that since this Council of Jerusalem referred to in Acts consisted of apostles, and since an apostle proclaimed the decree, both possessed a binding authority that was later lost (as Protestants accept apostolic authority as much as Catholics do). Furthermore, the incidents were recorded in inspired, infallible Scripture. They could argue that none of this is true of later Catholic councils; therefore, the attempted analogy is null and void.

But this is a bit simplistic, since Scripture is our model for everything, including Church government, and all parties appeal to it for their own views. If Scripture teaches that a council of the Church is authoritative and binding, it is implausible and unreasonable to assert that no future council can be so simply because it is not conducted by apostles.

Scripture is our model for doctrine and practice (nearly all Christians agree on this). The Bible does not exist in an historical vacuum, but has import for the day-to-day life of the Church and Christians for all time. St. Paul told us to imitate him (e.g., 2 Thess. 3:9). And he went around proclaiming decrees of the Church. No one was at liberty to disobey these decrees on the grounds of conscience, or to declare by “private judgment” that they were in error (per Luther).

It would be foolish to argue that the way the Apostles conducted the governance of the Church has no relation whatsoever to how later Christians engage in the same task. It would seem rather obvious that Holy Scripture assumes that the model of holy people (patriarchs, prophets, and apostles alike) is to be followed by Christians. This is the point behind entire chapters, such as, notably, Hebrews 11.

When the biblical model agrees with their theology, Protestants are all too enthusiastic to press their case by using scriptural examples. The binding authority of the Church was present here, and there is no indication whatever that anyone was ever allowed to dissent from it. That is the fundamental question. Catholics wholeheartedly agree that no new Christian doctrines were handed down after the Apostles. Christian doctrine was present in full from the beginning; it has only organically developed since.

John Calvin has a field day running down the Catholic Church in his commentary for Acts 15:28 [i.e., from Calvin’s Commentaries]. It is clear that he is uncomfortable with this verse and must somehow explain it in Protestant terms. But he is not at all unanswerable. The fact remains that the decree was made, and it was binding. It will not do (in an attempt to undercut ecclesial authority) to proclaim that this particular instance was isolated. For such a judgment rests on Calvin’s own completely arbitrary authority, which he claims but cannot prove. Calvin merely states his position, rather than arguing it, in the following passage:

[I]n vain do they go about out of the same to prove that the Church had power given to decree anything contrary to the word of God. The Pope hath made such laws as seemed best to him, contrary to the word of God, whereby he meant to govern the Church.

This strikes me as somewhat desperate argumentation. First, Catholics have never argued that the Pope has any power to make decrees contrary to the Bible (making Calvin’s slanderous charge a straw man). Calvin goes on to use vivid language, intended to resonate with already strong emotions and ignorance of Catholic theology. It is an old lawyer’s tactic: when one has no case, attempt to caricature the opponent, obfuscate, and appeal to emotions rather than reason.

Far more sensible and objective are the comments on Acts 15:28 and 16:4 from the Presbyterian scholar, Albert Barnes, in his famous Barne’s Notes commentary:

For it seemed good to the Holy Ghost. This is a strong and undoubted claim to inspiration. It was with special reference to the organization of the church that the Holy Spirit had been promised to them by the Lord Jesus, Matthew 18:18-20; John 14:26.

In this instance it was the decision of the council in a case submitted to it; and implied an obligation on the Christians to submit to that decision.

Barnes actually acknowledges that the passage has some implication for ecclesiology in general. It is remarkable, on the other hand, that Calvin seems concerned about the possibility of a group of Christians – in this case, a council – being led by the Holy Spirit to achieve a true doctrinal decree, whereas he has no problem with the idea that individuals can achieve such certainty:

[O]f the promises which they are wont to allege, many were given not less to private believers than to the whole Church [cites Matthew 28:20, John 14:16-17] . . . We are not to give permission to the adversaries of Christ to defend a bad cause, by wresting Scripture from its proper meaning.

(Institutes of the Christian Religion, IV, 8, 11)

But it will be objected, that whatever is attributed in part to any of the saints, belongs in complete fulness to the Church. Although there is some semblance of truth in this, I deny that it is true.

(Institutes, IV, 8, 12)

Calvin believes that Scripture is self-authenticating. I appeal, then, to the reader to judge the above passages. Do they seem to support the notion of an infallible Church council (apart from the question of whether the Catholic Church, headed by the Pope, is that Church)? Do Calvin’s arguments succeed? For Catholics, the import of Acts 15:28 is clear and undeniable.

2017-03-27T13:03:50-04:00

Hell4
Photograph by “ulrikebohr570” [public domain / Pixabay]
(1-2-09)
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This is a continuation of a previous discussion with a doctoral student in philosophy who is seriously considering conversion to Catholicism, but who struggles with the doctrine of hell, and aspects of God’s function as Judge. His words will be in blue.
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Thanks for your reply. To clarify briefly, after having glanced at your reply, I don’t believe in predestination to hell, per Catholic teaching. Catholics believe in predestination to heaven, but without ruling out or superseding our free will. It’s a paradox and not totally understandable by the human mind, but that’s what we believe. It requires faith.

When I speak of there definitely being persons in hell, it is not from reasoning or deduction alone, apart from revelation (i.e., not purely philosophical). It is based on what we know from the Bible, which says that there will be people who are damned, as opposed to those who are saved. The Bible teaches neither universalism nor annihilationism. It also explicitly describes the devil and his angels being tormented in hell indefinitely.

Jesus on several occasions matter-of-factly states that hell is a reality, and that people will end up there. I know that doesn’t cut it in a purely philosophical discussion, but we’re also discussing Catholic theology, which entails a consideration of revelation (which you will have to accept anyway, should you decide to become Catholic). I’m trying to do mostly philosophy here (badly as I might be doing it), because that’s your area, but I can’t totally divorce my position (surely you understand) from revelation and biblical evidences for hell.

I’m assuming, too, that you accept the distinction between foreknowledge and predestination (God being out of time and knowing all things). This doesn’t necessitate predestination. All who end up in hell freely made the choice to do so.

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First of all, I would like to thank everyone for their thoughtful responses. In particular, thank you to David and Dave for replying so thoroughly. I’m in the process of writing a response to Dave in particular. Dave, you make a great many important points and I want to respond to them fairly systematically in another post.

Thank you. Glad to be of any service to you.

However, for the moment, I want to refer briefly to your exchange with Geoffrey and Kevin about universalism etc. I took your advice and had a look at it. To be honest, I found a great deal of what you said there very troubling. So before I post my response to your response to my questions I want to clarify some concerns I have with your statements in this discussion.

Okay.

I have to say that after reading the discussion carefully a number of times I do think that you missed the point of Geoffrey’s question. As it stands, your arguments seem to me to involve a defence of some kind of predestination, whereby some individuals are necessarily destined for hell. Obviously this claim needs to be clarified, which I will attempt to do here.

It seems to me that Geoffrey made his point quite clearly.He is not claiming that necessarily no one has or will choose hell. This would clearly involve a denial of free will. What he is asking is whether it is permissible to believe that as a contingent fact nobody will choose to go there. In each and every case a person may go one way or the other. It is possible, however, that in each and every case the person involved will freely choose God, rather than hell. I presume, because of the discussion of the possibility of a last minute reprieve, that Geoffrey is concerned with the possibility of somebody repenting at the end of their life.

As I replied in another brief post already: granting a belief in revelation and NT revelation in particular (which you have done in large part by accepting most of the Nicene Creed), it is not possible to believe that no one will end up in hell, because the NT clearly states that they will. Several passages imply a great division between the saved and the unsaved; “few” are they who take the Christian road, etc.

The “beast” and the “false prophet” in Revelation are human beings. The Bible tells us that “these two were thrown alive into the lake of fire that burns with sulphur” (Rev 19:20). This is reiterated in chapter 20, with mention of large numbers of people (the dead in Hades) also being consigned to hell:

Revelation 20:10-15

[10] and the devil who had deceived them was thrown into the lake of fire and sulphur where the beast and the false prophet were, and they will be tormented day and night for ever and ever. [11] Then I saw a great white throne and him who sat upon it; from his presence earth and sky fled away, and no place was found for them.
[12] And I saw the dead, great and small, standing before the throne, and books were opened. Also another book was opened, which is the book of life. And the dead were judged by what was written in the books, by what they had done.
[13] And the sea gave up the dead in it, Death and Hades gave up the dead in them, and all were judged by what they had done.
[14] Then Death and Hades were thrown into the lake of fire. This is the second death, the lake of fire;
[15] and if any one’s name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire.

Therefore, if you accept biblical revelation, you have no choice but to accept this. You can’t pick and choose what you personally like and don’t like, or what you think God should have done, rather than what He has revealed that He has done and will do. Christianity doesn’t work that way. Why would you think you could totally understand everything, anyway? I understand that a philosophy doctoral student will use his mind more than most of us, and work through things by that method. I have no problem with that in and of itself, as long as the limits of it are acknowledged. But Christianity is not philosophy: it is a religious faith. It is not contrary to reason, but it does go beyond it. Surely you know this, and I don’t have to remind you of it, but I am writing for everyone reading this, too. It requires faith and grace to believe in its entirety.

Your replies clearly negate free will.

They do not. You must have misunderstood them if you got that impression, or you are argung from a supposed logical reduction of my arguments.

You say for example:

“I don’t see much of a distinction between believing in a hell that the reprobate and damned go to and then turning around and saying that it is quite possible that no men go there…”

I’m not sure what I meant in this statement, but I think it is muddled and unclear, looking back at it after 4 1/2 years, and I would like to remove it because if I can’t figure out what I meant, I suspect readers won’t be able to, either. Much more clear is what I wrote immediately afterward:

As I said before: if no men go to hell, then why is so much of the NT devoted to warning men to not end up there by virtue of their rejection of God? Why would the Church tell us that all mortal sins place us in potential danger of hellfire, when in fact, that never occurs because no men end actually up in hell?

That makes no sense to me. It seems to me that if universalism were in fact the true state of affairs and that all men end up in heaven, then we would be informed of this in the Bible, as it is a wonderful truth. Instead, God plays a sort of game by scaring us half to death with all this business about hell and fire and torture and all, and then no one goes there anyway except the devil and his demons.

I find that as silly and implausible as a parent who constantly scares his children with threats of punishment, but never follows through with any of it. Just as the child would not believe the parent when they make such claims, after a few years of that, I wouldn’t trust God’s word, either, if He acted in such a weird, arbitrary fashion with us, involving virtual deception.

I’m not sure whether Geoffrey would agree with the following formulation of an argument for the possibility of an empty hell, but in any case I think the idea is quite simple:

1) There is a hell.

2) If a given person chooses hell then they will go to hell.

3) If a given person does not choose hell then they will not go to hell.

4) Human beings have free will.

5) Since human beings have free will it is not the case that any human being will of necessity go to hell.

6) From this it follows straightforwardly that it is possible that hell is empty because, as a contingent fact, ( not as a necessity) no one has chosen to go there, i.e. everyone has repented before death and been reconciled to God.

And again, I have stated that if the discussion involved merely philosophy and the question of free will, of course your statement about necessary truths and possibilities of human choices would be undeniably true. But this discussion also involves revelation, and that revelation informs us that it is a certainty that in fact many human beings will reject God and thus end up in hell. It’s a fact that is yet to happen: known by God in His foreknowledge and omniscience. God has communicated this fact to us, and repeatedly warns us to avoid the same fate. It’s no less fact because it happens to be “future” to us. It’s not future to God. He knows all that will happen in the future because He is already there.

It is crucial to be clear about where the necessity lies. It is a necessary truth that if a person chooses hell then they will go to hell. So if some group of people chooses hell, then that group will necessarily go to hell. It is a completely different thing to claim that necessarily some group of people will go to hell.

I understand that. I took logic in college too. But it’s not my claim in the first place. It is a statement of fact based on the revelation of what will happen. I made this very clear in the dialogue of mine that you reference, as well, so you should already know that my reasoning is entirely consistent, with regard to incorporation of biblical revelation, which I as a Catholic am not at liberty to deny (nor will you have any such liberty should you decide to become Catholic). As it is, now you accept some revelation and reject other portions of it that you find difficult. That is the logically inconsistent position, not mine.

This only follows if it is necessarily true that some group of people will choose to go to hell. And this flatly contradicts the reality of free will.

As I have not asserted this, it is not a problem of my position that I have to explain.

Geoffrey seems to me to pick up on the troubling consequences of this way of thinking when he says:

“The Catechism condemns the teaching that God predestines anyone to Hell. Therefore there can be no certainty that some are in Hell…”

It seems to me that what you are defending clearly implies that some are predestined to Hell.

Not at all. This exhibits the rather common confusion between predestination and foreknowledge. Since God is outside of time (and I actually took a philosophy of space and time course in college too), He has the ability to state what will happen in the future (acts and facts) back to us for whom the acts are not yet accomplished. So we human beings can make a free choice in the future that God knows (knowing all things). He can tell us now that there are people who will be damned, and He has indeed done so in the Bible. You need not take my word for this.

Your reply to this really does miss the point. You say:

“It follows from the fact of original sin and mortal sin. There are people who fall into the latter, and we are all (except the Blessed Virgin) subject to the former. Therefore there will be people in hell, because there are people in original sin and mortal sin.”

By your own claim, the Catholic Church teaches that the moment of death determines the fate of the soul. Now assuming for the sake of argument that this is true, it would certainly be true that if some person dies in a state of mortal sin they will go to hell. This is just a specification of the general if-then statement above- If some person chooses hell, that person will necessarily go to hell. But you are claiming something else: Some person will necessarily go to hell. But this is completely dependent on whether some person chooses hell, in this case, dies unrepentent and in state of mortal sin. For your view to follow you would need to hold that at least one person will of necessity choose hell. In a concrete sense you would need to be able to say with absolute certainty that a given person has not repented and been reconciled to God. I don’t see how anyone could claim this kind of knowledge of what goes on in someone’s heart. This is predestination plain and simple, and makes a mockery of free will.

It was overstated a bit. I should have said “it is extremely likely” or some such. But the overall thrust of my statement remains true, based on what we know from Revelation. The Bible clearly states that those who are beholden to serious, mortal sin will not inherit the Kingdom (and that means hell, when we harmonize all related biblical teachings) and that unbelievers will be judged and sentenced to eternal darkness and separation from God. Jesus assumes this as a fact on several occasions.

Your subsequent statements only seem to confirm that you hold to some form of predestinationism, in other words that there is some definite group of people who will of necessity be damned.

Incorrect. There is a group that will be damned, as we know from the Bible and as a function of God’s omniscience, but not because they were predestined. They freely chose to reject God.

In your response to me you say clearly that Catholicism is not Calvinism,

Indeed.

that the Catholic Church does not teach that people are predestined to hell.

That’s correct. You can take it from me, as a longtime apologist. If the Catholic Church did teach that, there is a strong likelihood that I wouldn’t have converted to it myself, as I was an Arminian and never a Calvinist.

I am glad if this is the case, but I fail to see how your own statements avoid the charge of defending predestination.

I have amply explained it by now. You may object to God being outside of time or omniscient, for all I know. That would entail an entirely different discussion. You may subscribe to some form of process theology, that is heretical according to Catholicism. Other discussions . . .

* * *

I’d like to make a start on a reply to the various ideas that have so far arisen in this thread. Part of the problem in a discussion like this, especially from my side, as someone who does not share all of the assumptions which my Catholic respondents do,

In the case of hell, it is also historic Protestantism and Orthodoxy that disagree with you, not just Catholicism, because all Christians pretty much agree on this.

is that I can’t assume that people are aware of or understand my own theological, moral, and philosophical presuppositions. What I would like to do is lay out as clearly as possible the main problems I have with the doctrine of hell, more clearly than I have so far, present as clearly as possible my own presuppositions, and then proceed to fairly systematically work through the various thoughtful and generous responses I’ve received.

Okay. And I will counter-reply.

I would like to begin by outlining what I take to be the key claims involved in the dominant or traditional conception of hell. To do this I would like to refer to the work of the philosopher of religion Jonathan L. Kvanvig whose book, “The Problem of Hell” presents many of the issues with admirable clarity. Kvanvig lists the following theses as being central to the traditional concept of hell:

” (1) The Punishment Thesis: the purpose of hell is to punish those whose earthly lives and behavior warrant it.

(2) The No Escape Thesis: it is metaphysically impossible to get out of hell once one has been consigned there.

(3) The Anti-Universalism Thesis: some people will be consigned to hell.

(4) The Eternal Existence Thesis: hell is a place of unending conscious existence.”

Now I basically agree with Kvanvig that this is an accurate account of how hell has, for the most part, been understood throughout the history of Christianity.

Because that is precisely how the Bible has presented it! That’s why Christians have believed this in the first place.

Kvanvig himself argues for a version of annihilationism, in other words the view that the damned simply taken out of existence. I disagree with his arguments here, but the above formulation should give people participating in this thread a fairly clear idea of what I’m objecting to.

Annihilationsim cannot be squared with the biblical data. I knew this 25 years ago, when I used biblical arguments to disprove the Jehovah’s Witnesses position, which is the same.

Now I would like to briefly state some of my presuppositions. Since I will describe my presupposition as far as content is concerned as I go along, I want to begin here by stating what one might call my methodological assumptions, in other words how I approach the Christian faith, how I understand the relation between Faith and Reason, and where some of my basic influences lie.

Good.

This is meant also to be a partial response to David’s contention that my ” fixation with reasoning to a conclusion” is causing me to stumble.

Insofar as you don’t also include revelation in the analysis, I think he is correct. It’s impossible for any Christian to intelligently discuss hell without taking that into account. But as you clarify, I think the problem may not be so much “hyper-rationalism” as it is “selective revelation.” You accept part of revelation and reject another part, and the criterion is reason and your feelings about things like hell. The orthodox Christian replies that this is unreasonable and arbitrary.

David made a number of points about the relation of reason, and thus philosophy, to religion. His view seems to be that reason is flawed as an approach to religious truth.

He’s certainly less inclined to philosophy than I am, but I think it would be most unfair to categorize him as “anti-reason” in any way. David can speak for himself, but I think he means it in the sense that I described above. He wants to harmonize faith, revelation, and reason, as I do. We usually have different approaches in our answers on this forum, as the folks here are well aware (and which I think is wonderful), but on that broad principle we are in complete agreement, I can assure you.

I have to say I disagree strongly with this view. I certainly have specifically philosophical reasons for disagreeing, which it wouldn’t be appropriate to go into here. But quite apart from this this view does not seem to me to accurately reflect the profound influence which philosophical thought has had on Catholicism. Thomism is one obvious example. I mention this because my own philosophical convictions on a great many questions are basically Thomist, with a strong element of phenomenology. David made the point that philosophy students often make the mistake of legislating for God, of thinking that they can judge God’s actions and so on. Now I think this criticism is to a large extent valid, and not only of philosophy students but also great philosophers. There is a lot of titanic presumption in the history of philosophy ( e.g. Hegelianism). At the same time I think this charge is unfair with respect to my own concerns.

I hope so, and I’ll accept your word on that.

I would never presume to legislate what God Himself can or cannot do. But none of what I say is directed at God, rather it is directed at human conceptions of God with which I disagree.

But that is a fine line, because in this case the human conceptions are directly derived from revelation, which we believe is from God. If one accepts the validity and truthfulness of the NT, hell is part of the package. It is as impossible to extract from it as it was for Thomas Jefferson to eliminate all the biblical miracles from his ridiculous Bible. To do so guts the NT and it is no longer the NT after that ransacking of it.

When a philosophical theologian says that God cannot do evil, he is not telling God what he can or cannot do, he is simply clarifying a truth which follows necessarily from the nature of God, if we the virtually universally accepted view that God is Perfectly Good.

Yep. No problem there. And this is grounded in Revelation as well.

In the same way if someone says that God cannot make a square circle, he is not legislating for God, or claiming to know God’s mind better than God.

That’s right. I made that very argument in my first installment, as I recall.

Similarly, my claim is not that I know better than God, but rather that on my understanding of God’s nature ( which is not merely some arbitrary personal construction but informed by many years of studying) the doctrine of hell seems to be incompatible with God’s nature.

And I deny that just as vigorously.

There are certain things which I accept without philosophical argument. I believe and accept everything contained in the Nicene Creed, with two provisos: 1) I would have a different interpretation of what is involved in God’s judging the quick and the dead than Catholics; 2) I have doubts as to whether the ‘ One Holy Catholic and Apostolic Church’ refers exclusively to the Roman Catholic Church.

To do so one must accept revelation. You have done that in large part. Yet when it comes to hell that same revelation isn’t sufficient for you. This is the incoherence that I see in your position thus far.

I do not question what I take to be the central truths of the Christian faith: the Trinity, The Fall, the Son’s Incarnation, Death and Resurrection, The Last Judgment and so on, not only because I believe them to be true by faith, but because they enlighten my reason, because the beauty and moral grandeur of these idea inspires me unlike any other religious conception. So faith and reason are not for me at odds with each other.

Great.

On the other hand there are clearly things in both the Old and New Testament which are morally unacceptable: one obvious example is the fact that slavery is not only never condemned in the Old Testament, but is clearly practiced by some of Israel’s prophets. In the New Testament similarly, there is St. Paul’s injunction that slaves should obey their masters. Now it seems obvious to me that by any sane contemporary standards of morality St. Paul was in error, in so far as he did not speak out against the institution of slavery and even, in some places seems to give it a partial acceptance.

Slavery in the Bible (in most instances) was essentially being an indentured servant. Paul’s conception of slavery was not identical to the chattel slavery of early America. But this is a sidetrack. See these articles:

Development or Reversal? (Slavery) (Avery Cardinal Dulles)

A Response to John Noonan, Jr. Concerning the Development of Catholic Moral Doctrine (Usury, Marriage, Slavery, Religious freedom) (Patrick M. O’Neil)

On Slavery in the Old Testament (Luke Wadel)

Catholic Encyclopedia: Slavery and Chrisrtianity

Catholic Encyclopedia: Slavery, Ethical Aspect of

This is just one instance of many, especially as pertains to the Old Testament, where God Himself is presented, at least if read literally, as counselling the Israelites to commit genocide against their enemies, killing every last woman and child.

This is perfectly defensible as acts of judgment on God’s part (Who has this prerogative as our Creator). See:

How Could a God of Love Order the Massacre of the Canaanites?

Shouldn’t the Butchering of the Amalekite Children be Considered War Crimes?

To me it is obvious that it is moral duty for any one who believes in God, but for Christians in particular, to reject those aspects of Scripture which are clearly immoral ( slavery) as representing not an unchanging truth, but rather the historically limited understanding of people ( even Saints) of the time, or, as in the case of the Old Testament, reject a literal interpretation of God’s actions and find an interpretation which saves God from the calumny of seeing Him as a genocidal tyrant.

Have you read intelligent defenses of the biblical outlook on these matters, such as the ones I have presented to you presently? Gotta read both sides. Christianity can always offer some sort of answer. it may be regarded as implausible or false, but we do always at least offer some defense of our beliefs, which counts for something, I think. Many belief-systems are unable or unwilling to sustain an apologia after just one strong critique.

It is one thing to appeal to mystery when it is a matter of doctrines ( such as the Incarnation) which exceed our understanding but which can in no way be accused of being immoral. It is quite another thing to appeal to mystery when it is a matter of ideas, like slavery, or like the idea that God is a wrathful and jealous tribal deity, which are clearly immoral by any reasonable human standards.

The latter is merely a deliberate anthropomorphism on God’s part (rather common in the OT and a well-known aspect of Hebrew poetry and sacred literature), and poses not the slightest problem.

Furthermore, there is the fact that concepts central to the issue of hell, such as free-will, are simply not given any clear articulation in the New Testament. There is no doubt that we have free will, but what this means and how we are to understand this, how it relates to God’s will, to issues of God’s knowledge of the future and so on, is simply not a Scriptural matter. All the complex accounts of these issues developed over the centuries by Christians represent a development which, while we may believe it is divinely inspired, is nevertheless rational and philosophical, or philosophical-theological.

To the contrary, there is some explicit biblical indication, right from Jesus, even of Middle Knowledge (a sophisticated philosophical concept), which I have noted in the past, in my defense of same (being a Molinist myself):

Matthew 11:21-24

[21] “Woe to you, Chora’zin! woe to you, Beth-sa’ida! for if the mighty works done in you had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes.
[22] But I tell you, it shall be more tolerable on the day of judgment for Tyre and Sidon than for you.
[23] And you, Caper’na-um, will you be exalted to heaven? You shall be brought down to Hades. For if the mighty works done in you had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day.
[24] But I tell you that it shall be more tolerable on the day of judgment for the land of Sodom than for you.”

There is also considerable data concerning God being out of time, with no beginning or end, and omniscient. I’ll refrain from getting into all that now, but rest assured that I can produce plenty of it, if needs be.

As such one cannot invoke faith to defend them from rational scrutiny.

I certainly can invoke revelation (Mt 11:21-25) and faith in same to defend Middle Knowledge, as well as other passages showing His omniscience, foreknowledge, sovereignty, providence, omnipotence, eternity and being outside of time, etc.

The fact is that even the Scriptures need to be interpreted, we do not simply passively take in a content which is obvious and clear as to its meaning, as the history of Christianity amply points out. When people defend hell using concepts like Justice, eternal existence of souls, and so on, they are dealing in human concepts, concepts whose sole meaningful content derives from the way in which they have been developed and articulated throughout the history of thought. So I think that you simply cannot avoid discussing these issues at the level of rational argument.

Nor can you avoid dealing with how Scripture presents hell as a plain, simple fact (especially Jesus Himself).

So much for my assumptions as to the relation of philosophy, or rather reason, and faith. But I should make it clear that the source of my doubts about hell is not purely rational. The most important theological influence on my thoughts in this regard comes from St. Isaac the Syrian, also known as St. Isaac of Nineveh, a hermit and ascetic universally recognised in the Orthodox Church for his personal sanctity, although his universalism was rejected by the Orthodox Church.

That should tell you all you need to know. It is the corporate Church that decides what is orthodox. It is not any one saint or even collection of them, no matter how saintly. We ought not go looking for saints who agree with our predispositions and biases. The Catholic and Orthodox approach is to accept an authoritative Church. If you continue to insist on an unbibical universalism you can always join the Unitarian Universalists. If you think annihilationism is true, you have the option of Seventh-Day Adventists (trinitarianian) or Jehovah’s Witnesses or Christadelphianism (both Arian in Christology).

If that is your methodology: to pick and choose a religious group based on their agreement with your previous philosophical conclusions, then that is thoroughly Protestant and individualistic, and you have many options available to you. But the Catholic accepts the entire package of Catholic dogma in faith, as something far greater than himself. St. Thomas Aquinas and Cardinal Newman (my own intellectual hero) both made this very clear.

Virtually all of my views about hell either come from St. Isaac, or if they were developed independently, received their confirmation in his teachings, in particular as expressed in his Ascetical Homilies.

Every heresy originally started with one person.

I won’t describe his views, but will instead provide a link to an article on St. Isaac by Bishop Hilarion Alfeyev of Vienna, who has written on of the few scholarly books on St. Isaac’s thought.

Okay; thanks. But I warn anyone who would want to read this, that it is considered rank heresy to deny the existence of hell.

Next I would like to articulate the main issues I have with regard to this conception of hell. These questions for the most part directly relate to things said by respondents in this thread.

1) The problem of God’s Justice and its relation to His Mercy. There are various issues here:

(1a) Is the relation between Justice and Mercy in God such that both are equally essential to His nature, or does one of them exceed the other in importance?

Equal, I believe.

(1b) A slightly different but related question is whether both God’s Justice and His Mercy exist on the same level, whether, to put it metaphorically, they are the two sides of a balanced scale, or whether one of them exceeds the other not simply in the sense that the scale is weighted in its favour, but in the sense that it includes both sides in a higher synthesis.

Two sides of a balanced scale. Every parent understands this when we punish a child for their own good and follow it up by explaining and hugging them.

This is important to my argument because I believe that it is a basic mistake to view Justice and Mercy as equally essential to God’s nature.

So you demote Justice?

I’ve chosen the metaphor of a scale quite consciously because of its association with the concept of Justice. It seems to me that people who emphasize the equal, but competing claims of Justice and Mercy in fact, implicitly subordinate both to an overarching conception of Justice. The very idea that there is a conflict between Justice and Mercy, involves a conception of a weighing up of relative merits which is at odds with the radically gratuitous nature of God’s love.

Who says there is a conflict? They are simply two different but perfectly harmonious things.

My deeply held conviction is that Mercy, which is just another word for Love, transcends the apparent opposition between Justice and mercy (with a small m).

On what basis do you assert this “conviction” and build systems of thought upon it?

Obviously we need new words to express this without confusion, but the basic idea should be clear. Mercy is not one of the sides of the scale, it is the whole scale itself. Or perhaps more accurately, it is the still point from which the two sides of the scale hang.

Everything God does is out of love. I agree if that is what you mean. It is loving even for God to allow human beings to have free will, which many will use to reject Him. That is not only loving it is extremely humble (just as the beginning of the Incarnation and the crucifixion were). It’s because God loves us that He gives us free will and abides by the decisions we make as a result. But if we can freely serve Him we can also freely reject Him, and God won’t force anyone (out of love) to serve Him against their will. Thus hell follows inexorably from this granted free will which is an aspect of God’s love for His creatures.

But it also follows from justice, insofar as evil deeds and adoption of a stance of thorough rebellion against God and goodness do not go unpunished for all eternity. Thank God for that, too. I couldn’t live a day with just the abominable outrage of abortion alone if I didn’t believe in a cosmic justice, or God’s judgment.

There is nothing new or morally compelling in the ethic of strict justice or retribution. The desire to avenge wrongs, to extract justice with “an eye for an eye” is I think a tendency as old as humanity itself.

God’s justice is not vengeance. You’ve been greatly affected by secular thinking in this respect, to adopt such a perspective. And that is very common in post-“Enlightenment” philosophical environments, of course.

If this was in fact what Christ taught then the Christian ethic would bring nothing new to the world, and would be inferior in certain ways to others ( for example, in failing to express the same universal compassion for the non-human world, e.g. animals, as found in Buddhism and Jainism).

Jesus lays it all out in Matthew 25. Revelation 19:11,15 shows Him coming back to earth with a sword in His mouth, to judge the nations. Nor was Jesus a pacifist. See also:

Matthew 16:27 (RSV) For the Son of man is to come with his angels in the glory of his Father, and then he will repay every man for what he has done.

JOHN 5:22,27 (KJV) For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son . . . (27) And hath given him authority to execute judgment also, because he is the Son of man. (cf. Mt 3:10-12: John the Baptist)

JOHN 9:39 (KJV) And Jesus said, For judgment I am come into this world, that they which see not might see; and that they which see might be made blind.

ACTS 10:42 (KJV) . . . it is he which was ordained of God {to be} the Judge of quick and dead.

2 TIMOTHY 4:1 (KJV) I charge {thee} therefore before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, who shall judge the quick and the dead at his appearing and his kingdom;

Christ’s injunction that we love our enemies, forgive those who sin against us is, conversely, an ethic of unprecedented radicality and beauty. This is not an ethic of justice.

Injunctions as to personal behavior do not cancel out the social responsibility of Christians to oppose injustice. This is a common secularist, pacifist perspective, but it is not biblical. The same Jesus of the Sermon on the Mount also praised the faith of Roman centurions and told the disciples to purchase a sword (Luke 22:36).

Even more telling is the fact that God, in the Person of Christ Crucified forgives human beings the ultimate sin against His very own Person. Human beings murder God Incarnate and His response to this is ” Father forgive them for they know not what they do”. This is far removed from any considerations of strict justice.

He forgives them personally (or more correctly, asks God the Father to forgive them), but they still have to face judgment if they are unrepentant. They knew not what they did. That is one thing. But God will judge us for what we knowingly do, if it is evil.

We presuppose on this forum that one accepts the Bible as God’s inspired revelation. You argue, contra Scripture, that God has no concept of justice, cannot judge, that He is (?) supposedly a pacifist; cannot take any human life in judgment, etc. It’s no wonder you don’t believe in hell, because you have taken out the justice that is its fundamental rationale, along with free will, causing poor, deluded souls to prefer it to heaven.

If anything tells against the idea that our God is a God of strict justice it is this. The people who reviled Christ, the Romans who scourged Him, the Jews who demanded His crucifixion, had far more reason to believe in Him that any one today. They saw Him, witnessed, or at least heard by direct testimony of the miracles wrought by Him, and heard Him preach unmediated by centuries of theological interpretation and disagreement. And yet they rejected Him, and Crucified Him, and He forgave them, despite the fact that it would be very unlikely that they first repented.

You miss the point. They didn’t know what they were doing. But in Peter’s sermons and Paul’s epistles they made it clear that there was blame to Jews (not just ones at the crucifixion or calling for it) who rejected Jesus and His claim as Messiah and Lord:

Acts 3:12-19

[12] And when Peter saw it he addressed the people, “Men of Israel, why do you wonder at this, or why do you stare at us, as though by our own power or piety we had made him walk?
[13] The God of Abraham and of Isaac and of Jacob, the God of our fathers, glorified his servant Jesus, whom you delivered up and denied in the presence of Pilate, when he had decided to release him.
[14] But you denied the Holy and Righteous One, and asked for a murderer to be granted to you,
[15] and killed the Author of life, whom God raised from the dead. To this we are witnesses.
[16] And his name, by faith in his name, has made this man strong whom you see and know; and the faith which is through Jesus has given the man this perfect health in the presence of you all.
[17] “And now, brethren, I know that you acted in ignorance, as did also your rulers.
[18] But what God foretold by the mouth of all the prophets, that his Christ should suffer, he thus fulfilled.
[19] Repent therefore, and turn again, that your sins may be blotted out, that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord,

Acts 4:8-12

[8] Then Peter, filled with the Holy Spirit, said to them, “Rulers of the people and elders,
[9] if we are being examined today concerning a good deed done to a cripple, by what means this man has been healed,
[10] be it known to you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom you crucified, whom God raised from the dead, by him this man is standing before you well.
[11] This is the stone which was rejected by you builders, but which has become the head of the corner.
[12] And there is salvation in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved.”

This precise message was why Stephen, the first martyr, was killed:

Acts 7:51-53

[51] “You stiff-necked people, uncircumcised in heart and ears, you always resist the Holy Spirit. As your fathers did, so do you. [52] Which of the prophets did not your fathers persecute? And they killed those who announced beforehand the coming of the Righteous One, whom you have now betrayed and murdered,
[53] you who received the law as delivered by angels and did not keep it.”

I’ll refrain from documenting what Paul wrote about this, too, for space’s sake.

2) Even if we assume that Justice is a primary value, equal to Mercy, there remains the question whether it is just for anybody to be consigned to hell. There are various issues here too:

(2a) The first issue here was stated in a fairly representative way by Dan:

“To sin against something that is infinitely good deserves infinite punishment or reparation. Man, being finite cannot make infinite reparation. Because God is merciful, we do not need to. To have contrition and going to Confession is enough. But there are those who reject the Sacraments. During the Last Judgement, there will be the select few that enter into Paradise because they have lived just lives. God being just cannot award eternal pleasure to the just without “awarding” eternal punishment to the unjust.”

Kvanvig describes just this sort of argument in his book, and in the article on Heaven and Hell in the Stanford Encylopaedia of Philosophy ( I give the link at the bottom of this post.) He writes:

“According to defenders of the traditional view, punishment deserved is also a function of the status of the individual one has wronged, and they argue that all wrongdoing constitutes a wrong against God, and that wronging God is as bad a thing as anyone could do- they are infinitely bad thereby justifying an infinite punishment”.

I think I already anticipated this in my analysis of souls being intrinsically eternal. If they reject God, then they exist eternally apart from Him, and that entails a suffering because being absolutely separate from God with none of His grace any longer present is an unutterably horrific thing.

Kvanvig himself presents a number of telling arguments against this view.

The first of these is relevant to another issue I will discuss later, so I will mention it only briefly here. He makes the fairly obvious point that it is simply not true, in the vast majority of cases, people ” do not intend to harm God or to defy Him in some way when they act wrongly”. On any defensible notion of “intention” it is not simply implausible, but patently false to say that all people who act wrongly thereby intend to defy God or sin against Him.

The Bible teaches (particularly in Romans 1 and 2) that those who are judged have knowingly rejected God. Kvanvig can speculate all he likes, but he is contradicting plain Scriptural testimony.

Our everyday sort of intuitions about intention and culpability recognise that intention is crucially important in determining the moral and legal gravity of an act, hence the distinction between murder and manslaughter, among other things.

Exactly. And that is how the Bible describes those who are judged and damned:

Romans 1:18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and wickedness of men who by their wickedness suppress the truth.

Romans 1:20-21 Ever since the creation of the world his invisible nature, namely, his eternal power and deity, has been clearly perceived in the things that have been made. So they are without excuse; for although they knew God they did not honor him as God or give thanks to him, but they became futile in their thinking and their senseless minds were darkened.

Romans 1:32 Though they know God’s decree that those who do such things deserve to die, they not only do them but approve those who practice them.

One could give many everyday examples of this, but the obvious one that jumps out is the case of atheists. It is absurd to say that in sinning the atheist intends to defy God, for the simple fact that the atheist does not believe in the existence of God. I’m not talking here about militant atheists like Richard Dawkins but virtuous, thoughtful atheists who despite their best attempts to understand and affirm belief in God cannot do so.

I have argued that it is possible for atheists to be saved if they are truly ignorant, and that not all atheists are evil people, so I agree. Many times they are not ignorant, however, and their “atheism” is just a cover and pretense for true hatred of God, just as Romans 1 describes. I know; I’ve debated many of them.

The same obviously goes for small children and for those who, through no fault of their own have never been exposed to a credible form of Christianity.

Exactly. That’s why Catholic theology allows for that, following Romans 2 and other such passages.

So there is obviously something missing here, some further assumption which motivates the view expressed by Dan and characterised by Kvanvig.

According to Kvanvig, and I agree with him here, it is the assumption of a kind of ownership relation between God and His creatures. The idea is, one can wrong a person by destroying their property without being aware who the owner is, and without intending to wrong them.

Of course. That is not at issue. Christians believe that knowledge of God is innate in human beings. People can unlearn that, however, by secular education, bad experiences, following a path of sin and corruption, etc.

He also makes the important point, in his book, though not in the article, that this sort of thinking is a kind of relic of feudal relations, that it conceptualises the relation between God and human beings along the lines of the relation between an absolute monarch and his subjects. I cannot see how Dan’s position could possibly be defended without this sort of underlying paradigm being assumed: namely, that God, as absolute sovereign has complete and arbitrary power over his subjects,

He has power over those He created. God gave life and can take it away. That is His prerogative. He didn’t have to create us at all. He is under no obligation to save anyone, either, after the human race rebelled against Him (the Fall). He does so out of love and mercy. We owe our life and existence to Him. Your mistake is to conclude that this power is arbitrary. It’s not at all.

and that a sin against God is so heinous because of God’s status in the cosmic hierarchy.

God is God. A=A: the first law of logic.

This seems to me to be fundamentally at odds with the Gospels’ picture of Jesus Christ. We are not presented here with the picture of a proud sovereign but with a God Who takes the form of a servant, who washes the feet of sinners, and Who dies, as far as the external world is concerned, the shameful death of a common criminal.

He also speaks of judgment and reiterates that He Himself is a judge and will judge sinners on the Last Day because he is one with the Father.

Quite apart from this objection, namely that this conception of God involves the projection of onto God of certain outdated and discredited political assumptions about authority,

The usual anthropological condescending disdain of the Bible and ancient Jewish religion that is observed so often . . . It won’t help you progress in your inquiry at all, to adopt this approach.

there is also the serious problem of making any sense of the idea of an “infinite sin”.

The unforgivable sin is to call evil good and reject God’s plan of salvation for human beings. That causes separation from God, which is hell.

This is not as clearly stated by Dan as by Kvanvig, but it is clearly implied by his view. He works explicitly with the image of a scale of justice: sins against God, who is infinitely Good, are infinitely bad, therefore they deserve infinite punishment.

We don’t need to get into all that to defend hell.

The first problem with this I have already discussed. If sins against God are infinitely bad, then one must ask, for whom? The only possible answer is, for God. God on this view, judges all sins as sins against His own Person, and as infinitely bad. This position makes no sense unless one assumes that God is the kind of being Who can take offence, something which I find absurd. It makes sense in the context of a political relation between a sovereign and his subjects, because here we are obviously dealing with an instance of wounded pride, which demands satisfaction. I think this is deeply mistaken. Great political rulers, especially absolute rulers have for the most part been monsters of titanic pride and any tendency to conceptualise God along these lines is fundamentally flawed, as well as being at odds with the Christ of the New Testament.

Your argument at this point rests, with all due respect, on a series of fallacies, disproven by the Bible and, I think, natural law reason and common sense. And to the extent that revelation is accepted, it contradicts many facts at every turn, too. Even if the NT is accepted as an accurate historical account of Jesus and His teachings, you have huge internal difficulties.

3) Next I would like to respond to Dave’s statement that God gives every person adequate grace and opportunity to accept Him and thus to avoid hell. I think this is highly doubtful.

Then you again discount the data of revelation. This creates an incoherence in your stated position. One cannot pick and choose from revelation. It stands together as a whole.

The fact is that countless people deal on an everyday basis with all manner of things which seriously undermine their ability to exercise their free will. People in their millions live in conditions of unimaginable poverty, violence and oppression, so much so that God would have to be unbelievably callous to fault such people for not believing in Him. It is one thing to fault a healthy, well educated, person living in relative luxury in a western country for holding to a facile atheism. It is quite something else to condemn someone for being unable to believe in God if they have lived a life in which there has been virtually no sign of love, or justice or meaning.

God doesn’t judge as men do: outwardly only. He knows the secrets of our hearts, so that He judges justly and fairly. No one will be sent to hell because they lacked sufficient knowledge (Romans 2:15-16). All of this speculation is, then, a moot point.

More seriously still is the fact that millions of children, who can in no way be held morally responsible for the situations in which they find themselves, are born into grinding poverty, virtual slave labour, sexual and physical abuse and so on.

Ditto.

I don’t know if Dave intended to imply that everyone gets not only an adequate chance, but also an equal chance. I sense that this was implied, but I may be wrong. If it was then I think these considerations refute it fairly obviously- people are not given an equal chance, far from it.

They get an equal chance at salvation, because God takes all these factors into account. “To whom much is given, much is required.” Obviously, they don’t get an equal chance at the opportunities and luxuries of earthly life, but we’re talking about salvation, not earthly happiness. It is the fact of heaven after this life, that puts our sufferings here in proper perspective (Romans 8:18: “I consider that the sufferings of this present time are not worth comparing with the glory that is to be revealed to us.”).

Even if Dave did not mean this, and meant simply that everyone has an adequate chance, adequate to their circumstances, I don’t think this is true. Take the example of a child who endures horrendous abuse, poverty, lack of education. Let’s say that as a result of this the child grows up to be an adult who is not able to form the right beliefs about God, which in this context would mean beliefs in consonance with those of the Roman Catholic Church. To say that on the basis of such a life this person would be competent to decide their eternal destiny, that it would be fair or just for them to be consigned to hell on the basis that they had ample opportunity to get it right, simply beggers belief. To say this is to speak in abstractions. Human life is not that simple.

I think this is all a red herring. I believe in a perfectly merciful, loving, and just God. I don’t lose one second’s sleep wondering about whether His judgment of souls will be fair or not. Of course it will be. Jesus reveals the nature of God and His love.

4) This links up directly with another very significant problem- the fact that the Catholic Church makes it, in my view, unconscionably easy to end up in hell because it sets the conditions for entry far too low. Previously there has been some discussion of the question whether somebody could be eternally obstinate, so hard hearted as to be impervious to any divine influence. Now I would be far more willing to contemplate the possibility of hell if we were talking about paradigmatic cases like Hitler, where we have conscious, and unrepentent evil on a massive scale, perpetrated by a human being who, though it is hard to imagine, was probably not insane. Although even in such cases it makes no sense to speak of an “infinite sin”, they at least begin too approximate this.

But the fact is that the Church teaches that it is possible to go to hell for dying unrepentent in a variety of sins, which to my mind do not by any stretch of the imagination approximate a severity for which eternal damnation would be a just response.

God looks at the whole picture. It’s not Catholicism that sends people to hell for being unrepentant sinners, but the Bible:

1 Corinthians 6:9-10 Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; neither the immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor sexual perverts, nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor robbers will inherit the kingdom of God.

Galatians 5:19-23 Now the works of the flesh are plain: fornication, impurity, licentiousness, idolatry, sorcery, enmity, strife, jealousy, anger, selfishness, dissension, party spirit, envy, drunkenness, carousing, and the like. I warn you, as I warned you before, that those who do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God. But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, patience, kindness, goodness, faithfulness, gentleness, self-control; against such there is no law.

Your problem, then, is again with the Bible, not Catholicism, which is merely following it. And if you have a problem with the Bible, you have a problem with God Himself: the real one: not some imagined Being dreamt up and “projected” by ancient tribes (as anthropologists love to mock and disparage). God has revealed Himself. It is up to us to accept or reject this. I’ve given you more than enough myself, from revelation, to establish these things. Your task is to be willing to accept these truths, in faith, with the help of God’s grace.

Take the case of fornication, of sexual activity outside of marriage. Now I don’t deny that this is sinful in the sense of “missing the mark”, that it fails to achieve the full meaning of human love and sexuality, that it is imperfect. At the same time there are many people who live in lifelong completely faithful and monogamous sexual relationships. This includes of course people who believe in God, and who in many other areas of their lives are very moral people. While I am quite prepared to agree that such a state is not ideal, and that it would be better for them to be married, it seems absurd to me that their committed, loving life long union should be understood as a fundamental rejection of God deserving of eternal damnation (whether understood as punishment or as the absence of God).

If they know full well it is wrong, and continue to do it with full consent of the will, then they are in distinct danger of hellfire. If they truly don’t know, then it is still sin, but not mortal sin (see 1 John 5:16-17). We make that very distinction that you call for. Your real beef is with the Calvinists and other Protestants who often don’t make the distinction and discount the subjective and willful element of sin as having an effect on relative culpability (as in civil law).

I could give many, many other examples. One other particularly galling one is the fate of infants or embryos who die unbaptised. As I understand it the Church has made no definitive statement on this. I recall reading somewhere that the Catholic Church has recently cast doubts on the traditional ( though as I understand never dogmatically stated) belief that unbaptised infants go to Limbo. Obviously the issue arises because of the Catholic belief in original sin. I can’t even begin to imagine how someone could take this question seriously. It is so patently unjust and so at odds with any sane standards of moral culpability that a God Who would consign unbaptised infants to hell would be a monster.

I don’t think He does, nor does the Church: not in this crass, absurd sense that you despise (as I do also). Again, it is the Calvinists who believe in double predestination, including infants, with whom you have the beef here. 

The list goes on. What about the fate of Saints of other religions? Is Gandhi in hell? Is the Buddha? Will the countless saints and holy men of other religions who knew nothing of Christ live for an eternity of suffering without God?

Not necessarily at all. See my many papers about salvation “outside the Church” on my Ecumenism page.

Christian tradition is as far as I know fairly unanimous regarding the eternal destiny of the Prophets of the Old Testament, even though it would be very difficult to argue that they believed in Christ, or held any of the distinctive doctrines of the Christianity, let alone the specific views of the Roman Catholic Church. If they don’t go to hell, what justice would there be in sending the saints of other religions to hell, when by all fair accounts they often equal Christians in their asceticism, their love of God and neighbour, and their sanctity?

All depends on what they know and how they acted on it (Romans 2).

This has already got too long so I will end it here, to be continued later as replies come in…

You need to figure out your opinion as to what revelation teaches on any or all of these matters. You seem to reject revelation wherever it disagrees with your present opinions. That makes no sense, given your self-described espousal of most of the Nicene Creed, which is clearly itself based on revelation; not just natural reason. It remains your primary internal problem of incoherence and inconsistency, as I see it, anyway.

Thanks for the dialogue. I hope I have given you some food for thought, and have helped move you towards orthodox Catholicism. But God’s grace and human free will are ultimately the key factors as to who believes and who doesn’t.

2017-03-28T12:14:49-04:00

Luther-12

Martin Luther, 31 December 1525 (age 42), by Lucas Cranach the Elder [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

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(4-16-08)* * *

From Chapter Ten of my book, Martin Luther: Catholic Critical Analysis and Praise

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Luther is often greatly misunderstood on this point, with his soteriological doctrine of sola fide (faith alone) often being criticized by those who don’t properly comprehend its fine points, as somehow recommending that good works in the Christian life are worthless and thus, not to be urged. Nothing could be further from the truth.

Generally speaking, when studying statements from Martin Luther, it is always of the utmost importance to:

1) Look at the historical context (if at all possible).

2) Determine the purpose of any given writing.

3) Understand (if able to do so, through various scholarly resources) his overall teaching on the subject at hand.

4) Keep in mind that Luther often utilized extreme sarcasm and hyperbole: sometimes deliberately expressing ideas (in jest) that he didn’t actually believe; toying with adversaries, etc. For example, Table-Talk is “notorious” for this.

5) If a “controversial” citation is given in isolation, with no reference to a primary work where context can be consulted, it should be ignored as (standing by itself) a confusing or even (in the way it is wrongly interpreted) a deceiving “half-truth.”

Accordingly, noted historian Philip Schaff explains:

Luther’s words especially must not be weighed too nicely, else any and every thing can be proved by him, and the most irreconcilable contradictions shown in his writings. We must always judge him according to the moment in which, and that against which, he spoke, and duly remember also his bluntness and his stormy, warlike nature.

(The Life and Labours of St. Augustine, Oxford University: 1854, 94)

We mustn’t unfairly approach those who differ from us theologically. There is more than enough actual error in Luther’s teaching, from a Catholic perspective, without having to make up additional errors and distort and twist his views by cynically selective citations taken out of context (as happens in some Catholic circles, sadly, all too often).

Our duty as Christians is to be truthful about the views of those we disagree with. It’s not optional. Bearing false witness violates one of the Ten Commandments. If we fail to do this, it only reflects badly on us, not the ones whose true opinions we caricature and distort.

Luther’s main point on this particular score was that works do not save us (and this is perfectly harmonious with Catholic teaching). It doesn’t follow, however, that Luther would deny the necessity of works in the Christian life. He urges those, as part of sanctification, which he formally separates from justification (in a way that Catholics do not). So, though he denies the Catholic notion of merit (which, I would contend, he caricatures and doesn’t properly comprehend), he doesn’t deny (not in the slightest) a place for good works.

The opposite impression occurs due to many statements of Luther that seem to decry good works. But Luther is simply emphasizing that works are not sufficient for salvation. Grace and faith are what save. This distinction is made clear, in the following comments of Luther, all from one work:

[T]he soul . . . is justified by faith alone and not any works . . . This faith cannot exist in connection with works . . .

[S]ince faith alone justifies, it is clear that the inner man cannot be justified, freed, or saved by any outer work or action at all, and that these works, whatever their character, have nothing to do with this inner man.

[F]aith alone justifies and offers us such a treasure of great benefits without works . . . faith alone, without works, justifies, frees, and saves . . .

It is clear, then, that a Christian has all he needs in faith and needs no work to justify him . . .

This obedience, however, is not rendered by works, but by faith alone.

[H]e needs no works to make him righteous and save him, since faith alone abundantly confers all these things.

In doing these works, however, we must not think that a man is justified before God by them, for faith, which alone is righteousness before God, cannot endure that erroneous opinion.

(The Freedom of a Christian, 1520, in Three Treatises, 280-282, 284-285, 291, 295)

I’ve taken great pains in my books to stress this, so that I would not be misunderstood in my critiques of Protestant theology, nor mislead my readers at all:

Although classic “Reformational” Protestantism most certainly doesn’t deny the importance of good works in the Christian life, it regards them as manifestations or results of the necessary imputed justification, rather than as necessities in their own right. . . .

Simply put, both sides agree that faith is absolutely necessary for salvation and that we are clearly commanded by God to do good works . . . each side often thinks that the other denies one of these principles. In fact, however, at the level of creeds, catechisms, confessions, and councils, both sides completely concur on these two maxims. The split comes over the precise nature of the relationship of faith and works to each other and to justification and salvation. We must not minimize theological divisions, nor should we exaggerate them. The first approach flows from the duty of honesty; the second from the demands of charity and understanding among Christians in the Body of Christ.

(A Biblical Defense of Catholicism, Manchester, New Hampshire: Sophia Institute Press, 2003, 28-29, 31)

But these two clashing approaches to justification have a substantial meeting point: both accept the notion of sola gratia, or salvation by grace alone (over against the heresy of Pelagianism, which holds that man can be saved by works or his own self-generated effort). Both also believe that good works are necessary in the Christian life.

Catholics believe that faith and works are more closely tied together, and related to justification itself. Works can follow only by God’s grace, and do not cause salvation, but they must be present, because (per James), “faith apart from works is dead” (James 2:26).

In large part, the Protestant-Catholic dispute is over the distinction between justification (that is, salvation) and sanctification (holiness). Protestants believe that the latter has nothing whatsoever to do with justification (which is imputed to the believer or declared by God), yet that it should follow from it. Catholics think they are closely related. The practical result is arguably the same in either system. Classical Protestantism will not accept a person as “saved” if that person shows no fruit of good works in his life. They will deny that he ever was saved if he habitually engages in serious sin. Both Luther and Calvin taught this. Luther wrote (contrary to much Evangelical talk today):

We must therefore certainly maintain that where there is no faith there also can be no good works; and conversely, that there is no faith where there are no good works. Therefore faith and good works should be so closely joined together that the essence of the entire Christian life consists in both.

(in Althaus, 246)

Accordingly, if good works do not follow, it is certain that this faith in Christ does not dwell in our heart, but dead faith.

(Althaus, ibid., 246; also LW, 34, 111; cf. 34, 161)

(The Catholic Verses, Sophia Institute Press, 2004, 64-65)

Accordingly, we observe Luther constantly exhorting Christians to do good works, always wrought from the faith that is a gift from God, in the Holy Spirit; part and parcel of sanctification:

[A] Christian life is but a daily baptism, which, once entered upon, requires us incessantly to fulfill its conditions. Without ceasing we must purge out what is of the old Adam, so that what belongs to the new man may come forth. But what is the old man? Inherited from Adam, he is passionate, hateful, envious, unchaste, miserly, lazy, conceited and, last but not least, unbelieving; thoroughly corrupt, he offers no lodgment to what is good. Now, when we enter Christ’s kingdom, such corruption should daily decrease and we should become more gentle, more patient, more meek, and ever break away more and more from unbelief, avarice, hatred, envy and vainglory. . . .

[W]hen we become Christians, the old man daily grows weaker, until at length he is altogether subdued. This is, in the true sense, to plunge into baptism and daily to arise again. . . .

[E]very day should witness the war against the old man and the growth of the new. For, if we wish to be Christians, we must practice the things that make for Christianity.

(Large Catechism, 1529, sections 237-238, 241 [Baptism chapter], pp. 169, 171)

Secondly, notice how great, good, and holy a work is here assigned children, which is, alas! utterly neglected and disregarded, and no one perceives that God has commanded it, or that it is a holy, divine Word and doctrine. For if it had been regarded as such, every one could have inferred that they must be holy men who live according to these words. Thus there would have been no need of inventing monasticism nor spiritual orders, but every child would have abided by this commandment, and could have directed his conscience to God and said: “If I am to do good and holy works, I know of none better than to render all honor and obedience to my parents, because God has Himself commanded it. For what God commands must be much and far nobler than everything that we may devise ourselves; and since there is no higher or better teacher to be found than God, there can be no better doctrine, indeed, than He gives forth. Now, He teaches fully what we should do if we wish to perform truly good works; and by commanding them, He shows that they please Him. If, then, it is God who commands this, and who knows not how to appoint anything better, I will never improve upon it.”

(Large Catechism, 1529 [Bente-Dau translation], The Fourth Commandment, sections 112-113)

Let us, therefore, learn at last, for God’s sake, that, placing all other things out of sight, our youths look first to this commandment, if they wish to serve God with truly good works, that they do what is pleasing to their fathers and mothers, or to those to whom they may be subject in their stead. For every child that knows and does this has, in the first place, this great consolation in his heart, that he can joyfully say and boast (in spite of and against all who are occupied with works of their own choice): “Behold, this work is well pleasing to my God in heaven, that I know for certain.”

(Ibid., section 115)

If this truth, then, could be impressed upon the poor people, a servant-girl would leap and praise and thank God; and with her tidy work for which she receives support and wages she would acquire such a treasure as all that are esteemed the greatest saints have not obtained. . . . How can you lead a more blessed or holier life as far as your works are concerned? For in the sight of God faith is what really renders a person holy, and alone serves Him, but the works are for the service of man.

(Ibid., sections 145-147)

If we would ever suffer ourselves to be persuaded that such works are pleasing to God and have so rich a reward, we would be established in altogether abundant possessions and have what our heart desires.

(Ibid., section 152)

Here we have again the Word of God whereby He would encourage and urge us to true noble and sublime works, as gentleness, patience, and, in short, love and kindness to our enemies, . . . This we ought to practise and inculcate, and we would have our hands full doing good works.

(Ibid., The Fifth Commandment, sections 195-196)

Let me now say in conclusion that this commandment demands not only that every one live chastely in thought, word, and deed in his condition, that is, especially in the estate of matrimony, but also that every one love and esteem the spouse given him by God. For where conjugal chastity is to be maintained, man and wife must by all means live together in love and harmony, that one may cherish the other from the heart and with entire fidelity. For that is one of the principal points which enkindle love and desire of chastity, so that, where this is found, chastity will follow as a matter of course without any command. Therefore also St. Paul so diligently exhorts husband and wife to love and honor one another. Here you have again a precious, yea, many and great good works, of which you can joyfully boast, . . .

(Ibid., The Sixth Commandment, sections 219-221)

Whoever now seeks and desires good works will find here more than enough such as are heartily acceptable and pleasing to God, and in addition are favored and crowned with excellent blessings, that we are to be richly compensated for all that we do for our neighbor’s good and from friendship; . . .

(Ibid., The Seventh Commandment, section 252)

There are comprehended therefore in this commandment quite a multitude of good works which please God most highly, and bring abundant good and blessing, . . .

(Ibid., The Eighth Commandment, section 290)

[H]ow richly He will reward, bless, and do all good to those who hold them in high esteem, and gladly do and live according to them. Thus He demands that all our works proceed from a heart which fears and regards God alone, and from such fear avoids everything that is contrary to His will, lest it should move Him to wrath; and, on the other hand, also trusts in Him alone and from love to Him does all He wishes, because he speaks to us as friendly as a father, and offers us all grace and every good.

(Ibid., Conclusion of the Ten Commandments, section 323)

I believe in the Holy Ghost; the holy Christian Church, the communion of saints; the forgiveness of sins; the resurrection of the body; and the life everlasting. Amen.

This article (as I have said) I cannot relate better than to Sanctification, that through the same the Holy Ghost, with His office, is declared and depicted, namely, that He makes holy.

(Ibid., The Apostles’ Creed, Article III, sections 34-35)

But the Spirit of God alone is called Holy Ghost, that is, He who has sanctified and still sanctifies us. For as the Father is called Creator, the Son Redeemer, so the Holy Ghost, from His work, must be called Sanctifier, or One that makes holy. But how is such sanctifying done? Answer: Just as the Son obtains dominion, whereby He wins us, through His birth, death, resurrection, etc., so also the Holy Ghost effects our sanctification by the following parts, namely, by the communion of saints or the Christian Church, the forgiveness of sins, the resurrection of the body, and the life everlasting; that is, He first leads us into His holy congregation, and places us in the bosom of the Church, whereby He preaches to us and brings us to Christ.

(Ibid., sections 36-37)

Thus, until the last day, the Holy Ghost abides with the holy congregation or Christendom, by means of which He fetches us to Christ and which He employs to teach and preach to us the Word, whereby He works and promotes sanctification, causing it [this community] daily to grow and become strong in the faith and its fruits which He produces.

We further believe that in this Christian Church we have forgiveness of sin, which is wrought through the holy Sacraments and Absolution, moreover, through all manner of consolatory promises of the entire Gospel. Therefore, whatever is to be preached concerning the Sacraments belongs here, and, in short, the whole Gospel and all the offices of Christianity, which also must be preached and taught without ceasing. For although the grace of God is secured through Christ, and sanctification is wrought by the Holy Ghost through the Word of God in the unity of the Christian Church, yet on account of our flesh which we bear about with us we are never without sin.

(Ibid., sections 53-54)

But outside of this Christian Church, where the Gospel is not, there is no forgiveness, as also there can be no holiness [sanctification]. Therefore all who seek and wish to merit holiness [sanctification], not through the Gospel and forgiveness of sin, but by their works, have expelled and severed themselves [from this Church].

Meanwhile, however, while sanctification has begun and is growing daily, . . .

(Ibid., sections 56-57)

What does such baptizing with water signify?

It signifies that the Old Adam in us should, by daily contrition and repentance, be drowned and die with all sins and evil lusts and, again, a new man daily come forth and arise, who shall live before God in righteousness and purity forever.

(Small Catechism, 1529, 17)

Good works follow such faith, renewal, and forgiveness. And what there is still sinful or imperfect also in them shall not be accounted as sin or defect, even [and that, too] for Christ’s sake; but the entire man, both as to his person and his works, is to be called and to be righteous and holy from pure grace and mercy, shed upon us [unfolded] and spread over us in Christ. 3] Therefore we cannot boast of many merits and works, if they are viewed apart from grace and mercy, but as it is written, 1 Cor. 1, 31: He that glorieth, let him glory in the Lord, namely, that he has a gracious God. For thus all is well. 4] We say, besides, that if good works do not follow, faith is false and not true.

(Smalcald Articles, 1537, Part III, Article XIII: How Man is Justified Before God, and His Good Works, sections 2-4)

[O]ur churches are now, through God’s grace, so enlightened and equipped with the pure Word and right use of the Sacraments, with knowledge of the various callings and of right works, . . .

(Ibid., Preface, section 10)

Faith is a divine work in us which changes us and makes us to be born anew of God, John 1[:12, 13], It kills the old Adam and makes us altogether different men, in heart and spirit and mind and powers; and it brings with it the Holy Spirit. Oh, it is a living, busy, active, mighty thing, this faith. It is impossible for it not to be doing good works incessantly . . . Faith is a living, daring confidence in God’s grace . . . this is the work which the Holy Spirit performs in faith. Because of it, without compulsion, a person is ready and glad to do good to everyone, to serve everyone, to suffer everything, out of love and praise to God who has shown him this grace.

(Preface to Romans; Althaus, 235; cf. LW, Vol. XXXV, 370 ff.)

Man, on the other hand, sees Christendom contending with the Gospel and faith against the world and the devil. This involves warfare and unrest, and armies are arrayed; mountains and mountain peaks are pertinent subjects there, and wisdom and virtue come into play. But before God gentle and calm tranquillity prevails. He dwells in a cheerful and clear conscience. Inwardly, that is where God dwells. As Psalm 76:2 testifies, His abode has been established in peace. Therefore God moves and rides in His Christians as in a comfortable, covered wagon, and they travel together from this life into life eternal. For the wagon is not stationary, which means that the Christians increase daily in spiritual stature, always possessing the peace of a good conscience.

(Commentary on Psalm 68 [verses 17, 19]; 1521; LW, Vol. XIII, 20)

True faith is not idle. We can, therefore, ascertain and recognize those who have true faith from the effect or from what follows.

(Althaus, 246; WA, Vol. 39-I, 114; cf. LW, Vol. XXXIV, 183)

When no work is there then faith has been completely lost.

(Ibid., 246; WA, Vol. 39-II, 248)

For that faith which lacks fruit is not an efficacious but a feigned faith.

(Ibid., 246; WA, Vol. 39-I, 106, 114; cf. LW, Vol. XXXIV, 176, 183)

Works are a certain sign, like a seal on a letter, which makes me certain that my faith is genuine.

(Ibid., 247; WA, Vol. X-III, 225)

Works assure us and bear witness before men and the brethren and even before our own selves that we truly believe and that we are sons of God in hope and heirs of eternal life.

(Ibid., 247; WA, Vol. 39-I, 292; cf. 293)

[W]e are commanded to make our calling certain by good works (II Pet. 1:10).

(Ibid., 247; WA, Vol. 39-II, 248)

Our renewal [novitas] is thus necessary but neither for our salvation nor for our justification.

(Ibid., 249; WA, Vol. 39-I, 225; cf. 241)

[Though] works are necessary to salvation, they do not work salvation, for faith alone gives life.

(Ibid., 250; WA, Vol. 39-I, 96; cf. 104; cf. LW, Vol. XXXIV, 165, 172)

Whoever has had faith at some time but now has no love, no longer has that faith; rather, he has lost the faith even though he has performed miracles through faith. Such a faith is then either not a true and genuine faith or it was never present.

(Ibid., 435; WA, Vol. XXXIV-I, 168)

Where is the fruit that shows you really believe? . . .

Christ has not died so that you could remain such a sinner; rather, he died so that sin might be put to death and destroyed and that you might now begin to love God and your neighbor. Faith takes sins away and puts them to death so that you should live not in them but in righteousness. Therefore demonstrate by your works and by your fruits that you have faith . . . [Whoever believes] will say it with his deeds – or forget about having the reputation of being a believer . . . Love follows true faith . . . One should do everything that is good so that faith does not become an empty husk but may be true and genuine.

(Ibid., 448-449; Sermon on 1 John 4:16 ff., 1545; WA, Vol. 49, 783)

I must also bring that glory [which comes from works of love] with me or God will not treat me in a friendly way.

(Ibid., 453; WA, Vol. XXXVI, 446)

Bibliography of Sources
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Althaus, Paul, The Theology of Martin Luther, translated by Robert C. Schultz, Philadelphia: Fortress Press, 1966.

Large Catechism, 1529, translated by John Nicholas Lenker, Minneapolis: Augsburg Publishing House, 1935.

Large Catechism, 1529, from Triglot Concordia: The Symbolical Books of the Evangelical Lutheran Church: German-Latin-English, translated by F. Bente and W.H.T. Dau, St. Louis: Concordia Publishing House, 1921. The entire Book of Concord (including also Luther’s Small Catechism and Smalcald Articles) is available online.

Luther’s Works (LW), American edition, edited by Jaroslav Pelikan (volumes 1-30) and Helmut T. Lehmann (volumes 31-55), St. Louis: Concordia Pub. House (volumes 1-30); Philadelphia: Fortress Press (volumes 31-55), 1955.

Smalcald Articles, 1537, from Triglot Concordia (see two entries above)

Small Catechism, 1529, St. Louis: Concordia Publishing House, 1943.

Three Treatises [from 1520], Philadelphia: Fortress Press, revised edition, 1970 (derived from Luther’s Works [LW] ).

Weimar Ausgabe (WA) edition of Luther’s writings (Werke) in German, 1883.

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2021-11-20T14:27:11-04:00

DanubeRiver
Danube River in Germany. Some Anabaptists were drowned in the Danube for their religious beliefs. Photograph by Michael LoCascio (20 October 2009) [Wikimedia Commons / Creative Commons Attribution-Share Alike 3.0 Unported license]
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(2-24-04)
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If I hear another Lutheran try to deny that this is true, I think I’ll scream. It’s happened once again, and comically (for those who love irony as I do), from one who has been a vocal critic lately with regard to my supposed profound ignorance about Luther. He wrote on the Catholic Message Board:

. . . he was imperfect too. But not all the stuff you have read is true. He was not a fornicator, he was a good father and husband. His language was sometimes enough to make your skin crawl. He was “rough”, but not evil. There were Lutherans who took things too far and yes they killed people for their beliefs. Not a good thing, not Luther either.

Here are the documented facts:

Luther sanctioned capital punishment for doctrinal heresy most notably in his Commentary on the 82nd Psalm (vol. 13, pp. 39-72 in the 55-volume set, Luther’s Works, edited by Jaroslav Pelikan et al), written in 1530, where he advocated the following:

A question arises in connection with these three verses [Psalm 82]. Since the gods, or rulers, beside their other virtues, are to advance God’s Word and its preachers, are they also to put down opposing doctrines or heresies, since no one can be forced to believe? The answer to this question is as follows: First, some heretics are seditious and teach openly that no rulers are to be tolerated; that no Christian may occupy a position of rulership; that no one ought to have property of his own but should run away from wife and child and leave house and home; or that all property shall be held in common. These teachers are immediately, and without doubt, to be punished by the rulers, as men who are resisting temporal law and government (Rom. 13:12). They are not heretics only but rebels, who are attacking the rulers and their government, just as a thief attacks another’s goods, a murderer another’s body, an adulterer another’s wife; and this is not to be tolerated.

Second. If some were to teach doctrines contradicting an article of faith clearly grounded in Scripture and believed throughout the world by all Christendom, such as the articles we teach children in the Creed—for example, if anyone were to teach that Christ is not God, but a mere man and like other prophets, as the Turks and the Anabaptists hold—such teachers should not be tolerated, but punished as blasphemers. For they are not mere heretics but open blasphemers; and rulers are in duty bound to punish blasphemers as they punish those who curse, swear, revile, abuse, defame, and slander. With their blasphemy such teachers defame the name of God and rob their neighbor of his honor in the eyes of the world. In like manner, the rulers should also punish—or certainly not tolerate—those who teach that Christ did not die for our sins, but that everyone shall make his own satisfaction for them. For that, too, is blasphemy against the Gospel and against the article we pray in the Creed: “I believe in the forgiveness of sins” and “in Jesus Christ, dead and risen.” Those should be treated in the same way who teach that the resurrection of the dead and the life everlasting are nothing, that there is no hell, and like things, as did the Sadducees and the Epicureans, of whom many are now arising among the great wiseacres.

By this procedure no one is compelled to believe, for he can still believe what he will; but he is forbidden to teach and to blaspheme. For by so doing he would take from God and the Christians their doctrine and word, and he would do them this injury under their own protection and by means of the things all have in common. Let him go to some place where there are no Christians. For, as I have often said: He who makes a living from the citizens ought to keep the law of the city, and not defame and revile it; or else he ought to get out. We are told that when the holy fathers at the Council of Nicea heard the doctrine of the Arians read, all hissed unanimously, and would not listen or permit any argument or defense but condemned them out of hand, without disputation, as blasphemers. Moses in his Law commands that such blasphemers and indeed all false teachers should be stoned (Lev. 24:16). So, in this case, there ought not to be much disputing; but such open blasphemers should be condemned without a hearing and without defense, as Paul commands (Titus 3:10): “A heretic is to be avoided and let go, after he has been admonished once or twice”; and he forbids Timothy to wrangle and dispute, since this has no effect, except to pervert those who hear (1 Tim. 6:20). For these common articles of all Christendom have had hearing enough. They have been proved and decreed by the Scriptures and by the confession of the whole church, confirmed by many miracles, and sealed by the blood of many holy martyrs. They are testified to and defended in the books of all the doctors. They need no more discussion and clever interpretation.

(Luther’s Works [LW], Vol. 13, 61-62; bolding added)

Is this merely my interpretation of his words and thoughts? Hardly. The famous Luther biographer Roland Bainton wrote:

In 1530 Luther advanced the view that two offences should be penalized even with death, namely sedition and blasphemy. The emphasis was thus shifted from incorrect belief to its public manifestation by word and deed. This was, however, no great gain for liberty, because Luther construed mere abstention from public office and military service as sedition and a rejection of an article of the Apostles’ Creed as blasphemy.

In a memorandum of 1531, composed by Melanchthon and signed by Luther, a rejection of the ministerial office was described as insufferable blasphemy, and the disintegration of the Church as sedition against the ecclesiastical order. In a memorandum of 1536, again composed by Melanchthon and signed by Luther, the distinction between the peaceful and the revolutionary Anabaptists was obliterated . . .

Melanchthon this time argued that even the passive action of the Anabaptists in rejecting government, oaths, private property, and marriages outside the faith was itself disruptive of the civil order and therefore seditious. The Anabaptist protest against the punishment of blasphemy was itself blasphemy. The discontinuance of infant baptism would produce a heathen society and separation from the Church, and the formation of sects was an offense against God.

Luther may not have been too happy about signing these memoranda. At any rate he appended postscripts to each. To the first he said,

I assent. Although it seems cruel to punish them with the sword, it is crueler that they condemn the ministry of the Word and have no well-grounded doctrine and suppress the true and in this way seek to subvert the civil order.

. . . In 1540 he is reported in his Table Talk to have returned to the position of Philip of Hesse that only seditious Anabaptists should be executed; the others should be merely banished. But Luther passed by many an opportunity to speak a word for those who with joy gave themselves as sheep for the slaughter.

. . . For the understanding of Luther’s position one must bear in mind that Anabaptism was not in every instance socially innocuous. The year in which Luther signed the memorandum counseling death even for the peaceful Anabaptists was the year in which a group of them ceases to be peaceful . . . By forcible measures they took over the city of Munster in Westphalia . . .

Yet when all these attenuating considerations are adduced, one cannot forget that Melanchthon’s memorandum justified the eradication of the peaceful, not because they were incipient and clandestine revolutionaries, but on the ground that even a peaceful renunciation of the state itself constituted sedition.

(Here I Stand: A Life of Martin Luther, New York: Mentor, 1950, 295-296; bolding added)

Luther signed his name in assent to the 1536 pamphlet written by Philip Melanchthon (noted by biographer Bainton above), in which Melanchthon wrote:

That seditious articles of doctrine should be punished with the sword needed no further proof. For the rest, the Anabaptists hold tenets relating to infant baptism, original sin, and inspiration which have no connection with the Word of God, and are indeed opposed to it. . . . Concerning such tenets, this is our answer : As the secular authorities are bound to control and punish open blasphemy, so they are also bound to restrain and punish avowedly false doctrine, irregular Church services and heresies in their own dominions; for this is commanded by God in the other commandment where He says : “Whoso dishonours God’s name shall not go unpunished.” Everybody is bound, according to his position and office, to prevent and check blasphemy, and by virtue of this command the princes and magistrates have power and authority to put a stop to irregular Church worship. The text in Leviticus xxiv. goes to show the same thing : “He that blasphemeth the name of the Lord, he shall surely be put to death.” The ruling authorities, however, must suffer themselves to be property and correctly instructed in order that they may be certain how to proceed, and that nobody may do wrong. Now there are some among these articles of faith which signify very much. For think what disaster would ensue if children were not baptized; what would be the final outcome but thoroughly heathenish existence? Item, infant baptism rests on such sure foundations that the Anabaptists have no legitimate grounds for rejecting it. Item, if they say that children do not need forgiveness of sins, that there is no original sin, such statements are downright and very dangerous errors. Besides this the Anabaptists separate themselves from the churches, even in those places where pure Christian doctrine prevails, and where the abuses and idolatrous practices have been abolished, and they set up a ministry and congregation of their own, which is also contrary to the command of God. From all this it becomes clear that the secular authorities are bound to suppress blasphemy, false doctrine, and heresy, and to inflict corporal punishment on the offenders. In the case of Anabaptist tenets which are opposed to the secular government the matter is easier to deal with ; for there is no doubt that in such cases the stiffnecked recalcitrants are sure to be punished as sedition-mongers. Also when it is a case of only upholding some spiritual tenet, such as infant baptism, original sin, and unnecessary separation, then, because these articles are also important. . .  we conclude that in these cases also the stubborn sectaries must be put to death.

(cited in Johannes Janssen, History of the German People from the Close of the Middle Ages, 16 volumes, translated by A.M. Christie, St. Louis: B. Herder, 1910 [orig. 1891]; Vol. X, 222-223; bolding added)

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2017-03-29T13:29:26-04:00

Scale

Image by “ArtsyBee” [public domain / Pixabay]

* * *

Atheist J. Gravelle responded to my post, Bible on Participation in Our Own Salvation, and we had the following intellectually stimulating exchange (his words in blue):

* * * * *

So my choices would appear to be: an eternity of fire and brimstone, or an eternity spent listening to the likes of our friend Mr. Armstrong tell me “I told you so”.

It doesn’t appear so much then that I can choose a path toward salvation, but rather that I’m left to decide on which afterlife might be the lesser of two Hells…

That’s the oddest description of the glories of heaven that I’ve ever heard.

If that is all you can imagine it to be, surely the devil has you in his grips as a blissful fool, thinking (perhaps, like many others) that hell is a great big party with all the decadent, hedonistic rock stars, etc., while heaven is the very epitome of boredom, where we all sit on clouds for eternity, playing harps, and become less and less happy as eternity relentlessly and pitifully grinds on.

I’m not sure if you’re trying to downplay the carrot or sell me on the stick but, either way, very persuasive pitch for the Hades timeshare. I’m sold…

May our Lord Jesus open your eyes and enable you to realize that there is so much more to this life and the next than you can presently imagine.

I appreciate the sentiment, my friend. Sincerely.

My understanding is that if any two believers pray for something, it shall be done. I’ve asked far more than two of my devout brethren to pray to be given the argument that will (not “can”, nor “may”, but “will”) convince me to embrace their faith.

Waiting patiently…

Then there is always hope! But Christian belief comes by God’s grace. If you accept a particular argument, it’ll be because God gave you the grace to be open to it and accept it.

I don’t want to put words in your mouth, but if I’m required to believe before I believe, then I’m stuck.

The best I could do is pretend to believe. But I think I owe it to myself, you, and anybody else I interact with not to be that mendacious…

I said no such thing. Almost all Christians (and certainly the Catholic Church) believe that any good thing we do (including faith in Jesus and anything to do with justification or salvation) is because of God giving us grace prior to doing so. I’m simply describing the nature of Christianity.

There is no necessity that this grace precludes or forbids reasoning in the process. It’s not “either/or” or mutually exclusive at all. For someone like you, in all likelihood reasoning would play a key role.

I was just making the important point that reason itself is never all-important or self-sufficient in decisions to be a Christian or a Christian disciple.

Paul writes at length about the relation of reason to faith in 1 Corinthians. For example:

1 Corinthians 2:14 (RSV) The unspiritual man does not receive the gifts of the Spirit of God, for they are folly to him, and he is not able to understand them because they are spiritually discerned.

This is why (we believe) atheists make fun of Christianity: because they cannot understand it.

It is not for lack of trying, my friend…

1 Corinthians 1:18 For the word of the cross is folly to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God.

Thus, you wrote yesterday [in another thread altogether], in complete conformity with what Paul says, that Christians were “. . . the ones with an entire faith built around the supernatural zombie uprising of their magic carpenter.”

I was a lot like you are, back during my “practical atheism” days in the early 70s. I wrote in my published conversion story:

I prided myself on my “moderation” with regard to religious matters. Like most nominal Christians and outright unbelievers, I reacted to any display of earnest and devout Christianity with a mixture of fear, amusement, and condescension, thinking that such behavior was “improper”, fanatical, and outside of mainstream American culture.

Like you, I made fun of serious Christians, and had no intention whatever of joining them. But God had other plans. I felt totally self-sufficient, with no need of God to help me go through life; that is, till I experienced a terrifying deep depression for six months. I wrote about it:

[I]n retrospect it is clear that God was bringing home to me the ultimate meaninglessness of my life – – a vacuous and futile individualistic quest for happiness without purpose or relationship with God. I was brought, staggering, to the end of myself.

I have always thought (since that time) that atheism — thoroughly and with relentless honesty, thought through, in all its ethical and metaphysical implications –, must lead one to despair at the ultimate meaningless and futility of a universe without God.

Reaching that despair, one is then more open, as I was, to receiving the truths of Christianity and being willing to follow Jesus as His disciple. We think we can do it all on our own, but we can’t. We may be able to for a time, but it’ll all come crashing down in due course.

I neither deny the sincerity of your search, nor assert that you are “stupid.”

I think it comes down to not being “able to understand [spiritual things] because they are spiritually discerned” (1 Cor 2:14).

Also, it has to do with acceptance of false premises and building entire worldviews on top of them, and (I would say), a sot of hyper-rationalism that places reason [or one brand of it: empiricism] as the center of all things (as if nothing else can determine truth or reality), which is itself an axiomatic position that cannot be “proven.”

That’s how I view atheism: bad reasoning, based on several false premises; rather than primarily a moral problem (though in some cases it could very well be that as well).

So no doubt you will say that you have tried very hard and God won’t reveal Himself to you. It may be that you have to believe without proof (i.e., as you presently define same).

A capacity I lack. One of Pascal’s “so made”, I suppose.

I’ve waited more than a half century for my own Damascus Road experience. No reason I can’t be patient for a few more decades…

This is what God requires of you. Such knowledge is interior / intuitive / experiential and comes from God’s grace.

You will know that you know that you know. I’ve experienced it. Many millions of others have. I know it seems ridiculous to you now, but I can only report what my own experience has been: which is in harmony with the Bible’s descriptions of it (Paul’s conversion, etc.) and classic stories like St. Augustine’s (Confessions).

If you have limited by your chosen epistemology, what constitutes proof, then it may be that you have “forbidden” it to occur, due to your self-imposed, arbitrary epistemological limitations.

This is the question. What is proof? And how can you be absolutely sure that your definition is the correct one?

I would say that you need to look at Jesus. What do you think of Him? Even if you think He is made up . . . is He the type of person Who is worthy to be followed and emulated?

I could “play Socrates” with this sort of thing all day long:

1. What do you expect such a Damascus Road experience to be?

2. Perhaps just like Paul’s? A blinding light, knocking you off your desk chair? But why would you expect it to be exactly the same experience? On what basis?

3. On what basis do you determine what is sufficient “proof” of God’s existence?

1 -3) God Himself.

That doesn’t answer my questions. It’s not specific enough: especially the third and fourth questions of my #2 and #3.

With due respect sir, yes it does. Again forgive the tautology, but God Himself would be evidentiary of God Himself, just as a dragon in my garage should be quite compelling evidence that there’s a dragon in my garage.

“God Himself” has appeared: Jesus. That was quite visible, physical, and tangible (and was part of history), including many miracles and a Resurrection and appearances after that, seen by upwards of 500 people.

But you reject Him. So when God does what you ask, you still reject it. You do because the problem is excessive skepticism and premises gone awry at some point.

4. Granting God’s existence for the sake of argument, why do you think He “owes” it to you to provide some sort of empirical proof to you?

I don’t.

You certainly do. It’s the presupposition behind all of your statements about lack of proof of God; insufficient evidence for you to believe. You clearly think he “owes” you some extraordinary manifestation and undeniable evidence; else you will simply refuse to believe in Him. And lacking that, you blame Him.

No sir, I do not. I don’t presuppose the proof lacking, I’ve found the proof offered lacking…

* * * 

Nor do I “owe” anything supernatural the benefit of the doubt for which we lack empirical evidence.

This is presupposing the necessity and exclusivity (?) of empirical evidence: which itself has to be established. I dealt with those considerations in my questions 5-7.

5. Why should proofs be restricted to empirical ones?

What else, especially near the magnitude of the god claim[s] do we accept without empirical evidence?

Stuff like falling in love, the fact that we exist and that our thoughts are our own (how do we know they are not delusional or that we are not in a dream?), hunches, intuitions, the very presuppositions of science and empiricism, which are not themselves empirical. We have to start there. We have to trust that our senses are trustworthy, and that the universe operates by orderly laws, that follow a pattern (uniformitarianism). The latter is not itself an empirical thing. It’s an abstract law that has to do with material objects.

6. Are you saying that empiricism is all there is, in terms of epistemological criteria for knowledge?

No, I’m saying until it’s shown we’re capable of transcending the temporal, that’s the arena we’re left working within.

You still assume it without proof, and it is impossible to do otherwise, by the very starting assumptions of empiricism, among other things. You already accept a number of things without evidence or proof, yet you refuse to extend the same “courtesy” or “epistemological likelihood” or plausibility to God.

7. Don’t you know that empiricism is a species of philosophy, that starts with non-empirical axioms?

I’d quibble with the grammar in that I’m not sure philosophy is prone to speciation. We’d need to drill down on a specific God claim to determine whether any non-empirical axioms were required.

This is a whole ‘nother discussion. I would recommend reading philosophers of science on this point. It’s not really a controversial one. Logical positivism itself is widely considered to have died in philosophical circles, some sixty years ago now. Michael Polanyi, one of my favorite thinkers, played a big role in knocking it off. Good riddance!

[ A slight time-out here: If I said I had a dragon in my garage, I think a fair reaction from you would be to raise an eyebrow and ask that I show it to you. If, instead of opening the garage door I launched into an epistemological tangent about “Well, how do we really know that we know what we know?” I don’t think it would, in any way, contribute to the merit of my dragon claim. ]

There is no serious history in the field of philosophy of defending the existence of dragons, whereas there is such for the existence of God, construed roughly in classic theistic and even monotheistic terms. This is always my answer to the stock atheist recourse to fairies, Santa Claus, unicorns, the Easter bunny, leprechauns, etc. It’s great fun, but it’s a silly pseudo-argument.

8. How can you be so sure that you are not repressing knowledge of God that is really there deep inside of you?

Were I doing consciously repressing, by definition I’d know, because I’d be conscious of it.

At first you would, but as time goes on, we can easily forget. Many people have had experience of this, in cases of, e.g., severe traumas. Oftentimes we bury them so as to avoid any further pain.

Conversely, you would certainly know if you were fabricating knowledge of a god that wasn’t there. We’ve come this far without calling one another liars, I’ve no intent to start now.

It’s not a matter of lying, but of repressed knowledge. Once it goes into the unconscious or sub-conscious realm, the person is far less blameworthy.

It’s a relevant factor to consider.

9. How can you be so sure that what Paul states in Romans 1 is not correct:

Romans 1:19-20 (RSV) For what can be known about God is plain to them, because God has shown it to them.
[20] Ever since the creation of the world his invisible nature, namely, his eternal power and deity, has been clearly perceived in the things that have been made. So they are without excuse;

I bear no burden to prove anything in the Bible wrong. The onus is on those who assert it is correct.

But challenging you in terms of not knowing for sure that it is untrue is a valid point.

Etc., etc. There are a host of such questions that could be asked. As soon as you ask more of your questions, more questions of this socratic sort are immediately produced.

If you think inquiring and inquisitive minds and intellectual curiosity are confined to atheists, you are wrong. :-)

I assure you, my friend, I do not…

Good.

* * *

[ Firstly, I’d use “evidence” vs. “proof”, the latter being reserved for mathematicians and bartenders. ]

I wouldn’t know how to go about “following” the dead, either hypothetical OR historical. Emulated? Perhaps, only insofar as helping somebody who needs assistance, sure. My own self-interests though (in wanting to live in a world where people help one another) get me that far, sans any prerequisite emulation or deification.

But (at the severe risk of opening more cans of worms) you certainly won’t find me, say, traveling to Mauritania to tell the slaves there to obey their masters. Nor would I counsel anybody else to pluck out their own eyes, cut off their hands or, if we need a less gruesome example, smite any fig trees…

You’re not aware that the hand and eyes thing are examples of hyperbole: very common in ancient Hebrew culture?

And that the fig tree incident had a symbolic meaning, just as Jesus’ parables always did?

All this shows is that you lack the proper understanding of these things, so that, in rejecting them, you reject straw men, not the thing as it actually is or should be understood.

That’s what comes from studying theology and ancient Near Eastern culture, so as to better understand the teachings of Jesus and the Bible in general.

And I have to say (nothing personal) that such basic misunderstanding is extremely common among atheists. I’ve seen it firsthand scores and scores of times.

So on the one hand, you say that you have read all kinds of apologetics (in the link you gave), whereas you don’t even comprehend aspects like this which are quite elementary for any student of theology.

It comes down to lack of knowledge, at least with regard to your last comment.

As for slavery, that is a very involved discussion, as regards the Bible (and I have written about it). Briefly, biblical slavery was more akin to servanthood than it was to what we saw in the South, 1800-1865. In other words, it was not an intrinsically evil thing.

Paul commands masters to treat slaves kindly:

Ephesians 6:5-9 Slaves, be obedient to those who are your earthly masters, with fear and trembling, in singleness of heart, as to Christ; [6] not in the way of eye-service, as men-pleasers, but as servants of Christ, doing the will of God from the heart, [7] rendering service with a good will as to the Lord and not to men, [8] knowing that whatever good any one does, he will receive the same again from the Lord, whether he is a slave or free. [9] Masters, do the same to them, and forbear threatening, knowing that he who is both their Master and yours is in heaven, and that there is no partiality with him.

I am [aware of biblical hyperbole]. You’re not aware that (to answer your original question) I wouldn’t engage in that sort of hyperbole out of fear the devout would take it literally: …especially if I were omniscient and knew that would be the outcome.

Extremely few people have taken Jesus’ hyperbole literally. I suppose one could argue that if one in a billion takes hyperbole literally, that we shouldn’t use it.

Your linked example is rather ridiculous, given these purported / likely facts about the person who plucked out his eye: “Thomas is accused in the March 26 stabbing deaths of his 4-year-old son, his 20-year-old estranged wife and her 1-year-old daughter. All the victims’ hearts were cut out; . . .”

He is clearly a nut and a madman (thus it is ludicrous to call him “devout”). Anyone can interpret the Bible ignorantly, or abuse it.

Personally, I don’t think stupidity can be blamed on someone who said something that a tiny number will misunderstand.

Atheists will always try to blame God for hell, for example, but its existence is necessary given free will. God respected mankind enough to give us free will; then He gets blamed because a good number of us make wrong choices and end up in hell. I’d much rather have free will and hell as a possibility than to be robots with no free will and choice.

With free will comes the possibility of evil and also stupidity. I don’t see that it makes any sense to blame that on God.

By analogy, it would be like telling a married couple: “don’t have any children, because one of them might turn to to be a bad person.” So, say, one of the children of this couple grows up to be a murderer. The cynic / critic who thinks like an atheist could (would?) then say: “well, hey, I told you not to have any children! If you had listened to me, then that person would still be alive! It’s your fault for creating and bearing that child in the first place!”

You want to blame the creator / procreator, whereas I put the blame squarely on the person who freely chose to do the evil.

And none of your slavery apologetics come anywhere near the prohibition on owning other human beings as property which, no matter how pretty a bow you put on the practice of human trafficking, I could neither endorse, follow, or emulate…

Is it irrelevant to you also that when slavery was outlawed, almost invariably it was because of Christians like Wilberforce in England and the abolitionists in the US?

No sir. What’s relevant is you asked me to consider following a figure purported to have told slaves to obey rather than revolt.

I have made that consideration, and I don’t find it a sentiment worthy of reverence…

And today, of course, Christians are in the forefront of trying to eliminate the far greater evil that we are now burdened with: childkilling.

Is it relevant also that the Bible makes it very clear that a child in his or her mother’s womb ought to be nurtured rather than legally killed and/or tortured (with body parts possibly being sold, as with Planned Parenthood)?

If you feel compelled to blame Jesus and Christianity for slavery, you ought to at least give Him and us credit for being pro-life and opposing today’s greatest evil.

If you are so concerned about slaves being maltreated, then certainly you must oppose babies being murdered in cold blood. That’s a no-brainer . . .

…unless it’s the offspring of a pregnant Amalekite.

FWIW, I’m pro-life sans stick or carrot…

Great to hear that you are pro-life.

The Amalekites, like most such biblical instances, involves God’s judgment, which is a quite different thing from human beings acting on their own.

The Creator of all has the full prerogative to take away in judgment the lives that He has granted. If you’re interested enough to read an apologetics treatment of that vexed issue,  I have collected several links (see the section: “Divine Genocide”).

Fine. I am still incapable of revering any entity who’d suborn the slaughter of the unborn, newborn, infant, etc.

And I’ve read your apologetic, sir. While I often disagree with the content, I find your writing style easier to follow than most. Still, the nexus of that essay:

“God would be perfectly just to wipe us all out the next second. No one could hold it against Him.”

…I could not disagree with more, save for the technicality that nobody’d be around to object, I suppose…

Okay; so we are to believe that God can create out of nothing, human beings, but by some inexplicable law that you think governs His behavior, He cannot possibly judge and kill them, no matter how wicked they become.

That’s far more absurd than the notion of a judge pardoning a prisoner, but never having the power to punish him (up to and including execution) should he decide to become a murderer.

In effect, by your reasoning, you grant the first thing (the pardon), but refuse to admit the possibility or necessity of the second (further legal punishment).

It’s all the more absurd to deny that prerogative to a God Who created everything and is perfectly good and just. You simply say He cannot ever judge or punish because in so doing, He would immediately cease to be loving and just.

I think exactly the opposite. It is neither loving nor just to let evil people and cultures run rampant, destroying all that is good and corrupting others not yet corrupt.

It’s all in how one looks at it, ain’t it?

No sir. We are not believing in god[s] in the first place…

Nor that evil infants running rampant constitute a threat worthy of their murders…

Obviously you don’t [believe in God]. The idea here is that if God is Creator, then He has the prerogative to also judge. The Christian view on these matters is perfectly consistent.

But you think that if God exists He cannot judge, lest He be evil and hence, not God (since God oughtta be good, etc.).

The Christian simply says that “whatever God gives, He can also take away.” And that is what happened with the Amalekites, Sodom and Gomorrah, the ones judged in the Flood, etc.

“Judge” is troubling enough. “Jury” and “Executioner” is where things really get problematic. I’m a parent myself, but that’s no license for infanticide…

You can have the last word.

* * * * *

And so goes Christian-atheist discussion as usual: round and round, and little seemingly accomplished (from either side’s perspective).

But I have enjoyed it and especially appreciate your friendliness and stimulating comments. Thanks for the great dialogue.

I appreciate your time as well, sir.

One doesn’t play tennis against a wall with the expectation of beating the bricks, but it still makes one a better player…

 

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2017-03-29T13:31:11-04:00

DogChasingTail2

Defending sola Scriptura is rather like a dog chasing his tail. Either he never catches it, or if he does, it hurts and is not nearly as much fun or fulfilling as he thought it would be. Photo by “Lil Shepherd”: 16 May 2012 [Flickr / CC BY 2.0 license]

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Quick Ten-Step Refutation of Sola Scriptura is a paper of mine from 2003. I recently posted it in a large Facebook theological group. A Protestant named Milan Lorinc took it upon himself to attempt a refutation of all ten points. This is my counter-reply. He gave me full permission to cite his words, which will be in blue.

* * * * *

Now, before I begin, it’s very important for all who read this to understand exactly what it is that we are debating. Sola Scriptura is not the belief that Scripture is revelation from God and as such, a supreme, inspired authority. All Christians agree on that, so there is no need to debate it. Rather, it means that Scripture is the only infallible, binding authority. That means that neither the Church nor sacred tradition are infallible, as Catholics and Orthodox believe.  

Almost always in these discussions (I’ve literally engaged in this debate well over a hundred times now), Protestants garner tons of biblical indications that Scripture is inspired and infallible, which is fine and dandy, but utterly irrelevant to this debate, because all observant, historic Christians agree on that! The burden on the Protestant — in establishing and defending sola Scriptura — is always to prove from Scripture that only Scripture is infallible and that it only is the final and binding authority for the Christian. At the same time, it logically follows that they have to prove that the Church and sacred tradition are not such authorities.

Likewise, when the Catholic shows that either the Church or sacred tradition are presented as binding / infallible authorities in Scripture, it is in turn a direct refutation of sola Scriptura. I will demonstrate over and over again that what my opponent produces as supposed “proofs” of sola Scriptura are actually no proofs at all; and they are not because of what I just noted above. Once again, readers must always keep this introduction in mind, because it is routinely misunderstood by those who attempt to defend sola Scriptura.

As the author of not just one, but two books on this very topic, I’m very familiar with it. I’ve written about it far more than any other topic, in my 25 years of Catholic apologetics. And I have taken on not only the leading historic defenders of the doctrine, but the leading champions of it today as well.

I hope you enjoy the debate!

1. Sola Scriptura is Not Taught in the Bible…

Author of article Dave Armstrong is technically right about it… These 2 words SOLA SCRIPTURA, or SCRIPTURE ALONE cannot be explicitly found in Old nor New Testament. How could they be, if they were for first time articulated in 16. century by Reformers as one of more formal principles of Reformation (SOLA SCRIPTURA altogether with other SOLA: SOLA CHRISTI- CHRIST ALONE, SOLA GRATIA – GRACE ALONE and SOLA FIDE – FAITH ALONE.

The debate is not about those mere words being present or not (whether together or indirectly deduced), but about the concept or idea of sola Scriptura. Is it taught in the Bible? I say no; my opponent says yes. I say that not only these sloganistic words, but also the idea, were novel and corrupt innovations that came about 16 centuries after Christ. They were taught neither in the Bible, nor by the apostles, nor by the Church fathers. There was a TV soup commercial (about vegetable soup, as I recall) which highlighted the observation regarding the ingredients: “It’s in there!” Well, in this case, sola Scriptura is not “in there” (“there” being Scripture).

However formal sufficiency or formal Authority of Scriptures is in the CORE of Jesus’s and of apostolical teaching. First Christians had Scriptures as their Supreme authority..

Yes they did; so do we. But they also had the Church and sacred, apostolic tradition as supreme authorities. In fact, the New Testament was not even determined yet, and would not be for another 350 years or so. Thus, the first Christians could not be sure what was an inspired New testament book and what wasn’t. Some thought books were inspired that we don’t think are inspired today. Others denied that New Testament books (that we accept today; and the biblical canon came from Church authority). I wrote in this section 1 of my paper being critiqued:

Scripture certainly is a “standard of truth” (we agree fully with Protestants), even the preeminent one, but not in a sense that rules out the binding authority of authentic apostolic Tradition and the Church. The Bible doesn’t teach that. Catholics agree with Protestants that Scripture is materially sufficient. In other words, every true doctrine can be found in the Bible, if only implicitly and indirectly by deduction. But no biblical passage teaches that Scripture is the formal authority or Rule of Faith for the Christian (formal sufficiency), in isolation from the Church and Apostolic Tradition. Sola Scriptura can’t even be deduced from implicit passages.

Whilst term SOLA SCRIPTURA – Scripture alone isn’t in Bible, Supreme position of Written Word of God IS IN THE BIBLE. JESUS AND APOSTLES TAUGHT IT !!! 

No they didn’t, and I will repeatedly show how this characterization is inaccurate.

Let’s start with Mark 7,1-20 where Jesus and His disciples are challenged by devout Pharisees for not observing washing – hands- rule. This is the first evidence that Jesus hadn’t role of religious tradition and of Jewish Holy Scriptures on the same level as of equal authoritative sources of religious life in Judaism. 

Jesus’s harsh criticism of putting tradition of elders and Scriptures on the same level of authoritativeness is expressed in His words: ” Well did Isaiah prophesy of you hypocrites, as it is written, `This people honors me with their lips, but their heart is far from me. In vain they worship me, teaching doctrines which are nothing but the commandments of men ” And then Jesus gave particular example of breaking Written Commandment of Moses Law : ” For Moses said, ‘Honor your father and your mother;’ and, ‘He who speaks evil of father or mother, let him be put to death.’” Religious tradition set up against this commandment of Moses Law the rule that ” But you say, `If a man tells his father or his mother, “Whatever profit you might have received from me is the gift, given to God;”’ 12 then you no longer allow him to do anything for his father or his mother,”
Thus Pharisees made Written God’s Word NULL AND VOID for the sake of observance of religious tradition of Jewish elders. THE SAME WAY CATHOLIC CHURCH MADE NULL AND VOID HOLY SCRIPTURES FOR THE SAKE OF OBSERVANCE OF CATHOLIC TRADITION..!!!

This is an old and tired Protestant polemic. Supposedly, Jesus opposes all previous Jewish tradition. In point of fact, this is not true at all. Jesus followed Pharisaical traditions Himself. He adopted the Pharisaical stand on controversial issues (Mt 5:18-19, Lk 16:17), accepted the oral tradition of the academies, including observing the Sabbath, and priestly regulations (Mt 8:4, Mk 1:44, Lk 5:4). He worshiped in the synagogues and the temple. The apostle Paul called himself a Pharisee twice (Acts 23:6 and 26:5). Jesus expressly stated that He was not removing anything in the Law:

Matthew 5:17-19 “Think not that I have come to abolish the law and the prophets; I have come not to abolish them but to fulfil them. [18] For truly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the law until all is accomplished. [19] Whoever then relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but he who does them and teaches them shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.” 

He also told His disciples to follow the Pharisees’ teaching even though they may be hypocrites:

Matthew 23:2-3 “The scribes and the Pharisees sit on Moses’ seat; [3] so practice and observe whatever they tell you, but not what they do; for they preach, but do not practice.” 

In Mark 7, Jesus is criticizing legalism, spiritual pride, lack of wholehearted devotion, and hypocrisy, not tradition itself. I wrote about similar themes recently. But for many Protestants, “tradition” in the Bible is a “dirty word.” This is simply not true. There are good, apostolic traditions and bad traditions. A close reading of passages such as Matthew 15:3-9 and Mark 7: 8-13 will reveal that Jesus only condemned corrupt traditions of men, not tradition per se. He uses qualifying phrases like “your tradition,” “commandments of men,” “tradition of men,” as opposed to “the commandment of God.” St. Paul draws precisely the same contrast in Colossians 2:8: “Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.” Paul uses the word “tradition” in a wholly positive and authoritative sense in 1 Corinthians 11:2, 2 Thessalonians 2:15 and 3:6. Oral tradition is also massively indicated in the New Testament.

Let’s get to other texts showing that Jewish Scriptures were Supreme Authority for Jesus..

Jesus’s key role of Saviour and Redeemer from Sin has been designed from everlasting and Holy Spirit put it as program for Jesus through the writers of Old Testament writings..From all statements where Jesus predicted His torture, crucifixion death and resurrection is evident that Jesus pointed to SCRIPTURES AND NOT TO RELIGIOUS TRADITION of Judaism.

This proves nothing to the point. All it proves is that Scripture has messianic prophecies that were fulfilled. Of course . . . 

”Behold, we are going up to Jerusalem, and all the things that are WRITTEN THROUGH THE PROPHETS concerning the Son of Man will be completed.”(Luke 18,31) and ” Didn’t the Christ have to suffer these things and to enter into his glory?”

”27 Beginning from Moses and from all the prophets, he explained to them in all the Scriptures the things concerning himself.”(Luke 24,27) Also see Luke 22,37;Mat 26,24;26,54

Although we don’t see in Gospels specific term SCRIPTURES, often we can find words MOSES (TORAH), PROPHETS, WRITINGS which in Hebrew thinking means three-folded partition of Jewish Bible. So although Gospel writers sometimes mention only prophets, or Moses and Prophets that in another words means SCRIPTURES… Also statement: ”it is written ” points to the Supreme role of Scriptures as Rule of faith

Yes of course. But none of this shows that it is the only authority.

[Milan then provided many more examples of messianic prophecies, which are irrelevant to the point under dispute, as explained]

Jesus fought against Devil not with Jewish religious tradition, but He used Scriptural commands to tackle tempting Satan…Three times Jesus answered Satan’s seduction with verse of Scripture showing that Jesus is fully surrendered under Scriptural Authority and so shall be Satan…

On many occasions Jesus countered his opponents in theological debates with Scriptures proving that they thoroughly miss fundamental thing – obedience of Written Word of God whilst they tried hardest for full obedience of their religious tradition. Let me give a few examples: 

We can see in John 5 as Jesus healed paralyzed man lying at Bethesda lake. According to Pharisees Jesus broke commandment on Sabbat observance on many instances because He dared to heal people (see also John 9; Luke 6,6-11, Luke 13,10-17) .. What was for Pharisees prohibited Shabbat work, for Jesus that was necessity of the human healing is not lesser than the loosing ox or ass from the stall and to lead them to the water to drink everyday even during Sabbath (Luke 13,15-16) and if people are circumcised even on Sabbath so that Mose’s Law could be observed why Pharisees are crossed with Jesus as he healed whole personality (John 7,22-23).

Some of very devout Pharisaic Jews have been ultimately irritated and outraged by this Jesus’s ‘behavior’ as they declared about Jesus: “This man is not from God, because he doesn’t keep the Sabbath.”

None of this proves sola Scriptura, either. Milan is following the same old playbook, based on these basic logical fallacies. Jesus did observe the Sabbath. He is making a point about how we observe it, not whether we should or not. Later, the Church decided that the Lord’s Day (Sunday) would be, in effect, the new development of Sabbatarianism.

However Jesus was obedient observant of Mose’s Torah commandment. He only refuted and turned upside down man – made ideas and imaginations of Pharisees which were ”holy tradition” for his opponents.

Yes! We agree on that.

[he gives more off-topic examples of Jesus’ opposition to corrupt traditions]

I have already mentioned Mark 7,1 ff where religious tradition of washing hands and of all other things has been exalted to be Divine command. Jesus evidently refused to comply these man-made traditions and definitely refused them to have same authoritative position in religion as Written Word of God.

Exactly! Jesus opposed man-made, corrupt traditions. He did not oppose  true traditions, including oral traditions. The question for Him is not “Scripture vs. tradition” but rather, “true traditions (including Scripture) vs. false, man-made traditions.”

. . . But formal sufficiency of Bible as Supreme Authority is there and Jesus purposefully taught it…

This was not shown to the slightest degree in his arguments thus far . . . I’ve already noted that Jesus told His followers to observe the teachings from the Pharisees, based on their authority as occupying “Moses’ seat” (a notion which is not in the Old Testament).

 2. “Word of God”

Dave Armstrong of is right about this point but only from one point of view. Let me give another point of view: 

For Jesus were commandments of Scriptures as true expression of God’s Word. As rich young man asked Him on matters of Salvation and eternal life (Matt 19,16ff), Jesus pointed him to the commands of Scriptures, not to tradition. The same thing Jesus told Pharisees (22,34-40)
Sadducees which wanted to ridicule Jesus and His teaching on resurrection Jesus rebuked of being in delusion.. ”you are in delusion because you don’t know Scriptures nor God’s power”(Matt 22,29) 

The Sadducees denied oral tradition, whereas Jesus and the early Church accepted it. The inter-testamental traditions included teachings on the afterlife and angels, which were not explicit in the Old Testament. I showed in another section how Jesus accepted the authority of non-biblical oral traditions. I’ve already made note of one: “Moses’ seat.”

For good spiritual health and well-being is crucial: 1. To know Scriptures, obey Written Word of God 

Yes it is, but there is no disagreement here. 

2. To know God’s Power

On the contrary ignorance, disobedience of Written Word of God or deliberate rebellion against Scriptural Authority is pathway to delusion and heresy. Catholic Church is in same delusion as Saducees were because Scriptures aren’t her Supreme Authority and people in CC aren’t deliberately led to feed themselves with GOD’s WORD through daily reading and meditation. They aren’t lead either to surrender every part of their lives under Rulership of Scriptural Command..And Catholics may be opened to the supernatural Work of the Holy Spirit, but without being complied to the REGULA FIDEI of Scriptural Authority, they are like man who has only one leg. And only by supernatural miracle of God can get both legs, so Catholics can get too, if they fully submit their lives under Governance of Bible..

Catholics respect the Bible as much as Protestants do. It is our supreme authority. We simply say that it has to be interpreted within the framework of historic, apostolic tradition and the guidance of the Church. This had always been the case, even in Old Testament times. In Nehemiah 8, there was a big event in which the Bible was read to the people. But the text doesn’t say that they understood it simply by hearing it. Rather, it states:

Nehemiah 8:7-8 Also Jesh’ua, Bani, Sherebi’ah, Jamin, Akkub, Shab’bethai, Hodi’ah, Ma-asei’ah, Keli’ta, Azari’ah, Jo’zabad, Hanan, Pelai’ah, the Levites, helped the people to understand the law, while the people remained in their places. [8] And they read from the book, from the law of God, clearly; and they gave the sense, so that the people understood the reading. 

It’s the same in the New Testament. We have the story of the Ethiopian eunuch, seeking to understand the Bible:


Acts 8:27-31 And he rose and went. And behold, an Ethiopian, a eunuch, a minister of the Can’dace, queen of the Ethiopians, in charge of all her treasure, had come to Jerusalem to worship [28] and was returning; seated in his chariot, he was reading the prophet Isaiah. [29] And the Spirit said to Philip, “Go up and join this chariot.” [30] So Philip ran to him, and heard him reading Isaiah the prophet, and asked, “Do you understand what you are reading?” [31] And he said, “How can I, unless some one guides me?” And he invited Philip to come up and sit with him. 

Milan mentioned the messianic prophecies. But these weren’t understood merely by reading them, either. Thus, we see in the story of the two disciples on the road to Emmaus, that they completely missed it, and that the risen Jesus had to directly help them interpret and understand them:


Luke 24:25-27, 32 And he said to them, “O foolish men, and slow of heart to believe all that the prophets have spoken! [26] Was it not necessary that the Christ should suffer these things and enter into his glory?” [27] And beginning with Moses and all the prophets, he interpreted to them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself. . . . [32] They said to each other, “Did not our hearts burn within us while he talked to us on the road, while he opened to us the scriptures?” 

It’s always been like this, and this is how the Bible presents itself: it’s the inspired revelation, that has to be authoritatively interpreted in order to be properly understood, within a framework of doctrinal, creedal, confessional orthodoxy. This is how we Catholics look at the matter: precisely as Scripture itself does: one needs authoritative interpretation. Precisely because Protestants don’t believe this, they are hopelessly self-contradictory and have many hundreds of competing denominations, with contradictions (therefore, falsehood and error) all over the place. That’s the fruit of the false doctrine of “every man reading the Scripture without any necessary guidance, to find all of Christian truth.” Right . . . 

Jesus during Jewish feast declared: if anyone believes in me AS SCRIPTURE SAY rivers of living water will flow from inside of him”(John 7,38)..
Dave Armstrong, and another Catholics, you can believe in God’s Word in Catholic Tradition, you can believe in Jesus as Catholic Church say, but no rivers of living water will flow!!! Only those shall be fulfilled with life-giving stream of God’s Holy life who believe in Jesus AS SCRIPTURE SAY!!!!

I have just shown what Scripture says. It had to be authoritatively interpreted for readers: by the Levites in the old covenant: teaching authorities, by the apostle Philip, and by Jesus Himself in the story of the two disciples on the road to Emmaus. St. Peter also notes that some teachings in St. Paul were hard to understand, so that people developed false doctrines from them:


2 Peter 3:15-17 And count the forbearance of our Lord as salvation. So also our beloved brother Paul wrote to you according to the wisdom given him, [16] speaking of this as he does in all his letters. There are some things in them hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other scriptures[17] You therefore, beloved, knowing this beforehand, beware lest you be carried away with the error of lawless men and lose your own stability. 


For apostle Paul have been Scriptures the same Supreme authority as for Jesus. He himself declared principle: ” and let no one go beyond of what is WRITTEN” (1 Corinthians 4,6)
For Him just as for Jesus were Scriptures genuine revelation of God’s Word.

Yep, Scripture is revelation. No one denies it. I answered the argument from 1 Corinthians 4:6 in my first book, A Biblical Defense of Catholicism:

1 Corinthians 4:6 . . . that you may learn by us not to go beyond what is written, that none of you may be puffed up in favour of one against another.

The clause emphasized above, which is used as a proof for sola Scriptura, is thought to be difficult in the Greek, so much so that one Protestant translator, James Moffatt, considered it beyond recovery and refused to translate it! Yet the meaning seems fairly clear when the whole context is taken into consideration (at the very least verses 3-6). This basic principle of biblical interpretation (context) is often neglected, even by good scholars, presumably due to presuppositional bias. For example, the great evangelical theologian G.K Berkouwer, who writes many insightful and edifying things about Scripture, falls prey to this tendency repeatedly, in using this portion of a verse to imply the notion of sola Scriptura, in his magnum opus on Scripture.12

One simply has to read the phrase following the “proof text” to see what it is to which St. Paul is referring. The whole passage is an ethical exhortation to avoid pride, arrogance and favoritism, and as such, has nothing to do with the idea of the Bible and the written word as some sort of all-encompassing standard of authority over against the Church. St. Paul’s teaching elsewhere (as just examined) precludes such an interpretation anyway. One of the foundational tenets of Protestant hermeneutics is to interpret less clear, obscure portions of Scripture by means of more clear, related passages.13 St. Paul is telling the Corinthians to observe the broad ethical precepts of the Old Testament (some translators render the above clause as keep within the rules), as indicated by his habitual phrase, it is written, which is always used to precede Old Testament citations throughout his letters. Assuming that he is referring to the Old Testament (the most straightforward interpretation), this would again prove too much, for he would not be including the entire New Testament, whose Canon was not even finally determined until 397 A.D.

To summarize, then, 1 Corinthians 4:6 (that is, one part of the verse) fails as a proof text for sola Scriptura for at least three reasons:

1) The context is clearly one of ethics. We cannot transgress (go beyond) the precepts of Scripture concerning relationships. This doesn’t forbid the discussion of ethics outside of Scripture (which itself cannot possibly treat every conceivable ethical dispute and dilemma);

2) The phrase does not even necessarily have to refer to Scripture, although this appears to be the majority opinion of scholars (with which I agree);

3) If what is written refers to Scripture, it certainly points to the Old Testament alone (obviously not the Protestant “rule of faith”). Thus, this verse proves too much and too little simultaneously.

All “proof texts” for sola Scriptura are demonstrably inadequate and run up against biblical (and Catholic) teachings of Tradition and Church, as well as the insuperable difficulty of the Canon of the Bible, and how it was determined (by the Catholic Church).

12Berkouwer, ibid., 17,104-105,148.

13 See, e.g., Ramm, Bernard, Protestant Biblical Interpretation, Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Book House, 3rd ed., 1970, 104-106.

3. Tradition is Not a Dirty Word

In some aspects maybe not, but I shown above feature of religious tradition as one in fiercest opposition to the Supreme role of Scriptural authority.. Just as Jesus said, tradition breaks down written Word of God and nullify it’s authority.

And yes, there are traditions (on Mary ever-virginity, her sinlessness, or her assumption, mandatory celibacy of priests etc. which are thoroughly inconsistent with Bible and in no harmony with Scriptural Authority) Catholic Church therefore must totally diminish Governance of Bible Authority so that these deceitful teachings could be adhered and observed.

Mandatory celibacy of priests is one perfect example, because apostle Paul explicitly warned future generations of Christians before false and deceitful Church leaders which shall hinder marry. However Catholic Church didn’t recognized these heretical trends(of mandatory celibacy of priests) which Spanish priests tried to impose onto whole Church. Emperor Constantine fortunately halt these efforts, but 7 centuries later Pope Gregor VII enforced mandatory celibacy. He even torn apart existing marriages of priests despite Jesus’s command ” What therefore God has joined together, don’t let man tear apart” Matt 19,6

Thus God’s Written Word had to be superseded by human schemes of Popes and clergy…In that regard yeah, Church tradition is kinda dirty word for me too..It has bitter taste of the irreconcilable adversary against Authority of Scriptures…

Railing against stuff that one disagrees with in Catholic teaching is not disproving that there is a legitimate, authoritative, binding tradition in Scripture (which the sola Scriptura advocate must do). This “reply” has zero interaction with my actual arguments. If that trend continues, I will cease responding, because ostensibly I am defending my paper, not dealing with 1,976,294 objections to Catholicism in this present endeavor. Yet, sadly, this is standard contra-Catholic and anti-Catholic methodology . . . 

4. Jesus and Paul Accepted Non-Biblical Oral and Written Traditions

Apologist Dave Armstrong is completely wrong about Matt.2,23 It is really found in Isaiah 11,1just as Evangelist Matthew wrote that prophet said:
There is hebrew word נֵ֖צֶר (netzer) which means branch, shoot, sprout. This noun, coming from an Arabic root meaning “to be fresh, bright, grown green, ” appears only four times in Bible.

This is a weak argument.  Serious commentators disagree as to interpretation (as can be seen in this large collection of exegetical commentaries), and many possibilities are bandied about, including vague references or saying that it is a vague allusion to writings of many prophets (rather than one passage, which proves my point), leading to the distinct possibility that it is not a direct reference to a particular passage in any Old Testament book, and/or a reference to some lost book, as St. John Chrysostom thought.

So definitely not…Jesus didn’t appealed to Jewish tradition as to higher authority than Bible is. Surely text Matt 2,23 cannot be used to support this idea. These biblical instances used by Dave Armstrong aren’t good. Pointing to Oral Torah, Rabbinical tradition, or Rabbinical interpretations of Jewish Bible not necessarily show the true relationship of Jesus and of Paul to the religious tradition… I already portrayed above the true relationship of Jesus to religious tradition.

And I showed how it was a false and inaccurate and quite incomplete presentation.

Let me have a few words on Jesus’s relationship to the religious authorities of Judaism. Jesus tried to maintain good relationships with all religious leaders, but not at the expense of revealed truth…For example: i. As Jesus cleansed man of leprosy He sent him to the priests, which had also competence of medical authorities too to make medical search of people like that man. Man healed of leprosy should also bring the sacrificial gift commanded by Moses Law as testimony.(See Matt 8,4) Jesus respected this role of theirs and He didn’t try to make any changes in societal order where He lived.

ii. Jesus commanded to His disciples concerning Pharisees and scribes sitting at Moses see(position of the teaching authority) to ” do and observe everything what they would say you, but don’t act according to their deeds, because they say, but don’t do”(Matt23,3)

Jesus respected their authority of religious teachers, /as He said ”do whatever they tell you../ although He called them ”breed of vipers” and ”snakes” Jesus has been aware that people need teaching authority, but on other side Pharisees and scribes(theologians of Judaism) discredited themselves by hypocrisy, pride, worst motives for their ministry, twisting of Torah commandment to promote utterly irrelevant things whilst essential (love, mercy and righteousness and justice ) have been neglected.. 

Our present dispute is about binding authority, not perfect sanctity. Jesus gave that to the Pharisees in Matthew 23:2. Whether they were hypocritical or not is irrelevant. We know that they were. But that didn’t take away their authority. Jesus addressed that, by saying, “do and observe everything what they would say you, but don’t act according to their deed.” But he based their authority on a notion not found in the Old Testament (“Moses’ seat”).

Apostles told to Jewish top authorities: ” Is it fair before God to obey you more than God??”(Acts 4,19)…I think this kind of attitude we can ascribe to Jesus too… Regarding these Paul’s statements quoted by you: they don’t prove true relationship of Paul to Jewish tradition. In fact I admit time to time I also take a look to the Rabbinical commentaries of Old Testament, which doesn’t mean that I appeal to the Jewish tradition as authoritative source…These commentaries are only one interpretation source of many… These 2 verses merely mean that Paul also used rabbinical commentaries, nothing more and nothing less. For many rabbinical Jews Jesus seems to be more ”Jewish” than Paul…About Paul they confess that he founded completely different religion. So in relation to these 2 verses you quoted I’m very skeptical to read your deduction on Paul’s ”appeal to extrabiblical sources as of authority..

Nice spin and rhetoric, but it doesn’t overcome the fact that Paul authoritatively cites extrabiblical traditions. Here are my two passages that Milan wants to casually dismiss and do an end run around:

In 1 Corinthians 10:4, St. Paul refers to a rock which “followed” the Jews through the Sinai wilderness. The Old Testament says nothing about such miraculous movement, in the related passages about Moses striking the rock to produce water (Exodus 17:1-7; Numbers 20:2-13). But rabbinic tradition does.

2 Timothy 3:8: “As Jannes and Jambres opposed Moses . . . ” These two men cannot be found in the related Old Testament passage (Exodus 7:8 ff.), or anywhere else in the Old Testament.

1 Corinthians 10:4 is inspired Scripture. If it had been in line with Protestant thought, that would be highlighted, but since it isn’t, Milan downplays its inspiration and wants his reader to believe that “These commentaries are only one interpretation source of many. These 2 verses merely mean that Paul also used rabbinical commentaries.” Nice try! Likewise, in 2 Timothy 3:8 (also inspired, infallible revelation) Paul casually mentions Jannes and Jambres as known historical figures, alongside Moses. They are not in the Old Testament. Period. Thus, this is an authoritative reference to authoritative extrabiblical tradition, no matter how hard Milan tries to spin it away and ignore it. Perhaps this indicates that I have a higher view of biblical inspiration than Milan does.

5. Jerusalem Council 

”Thus we see in the Bible an instance of the gift of infallibility that the Catholic Church claims for itself when it assembles in a council.” To be honest I don’t see in the Bible in that particular passage instance of the gift of infallibility that the Catholic Church claims for itself when it assembles in a council”.

This is rather Mr Armstrong’s PIA DESIDERIA – godly wishes which he projected onto scriptural interpretation.. I need to warn him not to follow this way of interpreting Scriptures, because it’s truly heretical approach. Only spiritually disciplined people won’t fall in temptation of imputation of their own wishes onto Scriptural text as if it would be Divine message….

This is another pathetic [non, pseudo-] reply, that utterly ignores my reasoning in the section, instead opting for “psychoanalysis.” If Milan thinks such ignoring helps his case or somehow disproves mine, I believe readers will see through that as evasion and unwillingness to interact with opposing arguments. Let’s see if he can come up with more than this silliness in his replies (real or alleged) to sections 6-10. But I have very little patience for this sort of thing.

6. Pharisees, Sadducees, and Oral, Extrabiblical Tradition

Mr.Armstrong’s claim that Saducees were modern adherents of Sola Scriptura, is more than misleading. It’s completely false!!!! I think you should get deeper study on Saducee Judaism…

Whilst Pharisees were from social point of view people of many background, Saducees were Jewish priestly aristocracy. Not like Pharisees, Saducees had more friendly and embracing approach to ruling Roman government and were known as promoters of hellenistic culture, which alienated them from society, because Pharisees were considered to be more ”patriotic” in relation to hated Roman government and alien Greek influences…And yeah, Saducees were strong liberals. I could call them ”materialistic” Jews because they rejected anything supernatural..So to call them SOLA SCRIPTURA people is completely rubbish, because they definitely refused any supernatural miracles and wonders described in Scriptures… In that regard is really small difference between liberal protestant theologians(which completely reject anything Supernatural in Bible) and Saducees which did the same…In fact Saducees cannot be Sola Scriptura people because Jesus convicted them of being in delusion because of ignoring Scriptures and of God’s Power…
PEOPLE LIKE SADUCEES CANNOT REJECT SUPERNATURAL MATTERS OF HOLY BIBLE AND BEING SOLA SCRIPTURA PEOPLE. THESE TWO THINGS ARE IN CONTRADICTION!!!!

I agree that the Sadducees were “liberals” but they also accepted only part of Scripture, and rejected oral tradition (which Jesus accepted). Here is a description of the Sadducees from the Protestant site GotBible.org:

The Sadducees had what has been called a conservative attitude toward Scripture–they restricted authority to the written law interpreted literally, and were not open to change. . . . When Josephus says that they rejected all but the written law, he probably meant that they did not permit legal or doctrinal deductions from the prophets. He most likely meant that they opposed unwritten traditions. According to the Talmud, in the debates the Sadducees were attacked from other books of the Bible and used them themselves in their arguments. This strongly suggests that they viewed them as Scripture as well.

The Pharisees had a large body of oral interpretation that had become binding. It was this that the Sadducees opposed.

Jesus followed the Pharisaical tradition over against the Sadducees. Paul called himself a Pharisee twice. Therefore, they both accepted written and oral tradition.

7. Old Testament Jews Did Not Believe in Sola Scriptura / Necessity of Interpretation

Another danger of Mr. Armstrong is that he views Judaism through the lens of Catholic Christianity. In fact teaching authorities of Judaism(mainly Pharisees and scribes) were no SACERDOTAL PEOPLE…Even today many people look at Rabbi as to Jewish equivalent of Christian priest, but rabbi is merely teacher of Judaism. Rabbis don’t perform any religious ceremonies. Leading of worship services is domain of other people, not of Rabbis, although Rabbis belong to religious leaders of their communities. So to view authoritative interpreters of Judaism through the prism of Catholic clergy is completely false… Mr Armstrong still does forget that Pharisees and Scribes always started as ordinary people and have no formal ”theological” education.. Only clergy Judaism had were Levi Priests… Many teachers of Moses Law in fact were common ”laic” people. Some of them did their teaching as full-time ministry, others had their civil job and teaching was only their LAIC religious ministry.

Yep. The Levites were from the priestly class. When did I ever deny that? Ezra, however, was both a scribe and priest. As I noted in this section (which Milan has utterly refused to directly interact with):


Ezra 7:6, 10: Ezra, a priest and scribe, studied the Jewish law and taught it to Israel, and his authority was binding, under pain of imprisonment, banishment, loss of goods, and even death (7:25-26).

Their authority to teach is of different source than in Catholic Church… Whilst in CC it is Church which has authority to appoint teachers, in Judaism ordinary people asked godly men educated in Torah study and they became Rabbi’s follower – disciple(very similar to Baptist church)…. Also Rabbis weren’t in such hierarchic position as Catholic teaching authorities..

So having all these aspects on mind I must warn before any association of ”authoritative interpreters” in Judaism and in Catholic Christianity, because it is in principle wrong.

However Milan wants to spin this away, it is what it is: there was authoritative and binding [“dogmatic”] teaching in the old covenant. They did not believe in Scripture Alone in the full Protestant sense. It was a combination of Scripture, tradition, and teaching [“proto-Church”] authority, just as in Catholicism (the “three-legged stool”). Not everything is exactly analogous, but it is a striking similarity, and far more than to Protestantism.

Once again (this is at least the third time, and I’ve protested each one), Milan has decided to ignore my argument, which was multi-faceted, with several biblical references. He chose to “reply” with mere polemical preaching. I’ve devoted much time painstakingly responding to his arguments today, almost all point-by-point, but this is the disdain and contempt with which he treats mine. “Three strikes and you’re out.” I won’t spend this amount of time (if any) replying to his arguments (and lack thereof ) ever again. Time is very valuable. I’m very protective of mine, because there is a lot of work to be done. The harvest is ripe and the laborers are few. A serious debater extends at least a minimum of respect for his opponent, which includes actually dealing with their arguments.

So from a debate perspective, I think Milan is doing a terrible job. He has scarcely engaged the issue at all, and has done what I noted was almost standard practice among defenders of sola Scriptura: missing the point over and over and producing irrelevant minutiae; also ignoring Catholic arguments. He hasn’t proved sola Scriptura to the slightest degree: not one bit!

From an apologetics or teaching perspective, on the other hand, it is a spectacular and striking confirmation that our case is vastly superior and much more biblical, because we see, yet again (as always) the extreme weakness or literal non-existence of good arguments against ours. Thus I find myself simultaneously disgusted (as a socratic debater and great lover of real dialogue) and delighted (as an apologist and teacher and Catholic evangelist).

 8. 2 Timothy 3:16-17: The Protestant “Proof Text”

This one of core texts on Scriptural Authority contains testimony on DIVINE INSPIRACY of Written Word of God. This is key element of the message of the Text.. Not only Reformation but all ancient Fathers which debated on Canon of the Scriptures had this text on their minds, because Church Fathers and Ecclesiastical Authorities had their crucial task to set apart DIVINE INSPIRED WRITINGS from non-inspired ones which only pretended to be apostolical writings…In fact too many writings of doubtful provenience and quality had emerged. Best response to counter deluge of heretical writings and teachings has been effort to establish Canonicity of those writings which bear seal of Divine Inspiracy without any doubt. 

Not only Church but in Judaism there was the same issue debated in Jamnia 90 AD as Pharisaic religious leaders discussed DIVINE INSPIRACY of OT books.. It’s interesting that they had almost the same criteria for Canonicity of books as Church Fathers and Church Authorities which made decision on Canonicity of NT books.

Divine inspiration (which all Christians agree on). is not the same thing as being formally sufficient, nor the same as the principle of sola Scriptura.

Mr. Armstrong doubted here formal sufficiency of Scriptures, but very fact Paul declared them to be DIVINE INSPIRED make them formally sufficient authority for us true believers of Protestantism.

The same fallacy stated again (repetition makes it no less false than it ever was). This has not been established from Scripture; it has merely been arbitrarily assumed without argument. Scripture is materially sufficient: all true doctrines in Christianity are found in it, either explicitly, or indirectly or in kernel form, or deduced from clear Scripture. Some readers may want to revisit my introduction, to be crystal-clear on what we are debating and what Milan’s burden is, in seeking to prove that sola Scriptura is taught in Scripture.

I owe to say that NOT CHURCH TRADITION is declared to be DIVINE INSPIRED, nor CHURCH AUTHORITIES, but SCRIPTURE is!!!!! So yes, if there is anything here in the earth which deserves to be formally sufficient Authoritative source of Faith, then ONLY SCRIPTURE IS!!! Why..Because Apostle Paul said so and Catholics declare that Paul’s Words have status of infallible authoritative source…

Paul also talks a lot about authoritative tradition, which I have shown, either above, or in various links of mine that I linked to above.

Let me mention the role of Ecclesiastical authorities and Passed down traditions as Mr. Armstrong argued for their sake in the Bible quotations. Of Course Protestant Churches have their Pastors, Teachers, appointed Evangelists and Prophetic ministry.. In Last years even questions of genuine apostolical ministry of certain people (mainly in pentecostal-charismatic movement) has emerged… So of course we Protestants greatly appreciate ministerial gifts which Jesus offers to His Church …However in the area of Prophetic ministry and other gifts/CHARISMATA/ of the Holy Spirit(see 1Cor 12) we Evangelicals see even greater necessity for Scriptural Authority to be in the role of arbiter if any harmful excesses would raise… Critics of Pentecostal-Charismatic movement in Protestant Churches might be right, because as we failed in usage of these precious gifts, it’s because many times we ignored Manual handbook which Creator and Savior Jesus gave for us… 

This is all irrelevant to the discussion, and we see that for the fourth time now, Milan has absolutely ignored the argument I gave regarding 2 Timothy 3:16. His choice. Do I think fair-minded, inquiring readers will be impressed by this non-interaction? No, not at all. I think they will see that he has no case, and so wanders off into irrelevant gibberish and jabber, to make an appearance of strength where he clearly has none. Otherwise, he would deal with my arguments and dismantle them!

While he ignores my arguments, I can produce two other papers of mine that address 2 Timothy 3:16 at length [one / two]. Let the reader decide where the truth lies!

9. Paul Casually Assumes that His Passed-Down Tradition is Infallible and Binding

In point 9 Mr Armstrong would be right if in Catholic Church would be without outrageous abomination of mandatory celibacy… So if Catholics really want persuade me that apostle Paul’s Words are really binding and infallible, then I expect that abomination of mandatory celibacy which completely refuted these Paul’s words(1Tim 4,1-3) shall be completely removed from Church… If Vatican shall say their DAMNATIO on Pope Gregor VII which stamped down apostolical authority of apostle Paul, by commanding mandatory celibacy, and this, and this damned practice really shall officially become ”DEMONIC TEACHING” in accordance with apostle Paul’s words, then I’ll start to to take your statements in point 9 seriously…

But I guess sooner the Day of Judgement shall come than Vatican would remove off themselves the label of false hypocritical teachers with hot-iron-marked conscience.

Now for the fifth time, Milan chooses to rail against the Catholic Church on a completely unrelated topic, rather than address my arguments. I’ll never waste my time “debating” him again. This is a pathetic, disastrous performance on his part. Even his rantings and ravings against priestly celibacy carry no power or weight, and I have refuted this sort of thing from Scripture itself many times.

10. Sola Scriptura is a Radically Circular Position 

Mr.Armstrong’s last point isn’t applicable to me at all.

It’s applicable to anyone who believes in sola Scriptura, which cannot be established from the Bible, and is radically self-defeating.

I admit there might be Protestants which deserve harsh critic of Mr.Armstrong on that point, but definitely I don’t.

He definitely does. We’ve seen how he refused to interact with my arguments in five of the points. 

I know were I came from and I know my ground and I stand on it.

And it’s a foundation of sand that won’t hold any weight.

From everything you could read above you don’t have to doubt I can explain and bring forward reasons why I believe, in what I believe.

Really? He could have fooled me. If he had such a great case, he could have pulverized my arguments one-by-one instead of ignoring them and preaching about totally unrelated Catholic beliefs.

And yeah I have got tradition which guides my own interpretation. 

I know. It’s a man-made, false tradition of men, leading him to believe in unbiblical doctrines. Admitting this is the first step to recovery, so it’s a good sign.

Your example with U.S. Constitution versus authority of judicial system is good but even better proves my point.. For a long time U.S. Constitution has been in position of supreme authority just as Protestants have their Supremacy of Scriptural Authority and everything was ok, country prospered as no other before. But in last decade I see very upsetting trend when President Obama made U.S. Constitution to be toilet paper roll to wipe out his …. and the same disturbing and dishonoring treatment with U.S. Constitution I see in whole U.S. judicial system..In fact there are deliberately broken basic freedoms of speech and faith and Supreme Court and lower court in the name of ”political corectness” destroy this precious heritage built by fathers.

So no even more judicial activism and redefinition of values of marriage and other Biblical values valid for centuries, even bigger disaster made president of U.S. and whole judicial system..

The point is that it has to be authoritatively interpreted, just as the Bible has to be. And that has not been adequately addressed.

Mr. Armstrong, only one personal question: according to your way of argumentation, is this utterly ok that Supreme Court has redefined marriage for all U.S. states. Do you really think that Supreme court should have a such competence even supersede authority of U.S.Constitution?? I’m strongly convinced don’t. And current calamity situation just confims my standpoint. U.S. are in the worst disaster for 240 years since USA exist. And reason is that U.S. Constitution has been dethroned and even more U.S. Constitution is superseded by unworthy President and unworthy Supreme court members, even closer USA are to total destruction…

Here we are off on irrelevant rabbit trails againThe point is that the Constitution has to be authoritatively interpreted, just as the Bible has to be. It was not properly interpreted when same-sex “marriage” was upheld, just as it was not when legal abortion was decreed, or slavery upheld in the 1857 Dred Scott decision. Likewise, the Bible is wrongly interpreted when the hundreds of Protestant sects contradict each other left and right (all appealing to what they regard as the self-evidently “clear” or “perspicuous” Bible). There is one truth, not hundreds. But since the Protestant rule of faith (sola Scriptura) is wrong and unbiblical, they will never be able to resolve their internal contradictions. False guiding principles bring about bad fruit.

And Protestantism in USA are in the same crisis, because Bible in American Evangelicalism has been dethroned.. Faithlessness, corruption, compromise attitudes and abandoning Biblical truths and principles and compliance of wicked political (or spiritual) leaders is bigger than compliance and reverence of God’s Word…This is what I see as reason of problem you try to describe…

Protestants contradict each other when they believe in biblical inspiration. It makes no difference. They still can’t come to agree, and it has always been this way in the history of Protestantism, right from the start. Luther and Calvin both had very high views of Scripture, but they couldn’t come to total agreement. Liberalism or abandonment of traditional teachings (within Protestantism) leads to further disagreement. But those don’t come only from increasing lack of Christian belief. They come from primarily the erroneous rule of faith.

And not Supremacy of Scriptural Authority is wrong, but on the contrary.. As US Evangelicals abandoned Scriptural Authority, God shall abandon them… Do you honor God’s Word?? God shall honor you.. Do you dishonor it? God shall dishonor you…

This is true. At least we agree on something . . . I’ve been defending the complete inspiration and infallibility of Scripture for 35 years.

On last point. There really are different views on Sacraments(baptism of infants vs. believer’s baptism, symbolical or real presence of Jesus in elements in Communion)..And I realize, that we have no definite answer on these issues, because Scripture doesn’t provide it…

That is not proven. I say that Scripture does provide the answers, but because they happen to coincide with Catholic teachings, Protestants won’t accept them.

Thus freedom which is in Protestantism is only solution to have these different traditions side by side.. 

It’s never a solution to have contradictory opinions side-by-side on important issues like baptism and communion: both of which are described in the Bible as directly related to salvation. These are not side issues or optional beliefs, but absolutely central to Christianity. And contradictions mean that one or both contradictory positions must be wrong; falsehood, untruths, lies. Lies and false doctrines come from the devil and do no one any good. God wants us to have the fullness of truth, and He chose to specially guide and protect His Church through the Holy Spirit and make it infallible, so that we wouldn’t have to have this uncertainty and foolishness of contradictory denominations by the many hundreds and even thousands. The Bible utterly condemns denominationalism.

It might sound as relativistic position of mine..

It sounds that way because it is.

If you see me like that, so be it. Definitely I’m not indifferent on these question and I have answers, but I’ll offer them after we start another thread and particular theological issue to debate..

We won’t be debating again, now that I’ve seen how you ignore my arguments over and over. I have neither time nor patience for that. Life’s too short. I do thank you, though, for the few occasions where you at least put up some sort of argument. May God bless you abundantly.

Milan in the Facebook group then added a comment, claiming that the Church fathers believed in sola Scriptura. They did not at all. I have debated this many times [one / two / three / four / five / six / seven / eight / nine / ten / eleven]. All of these treatments contains dozens of patristic citations, showing that they did not believe as Protestants do. It’s a myth, and can only be “defended” by special pleading and ultra-selective citation and citations out of context. And I also show how Protestant apologists cite them incorrectly and out-of-context, and ignore many texts in the fathers that don’t go along with their agenda (proving a mythical supposed acceptance of sola Scriptura in the fathers).

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2018-05-31T13:01:29-04:00

PeterPreaching
St. Peter Preaching (detail; 1426-1427), by Masolina da Panicale (1383-1447) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]
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(2-20-09)

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From my 2009 book, Bible Proofs for Catholic Truths (mostly just Bible passages); except that these passages are from the RSV rather than the KJV (as in the book)
* * * * *
AUTHORITATIVE ORAL TRADITION (INCLUDING “WORD” AND “WORD OF GOD”) 


Matthew 13:19 
When any one hears the word of the kingdom and does not understand it, the evil one comes and snatches away what is sown in his heart; this is what was sown along the path.

Matthew 13:20 As for what was sown on rocky ground, this is he who hears the word and immediately receives it with joy; (other instances of “the word”: Matt 13:21-23; Mk 2:2; 4:14-20,33; Lk 1:2; 8:12-13,15; Jn 1:1,14 [of Jesus]; Jn 14:24; Acts 6:4; 8:4; 11:19; 14:25; 16:6; Gal 6:6; Eph 5:26; Col 4:3; 1 Pet 3:1)

Luke 5:1 While the people pressed upon him to hear the word of God, he was standing by the lake of Gennes’aret. (other instances of “word of God”: Lk 3:2; 8:11,21; Acts 6:2; 13:5,7,44,48; 17:13; 18:11; Rom 9:6; 1 Cor 14:36; Eph 6:17; Phil 1:14; Col 1:25; 1 Tim 4:5; 2 Tim 2:9; Titus 2:5; Heb 6:5; 13:7; 1 Jn 2:14; Rev 1:9; 20:4)

Luke 11:28 But he said, “Blessed rather are those who hear the word of God and keep it!”

Acts 4:4 But many of those who heard the word believed; and the number of the men came to about five thousand.

Acts 4:31 And when they had prayed, the place in which they were gathered together was shaken; and they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and spoke the word of God with boldness.

Acts 6:7 And the word of God increased; and the number of the disciples multiplied greatly in Jerusalem, and a great many of the priests were obedient to the faith.

Acts 8:14 . . . Sama’ria had received the word of God . . .

Acts 8:25 Now when they had testified and spoken the word of the Lord, they returned to Jerusalem, preaching the gospel to many villages of the Samaritans. (other instances of “word of the Lord”: Acts 15:36; 16:32; 19:10,20; 1 Thess 1:8; 4:15)

Acts 10:36-44 You know the word which he sent to Israel, preaching good news of peace by Jesus Christ (he is Lord of all), the word which was proclaimed throughout all Judea, beginning from Galilee after the baptism which John preached: how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power; how he went about doing good and healing all that were oppressed by the devil, for God was with him. And we are witnesses to all that he did both in the country of the Jews and in Jerusalem. They put him to death by hanging him on a tree; but God raised him on the third day and made him manifest; not to all the people but to us who were chosen by God as witnesses, who ate and drank with him after he rose from the dead. And he commanded us to preach to the people, and to testify that he is the one ordained by God to be judge of the living and the dead. To him all the prophets bear witness that every one who believes in him receives forgiveness of sins through his name. While Peter was still saying this, the Holy Spirit fell on all who heard the word.

Acts 11:1 Now the apostles and the brethren who were in Judea heard that the Gentiles also had received the word of God.

Acts 12:24 But the word of God grew and multiplied.

Acts 13:46 And Paul and Barnabas spoke out boldly, saying, “It was necessary that the word of God should be spoken first to you. Since you thrust it from you, and judge yourselves unworthy of eternal life, behold, we turn to the Gentiles.”

Acts 13:49 And the word of the Lord spread throughout all the region.

Acts 14:3 So they remained for a long time, speaking boldly for the Lord, who bore witness to the word of his grace, granting signs and wonders to be done by their hands. (cf. Acts 20:32: “word of his grace”)

Acts 15:7 And after there had been much debate, Peter rose and said to them, “Brethren, you know that in the early days God made choice among you, that by my mouth the Gentiles should hear the word of the gospel and believe.”

Acts 15:27 We have therefore sent Judas and Silas, who themselves will tell you the same things by word of mouth.

Acts 15:35 But Paul and Barnabas remained in Antioch, teaching and preaching the word of the Lord, with many others also.

Acts 17:11 Now these Jews were more noble than those in Thessaloni’ca, for they received the word with all eagerness, examining the scriptures daily to see if these things were so.

Romans 10:8 But what does it say? The word is near you, on your lips and in your heart (that is, the word of faith which we preach);

Romans 16:25 Now to him who is able to strengthen you according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery which was kept secret for long ages

1 Corinthians 1:18 For the word of the cross is folly to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God.

1 Corinthians 14:29-30 Let two or three prophets speak, and let the others weigh what is said. If a revelation is made to another sitting by, let the first be silent.

2 Corinthians 3:6 who has made us competent to be ministers of a new covenant, not in a written code but in the Spirit; for the written code kills, but the Spirit gives life.

Ephesians 1:13 In him you also, who have heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation, and have believed in him, were sealed with the promised Holy Spirit, (cf. 2 Tim 2:15: “word of truth”)

Philippians 2:16 holding fast the word of life, so that in the day of Christ I may be proud that I did not run in vain or labor in vain. (cf. 1 John 1:1: “word of life”)

Colossians 1:5 because of the hope laid up for you in heaven. Of this you have heard before in the word of the truth, the gospel

Colossians 3:16 Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly, teach and admonish one another in all wisdom, and sing psalms and hymns and spiritual songs with thankfulness in your hearts to God.

1 Thessalonians 1:6 And you became imitators of us and of the Lord, for you received the word in much affliction, with joy inspired by the Holy Spirit;

1 Thessalonians 2:13 And we also thank God constantly for this, that when you received the word of God which you heard from us, you accepted it not as the word of men but as what it really is, the word of God, which is at work in you believers.

In 1 Thessalonians “Scripture” or “Scriptures” never appear. “Word,” “word of the Lord,” or “word of God” appear five times (1:6,8, 2:13 [twice], 4:15), but in each instance it is clearly in the sense of oral proclamation, not Scripture.

2 Thessalonians 2:15 . . . stand firm and hold to the traditions which you were taught by us, either by word of mouth, or by letter.

2 Thessalonians 3:1 Finally, brethren, pray for us, that the word of the Lord may speed on and triumph, as it did among you,

2 Timothy 1:13-14 Follow the pattern of the sound words which you have heard from me . . . guard the truth which has been entrusted to you by the Holy Spirit who dwells within us.

2 Timothy 2:2 And what you have heard from me before many witnesses entrust to faithful men who will be able to teach others also.

2 Timothy 4:2 preach the word, be urgent in season and out of season, convince, rebuke, and exhort, be unfailing in patience and in teaching.

Hebrews 1:7 Remember your leaders, those who spoke to you the word of God; consider the outcome of their life, and imitate their faith.

Hebrews 2:1-4 Therefore we must pay the closer attention to what we have heard, lest we drift away from it. For if the message declared by angels was valid and every transgression or disobedience received a just retribution, how shall we escape if we neglect such a great salvation? It was declared at first by the Lord, and it was attested to us by those who heard him, while God also bore witness by signs and wonders and various miracles and by gifts of the Holy Spirit distributed according to his own will.

Hebrews 4:12 For the word of God is living and active, sharper than any two-edged sword, piercing to the division of soul and spirit, of joints and marrow, and discerning the thoughts and intentions of the heart.

Hebrews 5:13 for every one who lives on milk is unskilled in the word of righteousness, for he is a child.

James 1:18 Of his own will he brought us forth by the word of truth that we should be a kind of first fruits of his creatures.

James 1:22-23 But be doers of the word, and not hearers only, deceiving yourselves. For if any one is a hearer of the word and not a doer, he is like a man who observes his natural face in a mirror;

1 Peter 1:23 You have been born anew, not of perishable seed but of imperishable, through the living and abiding word of God;

1 Peter 1:25 “but the word of the Lord abides for ever.” That word is the good news which was preached to you.

1 Peter 2:8 . . . they stumble because they disobey the word, as they were destined to do.

2 Peter 1:19, 21 And we have the prophetic word made more sure. You will do well to pay attention to this as to a lamp shining in a dark place, until the day dawns and the morning star rises in your hearts. . . . no prophecy ever came by the impulse of man, but men moved by the Holy Spirit spoke from God.

1 John 1:5 This is the message we have heard from him and proclaim to you, that God is light and in him is no darkness at all.

1 John 2:7 Beloved, I am writing you no new commandment, but an old commandment which you had from the beginning; the old commandment is the word which you have heard.

1 John 2:24 Let what you heard from the beginning abide in you. If what you heard from the beginning abides in you, then you will abide in the Son and in the Father.

1 John 3:11 For this is the message which you have heard from the beginning, that we should love one another,

2 John 1:6 And this is love, that we follow his commandments; this is the commandment, as you have heard from the beginning, that you follow love.

Revelation 1:2 who bore witness to the word of God and to the testimony of Jesus Christ, even to all that he saw.

Revelation 3:10 Because you have kept my word of patient endurance, I will keep you from the hour of trial which is coming on the whole world, to try those who dwell upon the earth.

Revelation 6:9 When he opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of those who had been slain for the word of God and for the witness they had borne;

 

NEW TESTAMENT ALLUSIONS TO AUTHORITATIVE ORAL TEACHING NOT RECORDED IN SCRIPTURE


Matthew 13:3 And he told them many things in parables, . . .

Matthew 28:20
 teaching them to observe all that I have commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, to the close of the age.

Mark 4:2
 And he taught them many things in parables, . . . . .

Mark 4:33
 With many such parables he spoke the word to them, as they were able to hear it;

Mark 6:34
 As he went ashore he saw a great throng, and he had compassion on them, because they were like sheep without a shepherd; and he began to teach them many things.

Luke 11:53
 As he went away from there, the scribes and the Pharisees began to press him hard, and to provoke him to speak of many things,

Luke 24:15-16, 25-27
 While they were talking and discussing together, Jesus himself drew near and went with them. But their eyes were kept from recognizing him. . . . And he said to them, “O foolish men, and slow of heart to believe all that the prophets have spoken! Was it not necessary that the Christ should suffer these things and enter into his glory?” And beginning with Moses and all the prophets, he interpreted to them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself.

John 16:12 
I have yet many things to say to you, but you cannot bear them now.

John 20:30
 Now Jesus did many other signs in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; (cf. Jn 21:25: “many other things which Jesus did”)

Acts 1:2-3
 until the day when he was taken up, after he had given commandment through the Holy Spirit to the apostles whom he had chosen. To them he presented himself alive after his passion by many proofs, appearing to them during forty days, and speaking of the kingdom of God. 

NEW TESTAMENT CITATIONS OF OLDER NON-BIBLICAL ORAL TRADITIONS

 

Matthew 2:23 And he went and dwelt in a city called Nazareth, that what was spoken by the prophets might be fulfilled, “He shall be called a Nazarene.”

This notion cannot be found in the Old Testament, yet it was passed down “by the prophets.” Thus, a prophecy, which is considered to be “God’s Word” was passed down orally, rather than through Scripture.

Matthew 7:12 So whatever you wish that men would do to you, do so to them; for this is the law and the prophets.

Matthew 23:2 The scribes and the Pharisees sit on Moses’ seat;

The phrase or idea of Moses’ seat cannot be found anywhere in the Old Testament. It is found in the (originally oral) Mishna, where a sort of “teaching succession” from Moses on down is taught.

1 Corinthians 10:4 and all drank the same supernatural drink. For they drank from the supernatural Rock which followed them, and the Rock was Christ.

The Old Testament says nothing about such miraculous movement, in the related passages about Moses striking the rock to produce water (Exodus 17:1-7; Numbers 20:2-13). But rabbinic tradition does.

2 Timothy 3:8 As Jannes and Jambres opposed Moses, so these men also oppose the truth, men of corrupt mind and counterfeit faith;

These two men cannot be found in the related Old Testament passage (Exodus 7:8 ff.), or anywhere else in the Old Testament.

James 5:17 Eli’jah was a man of like nature with ourselves and he prayed fervently that it might not rain, and for three years and six months it did not rain on the earth.

The reference to a lack of rain for three years is absent from the relevant Old Testament passage in 1 Kings 17.

1 Peter 3:19 in which he went and preached to the spirits in prison,

This is drawn from the Jewish apocalyptic book 1 Enoch (12-16).

Jude 9 But when the archangel Michael, contending with the devil, disputed about the body of Moses, he did not presume to pronounce a reviling judgment upon him, but said, “The Lord rebuke you.”

Jude 14-15
 It was of these also that Enoch in the seventh generation from Adam prophesied, saying, “Behold, the Lord came with his holy myriads, to execute judgment on all, and to convict all the ungodly of all their deeds of ungodliness which they have committed in such an ungodly way, and of all the harsh things which ungodly sinners have spoken against him.”

Direct quotation of 1 Enoch 1:9.

 

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2017-03-29T14:52:29-04:00

AugsburgConfession

[Lutheran] Augsburg Confession: session of 25 June 1530 (1630), by  Johann Dürr (1600-1663) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons

(11-22-11)

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Nathan Rinne is a friendly Lutheran theological adversary. Nathan’s latest reply — one portion of which I am now responding to –, is entitled, Round 2 with RC apologist Dave Armstrong: the unattractive body of Christ. His words will be in blue. I will be changing what I regard as excessive bolding in Nathan’s replies (harsh on the eyes) to italics.

On 28 November 2011, I revised some portions below due to a slight change in my thinking. Before, I contended that the old covenant system was defectible, whereas the new covenant Church was indefectible. Now — after seeing several arguments for indefectibility in the Old Testament in St. Francis de Sales’ book, The Catholic Controversy, — I have come to the position (more amenable to my understanding of development of doctrine) of indefectibility also being present in the old covenant (in a way more than just a “remnant”), yet in a far less profound and sweeping sense than in the new (due to the appearance of Jesus and the universal indwelling of the Holy Spirit among Christians).

* * * * *

. . . I drew the conclusion that persons can hold a legitimate, authoritative office in the Church by God’s will and yet teach falsely.

Yes, they certainly can. A bishop can teach wrong things; even be a heretic. There were hundreds of Arian and Monophysite bishops. A council can teach wrongly: the Robber Council of 449 is an example. Even, in our view, popes can both teach heresy and personally be heretics. We only think that if he attempts to proclaim a heresy as binding on the faithful, that God would prevent it. He is infallible under certain carefully defined circumstances. The ecumenical council is infallible if it proclaims, in legion with the pope, some teaching as binding and obligatory.

The problem with your view is that it proves too much: it takes out biblical requirements of indefectibility and the universal casual assumption in the New Testament that there is one doctrinal truth and one faith: not competing sectarian visions. The two aspects have to be balanced. We believe that our position on it incorporates all the relevant realities: human frailty and fallibility (which needs no proof!), and the other non-optional consideration of divine infallibility and guidance of the Church through God the Holy Spirit (John 14-16).

You say you believe in the indefectibility of the Church, too, but I retort that in order to do so, you have to change the definition of Church as always historically understood in apostolic and patristic and medieval Catholic Christianity. Thus, you have difficulties in ecclesiology. Protestantism is alwaysalways, internally incoherent and self-contradictory in the final analysis. There is no way out of it. You have to either forsake history or logic or consistent biblical exegesis at some point in order to hold any form of Protestantism.

I hate to put it in such crass terms, but that is what I sincerely believe, with all due respect to my brothers and sisters, whom I highly respect and esteem on an individual level, and to you (whose apologetic and analytical abilities I do respect). Lutheranism has, I think, less internal difficulties than any other Protestant view, save Anglo-Catholicism, but there are still severe difficulties, unable to be resolved. We’ll get to those, the longer we interact. :-) I’ve already debated many of them with other Lutherans.

There is no hostility here! Just a desire for the truth . . . 

Whatever I said to elicit this reply from you, it was (I know for sure) referring to hostile premises or opposing ideas, not personal hostility. There is (quite refreshingly) none of that from you, and none from my end, either: just a great theological conversation: a thing that ought to be possible for any and all Christians to do, but alas, it is sadly rare.

(is what I said above regarding Jesus’ seemingly contradictory stance towards the Pharisees as teachers of truth not interesting, and worthy of more thorough reflection?) . . . I simply wanted him to acknowledge “Jesus’ seemingly contradictory stance towards the Pharisees as teachers of the truth” (which yes, could have implications depending on how one views God working in the Church). . . .If he does not find the following response to his objections convincing at all, I would, first of all, like him to tell me why it has nothing to do with his failure to thoughtfully and carefully deal with (and produce an adequate explanation of) these simple and clear Biblical facts.  Because, you see, I think these facts of Scripture are lynch-pins to the whole of the case I have against him and the particular church of which he is a part.

It was quite worthy of response, which is why I devoted my last reply to it, with lots of substance for you to grapple with. I was delighted at the opportunity to strengthen the Catholic case on a key issue (as you say). I have proposed a way to resolve the seeming contradiction (that I don’t — like you — believe is really there). Now, your task is to propose a better solution, taking into account the relevant passages that I brought to bear. I found the entire topic a fascinating one to ponder. I think my explanation was quite thoughtful and careful and adequate. Now I hope you will grant me the same courtesy and not pass over my counter-argument. Then this dialogue can get very interesting indeed, and constructive, too.

OK, here’s my recap of the things he is talking about.  He says Irenaeus was a Roman Catholic because he believed in “episcopacy, apostolic succession, apostles’ choosing of bishops to succeed them, Roman primacy, the papacy”, etc.  I don’t deny that Irenaeus believed these things, but essentially ask “can any of this be proven from the Scriptures?” (it seems to me that they certainly cannot). 

It seems to me that they certainly can be so proven or strongly indicated at the very least (excepting Roman primacy, which is a post-biblical development, but clearly apostolic, starting right with St. Clement of Rome). I give much biblical argumentation for all the other elements on my Church and Papacy web pages. Apostolic succession is very straightforward, as seen particularly in the replacement of Judas with Matthias. Judas is even called a bishop! So it’s all right there: an apostle being replaced, and bishops as successors to the apostles.

What St. Irenaeus believed (agree or disagree with him), on the other hand, is a matter of historical record. I backed up my contentions about his beliefs from Protestant historians. It’s not rocket science. He was a thoroughgoing Catholic, and believed exactly what we would expect, in a Catholic outlook, at that point of time and development in the history of Church doctrine: not some kind of proto-Lutheran. What Protestants try to do is special plead and make out that the fathers were closer to their beliefs than ours, and it just isn’t the case. It’s a losing battle; a hopeless cause; fails miserably every time: even with good ol’ St. Augustine: every Protestant’s favorite Church father (who believed, e.g., in all seven Catholic sacraments). You can’t make a square peg fit into a round hole.

Further, I ask this because the Roman Catholic Church says that if these things aren’t believed, my particular church (LC-MS) is placing itself outside of the Church and salvation, which to me seems to me quite radical.

This is far more complex than you make out. We believe that Protestants are part of the Church in an imperfect manner, and that they can indeed be saved, since they have the true sacrament of baptism and believe many things in common with us. This was highly stressed at Vatican II and many ecumenical papal encyclicals and other papal statements since. If one knows for sure that the Catholic Church is the one true Church in its fullness: unique and set up by God, and rejects it, then we’d say they cannot be saved. God meets people where they are at. People who have never even heard of Jesus or the gospel can possibly be saved (Romans 2). We say that Protestants are simply wrong with regard to all these things you mention, which are strongly supported in the Bible itself, except for Roman primacy, which is secondary to the papacy, anyway, which is indicated by St. Peter’s leadership and many things said about him in the Bible.

What is “radical” are many statements about the Catholic Church made in the Book of Concord (following Luther’s anti-Catholic nonsense and hogwash), such as that we are the seat of antichrist, that we worship Baal in the Mass, and are rank idolaters and semi-Pelagians, etc. There are a host of falsehoods there. Example:

Apology of the Augsburg Confession [1531], Article XXIV: The Mass

Carnal men cannot stand it when only the sacrifice of Christ is honored as a propitiation. For they do not understand the righteousness of faith but give equal honor to other sacrifices and services. A false idea clung to the wicked priests in Judah, and in Israel the worship of Baal continued; yet the church of God was there, condemning wicked services. So in the papal realm the worship of Baal clings — namely, the abuse of the Mass . . . And it seems that this worship of Baal will endure together with the papal realm until Christ comes to judge and by the glory of his coming destroys the kingdom of Antichrist. Meanwhile all those who truly believe the Gospel should reject those wicked services invented against God’s command to obscure the glory of Christ and the righteousness of faith.

(The Book of Concord, translated and edited by Theodore Tappert, St. Louis: Concordia Publishing House / Muhlenberg Press, 1959, p. 268)

In addition to Irenaeus’ beliefs mentioned above, he also believed that all the things that the Apostles orally passed on to their successors (i.e. the “Apostolic deposit”, the “Rule of Faith”) were in “agreement with the Scriptures” (his actual words).

Yes, so do I; so do all orthodox Catholics. That proves nothing with regard to our dispute about sola Scriptura. Protestants have the most extraordinarily difficult time grasping this. You seem to think it is some big “score” for your side, when the fact of the matter is that we are entirely in agreement, so that it is useless for you to point this out at all. It’s like saying, “we believe that the sun goes up!” There is no need to state the obvious that all agree upon. All this shows is that, apparently, you think for some reason that Catholics would deny that our doctrines are in complete harmony with Holy Scripture. Else, why bring it up at all?

Therefore, if these things Irenaeus mentions cannot be found in the Scriptures, either explicitly or implicitly, how should we react to such beliefs (given his other stated beliefs)? 

You should reject them (so should I). I strongly deny that they are not found there.

I suggest that Jerome, writing in the 4th c., gives us a good clue about what is really happening here: things like distinctions between bishops and presbyters are by human, not divine rite. They are arrangements that pastors, working together and led by the Holy Spirit, came up with in their times to effectively order the Church for the sake of order, love, and unity. To say that this is a matter that determines whether a particular church is “truly Church” seems very wrong, to say the least. 

The distinctions are clearly laid out in Scripture itself. I go through them, particularly, in my chapter, “The Visible, Hierarchical, Apostolic Church,” which is part of my book, A Biblical Defense of Catholicism.

I suggest that had Ireneaus actually had to think about these things (in his context he didn’t) he would side with my particular church, not Rome.

I suggest that he wouldn’t have. All the many novel and heretical things that Luther introduced would have been foreign to his very categories of thought.

. . . even a great like Saint Augustine talked about how he, in his conflicts with the heretics, consistently came across fathers who had spoken carelessly, or not as circumspectly as they should have – and he tried to cover their errors. 
 For example, before Pelagius, many fathers had spoken quite loosely about free will, not seeing original sin as the horrible contagion that it was.  It was only after this error drove Augustine back to the Scriptures that he was able to look upon the writings of the Fathers – with new eyes – and to see how badly they had erred. 

That’s all quite true. Original sin developed slowly. True doctrine is always clarified in disputes with heretics. Cardinal Newman noted that there was more of a consensus in the fathers for purgatory than for original sin. This poses no difficulty for our position. Christology, after all, developed slowly, too (for at least another two hundred years after Augustine, working through the natures and wills of Christ. So did the canon of Scripture and Mariology and the communion of saints. Protestants arbitrarily cherry-pick some things (canon — minus the deuterocanon — original sin, Christology), and reject others (Mariology, intercession and invocation and veneration of saints, purgatory), but all of these developed slowly for hundreds of years. Lutheranism developed so extremely slowly that it took almost 1500 years to appear at all. :-)

Therefore, like Noah’s children covered him in his nakedness, Augustine covered their errors as much as he could while at the same time trying not to being dishonest about what they had actually said.  The Lutherans were simply following in Augustine’s train.  

You guys rejected some of his (and Luther’s) more extreme predestinarian views just as we did. But he was not a Calvinist, either, despite what the Calvinists vainly try to argue. Luther was more of a Calvinist than Augustine ever was, in terms of predestination and free will.

. . . sometimes the church only gradually comes to realize that some of the doctrines it would never have thought to wonder about (i.e. is this doctrine really important or not), it does come to wonder about when people begin to misuse it in some way – and then it can [quite readily] be determined to be essential or non-essential.  

I agree, excepting those doctrines which are essential but which Lutherans (along with many other Protestants) wrongly deny are essential. Doctrines develop, but if they are part of the apostolic deposit, they can never be “demoted” to non-essential or optional status.

I hope this makes it more clear why, when it comes to the Rule of Faith and the development of doctrine, that it is not always useful to simply focus on the quotations of the fathers.You see, I submit that there are other concrete facts that are even more important – that trump whatever this or that father may have said (I am not saying that they are not important!). These facts suggest a different story, an alternative narrative to the one that Dave has. 

It all depends on what one wants to talk about. The historical and biblical arguments in favor of doctrines are distinct. Chemnitz (the original impetus for our discussions)  talked about Church fathers, so I did, too, because he stated many factual errors in that regard. For the Protestant, they can always ditch what any father says, or what all (or nearly all) of them hold in consensus, if they wish, because for them there is no infallible authority except Scripture.

Now, above, you have said that the promises made to the New Testament Church are of a fundamentally different nature than those made to the Assembly of the Israelites.  To say the least, that is far from obvious. 

What is so difficult to grasp about my statement, “The Old Testament proto-Church did not have the Holy Spirit and express promises from God that it would be protected and never defect”? This is rather straightforward and plain. The Holy Spirit was only given to select individuals in the old covenant: but now to every baptized Christian and in greater measure to Church leaders. There are promises of indefectibility, too (that I have collected), that go even further than what was present in kernel form in the old covenant. For example:

Matthew 16:18 And I tell you, you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the powers of death shall not prevail against it.

This is the Church: Jesus’ Church, headed by Peter and his successors the popes: not just a tiny remnant. What remains constant in the old covenant is God’s mercy towards his always-straying children, and holding to His covenants despite their rebelliousness. Hence we have the notion of remnant that you often bring up. But that is distinct from institutional indefectibility (that is also present in the old covenant, though less dramatically than in the new). That is simply a few followers who remain true, whereas in the new covenant, the positive promise is that the truth and the apostolic deposit (of which it is Guardian) will never depart from the Church. It would be like the two or three high level pro-life Democrats that still exist as a tiny remnant of what once was. That’s your remnant idea. In our view (to follow the analogy) the entire party (in its platform) remains on the right path, and isn’t reduced to just a few people of a once-great corporate assembly.

The Church is also obviously after Jesus, and He is with us as well, which makes it doctrinally protected all the more (Matthew 28:20: “I am with you always, to the close of the age”). It’s quite ironic that Protestants accuse us of being stuck in Pharisaical legalism and works-righteousness, yet in the present discussion you are maintaining that the new covenant is not all that different from the old, and I am maintaining that it is quite far beyond the old, and that Catholicism is the fullness of the development of a Church and the new covenant and Christian post-pentecostal age (developed from the previous old covenant system). You’re defending the virtual identity of the old system with the Christian one in the sense of ecclesiology; I am saying that the new covenant “new wineskins” are far more advanced.

I think the default conclusion of any reader of the Bible as a whole will be that we are dealing with continuity here,. . . 

Let me be more specific: I think (with you) that there is continuity (I believe in development of doctrine), but I think it is a huge leap from the OT assembly to the NT Church because of the elements I have been discussing. Insofar as there is consistent continuity, the analogy is far more towards the Catholic Church rather than to Lutheranism.

The stronger nature of institutional indefectibility is the striking development in ecclesiology after Jesus. Previous to that time, the Bible was regarded as an unchanging truth, but not assemblies of men, so much. Rather, infallibility was isolated, in the form of prophets, who brought God’s message in a profound way. They are analogous in some important ways to popes, whereas Lutherans have no such authority figures anymore and go back to infallible and/or binding books alone, as in the old covenant: Bible, Book of Concord.

and I think that you need to demonstrate that the promises to the New Testament church suggest more discontinuity with the Old Testament Church than they do continuity (or at least define well the difference in continuity). 

I don’t think it is more discontinuity than continuity (according to development of doctrine), but I hold that the protections of infallibility and indefectibility in the new covenant, in the (institutional, historical, hierarchical, visible) Catholic Church, are more extraordinary and wide-ranging than in the old covenant.

I go by Romans 1, which talks about going from faith to faith, from first to last.  The Bible is fundamentally the story of God calling His people and giving them promises by His Spirit to keep them strong in the faith.

I don’t disagree with any of that. It is neither here nor there in relation to our particular dispute at present. I would simply say again, that Protestants have less faith than Catholics, because we believe that God can preserve institutions (His Church) as well as Bibles and individuals. That takes more faith. We have that; you do not, because you deny the very possibility. I think Protestantism suffers greatly from that deficiency because it tends to a-historicism, anti-institutionalism, and excessive individualism: all things that run counter to the biblical worldview.

If the institution of religious leadership even in the old covenant was indefectible, so that there was never a time that Israel lacked true, obedient leaders altogether (more on that below, near the end), how much more so should we expect this to be the case in the new covenant?

Note that the Church (or Assembly) of the Old Testament also had specific promises about the temple that “God wills to dwell there forever” (also see Deut. 16:2; 2 Chron. 6:2; Neh. 1:9; Isa. 31:9; Isa. 59:21 ; Jer. 31:36-37, 40, etc.).

God in fact didn’t dwell in the temple forever, and the temple (three different buildings) was destroyed three times: by the Babylonians and the Romans twice [ . . . ]. In the old covenant, God’s presence also appears to be far more conditioned upon obedience. For example:

Ezekiel 13:8 Therefore thus says the Lord God: “Because you have uttered delusions and seen lies, therefore behold, I am against you, says the Lord GOD”.

Malachi 3:7 From the days of your fathers you have turned aside from my statutes and have not kept them. Return to me, and I will return to you, says the LORD of hosts.

That’s not the case in the new covenant, with all the promises of the gates of hell not prevailing against the Church and His presence in Christians in perpetuity.  The Bible actually describes God and the “glory of the Lord” or the shekinah presence departing from the temple, prior to its destruction:

Ezekiel 8:6 And he said to me, “Son of man, do you see what they are doing, the great abominations that the house of Israel are committing here, to drive me far from my sanctuary? But you will see still greater abominations.”

Ezekiel 11:23 And the glory of the LORD went up from the midst of the city, and stood upon the mountain which is on the east side of the city. (cf. 9:3; 10:4, 18-19)

Getting back to your prooftexts, God is said to dwell in Jerusalem forever (1 Chr 23:25) but that is not the temple, and hence, not an institution analogous to the Church. Deut 16:2 says God will dwell at a certain “place,” but it doesn’t say it will be forever. Solomon says in another of your texts, “I have built thee an exalted house, a place for thee to dwell in for ever” (2 Chr 6:2), but this doesn’t prove that God always will do so. Ezekiel 8:6 and 11:23 show that He did not in fact always dwell there, and three destroyed temples make that obvious, anyway, I should think. Right now a mosque stands where the temple stood, so if God is still there “forever” it is in the shrine of a false religion.

Nehemiah 1:9 proves my point (thanks!): God’s presence is directly dependent on obedience: “if you return to me and keep my commandments . . .” Therefore it is not unconditional as the new covenant indefectibility of the Church is. Isaiah 31:9 doesn’t mention the temple at all. Isaiah 59:21 is better, but it is still conditional on behavior, as seen in the preceding verse: “to those in Jacob who turn from transgression.”

Jeremiah 31:36-37 is in the context of the announcement of the new covenant (31:31-34). This in and of itself proves that the new covenant is vastly superior to (though a development of) the old, because it foretells the indwelling (31:33), and God can be with His people forever precisely because He forgives their sin once and for all (31:34). The indwelling in turn is made possible by the sacrifice of Christ (Jn 14:16-20; 15:26; 16:7, 13). Jeremiah 31:40 is not about the temple.

And note especially Leviticus 24 [should be 26]11 I will make my dwelling among you, and my soul shall not abhor you. 12 And I will walk among you and will be your God, and you shall be my people.”   That seems pretty firm and unconditional taken by itself, but of course we know that we need to take these words in the context of the whole narrative, including the other words that were spoken to them as well. 

This is yet another conditional promise, so it is not a full analogy to the more advanced indefectibility of the Catholic Church: “If you walk in my statutes and observe my commandments and do them, then. . .” (Lev 26:3-4a). Then 26:14 states: “if you will not hearken to me, and will not do all these commandments,. . .” followed by a horrible list of judgments (26:16-43). So this is a stranger “prooftext” for you to cite.

What you don’t seem to realize is that this is not the case in the new covenant and Church Age. The promises are unconditional. God will do what He promises regarding protection of the Church and her doctrine: “the powers of death shall not prevail against” the Church (Matt 16:18); period. It’s not based on obedience. God brings it to pass. End of story. “I am with you always, to the close of the age” (Matt 28:20); no conditions again. It’s an absolute statement. God wills and declares and promises it, so it will happen, and cannot not happen.

Peter falters and denies Christ three times, but after he is filled with the Holy Spirit it is a different story. Jesus prays for him in a special way because he is the leader of the Church: “I have prayed for you that your faith may not fail” (Lk 22:32); and indeed it doesn’t, after Pentecost. This is a type and shadow of papal infallibility, as is being given the keys of the kingdom (Matt 16:19): only given to Peter; and all the implications of that (rightly understood, in light of its OT precursors). All of this goes to show that your attempted analogy between old covenant disobedience and unfaithfulness and the Church (because of the greater protection of and promises to the Church), doesn’t fly.

We know later on in the story, Jeremiah reproaches those who appeal to the promises about the temple of the Lord (“the temple of the Lord!  The temple of the Lord!”) for “trusting the words of a liar” (Jer. 7:8)  As Gerhard says: “Promises only pertain to those who allow the Word of God to rule them, who look to the Law and the testimony [Isaiah 8:20]; and who teach, judge and act according to the norm of the divine Word (161, On the Church)”.

Yes; that is exactly right with regard to the old covenant, but not the new covenant, with regard to promises made about the Church and its guardianship of truth and the one true faith: “the church of the living God, the pillar and bulwark of the truth” (1 Tim 3:15). God Himself protects the doctrine of the Church from being corrupted. This is the entire point. If it were left up to men, this wouldn’t happen, but when God wants something done (in this case, preservation of true doctrine and theology and moral teaching), it is done. Gerhard, I guess, doesn’t know that things have been greatly strengthened with the new covenant. If you follow his line of reasoning, you’ll be wrong, too, and miss the glorious truths that the New Testament is teaching on this score.

So, due to the widespread corruption in His Church in the O.T., did the Lord forsake His people and abandon his heritage (see Psalm 94:14)?  Did the gates of hell prevail against the Old Testament Church – was God not with them [even until the end of the age…]?  Things got pretty rough, but persons like Mary, Simeon, Anna, Zechariah, Elizabeth and Nathaniel would suggest that the gates of hell did not prevail and God did not leave them or forsake them – He preserved His remnant through those who were faithful

He remained with the remnant of the faithful, and also with a select few of the leaders: the priests and Levites and the scribes and Pharisees and Sadducees. But you have to redefine the Church in order to maintain your “new covenant remnant” view: as if the Church could be reduced to a few people here and there, like the survivors of a nuclear war, or the last dinosaur before extinction set in. This is not New Testament language regarding the Church. The Church is present even in the churches of Revelation that Jesus rebukes for many serious sins.

For example, the “church of Pergamum” (Rev 2:12) — note how Jesus Himself still calls it a church — , has members that even hold to false doctrine (“you have some there who hold the teaching of Balaam, . . . you also have some who hold the teaching of the Nicola’itans” — 2:14-15). This goes against your contention that those who have false doctrine immediately lose the title of “church”. Jesus Himself refutes you. It couldn’t be any clearer.

But now, given that Hebrews tells us that God has always gathered an Assembly for Himself by causing people to look in faith to the Promised Messiah (Hebrews 11) – even through horrendous persecutions where God, though fully faithful, seemed to have abandoned His people – what justification do you have for suggesting that the Church has fundamentally changed?

Hebrews 11 is about individuals of great faith, not (technically) the old covenant religious system. Moses (of those listed) was a religious leader. [ . . . ] One might argue that he taught falsely in a sense, by implying that he could perform miracles by his own power, not God’s: “Hear now, you rebels; shall we bring forth water for you out of this rock?” (Num 20:10). God had told him to merely speak to the rock (20:8), but he struck it twice (20:11), leading God to rebuke him: “you did not believe in me, to sanctify me in the eyes of the people” (20:12). For this reason, both he and Aaron were not allowed to enter the Promised Land (20:12; Dt 34:4). But this is much more so a moral lapse than a false teaching, thus, there remains an analogy to the indefectibility of the Church.

The prophets are the most analogous to the infallibility of popes, as I have argued in my new book against sola Scriptura. But they were not part of the religious system; they were outside of it: usually rebuking the corrupt people in it. The difference in the new covenant is that God promises to protect the institutional system of the Church from error (“it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us” — Acts 15:28: the Jerusalem Council). The Church is a far more spiritually advanced entity.

…those who persecuted Micah, Elijah, and Jeremiah, for example, could have said (and in some cases did say) similar things.  [as were said by the Church to Luther]

That’s correct. But they didn’t have the promise of Christ of indefectibility, whereas the Catholic Church, an institution with an unbroken history and succession back to the apostles and Christ, did have that. Nor was Luther a prophet, as those men were.

I had challenged you, stating:

Show me in the Bible where there is ever such a thing as a mere layperson disagreeing doctrinally with a leader in the Church based on Bible reading and thereby being justified in his dissent and schism by that method? I say it isn’t there.

But here I need only point out how John the Baptist and our Lord Himself were not formally recognized or ordained by the religious hierarchy of the N.T. Church, as the Pharisees, who served on the council, were. The hierarchy even asked John by what right he said the things he did. 

This doesn’t overcome my argument and position because this is not yet the Church. There was no Church till Pentecost, after the death of both John and Jesus and the coming of the Holy Spirit. Jesus couldn’t be “ordained” by the “N.T. Church” because it didn’t yet exist. Therefore, this proves nothing. They were rejected by the old covenant religious system.

And now that I have established an alternative narrative account that I do not think you can deny,  . . . 

Surprise! I eagerly look forward to your answers to all the material I have come up with.

* * *

In fact, the Bible predicts that in the Last Days, the church will not look glorious at all, but will be beleagered on all sides… (see Matthew 24:24, Luke 18:8, 2 Thes 2:3-4). 

Matthew 24:24 For false Christs and false prophets will arise and show great signs and wonders, so as to lead astray, if possible, even the elect.

Individuals will be led astray in great numbers (sounds like today!). This says nothing about the institutional Church, or magisterium, and so is irrelevant to the question of indefectibility, which has to do with the Church, not individual Christians.

Luke 18:8 I tell you, he will vindicate them speedily. Nevertheless, when the Son of man comes, will he find faith on earth?

Ditto. Widespread apostasy of men doesn’t prove that the Church has forsaken and failed in her God-given and divinely-guided mission. The text simply doesn’t say that.

2 Thessalonians 2:3-4 Let no one deceive you in any way; for that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of perdition, [4] who opposes and exalts himself against every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, proclaiming himself to be God.

This is closer to what you need to show but still doesn’t by any means prove defectibility. It’s somewhat like the times when popes were held prisoner, or the horrors of the French Revolution or the English so-called “Reformation” with its wholesale butcheries (ripping people’ hearts out of their bodies, etc., simply for being Catholics) and Leninist-like repression. The Church didn’t cease to exist because this was the case, and strong-arm tactics used to suppress the head of the Church, or the entire institutional Church, as the case may be. Peter and Paul (and St. Thomas More and St. John Fisher) were martyred; the Church still existed. The structure (and the truth and apostolic deposit preserved in the Church) didn’t go into oblivion because of any persecution. The same will apply during the Last Days, no matter how bad it gets.

The seven churches of Revelation are again illustrative. Jesus (unlike the thrust of the “Reformers”) still calls them “churches” no matter how many sins He condemned in them. They didn’t lose or forfeit the category. And there is indication that at least some of these local churches will persevere through the last days; for example, the church in Philadelphia:

Revelation 3:10 Because you have kept my word of patient endurance, I will keep you from the hour of trial which is coming on the whole world, to try those who dwell upon the earth.

When He says “you” He is writing to the church, not one person.

. . . it’s just that such a Church can be a lot smaller than you might think.  

It may be very small in the end, but it is still there, preserving the truth. That’s the promise: essence and unbroken continuity, not size or appearance or influence or popular acclaim. But your champion Gerhard (as you cite him) wants to play games and equivocate: “It is one thing to say simply that the church is visible; it is another to say that it is visible to the world” (186). Right.

This reminds me of the Jehovah’s Witnesses ludicrous claim (made in desperation after false prophecies) that Jesus did return in 1914, but invisibly, not visibly. Likewise, for Gerhard, the Church will always be visible, but alas, not to the world. I trust that his other arguments are more impressive than this one. But in any event, it’s an absolutely classic case study of saying the right words (indefectibilityvisible Church), but redefining them according to one’s own fancies, over against traditional Catholic use. This is the trademark of heterodoxy and liberalism at all times. Rather than admit that things have essentially changed, it prefers word games and equivocations.

that said, I would add that God certainly intends for His Church to be visible and discernible before the world, for He desires all persons to be saved.

Good; so even you disagree with Gerhard. You’re right. Welcome to Catholic ecclesiology, in this respect.

 

It’s not a matter of what I (or anyone else) want or don’t want, but of what the New Testament everywhere casually assumes without argument, about the Church’s possession of the fullness of apostolic truth and doctrine. Belief that all this is so uncertain is one of the negative fruits of the relentless sectarianism of Protestantism. Because they can’t agree with each other, they start to pretend that Scripture sanctions their disagreements as of relatively little importance. This is sheer nonsense. The New Testament knows nothing of the “healthy diversity” of mutually contradictory doctrines. Falsehood is from the devil, period. Where logical contradiction exists, falsehood also must be present.

[Nathan has replied. I declined to counter-reply, for (mostly time-management) reasons explained on his site, but would like to engage in various other debates with him in the future]

* * * * *

Here are the biblical arguments from St. Francis de Sales’ book, The Catholic Controversy, that caused me to revise my position on the indefectibility of the old covenant institutional religious system (passages: RSV; all comments are his own, except for a few of my bracketed interjections):

Exodus 32:26 then Moses stood in the gate of the camp, and said, “Who is on the LORD’s side? Come to me.” And all the sons of Levi gathered themselves together to him.

Did not Aaron the High Priest adore the golden calf with all his people? [Protestant argument for complete defectibility] Answer: Aaron was not as yet High Priest, nor head of the people, but became so afterwards. And it is not true that all the people worshipped idols: — for were not the children of Levi men of God, who joined themselves to Moses? (pp. 60-61)

2 Chronicles 15:3 For a long time Israel was without the true God, and without a teaching priest, and without law;

Elijah lamented that he was alone in Israel (1 Ki 19:14) [“I, even I only, am left”]. Answer: Elijah was not the only good man in Israel, for there were seven thousand men who had not given themselves up to idolatry [1 Ki 19:18: “I will leave seven thousand in Israel, all the knees that have not bowed to Ba’al”], and what the Prophet says here is only to express better the justice of his complaint. It is not true again that if all Israel had failed, the Church would have thereby ceased to exist, for Israel was not the whole Church. Indeed it was already separated therefrom by the schism of Jeroboam; and the kingdom of Judah was the better and principal part; and it is Israel, not Judah, of which Azarias predicted that it should be without priest and sacrifice. (p. 61)

Isaiah 1:4-6 Ah, sinful nation, a people laden with iniquity, offspring of evildoers, sons who deal corruptly! They have forsaken the LORD, they have despised the Holy One of Israel, they are utterly estranged. [5] Why will you still be smitten, that you continue to rebel? The whole head is sick, and the whole heart faint. [6] From the sole of the foot even to the head, there is no soundness in it, . . .

. . . these are forms of speaking, and of vehemently detesting the vice of a people. And although the Prophets, pastors and preachers use these general modes of expression, we are not to understand them of each particular person, but only of a large proportion; as appears by the example of Elijah who complained that he was alone, notwithstanding that there were yet seven thousand faithful. [1 Ki 19:14, 18] S. Paul complains to the Philippians (2:21) that all seek their own interest and advantage; still at the end of the Epistle he acknowledges that there were many good people with him and with them. [4:10, 14-18] (p. 61)

***

2017-03-29T15:17:46-04:00

Cover (554x839)

(7-11-12)

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This one-star review on Amazon of my book, 100 Biblical Arguments Against Sola Scriptura was posted by a Matt, or Matthew (safely semi-anonymous, of course, so I can learn nothing else about the person). But we do know that he is a Protestant and proponent of sola Scriptura. The review is much more like a “limited rebuttal” of a few of the book’s arguments. His words will be in blue. I shall cite the entirety of his review in my counter-reply.

* * * * *

Truly a very confusing work.***

Truly a very confused and fallacious review . . .

I bought this mainly due to the fact that Mr. Armstrong actually list the position of Sola Scriptura with its true definition. Unfortunately his arguments didn’t reflect that.

***

This is important, because oftentimes, the sola Scriptura advocate will resort to the charge that the Catholic critic of it is merely fighting a straw man and has no clue whatsoever what he is talking about (and sometimes this is correct, but usually not). Matt takes a (rare) middle position: according to him I provided a correct definition in the Introduction (utilizing Protestants James White, Norman Geisler, and Keith Mathison), but failed to abide by or follow through with my own correct definition, in the subsequent arguments; so he thinks.

If I may list a few examples for the sake of review.***

I’m delighted that he does, since it provides me with an opportunity to interact with his criticisms and show that they miss the mark. For that I thank Matt, and appreciate it very much. A previous three-star review gave me very little I could interact with at all: just mushy generalities. Specifics in argument are great: get right down to brass tacks . . .

1.) His treatment of Galatians 1:8-9 totally missed the use of this verse. He says “In appealing to this verse, Protestants assume that the gospel received was in written form only; therefore, sola scriptura is normative.” This isn’t even remotely how the argument goes (Unless he received this information from laymen apologist).***

But he neglects to inform the reader that I also note three sentences later a second, more nuanced version of an argument from this passage, used by Protestants:

A more sophisticated version would contend that the gospel was originally preached, but later inscripturated in Paul’s letters, and that this would preclude Catholic traditions that are not explicitly (or, they say, implicitly) taught in the Bible. (p. 123)

The Argument is not to prove what armstrong claims but rather it is to show a clear example of Private interpretation rather than Rome’s claim to full submission of fallible Judgement to its pope and bishops.***

Clever. Sometimes it may be or is used in that particular form, sometimes not. The problem here is that there is no one set way that all these various prooftexts are used by Protestants. There may be a dozen significant variations for any one text used. No rule that gives the “official” gold-star interpretation or use a a sola Scriptura prooftext for any given one. The fact is that they are utilized variously, and the critic must necessarily narrow down a bit.

Thus I can accept that this other variation is out there, and needs to also be refuted. But it doesn’t affect the rightness or wrongness of the counter-argument that I made. I happened not to deal with that specific slant in my treatment, because I can’t do everything in this regard. Matt’s “demand” here is unreasonable. Surely it can’t be expected that I would deal with every conceivable variation of use of prooftexts in the Protestant world. They are innumerable. We Catholics have to confront them all (good, bad, or in-between arguments), when used against our positions.

But in any event, as an apologist I must deal with different uses in argument simply because they are “out there” and causing Catholics and Protestants to be wrongly persuaded in some respects. As it is, the reply to Protestant prooftexts was only a small portion and emphasis of the book: only 14 of the 100 arguments, and a mere 12 1/2 pages. The book of mine where the main purpose is to face Protestant arguments head-on are The Catholic Verses and Biblical Catholic Answers for John Calvin; not this one.

I also did a critique (half of a book) of William Whitaker (1548-1595). Yet all of Matt’s examples come from this section. That’s fine; he can write whatever he likes, and it is part of the book. I’m simply noting that this section is not by any means the main thrust of my book. It was almost an “addendum.”

Matt claims that this passage refutes the idea of “submission of fallible Judgement to its pope and bishops.” It does not, but I approached it from a different angle, as he notes. The vast majority of my book is devoted precisely to showing biblical indications for the binding authority of Church and tradition: i.e., those elements that Matt flatly denies above: especially in #61-83. I also wrote a separate book devoted to biblical arguments for an infallible Catholic Church and papacy. So I have done what he requires: just not in my reply to this particular Protestant prooftext.

Lastly, having clarified all these things, I will note an actual example of a prominent use of the text of Galatians 1:8-9 in a way contrary to how he claims it is normatively or usually used in Protestant circles (and in a fashion not unlike what I describe in my section on the passage). Even better, it comes from a source that he himself likes and recommends. In a panning review (one star again) of a book that actually defends sola Scriptura (but does so badly, according to Matt), he writes:

For those who are looking for a book that will teach you how to defend sola scriptura are best looking at books by Dr. James White, William Webster ect [sic] . . . Best critique of  Not by Scripture Alone [by Robert Sungenis] is found in David T King and William Webster’s book Holy Scripture: The Ground and Pillar of our Faith Vol 1-3 and Keith Mathison’s Shape of Sola Scriptura. [bracketed sections and italics and some capitals added]

I cite White and Mathison (along with Geisler) in my Introduction, for definitional purposes, which is why Matt liked that part of my book. But he likes Webster and King as well. I think they are both atrocious debaters when it comes to Catholicism (complete with many basic factual / historical  errors), and I’ve refuted Webster twice and King with regard to Blessed John Henry Cardinal Newman’s supposed “modernism” that he ridiculously alleged (all three critiques unanswered, of course).

But I happen to own the self-published King / Webster three-volume series (a former evangelical anti-Catholic, now atheist gave them to me). Vol. 1, written by David T. King deals with Galatians 1:8-9. Note how what he argues is almost exactly the position I was arguing against, and not the argument as Matt presents it:

Each [Chrysostom and Aquinas] restricts the gospel of Jesus Christ to that which is contained in Scripture. The theologians who constituted what is known as Tradition from the patristic and middle ages teach us that Scripture alone is the source of all truth. (p. 259; bracketed clarification mine)

The fact of the matter is that St. John Chrysostom is not a proponent of sola Scriptura at all, as I have shown in a refutation of King’s reasoning on that very point. Nor is St. Thomas Aquinas. Two pages later King says that Protestants teach that the Bible is “the ultimate source of appeal for all religious controversies.”

But Matt, on the other hand, goes on to claim regarding Galatians 1 that:

The argument is actually as follows: Paul tells us in this passage not to believe anyone who comes preaching a gospel that is different than that contained in the original apostolic deposit (Oral or Written is irrelevant for this argument). All we need to do is compare the original apostolic deposit to the teaching of any supposed religious authority to see if the message is the same.***

That’s not how King argued it. He doesn’t include authoritative oral tradition at all in his analysis. He is so radically “Scripture alone” that he claims (and absurdly contends that Aquinas claims) that Scripture Alone is the source of all truth — not merely the only infallible authority for Christians, which is what sola Scriptura means. Thus he shows himself to be an extremist and not a mainstream expositor of the sola Scriptura position. Yet Matt thinks he is one of the best defenders of it.

Paul is not asking us to submit our fallible judgement to the teachings of a magisterial religious authority, by using the phrase “even if we” paul places even the apostles themselves in the category of those to be rejected if their message does not match the original deposit. It is clear that paul assumes here that we would be engaging in private judgement and interpretation of the original gospel to test the authenticity of any rival gospel that may come along.

***

Matt is eisegeting here and projecting and superimposing his subjective Protestant traditions onto Scripture. Here is how Galatians 1:6-9 actually reads (RSV):

I am astonished that you are so quickly deserting him who called you in the grace of Christ and turning to a different gospel — [7] not that there is another gospel, but there are some who trouble you and want to pervert the gospel of Christ. [8] But even if we, or an angel from heaven, should preach to you a gospel contrary to that which we preached to you, let him be accursed. [9] As we have said before, so now I say again, If any one is preaching to you a gospel contrary to that which you received, let him be accursed.

Paul says nothing about “private judgment” in the sense that Matt and Protestants mean. He says nothing about a scenario in which mere laymen judge apostles and reject them. He simply says that if anyone preaches a different gospel (even supposed apostles or angels: since if they preached a false gospel, it would prove — strongly implied — they they were false apostles and demons), that they should be “accursed” for doing so.

None of this undermines Catholic authority or apostolic succession. Paul doesn’t say (as Protestants would love to be the case), “even if we, or an angel from heaven, should preach to you a gospel contrary to that which we preached to you, let him be judged by you and rejected as authorities.” None of that element is present at all. He simply places a curse on false prophets.

The rest of the idea of supposedly judging the very apostles is smuggled into the text and is nowhere present. It’s a typical piece of Protestant polemical eisegesis and man-made tradition, desperately utilized in order to oppose the Catholic and straightforward interpretation of the text and the slightest “Catholic” implication or conclusion. There was a hierarchy in the Church, and (binding, infallible) Church authority, though, that Paul references in the next chapter, where he recorded James, Peter, and John confirming the legitimacy of his apostolic calling and extending to him and to Barnabas “the right hand of fellowship” (2:1-10; cf. 1:18-19).

Thus I submit that Matt’s analysis of Galatians 1 and criticism of my treatment of Protestant use of it as a prooftext for sola Scriptura falls flat in multiple respects.

His treatment of 2 Timothy 3:16-17 will speak for itself. His argument is essentially that if Paul was actually making reference to sola scriptura then he contradicts himself in several places because he cites “oral tradition” three times to timothy throughout this letter.

***

That’s just a part of it. I mention several other factors, too, so I don’t quite buy that the “essence” of my argument was as he portrayed it. But what I stated in that respect was true: if Paul states that oral tradition is just as binding, that is already foreign to sola Scriptura; runs counter to it, since the view is that there is or can be no binding, infallible tradition or Church authority. A straightforward reading of Paul simply doesn’t give such an impression. But if people see only what they want to see, then it may appear (by viewing texts through that filter) that it does.

He list[s] three examples.***

First is 2 timothy 1:3 [Dave: should be 1:13-14] “Follow the pattern of the sound words that you have heard from me, in the faith and love that are in Christ Jesus. By the Holy Spirit who dwells within us, guard the good deposit entrusted to you.” Here’s the problem, this argument doesn’t contradict what Paul is saying in 2 Timothy 3:16-17.

I agree! They are perfectly harmonious, as I argue. What is contradictory, is smuggling in a meaning of sola Scriptura into the letter that isn’t there. It’s eisegesis (i.e., literally reading “into” Scripture rather than “out of” it). In other words,. oral tradition and written, biblical tradition are harmonious. The problem comes when Protestants try to deny authoritative, binding oral tradition as a category altogether. It’s impossible to read Paul’s letters as a whole and do such a thing. It amounts to radically selective acceptance, and making oneself the judge rather than accepting Paul’s entire teaching as it is.

Its important to note armstrong’s admission in the beginning that Sola Scriptura is not a denial that God’s word was at times orally proclaimed (Him quoting Dr. James White)

***

That’s correct. But this is a different thing from claiming that oral tradition is now null and void altogether as a legitimate carrier of apostolic truth. Protestants (including White, Mathison, and others who argue like them) want to claim that the category ended at some point in history and now we go by the Bible alone as the onl;y infallible authority. But that notion itself is not in the Bible, as I will show further below. It’s an arbitrary tradition of men.

If Paul’s words and writings are both the words of God (When under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit) (1 Thessalonians 2:13 and2 peter 3:16) then Paul’s instruction would be synonymous with 2 Timothy 3:16.***

His teaching is self-consistent; however, it is not synonymous with, or exclusively contained by that portion of it that later became Scripture (as determined by the Church and Tradition, in figuring out what was inspired and what wasn’t). The hidden assumption that Matt and Protestants make, is that all of what Paul taught by mouth was later included in Scripture. But they never prove this from the same Scripture. They simply assume it with no proof.

This is a very important point. What Catholics contend is that there are quite possibly other elements in tradition that are not explicitly laid out in Scripture. It doesn’t mean that they contradict Scripture (not at all); only that they are sources of binding authority that are separate from Scripture and not necessarily explicitly spelled out there. But Protestants want to argue (on no basis in Scripture) that this is not the case.

I quoted James White in my Introduction along these lines:

It is vitally important that the reader recognize that the Protestant position insists that all God intends for us to have that is infallible, binding, and authoritative today, He has already provided in the certain, clear, understandable, and reliable Scriptures. (The Roman Catholic Controversy; Minneapolis: Bethany House Publishers, 1996, p. 58)

This is simply not true, and is nowhere stated in Scripture. If it were, we can be sure that sola Scriptura proponents would cite a verse where this was taught, but they never do. It just doesn’t fly. Yet this is a key plank of the more “sophisticated” version of sola Scriptura that Protestants mistakenly think clears up all the biblical and logical difficulties inherent in the incoherent position.

So with that said Paul’s focus is on the content of his words not the oral nature of them.***

That’s true (but for different reasons than Matt supposes), because for Paul (unlike Protestants) whether his authoritative teaching came through preaching, talking, or writing, is absolutely irrelevant as to its truthfulness and binding nature.

The only way Mr. Armstrong would have a point is if he can prove that the Oral Teaching that Paul is referring to is separate from what one finds from Holy Scripture.

***

That’s obvious by common sense and logic, since whenever Paul refers to oral teaching, it is quite clear that this would include some teaching that did not later make it into Scripture. In one long night of discussion with Paul, he would probably say at least five times more words than what is included from him in Scripture. According to Paul, they would still carry the same authority. So to argue that Paul could never have taught anything in discussion — any idea or doctrine — that isn’t in the Bible or isn’t explicitly there, is, frankly, absurd and ridiculous. I submit that no one can possibly consistently defend such a hyper-implausible view. Therefore, there is oral teaching not contained in the New Testament. And it was binding and apostolic. But this is precisely what sola Scriptura (any form of it, including the most scholarly, nuanced, and sophisticated) denies.

When the Protestant thinks about teaching “separate” from Scripture he concludes that it is usually or often, “contradictory” to Scripture. Catholics think of it, on the other hand, as “twin fonts of the same divine wellspring”: harmonious with Scripture: just from a different source, as to how it was first received and passed down. This is in perfect accord with how Paul presents the matter. There is such a thing as an extrabiblical tradition that is in line with biblical teaching.

This is what the Church fathers taught. My book devoted to them has over 150 pages devoted to Bible, Tradition, and Church authority: mostly consisting of quotes from the fathers. They assuredly did not believe in sola Scriptura. Nor do King and Webster prove that they do. n Vol. III of the aforementioned set, they devote 130 pages devoted to the fathers and material sufficiency of Scripture.

But this is all beside the point, because most Catholics accept the notion (including myself, and e.g., St. Thomas Aquinas and Cardinal Newman), and are perfectly permitted to do so, though it is not a formal dogma. And it is not the main aspect of sola Scriptura, which is, rather, the formal sufficiency of Scripture. So Webster and King (almost humorously so) major on the non sequitur “minor” of material sufficiency, while devoting all of 14 pages to “the ultimate authority of Scripture”: which is still logically distinct from “formal authority”: the central, fundamental issue in the discussion.

They entitle their second section “The Formal Sufficiency of Scripture,” but they deal with secondary issues of perspicuity (clearness) and the alleged self-interpreting nature of Scripture: important components of sola Scriptura, but not in and of themselves proof that God intended the Bible to be the sole infallible authority. Besides, Catholics often agree in particulars that Scripture is clear and/or self-interpreting to a large extent, so many of those arguments carry no weight against our position.

The context of 2 Timothy 3:16 is clear that this is an instruction relating to the context of the future (After Paul’s soon departure) when false teachers will arise ( 2 Timothy 3:1-13) Paul at this moment is giving an instruction for that time.***

Ah; now we’re getting to the real heart of the discussion. Here is a claim that Paul is allegedly previewing or foreseeing a time when infallible oral proclamation will cease and no longer be binding, while Scripture will henceforth be the sole infallible authority in Christianity. This is exactly what needs to be established from Scripture, and never is.

David T. King, in his book (Vol. I) reiterates this groundless claim repeatedly. For example:

. . . Protestant Evangelicals do affirm the binding authority of apostolic tradition as delivered by the apostles. What they preached and taught in the first century Church was authoritatively binding on the consciences of all Christians. However, we reject Roman Catholic claims that extrabiblical, apostolic traditions have been preserved orally apart from the Scriptures. (pp. 55-56)

Non-Protestants assume (without proof) that what the apostles taught orally differed substantively from that which was later inscripturated. (p. 59)

. . . Protestants have always accepted apostolic teaching that was oral in nature and which preceded its inscripturation. But apostolic revelation which God desired to preserve has been inscripturated in its entirety. (p. 71)

Let’s look closely and see if the text actually teaches what Matt claims, or if this is merely more eisegesis and wishful thinking.

Yes, St. Paul talks about false teachers and decadence in 2 Timothy 3:1-9 but he never says that they should be opposed by the Bible as the only infallible authority, to the exclusion of oral authority (which is the claim, after all). He simply says “avoid such people” (3:5). He doesn’t say (anymore than in Galatians 1) that each atomistic Christian individual with Bible in hand will determine who is a heretic or not. None of this undermines Church authority or establishes sola Scriptura private judgment.

He mentions Jannes and Jambres as an authoritative piece of tradition in verse 8, which is fascinating, since this is not an Old Testament reference. I dealt with this passage in argument #13 in the book. So now Paul is supposedly making an (ultimately) “anti-traditional” argument in 2 Timothy 3:1-9, yet cites a prominent oral tradition in order to do so? That’s pretty odd, isn’t it? In 2 Timothy 3:14, he states:

But as for you, continue in what you have learned and have firmly believed, knowing from whom you learned it

See the “continue”? This doesn’t imply some radical change in the future in the principle of authority, but rather, the same as what was before. Timothy, and by extension, all Christians, are to “continue” to abide by the apostolic tradition that was received from St. Paul (“from whom”) as an oral proclamation. Paul is talking about what Timothy already knew before this letter. He is to continue in that tradition. He goes on to say that Scripture is part of that (of course it is), but it is not in a sense of being exclusively so, as if nothing besides Scripture is also authoritative. Paul in the same passage thought a Jewish tradition not recoded in the Old Testament was authoritative, and so he casually mentioned it as a fact.

(Since Sola Scriptura is not a position that applies during times of new revelation but to the normative conditions of the church) the same thing can be applied to the other two verses he cites (2 timothy 2:2 and 3:14).***

Is that so? We have seen how nothing Matt cited has established his premise in the first place: that once Scripture arrives, it is the sole infallible authority. That’s all man-made tradition. He then takes the false tradition and uses it to interpret other equally clear Bible passages (2 Timothy 2:2 and 3:14). But 1:13-14, 2:2, and 3:14 — all mentioned by me in the book as counter-texts to sola Scriptura all neglect to reference Scripture at all in the context of what true teaching consists of. 2 Timothy 3:16 does. All that proves is that both the Bible and Tradition have authority. Paul doesn’t pit them against each other as Protestants do. Sometimes one is mentioned; sometimes the other is. What it doesn’t prove is that only Scripture possesses such infallible authority.

I conclude that the entire argument falls to pieces, since it is radically circular:

1. After the apostolic period, the Bible alone is the only infallible authority. [Matt’s contention]

2. This notion is not in the Bible itself, as shown; thus it is a man-made tradition.

3. Moreover, if it is not in the Bible, it isn’t infallible, since only the Bible is that, according to sola Scriptura.

4. If it’s not infallible, any Christian believer has the perfect right and duty to reject it, by private judgment.

5. Only things that are clearly taught in the Bible, the sole infallible authority, are binding upon Christians.

6. If indeed it can’t be established by this criterion that  the Bible alone is the only infallible authority after the apostolic period, then one is equally justified (from a consistent Protestant perspective) in holding the opposite, fallible position that tradition or the Church are also authoritative (since neither is proven in the Bible, according to the Protestant view). If views are constructed without biblical sanction, then one is as good as the other.

Etc., etc. One could attack it from any number of angles, but it is always — always — the case that the Protestant employs circular and self-defeating reasoning where sola Scriptura is concerned. One simply has to analyze it deeply enough.

His treatment of John 20:30-31 is probably the best example of his lack of dealing with the actual arguments.

***

Excellent! So if I dismantle his criticism of supposedly my worst argument, and if even my “worst” can’t be defeated by his analysis, then I’m in great shape!

He says the following “The Bible communicates the gospel that saves. This doesn’t prove the principle of sola scriptura. It doesn’t exclude the Church or Tradition (or any Catholic distinctive).” Again Mr. Armstrong does not understand the argument. Protestants use John 20:30-31 to prove the material sufficiency (The bible contains all NECESSARY doctrine for salvation) since John himself says “But these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, So by believing you may have life in his name.” If what was contained in John was sufficient for salvation then how much more is for the rest of the NT? For the record Mr. Armstrong does not deny the material sufficiency of Scripture.

***

Fair enough. Indeed, this is one way to go about it. But as noted above, Catholics have no dogmatic beef with material sufficiency, so this particular tack doesn’t oppose us in any serious sense: to assert it of one Bible passage or many.  One can be saved (in the end) as a result of reading the truths of Scripture and accepting them and deciding to be a true follower of the Savior and redeemer Jesus. No Catholic would disagree with this.

But note that saying, “one can be saved by Bible-reading” or “all that is necessary for salvation is in Scripture” does not logically contradict or preclude a possibility of being saved in some other way. This is why the prooftext fails. One could become a serious Christian and undergo conversion of heart and life as a result of a vision from an angel or a tragedy that makes them reach out to God, or the sharing or example of a Christian friend, or an uplifting Christian movie; any number of things. To assert that “x can be achieved as a result of y“: where y is the Bible and x, salvation, is not to also assert, “x can only be achieved as a result of y“. This is the fallacy. The Bible asserts the former, but not the latter, and the latter is what it would have to teach in order for Matt’s argument to succeed in the way he wishes.

My friend Lane Core, in an excellent critique of sola Scriptura, makes other interesting observations about the passage:

First, verse 30 specifically refers to “this book.” Centuries would go by before the New Testament scriptures were all assembled in a single compilation, so “this book” refers only to the Gospel of John. Therefore, those who appeal to John 20:30-31 as a definition of the rule of faith [or as an example of material sufficiency] must take the Gospel of John alone as their rule of faith — lest they be violating the very scripture they are quoting.

Second, verse 31 specifically mentions the purpose of what is written: that we may believe that Jesus of Nazareth is the Christ, the Son of God. Therefore, those who appeal to this passage as a mandate of Sola Scriptura must restrict their beliefs to nothing more than “Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God” — lest, again, they be violating this scripture to which they appeal. [bracketed comment added presently]

In one sense it is a distinction without a difference. The whole end-purpose of the Christian life is to be saved and to go to heaven.The Protestant asserts two things:

1. Scripture is the only infallible source of authority in the Christian life [sola Scriptura].

2. Scripture is materially sufficient for the purpose of salvation [material sufficiency].

But what is the goal of the Christian life? Salvation, of course. If Matt claims that John 20:30-31 is used primarily for the purpose of proving material sufficiency of Scripture (that most Catholics agree with), it’s still not that different from proposition 1 above. Catholics agree with #2 as well (in terms of revelation; salvation technically comes through Jesus and grace, regeneration, justification, etc.). All we disagree on is whether the Bible is exclusively sufficient for that purpose. It’s the same argument regarding #1. We deny the exclusivity of Scripture in both senses, and Protestants largely disagree.

As an example of how the two notions are closely related, note how anti-Catholic polemicist Michael Scheifler argues, after stating that “the Bible contains everything you need to come to a saving faith”:

John speaks of some of what Jesus did as being unrecorded, signs, miracles, etc., but does not even hint at unrecorded doctrines essential for salvation, in fact he adequately refutes such a notion. So, rather that having a hole (21:25) big enough to drive a truck through (filled with unbiblical doctrines), the book of John completely closes off any attempt to introduce spurious doctrines under the guise of Tradition (20:30-31).

In other words, “no extra-biblical tradition allowed.” Scripture is the only infallible authority, or sola Scriptura, as opposed to material sufficiency alone. Insofar, then, as #2 is not all that different from #1, specifically in terms of what the discussion is with regard to the truth or falsity of sola Scriptura, to say that John 20:30-31 only has to do with #2 within the framework of the overall Protestant polemic, is not to assert anything all that different from #1, once the background premises are taken into account. It’s the “either/or” or “dichotomous” or “exclusivistic” mindset that Catholics (and the Bible) oppose.

This is only a small example of the errors in this book.***

I hope Matt will emerge, show himself and continue the discussion. I’d be delighted to grapple with more of his arguments.

It is obvious that Mr. Armstrong did not deal with the best works on the subject in writing this book.***

Really? Mathison, White, Geisler, Webster, King, William Whitaker, Chemnitz, Luther, Calvin, were not enough? I have read them on this topic, and sometimes (with, e.g., Whitaker) engaged them at great length. I did not intend to directly refute them in this particular book. But I know the arguments, having written about and debated this topic far more than any other for 21 years now, and with two books devoted to it, and one-third of yet another book of mine, as well as portions of several others.

This Books would get two stars for effort if there was any effort put into this book unfortunately that doesn’t seem to be the case.***

I’ll be glad (as always) to let fair-minded readers decide where the truth lies in this debate. I do thank Matt for this opportunity to construct a number of arguments: some of them ones I haven’t thought of before. I think it’s wonderful. The case against sola Scriptura gets stronger every time one deals with the topic, and this “pillar” of the so-called “Reformation” continues to be (with great irony) one of the weakest and most unbiblical of the false doctrines that we believe are present in Protestantism, alongside (blessedly) many true and good ones.

* * *

2017-04-03T16:34:23-04:00

SacramentsPainting
Seven Sacraments (Detail), by Rogier van der Weyden (c. 1400-1464) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]
(9-25-10)

1) St. Augustine [354-430] believed in the Real Presence of Jesus Christ in the Holy Eucharist:

I promised you [new Christians], who have now been baptized, a sermon in which I would explain the sacrament of the Lord’s Table. . . . That bread which you see on the altar, having been sanctified by the word of God, is the body of Christ. That chalice, or rather, what is in that chalice, having been sanctified by the word of God, is the blood of Christ.

(Sermons 227 [A.D. 411])

What you see is the bread and the chalice; that is what your own eyes report to you. But what your faith obliges you to accept is that the bread is the body of Christ and the chalice is the blood of Christ. This has been said very briefly, which may perhaps be sufficient for faith; yet faith does not desire instruction.

(Ibid., 272)

2) He held to baptismal regeneration:

It is an excellent thing that the Punic [North African] Christians call baptism salvation and the sacrament of Christ’s body nothing else than life. Whence does this derive, except from an ancient and, as I suppose, apostolic tradition, by which the churches of Christ hold inherently that without baptism and participation at the table of the Lord it is impossible for any man to attain either to the kingdom of God or to salvation and life eternal? This is the witness of Scripture too.

(Forgiveness and the Just Deserts of Sin, and the Baptism of Infants 1:24:34 [A.D. 412])

The sacrament of baptism is most assuredly the sacrament of regeneration.

(Ibid., 2:27:43)

Baptism washes away all, absolutely all, our sins, whether of deed, word, or thought, whether sins original or added, whether knowingly or unknowingly contracted.

(Against Two Letters of the Pelagians 3:3:5 [A.D. 420])

This is the meaning of the great sacrament of baptism, which is celebrated among us: all who attain to this grace die thereby to sin—as he himself [Jesus] is said to have died to sin because he died in the flesh (that is, ‘in the likeness of sin’)—and they are thereby alive by being reborn in the baptismal font, just as he rose again from the sepulcher. This is the case no matter what the age of the body. For whether it be a newborn infant or a decrepit old man—since no one should be barred from baptism—just so, there is no one who does not die to sin in baptism. Infants die to original sin only; adults, to all those sins which they have added, through their evil living, to the burden they brought with them at birth.

(Handbook on Faith, Hope, and Love 13[41] [A.D. 421])

3) He adhered to the sacrament of confession (reconciliation) and absolution and penance:

When you shall have been baptized, keep to a good life in the commandments of God so that you may preserve your baptism to the very end. I do not tell you that you will live here without sin, but they are venial sins which this life is never without. Baptism was instituted for all sins. For light sins, without which we cannot live, prayer was instituted. . . . But do not commit those sins on account of which you would have to be separated from the body of Christ. Perish the thought! For those whom you see doing penance have committed crimes, either adultery or some other enormities. That is why they are doing penance. If their sins were light, daily prayer would suffice to blot them out. . . . In the Church, therefore, there are three ways in which sins are forgiven: in baptisms, in prayer, and in the greater humility of penance.

(Sermon to Catechumens on the Creed 7:15, 8:16 [A.D. 395])

St. Augustine (d. 430) warns the faithful: “Let us not listen to those who deny that the Church of God has power to forgive all sins” (De agon. Christ., iii). . . .

St. Augustine . . . tells the sinner: “an abscess had formed in your conscience; it tormented you and gave you no rest. . . . confess, and in confession let the pus come out and flow away” (Enarration on Psalm 66, no. 6). . . .

For those who sought to escape the obligation of confession it was natural enough to assert that repentance was the affair of the soul alone with its Maker, and that no intermediary was needed. It is this pretext that St. Augustine sweeps aside in one of his sermons: “Let no one say I do penance secretly; I perform it in the sight of God, and He who is to pardon me knows that in my heart I repent”. Whereupon St. Augustine asks: “Was it then said to no purpose, ‘What you shall loose upon earth shall be loosed in heaven?’ Was it for nothing that the keys were given to the Church?” (Sermo cccxcii, n. 3, in P.L., XXXIX, 1711). . . .

“Man is forced to suffer even after his sins are forgiven, though it was sin that brought down on him this penalty. For the punishment outlasts the guilt, lest the guilt should be thought slight if with its forgiveness the punishment also came to an end” (Tractate 124 on the Gospel of John, no. 5) . . .

The name of penitent was applied especially to those who performed public canonical penance. “There is a harder and more grievous penance, the doers of which are properly called in the Church penitents; they are excluded from participation in the sacraments of the altar, lest by unworthily receiving they eat and drink judgment unto themselves “(St. Augustine, “De utilitate agendae poenit.”, ser. cccxxxii, c. iii). . . .

Public penance did not necessarily include a public avowal of sin. As St. Augustine also declares, “If his sin is not only grievous in itself, but involves scandal given to others, and if the bishop [antistes] judges that it will be useful to the Church [to have the sin published], let not the sinner refuse to do penance in the sight of many or even of the people at large, let him not resist, nor through shame add to his mortal wound a greater evil” (Sermo cli, n. 3). . . .

“Although, by a wise and salutary provision, opportunity for performing that humblest kind of penance is granted but once in the Church, lest the remedy, become common, should be less efficacious for the sick . . . yet who will dare to say to God: Wherefore dost thou once more spare this man who after a first penance has again bound himself in the fetters of sin?” (Ep. cliii, “Ad Macedonium”).

(The Catholic Encyclopedia“Sacrament of Penance”)

4) He accepted the sacrament of matrimony:

Undoubtedly the substance of the sacrament is of this bond, so that when man and woman have been joined in marriage they must continue inseparably as long as they live, nor is it allowed for one spouse to be separated from the other except for cause of fornication. For this is preserved in the case of Christ and the Church, so that, as a living one with a living one, there is no divorce, no separation forever.

(Marriage and Concupiscence 1:10:11 [A.D. 419])

In marriage, however, let the blessings of marriage be loved: offspring, fidelity, and the sacramental bond. Offspring, not so much because it may be born, but because it can be reborn; for it is born to punishment unless it be reborn to life. Fidelity, but not such as even the unbelievers have among themselves, ardent as they are for the flesh. . . . The sacramental bond, which they lose neither through separation nor through adultery, this the spouses should guard chastely and harmoniously.

(Ibid., 1:17:19)

Hence, whoever attributes these elements to Christian marriage, thereby declares it a true sacrament in the strict sense of the word. Testimony to this effect is to be found from the earliest Christian times onward. The clearest is that of St. Augustine in his works “De bono conjugii” and “De nuptiis et concupiscentia”. In the former work (chapter 24), he says, “Among all people and all men the good that is secured by marriage consists in the offspring and in the chastity of married fidelity; but, in the case of God’s people [the Christians], it consists moreover in the holiness of the sacrament, by reason of which it is forbidden, even after a separation has taken place, to marry another as long as the first partner lives . . . just as priests are ordained to draw together a Christian community, and even though no such community be formed, the Sacrament of Orders still abides in those ordained, or just as the Sacrament of the Lord, once it is conferred, abides even in one who is dismissed from his office on account of guilt, although in such a one it abides unto judgment.” . . . St. Augustine places marriage, which he names a sacrament, on the same level with Baptism and Holy Orders. Thus, as Baptism and Holy Orders are sacraments in the strict sense and are recognized as such by the Holy Doctor, he also considers the marriage of Christians a sacrament in the full and strict sense of the word.

(The Catholic Encyclopedia“Sacrament of Marriage”)

5) He believed in the sacrament of confirmation:

Why, therefore, is the Head itself, whence that ointment of unity descended, that is, the spiritual fragrance of brotherly love,–why, I say, is the Head itself exposed to your resistance, while it testifies and declares that “repentance and remission of sins should be preached in His name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem”? And by this ointment you wish the sacrament of chrism to be understood, which is indeed holy as among the class of visible signs, like baptism itself.

(Letters of Petilian the Donatist, 2,104:239 [A.D. 403], in NPNF 1, IV:592)

St. Augustine explains how the coming of the Holy Ghost was companied with the gift of tongues in the first ages of the Church. “These were miracles suited to the times . . . . Is it now expected that they upon whom hands are laid, should speak with tongues? Or when we imposed our hand upon these children, did each of you wait to see whether they would speak with tongues? and when he saw that they did not speak with tongues, was any of you so perverse of heart as to say ‘These have not received the Holy Ghost?’ (Tractate 6 on the Gospel of John).

He also speaks in the same way about anointing: the sacrament of chrism “is in the genus of visible signs, sacrosanct like baptism” (Against Petilian 2.104; see Serm. ccxxvii, Ad Infantes in P.L., XXXVII, col. 1100; On the Holy Trinity 15.46); “Of Christ it is written in the Acts of the Apostles, how God anointed Him with the Holy Ghost, not indeed with visible oil, but with the gift of grace, which is signified by that visible unction wherewith the Church anoints the baptized”.

(The Catholic Encyclopedia“Confirmation”)

6) . . . and the sacrament of Holy Orders or ordination:

In like manner as if there take place an ordination of clergy in order to form a congregation of people, although the congregation of people follow not, yet there remains in the ordained persons the Sacrament of Ordination; and if, for any fault, any be removed from his office, he will not be without the Sacrament of the Lord once for all set upon him, albeit continuing unto condemnation.

(On the Good of Marriage, 24:32 [A.D. 401], in NPNF1, III:412)

St. Augustine, speaking about baptism and order, says, “Each is a sacrament, and each is given by a certain consecration, . . . If both are sacraments, which no one doubts, how is the one not lost (by defection from the Church) and the other lost?” (Contra. Epist. Parmen., ii, 28-30).

(The Catholic Encyclopedia“Holy Orders”)

7) Lastly, he upheld the sacrament of extreme unction or anointing or “last rites”:

In St. Augustine’s Speculum de Scripturâ (an. 427); in P.L., XXXIV, 887-1040), which is made up almost entirely of Scriptural texts, without comment by the compiler, and is intended as a handy manual of Christianpietydoctrinal and practical, the injunction of St. James regarding the prayer-unction of the sick is quoted. This shows that the rite was a commonplace in the Christian practice of that age; and we are told by Possidius, in his Life of Augustine (c. xxvii, in P.L., XXXII, 56), that the saint himself “followed the rule laid down by the Apostle that he should visit only orphans and widows in their tribulation (James 1:27), and that if he happened to be asked by the sick to pray to the Lord for them and impose hands on them, he did so without delay” . . . It is fair, then, to conclude from the biographer’s statement that, when called upon to do so, St. Augustine himself used to administer the Jacobean unction to the sick.

(The Catholic Encyclopedia“Extreme Unction”)

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