August 13, 2018

Words of Anthrotheist: a friendly regular contributor on my blog (he wrote this in a combox there), will be in blue.

*****

I remember some time ago having a conversation with Dave, the author of this blog, and he expressed interest in my ‘deconversion’ story. So here goes.

I don’t remember there ever being any particular anguish or trauma involved as I drifted away from church. I grew up in a Methodist home with my grandparents who attended services every Sunday (and at times in my childhood went during other days of the week; I don’t recall exactly what for). I think what I recall the most was sitting in church during Sunday school or the sermon, and thinking to myself, “I should feel more inspired by all of this.” There wasn’t any emotional connection for me, and as I grew older I started looking for an intellectual connection instead. I asked my pastor and elder church members (generally Sunday school teachers) questions, and the only answers I remember getting were, “You just have to have faith.” If there were more substantial responses, they were inconsequential enough that I have no recollection of them.

Looking for any sort of connection, in my teens I tried testing the messages I got from church, primarily regarding prayers. One evening, after chores, I spoke with my uncle regarding a particular cow he had in the pen used for cattle that were sick or close to delivery (the dairy farm I grew up on was run by my uncle and aunt, who had taken it over from my grandparents with whom I lived); he told me that he didn’t think that she (the cow) would survive the night. I didn’t have any particular connection to that cow, but was saddened; I decided to offer what wound up being my most heart-felt and earnest prayers that evening, pleading for the life of a simple farm animal. The next day, after school and during chores, I asked my uncle about it and he told me that she had lived and would probably be alright. It would be natural to assume that I felt vindicated by this apparent response to my prayers, but if anything I felt even less connected; the absolute lack of reaction from my uncle (or anyone else, cousins, hired hands, etc.) left me thinking, “Nobody sees this as miraculous, they all are taking it in stride like it’s nothing.” I think that I understood that what I had taken as a critical situation for this living creature’s wellbeing, was really just another day in the life of a dairy farmer. My prayer, honest as it was, really was quite trite; at the end, I felt more embarrassed than I did reassured.

Time passed, I stopped attending church, moved out and went to college, worked jobs, etc. One girlfriend in my twenties tried to re-convert me, but her attempts amounted to little more than emotional blackmail: believe in God or I’m going to break up with you. That relationship didn’t last, go figure. My first wife was a preacher’s daughter, but as long as I knew her she never expressed anything but indifference regarding her faith, which complimented my own feelings on the subject. My second and current wife was a member of a Pentecostal church when we got married, and I attended her church a couple of times early on. She struggled a bit with her own deconversion, but has remarked many times how she never felt committed to the message of her faith, and for over a decade had been faking it, expecting one day to “make it”, so to speak. We’re both quite content having nothing to do with any particular supernatural tradition, though we both find some interesting philosophical grist in the Tao Te Ching.

Ultimately, I have skimmed the world’s religions, curious about their essential messages. They all make fantastic claims, all of them have dedicated and sincere apologists that work diligently to support their theology (and have for centuries, at least). None of them have any greater insight into the reality in which we all find ourselves; none of them have produced answers that stand up to skeptical scrutiny. The most powerful epistemological system mankind has right now is premised precisely on the idea that there are no “supernatural” forces that cannot be accounted for. I don’t believe that science can answer every question; it is particularly lacking in areas where any data that may exist is almost entirely subjective. But it has revealed knowledge that flatly defies the claims made by the world’s religions, and provides the tools to test and confirm that knowledge. It seems my religious philosophy is basically, “Every adherent to any religion in the world has rejected the possibility of every single religion that has ever existed, with one exception; I have found no compelling reason to make that single exception for any particular religion.” I live my life in the secular realm, sharing that space in which people of all faiths can gather and interact; anyone is free to express their beliefs, no one has the privilege of demanding anyone else’s devotion. I have a former professor who is a good friend, who happens to be Catholic; a former classmate-turned-friend who is Protestant, and numerous acquaintances who’s beliefs have never come up, excepting perhaps a “thank God”, or “God bless you”, or perhaps a “We’re so blessed to… [whatever it may be].” It doesn’t bother or offend me, I am not threatened by it, and I don’t confront it with my own beliefs; I enjoy the religiously neutral space in which we live our day-to-day lives.

And that’s about it. Thanks for reading.

Thank you very much for sharing your story. I have a few thoughts, if I may:

1. Apologetics is necessary to maintain belief in the Christian faith. We must harmonize faith and reason. We have to know why we believe what we believe (assuming we even know the latter; I certainly didn’t in my early years: which was also Methodism at first). This is why I do what I do. If one isn’t taught reasons to believe in Christianity, then there is also no reason to remain a Christian. Such a person is easy pickin’s for any other competing worldview that comes around. By the same token, from where I sit: you present no reason for leaving that poses a challenge to any other Christian, in terms of compelling disproofs of their worldview. Reason per se seemed to have little to do with the whole thing (though I can see that if you weren’t presented adequate reasoning, why you would take the route you took).

2. Your story also highlights the tragedy of having no Christians around one who express enthusiasm; who “carry the torch”: who show forth the light and joy of Christ, to “spark a fire under us.” It’s very tough to have a lasting faith minus such people around us. We’re too social as human beings to not need others whom we admire, that are of our same belief-system. If we don’t, many times we won’t last long in a given environment.

3. Neither #1 nor #2 were your fault. It was the fault of your pastors and role models in the faith. And that was my experience, too, up till age 13, when my brother got “saved” and started sharing his faith (though often in a boorish, unappealing way). I didn’t come into contact with apologetics till I was 19, and especially after age 23, when I discovered historical apologetics (in my evangelical period), and my life was changed, and I knew what I was to do with my life. It was very important to me (right out of college at the time) — indeed, crucial — to merge my faith with reason.

4. Like many atheists and former Christians, you seem to have virtually made science either your religion, or at the least, what “guides” your outlook on life (worldview, philosophy). It’s a view that I have written about as “atomism”: belief that the atom can literally do everything that we believe God does: “create” the universe and the marvelous laws of science, and life and consciousness: the whole ball of wax. Personally, I think that is exponentially more difficult to believe in than a God Who is an eternal spirit and all-powerful, etc.

5. The question then is whether science contradicts or overthrows Christianity. You say, “science . . . has revealed knowledge that flatly defies the claims made by the world’s religions.” Perhaps it casts doubt on other religions, but I have yet to see an argument proving to me that our present knowledge of science casts the slightest doubt on my Christian beliefs. I’ve seen nothing that was a fundamental / essential disconnect or contradiction. Perhaps you’d like to share what it is in science that you think does that. I’d be extremely interested in that. Science can’t disprove the presence of the supernatural because its purview, by definition, is matter and empiricism. That simply can’t rule out spiritual forces or the miraculous, or God, any more than an apple rules out an orange, or east, west, or baseball, algebra.

I commend you for your tolerance and civility (having just endured a two-day marathon of some 30-40 atheists all calling me every name in the book, simply for banning one person: who last night — irony of ironies — banned me from his site). I’m not prejudiced against atheists as a class of people; you don’t seem to be prejudiced against Christians. That’s all that’s required for thoughtful human beings to interact and even to become friends. It’s the deadly combination of hostility + ignorance (along with an automatic attribution of bad faith and insincerity) that causes problems on both ends.

Do I have your permission to make this exchange a new blog post? We can continue the discussion if you like, and I’ll add any new parts. Most atheists whose deconversion stories I have commented upon got mad at me, as if it was the most objectionable thing in the world that a Christian would “dare” critique reasons an atheist gave for forsaking Christianity. I think it’s quite obvious that examinations of such stories would be part and parcel of my job as an apologist defending Christianity in general and Catholic Christianity in particular. If someone is giving reasons to leave Christianity, then the one who gives reasons for being a Christian would and should reply to such reasons.

You are certainly welcome to post this conversation if you wish; you don’t need my permission, given that I posted my comment on your blog in the first place, but I do appreciate you asking. As for objecting to your response, I honestly would have been disappointed if you hadn’t replied. I was curious what you would make of my tale, and never expected that we would necessarily see eye-to-eye on every part [of] the interpretation. It seems to me that increasingly (at least in America where I live) it is far more important to be able (and willing!) to disagree politely, rather than surrounding ourselves solely with messages that fail to ever challenge us and lashing out when our views are confronted.

I agree: polite disagreement is more and more rare and all the more to be sought after in our present toxic environment, where every honest disagreement becomes an opportunity to demonize folks who are different from us. Thanks for being a civil voice and for being willing to discuss things on my page!

Regarding points 1-3, I don’t blame anyone in my former congregation for my deconversion. Whether they are at fault for anything would depend on who is (or should be) responsible for what activities in a church, and that is well beyond my areas of experience; as an atheist now, I don’t feel justified making any such judgement. I believe that the church I attended was probably a bit on the older side, in terms of its members; I went there with my grandparents, and the younger or middle-aged members were perhaps more active than others, but mostly limited to teaching Sunday school. 

You may not blame the people around you, but I do, because any belief-system is social in nature, and all involve role models that we look up to and emulate. No one formulates their beliefs in utter isolation from social surroundings and influences. “We are what we eat.” You yourself note that no one answered your questions or showed much enthusiasm for Christianity, so yes, I do blame them. Not that you were absolutely perfect and blameless in all of it (I have no idea, but since we’re all sinners, I highly doubt it). I’m just going by your report and accepting it at face value.

I imagine that my pastor was probably used to older congregates who had far fewer questions than I did, and I imagine my questions were more challenging than she was ready to answer off the top of her head.

Any pastor ought to be equipped to answer intelligent questions from a young person. But sadly, many did not learn enough apologetics (if any). The seminaries don’t teach it much.

Ultimately, I never felt drawn to the church or to religion; even during times of crisis I never turned to God, neither for support nor in blame. It just didn’t occur to me. 

I’m saying that at least part of that apathy had to do with the lack of inspiring role models and question-answerers around you. You confirm that in a statement near the end of your comment: “For me, if I wanted a community I could go to church, but my past experiences have been everyone sitting quietly in their pews until it’s time to leave, with only brief moments of mingling after the sermon.” Yep: no inspiration, no fire, no motivation to emulate inspiring role models, no one whose enthusiasm makes you curious and draws you further into religion and seeking after God . . .

All of that almost always occurs in a community. I was drawn to evangelicalism in 1977 by social and communitarian factors, and to Catholicism in 1990 via the same things. I thought through both (especially in 1990, which was a very “intellectually dominated” conversion). But we can’t underestimate the role of a like-minded community. It’s why, after all, most atheists online congregate together, and concentrate on running down Christianity. They have their confirming community, and they all agree to bash the thing that most of them used to hold: which is a further confirming — though usually fallacious — practice. I majored in sociology, so I know a little bit about social groups.

I am inclined to opine that something that is supposedly so true requires an inordinate amount of effort to support and explain. Nobody has to explain that gravity pulls objects to the ground or that sunlight can burn unprotected skin (artificial or natural protection of course), these things are clearly evident; and yet the most profound truths about the realities of the universe are only to be found in a single collection of writings from a single region of the world drafted thousands of years ago which take staggering amounts of effort to translate and to understand even casually. It ends up seeming to me like much ado about nothing.

I don’t see that this is apparent at all. You go on to mention gravity as a supposed simple and obvious truth of science. Of course it is not at all, because now we understand gravity not as an apple falling in Newton’s head, but as gravitational waves per Einstein: exponentially more difficult to fully explain. But I would say that science in general is made up of very complicated concepts and formulas that are above most of our heads. I would say all that is confirmation of its truthfulness, not the opposite.

Yet when it comes to religious matters, the same people who accept — virtually worship — science, complain about almost any complexity at all (say, transubstantiation or the hypostatic union) and assume that this suggests falsity rather than being true. I say that that is hogwash: truth of any sort will ultimately be complex. It can be summarized or simplified for teaching purposes, but in the end it’ll be complex. We find that in science, theology, and anything else. I myself, when writing on many topics in theology, present a simple, summed-up version and also go into the greatest depth (usually in dialogues). Both have their purpose. But in the end, the longer treatments show how complex each topic is when closely examined.

(As an example, virtually every culture on Earth has means of creating fire; the methods differ and their explanations for what fire is differ greatly, but the phenomenon is universal. Why would God and his truth be limited to a book derived from a single culture in one part of the world? Why isn’t God more like fire, approached and explained differently, but universal in his characteristics?)

No one is saying that it is limited to the Bible (except a few fundamentalist anti-intellectual dumbbells). There are vast areas of learning and culture not dealt with at all in the Bible or not much (mathematics, logic, philosophy science, architecture, on and on . . . ). All truth is God’s truth. As Galileo said, “The Bible teaches us how to go to heaven, not how the heavens go.”

Your fourth point is interesting, and I imagine it comes as no surprise that I disagree with you at least in part. When I think about religion, it seems to me that several roles or functions are fulfilled by it most of the time: epistemology, morality, congregation, and tradition are the main ones that come to mind. So when I consider an atheist taking science as their new religion, I have a hard time seeing it as anything more than an epistemology. Science is notoriously bad in areas of morality and congregation (pure logic makes cold morals, and scientists tend to be introverts), and the enterprise of science is in many ways an effort to prevent the establishment of any traditions (particularly ones that would interfere with discovery, but generally as well). Even in the area of epistemology, any sort of ‘atomism’ differs profoundly from any religious belief in one critical way: agency. Atheists may believe that all that exists in the universe is matter and energy, but there is no sense that there is any agency behind those things; materials didn’t create the universe, there was not a creative power in place.

Yet somehow the universe we observe and marvel at, in all its wonders, is here, and had to come about somehow. If all you have is matter, matter had to do all that, and from scratch (as we have no proof that the universe is eternal: the Big Bang is the current consensus).

That matter and energy follow patterns of behavior seems to me self-evident at this point, and those patterns can both generate and destroy complex arrangements of material, depending on circumstances. That’s about it. I don’t hold scientific knowledge in any particular reverence (another aspect of religion to my mind); any sense of awe I may find is usually the result of my experiencing the wonders of nature, rarely as a response to human endeavor.

As for science vs Christianity. I think what I was referring to most was notions like the sun being a flaming chariot wheel, or illness being caused by malicious spirits. Where once the only answers to be found explaining the world were religious, now the scientific method provides answers that are more precise and universal (and therefore at least more useful; and thanks for correcting my misuse of ‘therefor’ at some point before, I may not like English but I dislike misusing it more). Those answers are not more satisfying, usually exactly because they paint a worldview in which nothing but human beings care at all about humanity. It’s hardly inspiring or uplifting, but then it was never meant to be nice any more than it was meant to be bleak. I think the only place I feel that science and religion are incompatible is when a religious claim is made that could be testable; in such cases, the tests always fail (such as prophesies, claims of healing powers, etc. You know, religion’s hucksters.).

I recently (in May) produced plenty of documented scientific / medical evidence for miracles occurring at Lourdes. This was in response to your own queries. To my knowledge, you have not grappled directly with that evidence (let alone explained it away). It’s easy to make blanket statements, as you have here; much more difficult to wrangle with this specific proposed evidence of the miraculous. Ignoring it doesn’t make it go away. I’d rather be in a place of being pressured to prove and confirm miracles rather than in a position of having to categorically deny that any ever take place (the good ol’ universal negative).

I think where people tend to have an issue is: if religion doesn’t make a testable claim then it doesn’t conflict with science, but then what does religion offer? It could offer morality and community, but too often it seems that the most fervent faithful (e.g., fundamentalist evangelists) uphold a morality that is oppressive and provincial, all while excluding all but the most devoted from their midst. For me, if I wanted a community I could go to church, but my past experiences have been everyone sitting quietly in their pews until it’s time to leave, with only brief moments of mingling after the sermon. Religion has lost to science as an epistemology for the objective material world, and in my experience all accounts of the supernatural are singularly subjective. A religion may tell me that an angel is watching over me, but my seat belt seems more likely to save me. I can’t help but conjecture that perhaps a large part of why religious affiliation is declining is because religions are still trying to claim truth about how the world is, rather than making more effort to offer a vision of how the world should be (but again, I don’t feel entitled to say what religions should be doing, I’m just sharing my opinion).

There is no epistemological “loss” because it’s apples and oranges. The Bible and Christianity don’t claim to be textbooks of science. The main claim we make about the world and its natural forces are that God created that and sustains it by His power. But He does so through almost all natural forces. Thus, science studies those and builds up a tremendous and immensely helpful body of knowledge that we are all grateful for and use every day. Modern science began in a thoroughly Christian cultural and intellectual environment and was dominated by Christians and theists for 300 years: who founded 115 separate scientific disciplines. There simply is no conflict here at all. Science is more “ours” (if we must talk in that way) than yours.

Thanks again for your long and thoughtful, stimulating comment and your civility, as always.

***

Whatever the charges may be against my former congregation and pastor — I can see how a bit more fire and motivation, and especially intelligent engagement could have made a big difference — I have never dwelt on it. At this point I find little pragmatic reason to do so; I have viewed the world the way that I do for nearly 25 years now, and that is an enormous amount of momentum at which to throw a little bit of conjecture about what may have been.

Yes. From our perspective, it was this lack of what should have been from others, that helped lead you down a path away from the faith. It was one of the reasons, I submit, why you choose Path B in the fork in the road, instead of Path A (“the narrow way,” as Jesus calls it).

I’m just glad that you don’t accuse me of simply being angry at God because my father died or because I want to live a life of sin, an all-to-common theme of conversations with the devout.

We can’t read people’s hearts, and can’t make such judgments about motivation, unless we have overwhelming evidence from a person’s own report. It’s wrong for anyone to do it. And you are right: far too many Christians exhibit this sinful shortcoming. I have written about how the Bible describes two sorts of nonbelievers: the rebellious rejecter of God and the “open-minded agnostic.”

I am glad, but not surprised though; the conversations I have had with you have been singularly uncommon in their polite candor.

Well, thank you very much. I enjoy our dialogues too. I greatly appreciate your open sharing and refusal to bash Christianity, like far too many atheists online do.

The point that I was trying to get at with gravity and fire is that these phenomena are universal. Everywhere in the world, societies have stories where something falls to the ground or something catches on fire. The explanation for why these things happen may vary quite a bit, but in every case we can look back retrospectively and claim with reasonable certainty, “That is an account describing gravity/fire.” Modern physics can quantify the properties of gravitation and combustion, and can even reveal the invisible forces at work (at least in the case of combustion; as far as I know, there still isn’t a clear explanation for why matter has mass), but the visible effects have always been apparent and consistent no matter where you go or when.

Yes, of course: the laws of nature.

The particulars of the Christian God are quite precise, and as far as I have found fairly unique: virgin birth, miraculous powers, crucifixion, resurrection, ascension. Take any of these away (and I may have missed some myself of course) and it seems to me that you have an incomplete picture of Christ; nowhere else in the world’s oral or written traditions do these themes appear together except in a tiny part of the Roman Empire two thousand years ago.

I don’t see how that is relevant. Likewise, modern science began in western Europe in the 15th-16th centuries, in a thoroughly Christian cultural and intellectual milieu. Nowhere else in history did this occur. I don’t see how that has any bearing on the truthfulness of science. It’s simply how modern science began; and you describe how Christianity began. The uniqueness of that historical event has no bearing on whether Christianity is true, either.

Polytheism doesn’t look like the Christian God, and animism certainly doesn’t. Why isn’t the true nature of the one true God more universally apparent?

Because cultures can develop false premises and then build upon those. If you walk two feet to the left, eventually where you end up could be hundreds of miles away from where you would have been if you walked straight ahead. Sometimes, when Christianity would have been introduced to a region, they killed the ones who were brining it, so that it couldn’t get off the ground (e.g., Japan).

Leaving descriptions of the universe apart, the Bible describes what God is like and what to expect after death, and nowhere else in the world does that particular narrative appear except the Bible.

There are certainly other religions that talk about the nature of God and the afterlife. Islam, for one. That’s a billion people. So this is an odd comment from you.

God’s most important truth, the one that will affect everyone for eternity after death, is tucked away in a single culture that only appeared thousands of years after humans started farming.

If you are implying that this is unfair, the Bible says that every man will be judged by what he knows (Romans 2).

Taken all together, it appears to me to be just another local religion that won the lottery of history and expanded into a world religion.

For you it is all chance and happenstance. We believe it is God’s providence: all part of His plan.

As for the beginning of the universe, I don’t have an answer to that quandary.

No atheist seems to. And I think that is a big problem in the atheist worldview: at least for those who strive to find answers to the basic questions of life: “why are we here?” etc.

My inclination is to assume that the universe is like a marble statue that has been pulverized to rubble and dust: the resulting material didn’t come from nothing, but there is zero evidence remaining that could be used to piece together an understanding of what it had been like before. The rubble can go on to do other things, and some of the essential properties are certainly consistent with its previous state, but what came before may always be a mystery. The fact that science is currently stumped by the universe’s origin (and as a result its essential nature) is no form of support for any competing narrative; just because I don’t claim to know, doesn’t mean that your claim that you do know has any greater validity.

I’ve always said that our view is at the very least equally as plausible than yours, and requiring no more faith or (to express it in logical terms) no more acceptance of unproven / unprovable axioms. And you seem to basically agree. You guys offer nothing (a big “Who knows?”). We simply believe in /posit an Eternal Spirit Who brought everything about (a notion which has a long and noble philosophical pedigree, so that it is not merely a religious “blind faith” belief or intellectually equivalent to leprechauns and Santa Claus and the Easter Bunny). The fact that He is eternal overcomes the quandary of how matter (which, as far as we know, is not eternal) ever came to be in the first place.

So I did finally look more into the Lourdes cures (I admit that I pretty much glossed over it before, enticed as I was to pursue other lines of thought that appealed to me more at the time), and I honestly don’t know what to make of them.

Thanks for your honesty.

Part of the problem is that it appears impossible to differentiate the claims from the Catholic church; while I don’t doubt any particular person’s sincere intention to evaluate the claims objectively, I can’t ignore the church’s clear conflict of interest given the region’s immense dogmatic value to the organization. The thing that strikes me most is, given the area’s long history, why have I never heard of it before?

Because it is mostly known in Catholic circles. I hadn’t heard of it, either, when I was a Protestant. I remember the first time I heard the word was in a George Carlin comedy routine. I thought he was saying “Lord’s” at first.

Why are references to it almost exclusively limited to Catholic and faith websites and organizations?

Non-Catholics often ignore things that they pigeonhole as “just more Catholic junk.”

If the claims have any veracity, where are the research doctors and scientists that should be clamoring to examine the facts in excruciating detail?

They have to have the will to do so. There are motivations not to pursue it, because what happens if the miracles are verified? Folks might have to act on that and become Catholics! Since they don’t want to, they choose not to begin. Just speculating . . .

Billions of dollars are spent every year researching treatments for cancer alone; if there is clear evidence that cancer is being cured in Lourdes, surely someone outside the faith would want to be involved?

Our actions and beliefs are often determined by presuppositions that we adopt: either favorable or hostile.

Finally, I honestly didn’t ever intend to claim that the Bible was meant to be a science textbook, but hasn’t it served at various points in history as exactly that?

Sometimes it is misunderstood as that, by less sophisticated portions of Christianity.

Wasn’t the position of the church for at least some time that the Earth must be the center of the universe exactly because of a passage about the Earth being set on its foundations and the sun and moon moving about it?

Yes. Later it was better understood that that was phenomenological language: the same sort that all of us use every day: “the sun comes up and goes down.” Or some of the language was poetic and not intended to be literal (as was done in describing God Himself too). Without knowledge of heliocentrism (or any science at all), it’s perfectly logical (and not absurd) to assume or conclude that we are stationary and it’s the sun that is moving. And many great scientists did that, too (backed up also by Aristotle and other great philosophers). At least one great scientist did even after Copernicus (Tycho Brahe).

I know that it describes the creation of the world, and that description counters many current understandings of the order in which things had to happen; literal readings of scripture aside, when a text says “First this, second this, third that,” and so on, that isn’t at all poetical or allegorical.

The ancient Hebrews had a very different conception of chronology, and often, texts that we casually interpret as literally chronological, were not intended to be (I’ve written about the Hebrew conception of time). Early Genesis is a combination of symbolic language (trees and picking fruit, talking serpents) and some real, literal things (the earth did have a beginning — as science also tells us –; there was a primal human pair, who did “fall” and rebel against God). The word for “day” (yom) was understood to not have to be literal, at least as far back as St. Augustine (d. 430).

I suppose the point that I am trying to make is that it is all well and good to say in modernity, “the Bible isn’t a science textbook,” exactly because we now have science textbooks. Prior to that invention, far more stock was put in the Bible’s capacity to explain the world, and that stock has only receded in response to the epistemological successes of science.

Yeah; science (originating in a Christian worldview, not an atheist one; formulated in Christian and medieval minds) was a great advance in human knowledge about the material world, and even interpretation of the Bible was improved because of it. I think that’s great. It didn’t prove that the Bible was wrong; only that we interpreted it wrongly in some respects. Biblical interpretation is a human field of knowledge where we can improve and do better over time. The Bible itself didn’t change, but over time our understanding of it can improve.

That is the loss that I refer to. It isn’t that the church has tried to stymie science, just that by its own hand it has limited the Bible to spiritual matters (whether that amounts to a diminishing of the Bible’s stature is another matter, and I suspect that you don’t believe that it is at all).

The Bible is primarily about spiritual matters. When it touches upon matters that are scientific in nature it is not inconsistent with science. We believe that God created the universe ex nihilo. Science eventually figured out that it began in an instant with a Big Bang (the theory was formulated by a Catholic priest-scientist), which was not inconsistent with our existing view at all. It’s quite harmonious with it. Science came up with evolution (conceived in a then-theist — not atheist — mind, by Charles Darwin).

Nothing in the Bible requires us to believe that Adam was necessarily created in an instant. It says that God made Him from the dust (“the LORD God formed man of dust from the ground”: Gen 2:7, RSV). The “formed” could very well have been a process of millions of years, from matter. It’s interesting that it doesn’t say that God created man out of nothing, but from the dust (matter). To me, that almost implies process itself.

Thus, there is no necessary contradiction. The real contradiction comes with materialistic science, that attempts (inconsistently, among some scientists) to rule out God as impossible in the whole process (even with regard to ultimate origins). That contradicts Catholicism and the Bible (and I would say, logic as well). But evolution itself does not, as long as God isn’t arbitrarily / dogmatically excluded from the process.

And so on and so forth. No unanswerable contradiction between Christianity and science has been demonstrated.

***

Photo credit: Albert duce (10-8-09). The main sanctuary of the Woodward Avenue Presbyterian Church, in Detroit [Wikimedia Commons /  Creative Commons Attribution-Share Alike 3.0 Unported license]

August 10, 2018

A “deconversion” is a sort of “anti-testimony” story of the odyssey from Christian faith to atheism or skepticism or agnosticism (the loss of faith in some sense). I have written papers analyzing many of these. Atheists, for their part, constantly run down Christianity and Christians. Surely they can’t object if we (especially apologist types such as myself) simply scrutinize reasons they themselves give as to why they rejected Christianity. For the life of me, I don’t see why that should be considered offensive or objectionable. But people do a lot of strange things.

Rightly understood, such analyses as this present one are not “personal” at all. My aim in a paper like this is simply to state why I don’t think that the reasons given for the deconversion are sufficient as any sort of rationale to reject Christianity. I don’t question the character or integrity of the people who do this at all. I don’t know them; I can’t read their minds or determine the state of their souls. They have obviously been through traumatic experiences. Criticism of a deconversion (at least as I see it and do it) is not intended to minimize anyone’s personal struggle or traumas or existential crises.

They may have been mistreated by any number of Christians. Join the crowd! So have I. Most of us have. People (including Christians) are sinners. This is what Christians believe. This is why we think we need a savior in the first place. But my intention is to focus on the reasons given, and to see if they hold up to scrutiny, or form any sort of justification for the rejection of Christianity. Period. No more, no less.

If someone (some influence who disenchanted or disappointed the former Christian) is a rotten example of a Christian, and a hypocrite, or child molester, that has no bearing on whether Christianity is true or not. I could see where there might be a point made (to some extent, anyway) if Christians were shown to be worse on the whole than non-Christians, ethically, but even then it would fail as a rigid philosophical disproof.

So with this disclaimer and explanation of my intent, I forge ahead. I am replying to the story, ex-pastor, ex-wife, ex-christian, by Theresa, posted at Debunking Christianity. Her words will be in blue. I begin my analysis at the portion of the story where she starts to explain the process of (or reasoning behind) her deconversion.

* * * * *

After we left Hermiston we became associate pastors at a church in the Seattle area. The pastor there was physically sick and played on it as well as spiritually abusive and very manipulative. I could write a book (and will, one of these days) on the whole experience, but it was because of this situation that I started the questioning process.

This is precisely what I alluded to above. Now, on a purely human level, it is quite easy to understand that abusive and manipulative people could causes personal crises and disenchantment (they certainly do in my life; I have to deal with one this very day, as a matter of fact — long story), but if the goal is to both understand and explain why one rejects Christianity (I am presuming that it is a given that there ought to be rational reasons to do this, not simply emotional), then it falls short.

There will always be sinners and folks who let us down and act immorally or unethically. They are found in every group known to mankind. But how does that automatically make the Trinity a falsehood or the Bible a pack of lies, etc.? Do you see the obvious fallacy here?

Clearly, the fact of sin does not do so. It has to be decided on other grounds. So this started the “questioning process.” If Theresa hadn’t run across this person, perhaps that process wouldn’t have begun? Any questioning should be based on the nature of Christianity itself, not the faults of some of its professed adherents. Does this already get me into hot water with my atheist friends? I should think it were self-evident . . .

I still remember how I went through different levels of “coming out.” It started because I went to counseling, and even though my counselor was a Christian, he taught me to question and to look at things in different ways.

I’m sure that’s when it started, because up until then I believed, lock, stock and barrel. It was the questioning, the learning to think for myself, the introduction to NLP, the seeing I had control over my life.

Here we see another problem that led to the opposite extreme. I see this often in atheist “anti-testimonies.” In a nutshell, it is seen that they espoused a form of Christianity which was insufficiently integrated in terms of a place for the mind and reasoning and apologetics (and that’s where I come in: I’m trying to provide that element in folks’ Christianity, that is often lacking).

Theresa was not taught to “think Christianly” or to understand why she believed what she believed (this is apologetics). Therefore, she had no “template” or framework in which to exercise a thinking Christianity, and so when she started questioning, it was naturally within a skeptical framework, as if all thinking has to lead away to Christianity. It’s going from one extreme to another:

Christianity = (allegedly) non-thinking fideistic acceptance of Christian truth-claims

Non-Christianity = acceptance of rational inquiry and critical thinking, which is (allegedly) inexorably opposed to Christianity, since the latter is simply blind faith

It’s a false dichotomy, because Christianity does not have to be — i.e., it is not inherently or inevitably — an unthinking, irrational, blind faith proposition or lifestyle. If I thought that, I certainly wouldn’t be a Christian myself; not for a second. And I would be right along with the atheists mocking such a silly worldview. Are we to believe that it is the essence of every form of Christianity: that we can never think for ourselves or control our own lives?

Of course this is untrue. It is only a warped form of Christanity-in-practice that would advocate such silly things in the first place. But just because Theresa was involved in one such form doesn’t mean that all of us must throw the Christian “baby” out with the corrupt Christian “bathwater.” It simply doesn’t follow. That’s why stories like these generally have little relevance to what anyone should believe vis-a-vis atheism or Christainity, because the reasons given are usually insufficient to cause anyone to rationally solve the “big questions” of philosophy and theology.

Then it was Spong, starting with Rescuing the Bible from Fundamentalism. That was an eye opener. I could still believe without taking everything so literally. Reading Spong was like a breath of fresh air.

Thanks for the confirmation of my point, Theresa: you go from evangelical Christianity and not thinking at all about it, right to John Spong: perhaps the most notoriously liberal supposed Christian (but actually a rank heretic from our perspective). There is a lot of in-between that was passed over. Spong is not the only “thinking” alternative to a fideistic, mindless version of Christianity, by any means. People follow the thought that they are exposed to. And not taking the Bible hyper-literally does not mean an automatic loss of faith. All that is, is a recognition that the Bible ought to be interpreted sensibly, just like any other literature.

I remember telling my friend (also a pastor’s wife at the time) to read this book. Her husband saw it and demanded that she take it back to the store and to tell them she didn’t know what she was getting. She didn’t . . . she just hid it from him.

My approach is much different. If someone insisted on reading Spong, I would say that if they were truly seeking truth wherever it lies, that they should read someone who is opposed to Spong’s liberal views, and see both sides of the broad argument, then make up their minds; not to just do it by reading the liberal theological slant as if it is Gospel Truth.

I still went to church after the divorce, but not to any fundamentalist bullshit church. I went to my friends’ (from NLP) church. They were real people. The church was small and unobtrusive, real people offering real solutions.

I was unfamiliar with this “NLP.” It stands for “Neuro-linguistic programming”. Apart from that, are we to believe that all fundamentalists and evangelical (or orthodox Catholic) Christians are not “real people” (note the use of the word “real” three times)? It is this sort of sweeping language that is not helpful to work through the issues. It implies, in the context of the overall deconversion story (very subtly) another false dichotomy: to be “real” is to be a liberal Christian or no Christian. To believe in actual orthodox Christianity is not quite “real.” This is the usual skeptical saw about Christians being in a fantasy world; “pie-in-the-sky.” Some are, indeed, but that ain’t the whole ball of wax.

Then I discovered self-help beyond Christianity. Brian Tracy, he taught me to think for myself to an even further degree. He taught me that I am responsible for everything. He taught me about taking control of my life, not giving it away to someone or something else.

Who says that to be a Christian is to cease to have individuality or self-responsibility? This is a point to be disputed. We would say with St. Augustine that we were made to serve God, and it is only in doing so that we truly become ourselves. I don’t deny that various “self-help” schools of thought or therapy or practices might be helpful, but I don’t see why this should bring into question Christianity.

Peter McWilliams with Life 101 and Do It. Those books helped me along too. He said it didn’t matter what higher being we believed in, these books still worked, they still held truth. I am rereading Life 101 at the moment. It is still good.

They might be true to some degree; sure. Truth is truth. But the cavalier attitude to God, as if He is dispensable or optional, is the questionable premise.

Then I read The History of God and in doing so I discovered the history of man-made religion and I became disgruntled, felt like I had been sold a bill of goods. It was all man-made, a way to keep control over the masses, to lock people into a way of thinking to make their job easier. If you teach people how to think you can make them give you money.

Well, this is the Marxist, Feuerbach-type of analysis (“opiate of the masses,” etc.), but since it is simply stated, not proven in any way, there is nothing here to analyze. One has to make some sort of argument to do that.

There were many others along the way and they all helped to break me free of religion in a box. I am no longer a religious person. I am a free thinker. 

But why? I haven’t seen any reason here that would cause someone to question Christianity in the slightest. What I’ve seen are several false dichotomies, fallacies, and false premises accepted for who knows what “reason.” They may be there; perhaps Theresa could provide elsewhere a more rational analysis (or has in fact done so), and that isn’t her intent here. I realize that. But I’m simply showing that this particular piece offers no solid, cogent reason for rejecting Christianity.

I don’t believe in a fundamental Christianity, I don’t believe the Jesus-God connection, I don’t believe the Bible to be true – in fact, I believe it to be a bunch of stories, compiled over the ages and bound into one book. I find it contradictory and a weapon that can be used to make any point or prove any side.

That’s all fine and dandy. I look in vain for any reasons for why she thinks this way. One could cynically observe (this isn’t necessarily my own view) that she simply substituted one form of blind faith for another. Neither view was particularly reasonable or grounded in evidences and factuality and solid reasons given.

I don’t like reading the bible or hearing it quoted from. It makes me cringe when I hear scriptures, I’ve heard them misused and abused so much. 

Because the Bible was abused by some, we should reject it altogether . . . makes a lot of sense . . .

I can’t hear the beauty behind them. I can’t see the lesson, I can’t hear beyond the abuse. 

Exactly. But why should Theresa think that her personal history of abuse is any sort of reason for anyone else to reject Christianity?

I don’t want to hear the old fables. 

Why should she think they are fables? Has she never read any of the abundant archaeological evidences in favor of the high accuracy of biblical descriptions?

It makes me feel sorry for those who believe it and stupid for having believed it. How could I have been so caught up in it all?

We Christians are all so stupid and pathetic, aren’t we? It always seems to come down to that, doesn’t it? We’re ignoramuses and imbeciles and idiots; fed a bill of goods by unscrupulous manipulators. Yet I don’t feel that way about atheists as a class at all. I simply disagree with their reasoning (or often, lack thereof, in dealing with Christianity, I should say).

I can’t yet see Jesus apart from the bible banging religion. Maybe taken apart from all that there are good lessons and examples.

What does she suggest as a good non-biblical way to learn about Jesus, pray tell?

I don’t believe that God talks to man or tells him what to do. 

Why? On what basis did she move from believing that to ceasing to believe it?

I don’t believe God listens to our prayers or has any connection with our day-to-day lives. 

Why? I’m not interested (my own taste) in bald statements; I’m interested in intellectual justifications.

I don’t believe in miracles, I don’t believe God has a purpose for my life, I don’t believe God comes down and rearranges things for us, I don’t believe God saves some people (from catastrophes and from hell) and not others, I don’t believe God can read my thoughts or direct my path.

What does He do? Just sit in a black hole for eternity? Is He there at all? Seems like He would have to do something, dontcha think?

I don’t believe in anything like that anymore – heaven or hell, spirits, eternal life. 

Yeah, I know. Why? No reason is given. Why should someone accept all this just because she said it? How is that different from the very things she has decried (blind faith, lack of critical thought, etc.)?

It was a slow and painstaking, gradual process. A lot of thought and reading went into each departure. It wasn’t a blind, unthinking decision.

I believe her when she says this. I’m curious if she has actually given the reasons elsewhere. I’d love to see those.

I don’t want anything to do with Christianity. 

Then why write about it at all? Just ignore it.

I am not a Christian, not even an “American Christian.” I live my life as an atheist.

Is it just practical atheism? In that case, the more accurate term is agnostic.

It seems like once I started questioning, and I questioned the church, religion, my beliefs all at the same time, I couldn’t stop. One question led to another, one doubt expressed led to many more, one belief shattered rocked the foundation and more came tumbling down, one “rule” found to be untrue gave way to more.

People tend to follow whatever line of thought that they are exposed to at any given time. I’ve often pondered that, and its momentous consequences.

It was like I had a blanket, what I thought was a beautiful blanket, wrapped around me, protecting me from the elements. One day I noticed a loose thread and I picked and pulled at it and the blanket started unraveling. I tried to put it back, to weave it back in, but I couldn’t leave it alone. I picked at it and worked at it and asked other people if they saw it and pretty soon, bit-by-bit, the blanket got smaller.

That’s OK, I said, I still have this much left. So I cut off all the loose yarn and tucked in the loose end. But pretty soon the loose end worked itself out and started bugging me so I began the process again, pulling and unraveling until I got out the pieces that no longer worked for me. I cut off the excess and tucked in the loose ends for safekeeping.

Again, there is no intellectual content here to analyze or scrutinize, but I agree that this is how human beings approach things. It is usually in an all-or-nothing fashion. One extreme to another . . . once Christianity was criticized, it couldn’t be that it had some good things in it; no, it had to be demonized as pure myth, stupid, fables, manipulation, etc. I don’t find this to be compelling reasoning. The actual truth has a way of having far more “greys” and fuzzy lines than this black-and-white approach to reality.

Now my blanket was really small. I kept a hold of it like that for a while, but every time I’d take it out to use it that thread seemed to work itself out again. One day I couldn’t stand it so I picked and pulled again, until the whole thing came apart.

I cut off a little thread and rolled it into a little ball. I kept it in my pocket for remembrance mostly. It couldn’t be called a blanket anymore. It wasn’t worth anything, it couldn’t be made into anything, it was just there. If anybody asked I could say I have a little bit of it left, the starting piece of yarn, the foundation. But really, it was just a piece of yarn, unraveled, no meaning.

More of the same . . .

I was afraid of what people will say if I threw it all away. I was afraid to admit to myself that I wanted to throw it all away. I called it god but with little letters. I didn’t use it for anything; I never took it out of my pocket. If somebody questioned me I said I’ve still got it. I chose to hang on to that part for awhile. I chose to believe in god for a little longer. But certainly not the GOD of before, the GOD of rules and regulations, the nosy one, the all involved one, the one who makes men weak.

Does God do that? That’s news to me. I love following God. I don’t find Him to be this projection of what some people are at all.

I chose to believe in a force outside of myself that kept things in motion from afar, one who set up the rules of the universe and lets us play them out. But then I saw that yarn hanging out of my pocket and I pulled out the last bit.

I thought she was an atheist? This sounds more like deism or even pantheism.

It is a wonderful place to be, free from the guilt and burdens of Christianity. I live my life fully and without question, enjoying the process of becoming who I am.

In conclusion, I see nothing whatsoever here to cause myself or any Christian who thinks about his or her faith and who integrates faith and reason, to question the truthfulness of their religion. If there is a more elaborate, reasoned version of this deconversion (as reference was made to a lot of thought put into it), I’d like to see it.

***

(originally 11-13-06)

Photo credit: Free-Photos (11-3-15) [PixabayCC0 Creative Commons  license]

***

August 10, 2018

My dialogue opponent (on my blog) is a self-described “liberal” Catholic. His words will be in blue.

* * * * *

Then there is the whole sacrifice of Isaac scene. What is being portrayed in Genesis is not a God who issues eternal decrees conveying rational and consistent laws. Rather, we have a God who acts quite arbitrarily, and issues decrees that are temporal and specific to the individual.

God cannot act arbitrarily. That is blasphemy. So you are either questioning God or biblical inspiration. This incident is mentioned in Hebrews 11:17-19 and James 2:21. So do you now doubt the inspiration of the NT? Or do you simply pick and choose the verses you like and discard those that you don’t understand or don’t care for? Who is arbitrary now? Sounds like you, not our Lord God.

The moral lesson in Genesis, if there is one, is that we must always obey the dictates of conscience in absolute trust, and it this obedience that is credited to us as righteousness!

We must obey God, even though we don’t understand, yes. That’s what the book of Job is about. God has the power over life and death. Abraham could theoretically sacrifice his own son (but note that God didn’t really intend for this to happen, since He prevented it), because God the Father sacrificed His own Son.

I do not believe that Exodus and Genesis are written entirely by the same human author, or even in the same time period, which may be part of the confusion I see coming out over the high level exegesis I have already provided. I believe that there are different sources at work here, and though I am not a strict four-sourcer, I do find the J,P,E and D categories helpful to understanding a point I will make later.

I reject that, for various reasons, and think that it is fatal to solid exegesis. In a nutshell, what I would call the “liberal” exegete always has an “out” of simply denying that the text was in the original, or attributing it to one of the other “letter guys” (J,E,P,D), to explain all so-called “discrepancies.” Thus, a person is freed from the burden of trying to interpret the Bible as a harmonious whole: consistent with a notion of ultimate inspiration (being “God-breathed”). I find this to be absurd, because it is arbitrary in many ways, and most unfair (in a discussion such as this) to the exegete who accepts the entire Bible as inspired, and Genesis as written by one author originally (Moses).

The liberal is always a “moving target” (like the ducks in a carnival sideshow) whereas the Catholic who accepts the traditional dogma of inspiration is a “huge barn” or “sitting duck.” That destroys constructive exegetical dialogue. In a nutshell, what I would call the “liberal” exegete always has an “out” of simply denying that the text was in the original, or attributing it to one of the other “letter guys” (J,E,P,D), to explain all so-called “discrepancies.”

In exegeting the Genesis passage, I am not trying to start by presuming to know God is a consistent being who cannot contradict himself.

If the Bible is indeed inspired in toto, that would follow as a matter of course, would it not? The question isn’t whether theological and cultural understanding develops. It certainly does (and development of doctrine is my favorite topic in theology and one of my specialties — and indeed what made me a Catholic in large part). Rather, it is a fundamental question about the nature of revelation and inspiration. If one believes in those on other grounds, your premise above in how you approach the text is either irrelevant or meaningless. So we have fundamental disagreements.

Rather, I am saying I am going to approach this text as a piece of literature and try to determine what the human author intended.

That goes only so far. The danger is to reduce Holy Writ to a mere archaeological piece rather than God’s inspired, infallible, and inerrant revelation (all de fide dogmas, too, by the way, and not optional for an orthodox Catholic).

Only after making this determination, will I then move to the issue of what God might be saying to us today through this human author. I believe this approach is justified in Dei Verbum and in the Catechism. In Church teaching, the classical “literal sense” of Scripture is the meaning intended by the human author who wrote in idioms and forms common to his or her culture.

Again, that is true to a large extent, but it is distorted by being applied to the exclusion of the inspired and self-harmonious nature of the document (the Bible).

I gave several examples where the J source behind much of Genesis acts in ways we would consider arbitrary. One minute, Yahweh is telling Abraham to kill Isaac, the next he’s not.

This is a sterling example of the ludicrosity often involved in the adoption (or I should say, application) of the JEPD theory, or something akin to it. What you find “arbitrary” and objectionable is easily explained as a test where God knew all along that He would not actually require Abraham to do the act. That was understood not far from this time period by the Jews, as illustrated in the book of Job. They were not so stupid that they couldn’t figure it out. It is only modern liberal exegesis that reaches heights of (what Malcolm Muggeridge would call) “fathomless imbecility.”

And though Abraham committed murder in his heart, his faith in Yahweh is credited to him as righteousness.

This is absurd also, because if this was murder, then God the Father “murdered” Jesus because it was His will that He be sacrificed to save mankind. Likewise, Jesus committed suicide because He came to earth with the intent all along to be sacrificed.

Circumcision was another example of J’s sense of God giving arbitrary commands. What moral purpose does self mutilation serve?

It is a sign of the covenant, as the Bible says about 50 times. A foreskin is not exactly an essential part of the human body, and there were certain health risks related to it in those days. What is truly self-mutilation is a practice totally consistent with the contraceptive mentality: a vasectomy.

I also pointed to Gen 15 and the way Abraham discerns Yahweh’s will by cutting apart an animal and burning it. This text is written by a group of people who hold a very different theology of God than most Christians hold today.

This is directly related to the Mosaic Law: the same Law which Jesus said was in full effect in some sense, and which He came to fulfill (Matthew 5:17-19). It would also come as a great surprise to the author of Hebrews or to the Gospel writers who refer to the “Lamb of God” (see also the book of Revelation). Where do you think all that comes from? Where you see “very different” I simply see development. I am not approaching the Bible as an anthropologist, but as a Christian, who believes it to be inspired and entirely self-consistent.

Their God is arbitrary, and one acts with virtue not by acting rationally, but by obeying God’s every whim!

Sheer nonsense. What the Hebrews believed is shown in the book of Job and in books like Isaiah: God’s ways are higher than our ways, but He is not arbitrary or capricious: simply above our understanding (as we would expect of such a Being).

Two quick points: First, Pope John Paul II references the Yahwists and Elohists sources several times in Evangelium Vitae in his exegesis of the Cain and Abel story. Whether the theory is perfect or not, the use of this type of Biblical criticism has the papal stamp.

I am not absolutely against (some form of) the theory per se (let alone historical processes in compiling OT books); rather, I am primarily opposed to widespread uses of this theory which are arbitrary (as I explained) and which militate against a theory of unified inspiration (in other words, those which smack of theological liberalism and dissent).

Hermeneutics and belief in biblical inspiration and revelation are two different things. If the Bible as we know it is inspired in its entirety, then contradictions in theology cannot occur. I am presupposing development when I state this (bear in mind). But the whole thing is harmonious. That follows from the nature of the case: if it is “God-breathed,” it cannot be contradictory (at least in the original manuscripts: another discussion again).

You have actually said things like (paraphrasing): “I doubt that God told Abraham to kill Isaac.” That would entail a denial of inspiration and the trustworthiness of the biblical record (even involving New Testament espousal of these events). That leads you far afield from merely the Documentary Hypothesis.

Second, the goal of historical-critical methods is not to “explain away” what is inconvenient. Indeed, the methods often raise tougher questions for us. Rather, the goal of historical critical and literary methods of studying the Bible is truly and honestly trying to discern what the author of a particular passage intended.

I’m not opposed to intent of the author or a legitimate use of the historico-critical method, either (as I have already noted): only abuses of the same and the efforts of people who no longer hold to the high view of Holy Scripture, and who approach the study of the Bible like a butcher approaches a hog.

I have made my individual criticisms of your method. You would be mistaken to generalize those criticisms to all serious modern biblical scholarship. I am opposed to what I feel (as a Catholic) are departures from legitimate, tradition-affirming Bible scholarship, based on various hostile presuppositions brought to the work.

Furthermore, as a Catholic, I believe that there is more than one sense of Scripture (i.e. – the literal, the spiritual, the moral, the allegorical, and the anagogical, as well as the reading within tradition – see par 113-117 of the CCC).

So do I, which is why I possess and am rather fond of, Mark Shea’s book, Making Senses Out of Scripture, and I have noted this different hermeneutic in replying to Protestants.

However, as par 116 indicates, all meanings must be based in some way on the literal sense, which is the sense intended by the author derived through sound exegesis.

That’s right. I noted that in my paper above also.

Thus, I object to interpreting Gen 38 as though the same human author of Dt 25 were writing both passages, because the two pieces of literature have very different literary styles and theologies of God.

This illustrates the problem I have with your method (at least insofar as I am familiar with it, from this dialogue). So what if there are different literary styles!? This proves nothing in and of itself (though I agree that it might suggest a different author — just not necessarily, on these grounds alone).

I have many different styles of writing myself. I do satires, love poems, musical criticism, movie reviews, exegetical writing, analyses of historical theology; more sentimental and pastoral writing, conversion stories (first-person narrative), jeremiads, Christmas poems, socratic dialogues, straight philosophy, sociological writing, social-cultural analysis (such as on abortion or race relations), “literary” writing, psychological-type speculation, free-form poetry, political writing, homiletic / “preachy” stuff, philosophy of science, etc. That’s 21 different “styles” already.

Secondly, it is not at all clear to me that you have established that these two authors (granting there are two for the sake of argument) have different theologies. All I saw you doing was reading your subjective opinion into it (eisegesis), whereas I could easily submit a plausible synthesis, just as reasonable as your assumption that there is a discrepancy here.

I understand your feeling here [concerning arbitrariness of interpretation], which is why I also quoted some maxims of such people as Hank Hanegraaff and Norman Geisler.

I’m very familiar with them. Geisler is my favorite Protestant apologist.

This is the way I would like the Roman Catholic Church to handle such a controverted issue.

Another instance of you reasoning precisely as a Protestant would: you accept evangelical Hanegraaff’s approach to contraception but reject the papal approach of several very prominent encyclicals. Very curious . . .

Geisler is the co-author with Ralph Mackenzie of Catholics and Protestants: Agreements and Differences, which is probably the most balanced work on the subject by conservative Evangelical Protestants.

Yes, I agree. I talked to MacKenzie on the phone once.

I was trying to have a discussion on the exegesis by referencing people who think like you do (and I need to go to Protestants to do it).

But you misunderstood how sweeping my criticisms were. I don’t just think like Protestant Bible scholars. On the other hand, many of them hold to views on the Bible that most Catholics used to hold, and no longer do, because of the liberal decimation of Catholic education. So when they continue to hold infallibility and inerrancy, they are more “Catholic” in that regard than a liberal Catholic who tosses that and accepts any number and manner of ludicrous, anti-traditional notions.

Let me add this, however. I am not personally aware of any Catholic Biblical scholar in the entire world who thinks that the Pentateuch was written by one human author, and I am not aware of any Catholic biblical scholar who does not make use of historical critical methods.

I am not so concerned about one author as I am about biblical unity and inspiration and self-consistency, no matter how many authors are involved. They were all inspired, by definition. So it really doesn’t matter if Moses was the sole author of the Pentateuch. I tend (as a non-scholar) to think that he was at least the primary author. I agree with Fr. John A. Hardon, S. J. (whom I knew: he received me into the Church and wrote the Foreword to my first book):

A decision of the Biblical Commission (June 27, 1906) stated that Moses was the principal and inspired author of the Pentateuch and that the books were finally published under his name. But in 1948 the secretary of the pontifical Biblical Commission acknowledged that “today there is no longer anyone who questions the existence of sources used in the composition of the Pentateuch or who does not admit the progressive accretion of Mosaic Laws due to the social and religious conditions of later times.”(Modern Catholic Dictionary, Garden City, New York: Doubleday, 1980, “Pentateuch,” 414)

I am not saying that I am sure that there are none. However, I haven’t read or heard or one.

Fr. William G. Most was a decent scholar. I found an article online where he critiques the Documentary Hypothesis. Here is a portion:

1. Concentric circles in Scripture:

*

a) J. Schildenberger, Vom Gehemnis des Gotteswortes,
Heidelberg, 1950, p. 163ff (cited from Le Frois, p. 190): “As a
consequence of the Hebrew’s thinking in totalities, it is easy to see
that in presenting his subject-matter, the Hebrew does not develop it
so much in logical order step by step from general to particular, but
rather from the very outset he has the complete topic concretely in
mind, and not being able to present it all at once, he keeps coming
back to it, letting it be seen from various aspects, now emphasizing
this angel, now that, until in the end the full picture, which we saw
totally but not clearly from the very start, has been imbibed with
full grasp and satisfaction.”

b) John 1:1-18 comes in three waves:

1-5: General statement: the Word was God, in the beginning, madeall things. Had life for men, but darkness did not overcome it.

*

6-13: John witnesses to the true light coming into the world,
who had make the world, but the world did not know or accept
Him.

14-18: The Word became flesh, John bore witness to Him. We
receive fullness through Him who makes the Father known.

. . . COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC CASES OF DOUBLETS

*

1. Genesis 1 and 2. It is claimed:

a) Doublet–the repeat shows two sources.

*

b) Difference of style–transcendent God in Gen 1, but naive
anthropomorphisms in Gen 2.

c) Difference in words for God– Elohim in Gen 1, Yahweh
Elohim in 2.

COMMENTS: a) On Doublets: Concentric rings seem to be a
Biblical pattern. Kitchen shows some plausible, though not
conclusive examples of same in Urartu and Egypt.

*

b) Difference in style: There are also anthropomorphisms in
Gen 1 –God called by same, saw, blessed, made man, who is bodily in
His image.

Further, the argument from style is partly circular — the P
source has arid precise style partly because just such matter was
assigned to P because the matter was such.

Finally: Arguments from style are flimsy –cf.the case of
Tacitus’ Dialogus, and Inscription of Uni (Kitchen AC and OT p.125).

c) Difference in words for God: It is at least probable from
Ebla (see separate sheet) that Yahweh and El are interchangeable. —
Genesis 2 actually uses both most of the time, together, and the fact
that the second concentric ring is fuller could be a reason. –The
LXX does not adhere so closely as does the MT. MT has Yahweh Elohim
in 2,4,5,7 –LXX has only Theos in each case.

Further: Chapter 3 is considered all from J –yet it uses
Elohim alone 3 times (verses 1,3,5).

Chapter 4 is all J –has Elohim alone in 25.
Chapter 5 is all but 29 from P –29 alone has Yahweh.
Chapter 6: 1-8 are J –but include 3 times Elohim alone (verses 2,4,5).
Chapter 7 is a medley, they say –much slicing and re-gluing, even cutting
verse 16 in two since it has Elohim and Yahweh separately in two parts of
the verse.

Chapter 8 includes much of the save slicing and re-gluing
–has E 3 times, and Y 3 times.

Near Eastern usage also shows variations in divine names. In
the Enuma elish in tablet 1 –Tiamat 13 times, Khubur once. In
tablet 2, 15 times T once K, in tablet 3 –9 times T, twice K. In
tablet 1 –5 times Ea, twice Nudimmud. In tablet 2, 4 times Ea, once
N. In tablet 3, N twice, Ea not at all. In tablet 4, N twice, Ea
not at all. In tablet 4 Marduk 4 times, Bel once.

. . . CRITIQUE OF THE DOCUMENTARY THEORY

II. The argument from shifts in divine names

It is claimed that the variation between Elohim and Yahweh is due to
the use of two sources.

COMMENT: See P above (“Comments on Specific Cases of Doublets 1,c).

III. The argument from difference in style between documents

The style of the Yahwist contains unified scenes bound together by a
continuous thread. He prefers the concrete and picturesque and is
good at character portraits. He is a good storyteller, and a
psychologist who is concerned with the secrets of man’s heart. –The
Elohist lacks the lively picturesque manner, has less dramatic vigor,
less warmth of nationalism, is simpler, smoother, even more
disciplined, and perhaps somewhat of an archaizing manner.

Further, the Yahwist goes in for anthropomorphisms, which the Elohist
does not do.

COMMENTS: 1) The reasoning is partly circular –parts were
selected precisely for reason of the style. As we saw above (p.1.c)
the use of Yahweh vs. Elohim is not strictly observed as a criterion.
In fact, there is much disagreement about which verses belong to
which writer –and a lot of scissors and paste reassembling to locate
each document.

2) There are at least some anthropomorphisms in E–

(“Rested” 2.2-3) God saw, He called by name, He made man (who is
bodily) in His own image.

3) Arguments based on style are always inconclusive, and
often flimsy –cr.the case of the Dialogues of Tacitus.

4) Kitchen (AO and OT p.125) asserts style variations are
common in Near East and mentions:

a) Biography of Uni (c 2400 BC Egypt) which has flowing
narrative, summary statements, a victory hymn, two different refrains
repeated at suitable but varying intervals.

b) Royal inscriptions of kings of Urartu –9th to 8th
centuries BC (through at least 4 reigns) which include fixed formula
for the going forth of the god Haldi, a triple formula and variants
for that of the king, compact statements of success, or first person
narrative, at times statistics of forces of Urartu and of prisoners
and booty.

I am defining “Biblical Scholar” as a Catholic with a graduate level degree in the specific field of Sacred Scripture from an accredited Catholic university or seminary. Even the Gregorian in Rome uses the historical critical methods, as does the Pontifical Biblical Commission, and even the more conservative Navarre Bible out of Spain, while being conservative in approach, does use historical critical methods. To my knowledge, the only people who outright reject multiple source theories in scholarly circles are Evangelical Protestants.

Pope Pius XII, in his encyclical Humani Generis (1950), was already responding to liberalism-run-amok in Scripture studies (which, as I have noted, is my primary concern here):

We must specially deplore a certain excessively free way of interpreting the historical books of the Old Testament . . . the first eleven chapters of Genesis, even though they do not fully match the pattern of historical composition used by the great Greek and Latin writers of history, or by modern historians, yet in a certain true sense — which needs further investigation by scholars — do pertain to the genre of history. (DS 3898)

Did Vatican II (1962-1965) in any way countenance the sort of liberal “Bible butchery” that I am decrying? No, of course not:

Since Sacred Scripture must be read and interpreted according to the same Spirit by whom it was written, no less attention must be devoted to the content and unity of the whole of Scripture, taking into account the Tradition of the entire Church and the analogy of faith. (Dogmatic Constitution On Divine Revelation, 12; p. 758 in Flannery: 1988 revised edition)

Catholic scholar Eugene Maly, writing in the Jerome Biblical Commentary (1968), stated:

Moses is at the heart of the Pentateuch, and can, in accord with the common acceptance of the ancient period, correctly be called its author. (I, p. 5)

The 1964 Biblical Commission Instruction on Form Criticism warned of the errors that I have been criticizing:

He [the scholar] should act circumspectly because philosophical and theological principles that cannot at all be approved are often found mixed with this method, [principles] which not rarely vitiate both the method and the conclusions on literary matters. For certain practitioners of this method, led astray by prejudiced opinions of rationalism often refuse to admit the existence of the supernatural order, and the intervention of a personal God in the world by revelation properly so-called, and the possibility and actual existence of miracles and prophecies.

Vatican II also upheld the traditional belief that Scripture was without error (Dogmatic Constitution On Divine Revelation, 11), referring to statements of Vatican I, Leo XIII, and Pius XII, all of whom believed that the Bible contained no error at all (not even scientific or historical — see their two famous encyclicals on Holy Scripture).

So is this a “Protestant” or “fundamentalist” approach to Scripture? Hardly: it is thoroughly Catholic. I am as entitled to criticize aspects of the Documentary Theory or any other type of critical method, as you are to utilize them (in accordance with Church instruction).

Fr. William Most wrote elsewhere:

a) Mosaic authorship of Pentateuch: The Biblical Commission said on June 27, 1906 it was permissible to hold “that the work, conceived by [Moses] under divine inspiration, was entrusted to another or to several to be written… and that finally the work done in this way and approved by the same Moses as the leader and inspired author was published.” . . . It is believed by many that the Pentateuch was put together out of four basic documents: Yahwist, Elohist, Priestly Code, and Deuteronomist – hence the name JEPD for the Documentary Theory. But that Documentary theory is not proved.Joseph Blenkinsopp of Notre Dame in his review of R. N. Whybray, The Making of the Pentateuch (Journal For Study of Old Testament Supplement 5. Sheffield, 1987) wrote (CBQ Jan. 1989, pp. 138-39): “It is widely known by now that the documentary hypothesis is in serious trouble, with no viable alternative yet in sight.” He continues saying that Whybray has easily shown the fragility of many of the arguments given for the theory, sometimes requiring an unreasonable level of consistency within the sources, at other times not.

Further, Newsweek of Sept. 28, 1981, p. 59 reported that Yehuda Radday, coordinator of the Technion Institute in Israel, fed the Hebrew text of Genesis into a computer, and concluded: “It is most probable that the book of Genesis was written by one person.”

So we cannot be sure Moses was not the author of the Pentateuch in the ancient sense.

See also Fr. Most’s works, Free From All Error: Authorship, Inerrancy, Historicity of Scripture, Church Teaching, and Modern Scripture Scholars and Basic Scripture (as well as many other wonderful articles and books). For good evangelical critiques of the Documentary Hypothesis, see Gleason Archer: “What Evidence Proves Moses Wrote the First Five Books of the Bible?”; also, Wayne Jackson: “Destructive Criticism and the Old Testament”.

Catholic writer Mark Shea provided (in 2002: link unable to be found) a funny satire on Documentary Theory, using The Lord of the Rings:

Applying JEPD Theory to The Lord of the RingsOne standard staple of biblical criticism for the past century has been the theory that the Old Testament isn’t composed of “books” that somebody “wrote” but is instead a pastische of “sources” that religio political factions “assembled”. If you find yourself thinking “Only an academic–and a German one–could suppose that the foundational literature of Western civilization could be pasted together by a committee and only an academic–and a German one–could suppose that you find out what the text really means by dissolving it in the acid bath of deconstruction to tease out the supposedly original Yahwist (J), Elohist (E), Priestly (P) and Deuteronomic (D) sources”, you’re right. The theory has run into trouble (since nobody seems to agree on which cut n paste fragments belong to which source and nobody knows why the editors who allegedly stuck all these sources together did what they did. But, as with pure naturalistic theories of evolution, your task is to shut up and bow to your superiors, not ask obvious questions.

In the spirit of redaktion criticism, Bruce Baugh now offers some preliminary theories on the variation in sources used by the makers of the Two Towers. I think he’s on to something. Jackson is clearly operating from Rohanian sources for purely political reasons. Truly educated people can see these things right off the bat. It’s obvious to any thinking person that the whole “Tolkien Authorship Myth” must go. The Lord of the Rings was not “written” by a so-called “author” named “Tolkien”. Rather, it is a final redaction of sources ranging from the Red Book of Westmarch, to Elvish Chronicles, to Gondorian records, to tales of Rohirrim which were only transcribed centuries later. The various pressure groups which preserved these stories all had their own agendas. For instance, the Gondorian records clearly seek to elevate the claims of the Aragorn monarchy over the house of Denethor. So the record has been sanitized. Indeed, many scholars now believe the “Faramir being healed by Aragorn” doublet of the “Frodo being helped by Aragorn” is a sanitized version of the murder of Denethor by Aragorn through the administration of poison. “Faramir” never existed and is a corruption of “Boromir”, who died under uncertain circumstances in the wilderness. Since the scenes of Aragorn healing “Frodo” also take place in the wilderness, most scholars conclude that “Frodo” is a mythic echo of Boromir, whose quest for Power is like Aragorn’s quest for the Throne. Perhaps, Boromir was one of Aragorn’s first victims. Of course, the whole “Ring” motif appears in countless folk tales and is to be discounted altogether. The real “War of the Ring” was doubtless some small tribal dispute that was exaggerated by bardic sources, much like the Exodus or the Fall of Troy. Gandalf appears to have been some sort of shamanistic figure, introduced to the Narrative by W (the Westmarch source) out of deference to local Shire cultic practice.

Rohan seems to have been of much help to the establishment of the Aragorn monarchy and so R sources find their way into the final version of the LOTR narrative, but greatly altered so as to give Theoden a subordinate role. Meanwhile, we can only guess at the Sauron and Saruman sources, since they seem to have been destroyed by the victors and give a wholly negative view of these doubtlessly complex, warm, human and many-sided figures. Scholars now know, of course, that the identification of Sauron with “pure evil” is simply wrong. Indeed, many scholars have become quite fond of Sauron and are searching the records with a growing passion and zeal for any lore connected with the making of the One Ring. “It’s all nonsense, of course,” says Dr. Gol M. Smeagol, “There never was such a Ring. Still… I… should… very much like to have a look at it. Just for scholarly purposes of course.”

***

(originally 2-12-04)

Photo credit: Moses with the Ten Commandments (1648), by Philippe de Champaigne (1602-1674) [public domain / Wikipedia]

***

August 8, 2018

Dr. Ted Drange is an atheist philosopher, renowned in atheist circles for his arguments against Christianity. Back around 2001, he started vigorously challenging me. At first I had no idea that he was a philosophy professor (which was a bit unfair, and should have been disclosed, but anyway . . .).  This particular argument was much ballyhooed on Jeffrey Jay Lowder’s Secular Web. He wrote there about it, and several papers along these lines; also about Dr. Drange in particular:

Philosopher Theodore Drange introduced a related but distinct argument for atheism in his 1998 book, Nonbelief and Evil. Drange calls his argument simply the “argument from nonbelief” and bases it upon all nonbelief, not just reasonable nonbelief. (In “Nonbelief as Support for Atheism,” Drange states he considers the distinction between culpable and inculpable nonbelief to be both unclear and irrelevant.)

Apparently the book was in part derived from a 1996 article, “The Arguments from Evil and Nonbelief .” It’s that article that I respond to below. It was from Dr. Drange that I learned (back in 2001 when I first encountered him) that otherwise intelligent atheists and academics like himself often don’t have the slightest clue what they are talking about when describing Christianity or the Bible.

Subsequently, I’ve seen countless examples of this ignorance and attempted “appearance of knowledge” where in fact there is little (and have numerous related posted dialogues to more than prove my assertion). Expertise and credentials in one area (philosophy or, oftentimes with atheists, science) doesn’t necessarily carry over into expertise in another (biblical exegesis and hermeneutics and the fine points of historic Christian doctrine). Credentials and book learning in completely separate fields can’t produce an “instant Bible scholar” or “Church historian” without the requisite study.

This trait was rather spectacularly exhibited by the famous atheist Richard Dawkins, in his (sadly) influential book, The God Delusion. I recently read it and critiqued it; particularly his outlandish pseudo-“arguments” regarding alleged biblical teachings.

Dr. Drange’s words will be in blue.

*****

According to this objection, which may be called “the Free-Will Defense” or FWD for short, premise (A3) of ANB is false because there is something that God wants even more strongly than situation S and that is the free formation of proper theistic belief.

It doesn’t follow that He wants it “more.” He wants both (as far as that goes), but both cannot (or often, or potentially cannot) exist together, and even an omnipotent being cannot make it so, if He creates and allows free will in human beings. I suspect that this misunderstanding will be the seed of further fallacious arguments . . . We’ll see.

God wants people to come to believe the propositions of set P freely and not as the result of any sort of coercion.

Indeed.

He knows that people would indeed believe those propositions if he were to directly implant the belief in their minds or else perform spectacular miracles before them.

In the first instance, yes, but that would be the coercion that God doesn’t desire. The second is untrue because it is known that whatever miracle occurs, many skeptics like you guys on this list will disbelieve it (see, e.g., Luke 16:30-31), because you either rule out the possibility of the miraculous beforehand (“define it away”) or make verification practically impossible, so that no miracle can occur, let alone a belief in God which oftentimes follows such a remarkable happening. Jesus rebuked the Pharisees, who wouldn’t believe that he healed a blind man, when He did it right in front of them. They cared little about demonstrable fact (John 9:1-41 — all).

But for him to do that would interfere with their free will, which he definitely does not want to happen.

Miracles don’t interfere with free will, but people often refuse to believe them because of their false philosophical presuppositions or, e.g., unwillingness to accept the conclusion that the miracle suggests, about God, or about the difference that a God would make in their own life and responsibilities.

Since God’s desire that humans retain their free will outweighs his desire for situation S, it follows that premise (A3) is false, which makes ANB unsound.

It doesn’t “outweigh” anything in God’s desires; it is simply a state of affairs that makes sin and rebellion against God, and evil possible, and hence, human beings not believing in God, etc.

There are many objections to FWD. First and foremost, assuming that God wants to avoid interfering with people’s free will, it is not clear that that desire actually conflicts with his desire for situation S. Why should showing things to people interfere with their free will?

It doesn’t; I agree.

People want to know the truth.

Some do; not all, by a long shot. Of course all of us here are pure truth seekers who flee in horror from all falsehoods, no matter how minor. :-)

It would seem, then, that to show them things would not interfere with their will, but would conform to it. Even direct implantation of belief into a person’s mind need not interfere with his/her free will. If that person were to want true beliefs and not care how the beliefs are obtained, then for God to directly implant true beliefs into his/her mind would not interfere with, but would rather comply with, the person’s free will.

Only if he were free to change his mind. If not, it would interfere with his free will and free choice.

An analogy would be God making a large unexpected direct deposit into someone’s bank account. It would make the person quite pleased and would not at all interfere with his/her free will.

Sure, but this is irrelevant to the question at hand. The truly free person can now take that money and squander it in whatever fashion he likes. Likewise, free persons can reject God, even if they know that He is exactly what Christians claim Him to be, just as people rejected Jesus during His lifetime, even though He was an obviously and extraordinarily good person by virtually any criteria of ethics and behavior towards others.

Furthermore, as was explained previously in Section I, there are many different ways by which God might bring about situation S. It is not necessary for him to use either direct implantation or spectacular miracles. He could accomplish it through relatively ordinary means. It would be ludicrous to claim that free will has to be interfered with whenever anyone is shown anything.

Again, I agree. But this goes off into different ground from ANB proper (at least as Steve presented it). It’s really very simple: if people can freely choose, then that must include the possibility of a rejection of God. That’s utterly obvious, and is proven by the very beliefs of the folks on this list. You have all chosen to reject a belief in God. You claim there is no God to even reject.

Whether or not God actually exists is beside my current point. You have chosen to deny it. So if God exists, clearly there are people who reject Him and deny that He is the Supreme Being, worthy of a full allegiance, and so forth. If He does not exist, you still have freely made the choice. If you haven’t freely made it, then what is the point of having any discussions here at all, since we are all believing what we must believe and can do no other?

People have their beliefs affected every day by what they read and hear, and their free will remains intact. Finally, even the performance of spectacular miracles need not cause such interference. People want to know the truth. They particularly want to be shown how the world is really set up. To perform miracles for them would only conform to or comply with that desire. It would therefore not interfere with their free will. Hence, FWD fails to attack premise (A3) of ANB because it fails to present a desire on God’s part that conflicts with his desire for situation S. That failure makes the Free-Will Defense actually irrelevant to premise (A3).

What is irrelevant here is the shifting to this “spectacular miracles will prove to virtually every person that there is a God” approach. I suppose that is part of Ted’s overall argument (as I have heard him argue this before). But if so, it should have been a prominent part of the original presentation. I deny this new premise, and I deny that FWD rests on some alleged conflict between different desires of God. I am contending that FWD is true because there are certain things that even an omnipotent being cannot do, not because God desired one thing more than another.

Even if there were people whose free will would be interfered with by God showing them things, it would seem that such people would be benefited by coming to know how things really are. Quite apart from the issue of salvation, just being aware that there is a God who loves humanity and who has provided an afterlife for it would bring comfort and hope to people.

Sure it would. The Christian view is that all people know this without even a spectacular miracle before their eyes. And they know it by creation itself. The Apostle Paul makes the argument in Romans 1:18-32. He says that God’s “eternal power and divine nature” can be known by His creation (Romans 1:20). It’s a simple presentation of the Teleological Argument. Then he goes on to state that people reject truth even when they know full well what it is (Romans 1:18,21,25,28). The biblical and Christian view of human nature is far more pessimistic, and doesn’t see man as this objective truth machine who will inevitably follow truth whenever it is presented.

And again, that argument works and is fairly self-evident whether God exists or not. If He does, and if Christianity is true, then all of you disbelieve it. That shows both that you have the free will to do so, and that (granting our premises) truth can be rejected. If there is no God, on the other hand, then all of us Christians are rebelling against the obvious truth of atheism. You present your crystal-clear arguments to people like me and I reject them utterly. In that case, I am not seeking the truth you find to be so obvious and compelling. Either way, people are not truth-seekers by nature, and Ted’s point here fails, as clearly and demonstrably untrue, in both a theistic and an atheistic state of affairs in actuality.

A loving God would certainly want them to have such comfort and hope.

And He provides it, and all men know it, at least in outline form. We disagree on how much evidence is needed to establish that God exists. All anti-supernaturalists place the bar of “proof” so high that it will never be reached for most individuals in the world.

So, even if it were granted that showing things to some people interferes with their free will, FWD would still not work well, for it has not made clear why God should refrain from showing them things of which they ought to be aware. Such “interference with free will” seems to be just what such people need to get “straightened out”.

He has done so. There is creation itself; there is the law written upon our hearts” and conscience (Romans 2:15); there is widespread agreement across religions and cultures about basic moral tenets, and a religious awareness itself. And there is the Christian revelation and religious experience and miracles performed in history, and the life of Jesus, and (above all) His Resurrection, and on and on.

There are all kinds of evidences. It’s never enough for the atheist. That is the point, not that God should provide sufficient evidence and hasn’t done so. So again Ted is arguing in a circle. He assumes that this presentation of evidence is lacking, when in fact it is not. So that leads him to make silly arguments, such as, “it has not made clear why God should refrain from showing them things of which they ought to be aware.”

There is a further objection concerning God’s motivation. FWD seems to claim that God wants people to believe the propositions of set P in an irrational way, without good evidence.

I don’t see how, unless one accepts Ted’s straw man presentation of what both Christianity and FWD supposedly teach.

But why would he want that? Why would a rational being create people in his own image and then hope that they become irrational?

He doesn’t. It’s a straw man. Atheism is the irrational path, and it is chosen voluntarily.

Furthermore, it is not clear just how people are supposed to arrive at the propositions of set P in the absence of good evidence.

I agree.

Is picking the right religion just a matter of lucky guesswork? Is salvation a kind of cosmic lottery? Why would God want to be involved in such an operation?

Indeed. More non sequiturs . . .

Sometimes the claim is made that, according to the Bible, God really does want people to believe things without evidence. Usually cited for this are the words of the resurrected Christ to no-longer-doubting Thomas: “because you have seen me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed” (John 20:29).

This is not an encouragement of belief without evidence, and quite obviously so, as this very passage occurs when Jesus has appeared to Thomas after His Resurrection, telling Thomas to put his hands in his wounds. So, clearly, Jesus isn’t enjoining a blind, irrational, non-empirical faith, because He has just appeared, offering empirical proof in His own resurrected body! That might be enough even for Ted! If I fell into a tree shredder in front of Ted and came out hamburger, and then my body came back together and I was resurrected and came to Ted and had him feel all my shred-wounds, perhaps he would suspect that there was something to this afterlife business. Or he could convince himself that he had too many drinks, or was hallucinating, etc.

To reach such a conclusion of supposed “fideism” or “blind faith” in this passage, context has to be thrown to the wind, and literal absurdity adopted as “exegesis.” Jesus is not knocking evidences for faith at all; rather, He is simply praising those who can believe without having to have such miracles as a requirement before they will believe. And that is because there are many evidences of Christianity besides miracles.

Also, Peter praises those who believe in Jesus without seeing him (I Peter 1:8). But the message here may not be that God wants people to believe things without any evidence whatever. It may be, rather, that there are other forms of evidence than seeing, such as, for example, the testimony of friends. Perhaps God is simply indicating that he approves of belief based on the testimony of others.

Yes, much better. This is exactly what Peter is saying here. He is simply extolling their faith. But the same Peter appealed to empirical eyewitness testimony of the risen Jesus: his own (see, e.g., Acts 2:32, 2 Peter 1:16).

Note that, earlier, the resurrected Christ had upbraided some of his disciples for not trusting the testimony of other disciples (Mark 16:14). His words to Thomas may have been just a continuation of that theme.

Correct. And He rebuked them precisely because they were disciples and had seen enough miracles to know Who Jesus was. In other words, it is a special case, if one had walked with Jesus for three years and missed all His miracles, and wouldn’t even believe Him when He predicted that he would rise from the dead (see, e.g., John 10:17-18).

Thus, it is not clear that God desires irrational belief on the part of humans, nor is it clear why he should want that, if indeed he does.

Good; now you know that Christianity is not blind faith or fideism at all. Quite the opposite; we stake our claims on empirical evidence and eyewitness testimony.

As another objection to FWD, even if it were true that showing people things interferes with their free will, that seems not to have been a very important consideration for God. According to the Bible, he did many things, some of them quite spectacular, in order to cause observers to have certain beliefs. An advocate of the argument needs to explain why God was willing to do such things in the past but is no longer willing to do them in the present.

Again, Ted assumes that miracles no longer occur: more circular argument. For example, there was the miracle of the sun at Fatima, Portugal in 1917, connected with the Marian apparitions there. Thousands of people saw the sun spinning like a pinwheel; then all of a sudden everyone was dry, where before it was rainy and muddy. The ground was instantly dry too. This was a crowd of thousands, and is a miracle somewhat similar to Ted’s hypothetical of (if I remember correctly) “John 3:16 written on the stars.”

Here was something involving the sun (in some sense) and the elements (rain) and thousands of eyewitnesses. But will Ted accept that? Of course not; he will dismiss it as a fairy tale and nonsense. And if the same thing occurred tomorrow and Ted was there, I suspect that he would find some way to reject that, too, because his prior presuppositions do not allow such a thing.

My best guess as to the nature of the miracle at Fatima is that God simultaneously made everyone see the same thing, by changing something in their brains or eyes. The water and mud drying up is something else again. That would be a miracle where the thing itself changed, rather than perceptions of it. God could, of course, do the same thing with the stars, in Ted’s scenario. We could even look at it in a telescope, but if God performed some sort of galactic optical illusion, we wouldn’t know if the stars had actually moved, or if our perception was altered. None of that is logically impossible for God to do.

Something remarkable happened at Fatima, and all the skeptic can say is that there were thousands of nutcases there, or it was a communal acid trip or something (just as with all the implausible alternate “explanations” of Jesus’ Resurrection). The cavalier dismissals of strange happenings are often as ridiculous as the detractors of miracles claim alleged miracles are. How many people can be nuts at once, for heaven’s sake?

Finally, the claim that God has non-interference with human free will as a very high priority is not well supported in Scripture. According to the Bible, God killed millions of people.

Millions, huh? I am dying to know how you arrive at this description of “millions.”

***

Surely that interfered with their free will, considering that they did not want to die.

God is also judge and has the prerogative over life and death. He created it, so He can take the life away and judge human lives. This shouldn’t be a controversial notion for anyone who advocates abortion, where a human being who merely conceived (not created) a child has a so-called “right” to destroy it as they choose. I don’t think your average child in the womb (with a heartbeat at 18 days and brain waves at six weeks) “wants to die” either. And that wrecks their free will.

So one (who holds such a view on abortion) can hardly quibble with the notion that God has the power of life or death over those whom He created. But God’s judgment is perfectly just and righteous, whereas child-killing is not at all. And the Creator-creature gulf is much greater than the big person-little person distinction. God killed people because they deserved judgment. We kill our own because they are small and helpless and inconvenient. Yet we sit in judgment of God?

Furthermore, the Bible suggests that God knows the future and predestines people’s fates.

God predestines only to heaven, not to hell, as most Christians have believed (excluding Calvinists). And even that involves human cooperation. It is a paradox and one of the most mysterious elements in theology, but man is free in some sense, within the parameters that God sets, just as the fish freely chooses where to swim in its fish tank, not being very conscious of the limitations of the glass edges of the aquarium.

That, too, may interfere with human free will. In addition, there are many obstacles to free will in our present world (famine, mental retardation, grave diseases, premature death, etc.) and God does little or nothing to prevent them.

But He also takes into account how these would affect people’s choices, religion-wise. When there is an eternal afterlife, that vastly changes the perspective on suffering on this earth. All atheists have is this life, so suffering is a much greater difficulty in their position and attempt to find meaning in life, than in the Christian position. The atheist life on earth is analogous to the entire universe, whereas the Christian life on earth is but one atom of the entire universe. The rest of the universe is analogous to the relative amount of the afterlife in one’s existence.

This is not conclusive proof that God does not have human free will as a high priority, but it does count against it. It is at least another difficulty for the Free-Will Defense. Considering these many objections, the argument seems not to work very well. Let us turn to a different defense against ANB.

I disagree entirely, and have stated my reasons why. We are either free beings or we are not. The alternative is determinism, which would render this whole discussion meaningless, as it was not free, but only an inevitable playing-out of some molecular process. Why bother convincing someone when it is not in your power to do so because they can only do what they are programmed to do?

***

It is not that atheism is obviously true, but that ANB (which very few people know about) is obviously sound.

Rather, it is obviously false because it is built on fallacious premises, as I have already shown, and will continue to demonstrate as we proceed.

The concept is so very simple: If God were to exist then he would want people to be aware of the gospel message (what his son did for them) and could cause them to be aware of it. But most people on our planet do not even believe the gospel message. Hence, God does not exist.

Hogwash. If God were to exist then He would want people to be aware of Him, in order to obtain eschatological (a 50-cent word, meaning “last things,” or “in the end”) salvation. He does that in ways which are more than merely the proclamation of the gospel (as explained in Romans 1 and 2). Thus, every person has the opportunity to be saved, whether they hear the gospel or not.

Therefore, God has indeed made fair provision, and your argument crumbles to dust (insofar as it is directed at the internal inconsistency of some supposed Christian belief-system). The Christian view already anticipates this objection and has more than adequately provided a counter-response to it.

What you need is more knowledge about how Christianity views salvation, and the attainment of same. You argue against something that Christians don’t hold in the first place. Small minorities hold such a position, but I’m sure you don’t want your argument directed towards those folks, but towards mainstream Christianity.

You say that God refrains from enlightening people on the matter because for him to do so would interfere with their free will,

That is not my argument, as explained several times already.

but that assumes something false: that enlightening people interferes with their free will. It just ain’t so!

I agree! If only you guys could figure that out. This forms no part of my argument, correctly-understood. Maybe Alvin Plantinga has explained better than I did.

In fact, it’s the exact opposite: enlightening people (especially about matters of importance to their future) enhances their free will. It increases their options and makes them more free than they were before.

I agree again.

It is ignorance, not enlightenment, that interferes with free will.

I think it makes for a much less-informed free will. To that extent I agree.

Why is it that people who have heard ANB remain Christians? It is because Christianity, which has been drummed into their brains from very young, comforts them, and it is also, that they really have not thought ANB all the way through.

In other words, you opt for the traditional atheist/skeptical recourse to the ignorance of Christians, and infantile recourse to God-as-Father. That won’t work with me or any informed Christian, and the tables can be turned, too, as I have done here in the past, with my “psychology of atheism” posts.

They come up with unsound defenses, like FWD, and are not aware of the refutations of those defenses.

Feel free to overcome the arguments I have given. Bald, unsubstantiated claims are not impressive. Whether or not some Christians are ignorant or misinformed (as indeed some are) has no bearing on the truth or falsity of my arguments.

How could having free will interfere with everyone knowing a certain truth? People have free will and yet they all know that stars exist. Why couldn’t the proposition that God exists be as obvious to everyone as the proposition that stars exist? . . .

Indeed it is:

Romans 1:19-20 (RSV) . . . what can be known about God is plain to them, because God has shown it to them. Ever since the creation of the world his invisible nature, namely, his eternal power and deity, has been clearly perceived in the things that have been made. So they are without excuse. (

David Hume made a very similar argument:

Wherever I see order, I infer from experience that there, there hath been Design and Contrivance . . . the same principle obliges me to infer an infinitely perfect Architect from the Infinite Art and Contrivance which is displayed in the whole fabric of the universe. (Letters, 25-26)

The whole frame of nature bespeaks an intelligent author; and no rational enquirer can, after serious reflection, suspend his belief a moment with regard to the primary principles of genuine Theism and Religion . . .

Were men led into the apprehension of invisible, intelligent power by a contemplation of the works of nature, they could never possibly entertain any conception but of one single being, who bestowed existence and order on this vast machine, and adjusted all its parts, according to one regular plan or connected system . . .

All things of the universe are evidently of a piece. Every thing is adjusted to every thing. One design prevails throughout the whole. And this uniformity leads the mind to acknowledge one author. (Natural History of Religion, 1757, edited by H. E. Root, London: 1956, 21, 26)

Or was Hume simply ignorant of ANB too, or was it because Hume had Christianity “drummed into his brain from very young,” which “comforted” him, leading him into a silly and false philosophy that had been expressed by St. Paul some 1700 years earlier?

***

(originally 2-26-03; new introduction added on 8-8-18)

Photo credit: StockSnap (uploaded on 8-6-17) [PixabayCC0 Creative Commons license]

***

August 2, 2018

It is maintained by many that the gift of tongues (if it still exists at all), is always another known language, as in the Upper Room at Pentecost, or that it can only mean that the hearers miraculously hear their own language. The following research backs up, I think, my contention that there is also a mysterious prayer language referred to in Holy Scripture, which cannot be identified as an existing human language.

*****

There is much biblical indication of the above thesis (NRSV):

1 Corinthians 12:10 . . . to another various kinds of tongues, to another interpretation of tongues.

1 Corinthians 12:28 . . . various kinds of tongues.

The whole point of 1 Corinthians 12 as a whole is to rebuke those who think one part of the Body of Christ is more important than another, and to excoriate those who deem certain gifts and roles as unnecessary or able to be discarded. How is it, then, that those who are outside of the charismatic movement so often condemn it in most vociferous — and ironically emotionalistic — terms? Have they not read this chapter and other utterances from St. Paul about the gift of “various tongues”?

1 Corinthians 12:30 Do all possess gifts of healing? Do all speak in tongues? Do all interpret?

Obviously not (Paul was being rhetorical). So, then, if someone doesn’t have the gift of tongues (and I am in their number), fine; God has other gifts for them. But why must the gift of tongues be singled out for unbridled disdain by so many people? It is biblical; it has been possessed by saints, and by well-known and respected Catholics today. What is the problem here? Must people always condemn something simply because they don’t understand it or possess it (as in this case)? On the other hand, this same verse goes against some charismatics who claim that all should speak in tongues.

1 Corinthians 13:1 If I speak in the tongues of mortals and of angels . . .

I highly doubt that angels speak any one human language, and it is likely that they speak a language entirely unhuman as well (insofar as they speak at all — that would usually be with humans, I would imagine).

1 Corinthians 14:2, 4-5  For those who speak in a tongue do not speak to other people but to God; for nobody understands them, since they are speaking mysteries in the Spirit . . . Those who speak in a tongue build up themselves, but those who prophesy build up the church. Now I would like all of you to speak in tongues, but even more to prophesy. One who prophesies is greater than one who speaks in tongues, unless someone interprets, so that the church may be built up.

Obviously, St. Paul is a “charismatic.” Note that the gift of tongues is specifically defined as not a known language. What happened in Acts 2 at Pentecost (other known languages) may also be included in Paul’s “various kinds of tongues,” I suppose, but the fact remains that when Paul explicitly defines the gift, in a teaching epistle, it is as a mysterious language that must be interpreted, in order to benefit others. Note also that Paul esteems prophesy more than tongues — so that makes him an even more wacko charismatic. I’m glad to be on the Apostle Paul’s side . . .

1 Corinthians 14:6, 9, 11 . . . if I come to you speaking in tongues, how will I benefit you unless I speak to you in some revelation or knowledge or prophecy or teaching? . . . if in a tongue you utter speech that is not intelligible, how will anyone know what is being said? For you will be speaking into the air . . . If then, I do not know the meaning of a sound, I will be a foreigner to the speaker and the speaker a foreigner to me.

Again, Paul defines tongues as an unknown language, not simply a language unknown to the particular hearer. Unfortunately, this passage and similar ones have been wrested from context to “prove” that somehow Paul is against tongues (i.e., an unknown prayer language) altogether. That this is not the case is seen clearly from several verses above — especially 1 Cor 14:5, and also in 1 Cor 14:18 (see below).

He is not preaching against tongues here; rather, he is stressing and extolling the other gifts which edify the Church and not just the utterer (see, e.g., 1 Cor 14:2-3,12-19; many others). One might contend that Paul was rebuking excess and corruption with regard to the gifts (especially tongues) – just as the Catholic Church and people like myself (in my apologist role) have been doing. I was criticizing the “name-it-claim-it” charismatic heresy way back in 1982 (as a Protestant evangelical charismatic, attending the Assemblies of God myself). Charismatics well understand that there are excesses in their movement.

1 Corinthians 14:13 Therefore one who speaks in a tongue should pray for the power to interpret.

Why, if tongues by definition is simply a known language, or mystically understood by all hearers in their own tongue?

1 Corinthians 14:14 For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays but my mind is unproductive.

This is the whole point: tongues edifies the utterer on a very deep, “spiritual” level. Yet so many of those who don’t possess this wonderful gift mock it as “gibberish,” “jibber-jabber,” etc. Why? Have they not read these chapters? They are being most “un-Pauline” and unbiblical!

1 Corinthians 14:15 What should I do then? I will pray with the spirit, but I will pray with the mind also; I will sing praise with the spirit, but I will sing praise with the mind also.

St. Paul is so off-base! How can he say such shocking things?! Far from the intolerant, condescending attitude of many non-charismatics towards charismatic worship, Paul is content to approve both forms of prayer and singing: “spiritual” and “intellectual,” if you will. Singing in the spirit? Who does that but charismatics (if by that is meant a singing beyond verbal forms)? We are happy to recognize non-tongues prayer and singing, but it seems that such biblical tolerance is not accorded to us. Paul is saying that both sorts of prayer are preferable (in assembly), but not that tongues without interpretation are therefore to be avoided altogether (14:18-19).

1 Corinthians 14:18 I thank God that I speak in tongues more than all of you.

Oh? So Paul is wrong? He is a nutcase and an “emotionalistic,” experience-obsessed person too? The Bible contains error, after all? Paul told us to imitate him; are we to make exceptions based on our own biases and prejudices? But again there is a balance. Paul doesn’t command all to speak in tongues. He merely says that there are many different gifts, “allot[ted] to each one individually just as the Spirit chooses” (1 Cor 12:11).

So the Christian is to acknowledge these gifts in others, and not to despise them or be jealous (or whatever the reason is for such unChristian condescension). And then he sums up his point in the next verse (1 Cor 14:19), viz., that other gifts are better for the purpose of edifying the Church. But that is not the same as saying that tongues are therefore bad. Such a conclusion is not Paul’s, and is a false dichotomy, illogically constructed by enemies of tongues for some odd reason. See also 1 Cor 14:20-25.

1 Corinthians 14:27 If anyone speaks in a tongue, let there be only two or at most three, and each in turn; and let one interpret.

Again, why, if tongues consists of known languages?

1 Corinthians 14:39 So, my friends, be eager to prophesy, and do not forbid speaking in tongues.

What?! Did Paul have too much to drink when he wrote this? Didn’t he know what so many Christians in our time would think of tongues? So our choice is to either follow St. Paul, the early Church, and the Bible, or the “traditions of men” which would forbid this gift, directly contrary to Paul’s explicit teaching and instruction.

1 Corinthians 14:40 But all things should be done decently and in order.

Amen! Let charismatic worship be “in order.” I’ve yet to meet any educated, thoughtful charismatic who would deny this. Contrary to the stereotype, most charismatic services — Catholic or Protestant — are perfectly organized and orderly as opposed to chaotic, wild, unpredictable, etc. Time is simply allowed for spontaneous prayer and tongues, within the context of the overall worship.

There are, of course, many excesses (I’ve observed them firsthand myself, on many occasions), but excess doesn’t prove illegitimacy or the presence of a counterfeit. There may be 50 people in the congregation truly babbling out of their own made-up version of what they think is tongues. But how does that prove that there are not 50 or more other people who are praying in a real prayer tongue?

So there is excess . . . nothing is more abused than the Bible and Christianity themselves. There are tons of false interpretations and counterfeit groups. So do we therefore toss out the Bible and the Faith? Of course not! How about sex? What is more abused than that? So we are all to renounce sex and become celibates and eunuchs because of it? Sex becomes intrinsically a bad thing, simply because it is so abused?

Yet a different- – far stricter- – standard is applied by non-charismatics to the charismatic renewal. There, any observed excess is regarded as a knockout punch to the movement as a whole. This is ridiculous; and as it is quite unbiblical (doctrinally speaking), it is not only foolish and illogical, but wicked, as it contradicts the clear teaching of St. Paul and the Bible, and calls evil what is oftentimes very good indeed — moves of the Holy Spirit.

It is argued by some that Luke wrote Acts, where tongues is presented as a known language. Luke was a disciple of Paul; therefore, Paul’s understanding of tongues would be the same. This is highly speculative and — in effect — eisegesis (“reading into Scripture one’s own notions”) of the passage, not exegesis. The actual Scriptures must be dealt with. Instead this argument begs the question under consideration, which (in my opinion) is whether or not there are more than one kind of tongues. Besides, it is poor exegesis do define a doctrine from historical events presented in Scripture, as opposed to actual didactic, doctrinal, theological teaching from St. Paul. Charismatics are prone to the same tendency. Some construct what I would consider a false doctrine of the baptism of the Holy Spirit, based on events recorded in Acts, which were historically-unique, rather than normative for each and every Christian.

Paul expressly speaks of “various kinds of tongues,” so this should not even be a controversial point in the first place. There is no compelling biblical reason at all to believe that the tongues at Pentecost are the only kind of tongues. On the other hand, I think there is strong biblical evidence for the charismatic view that such a thing as a “prayer tongue” exists, and is, in fact, mandated by St. Paul. It has not been demonstrated to me thus far that Pentecost is the intractable model for all manifestations of tongues-speaking.

Again, Paul he is not saying that tongues is bad; rather, that prophesy is better (1 Cor 14:1-4). He wants both. Non-charismatics seem to want only one option, and to forbid the other. Indeed, faith and reason are both indispensable in theology and Christian life. That is not at issue here. My entire apologetic approach and website are based on that assumption. Such “either/or” reasoning reminds me of those who say that the Church believes marriage is bad simply because it regards celibacy as a higher calling. Again, good and better, not good and bad; same thing with tongues and known verbal language and prayer (1 Cor 14:15). I think it is true that the deepest prayer and meditation transcends language. The Orthodox and Eastern Catholics highly stress this point (as does Western Catholic mysticism); I think rightly so (yet it is ironic that the Orthodox seem to be so dead set against the charismatic movement).

***

The following is a collection of citations from several standard Protestant reference works, both commentaries and lexicons. None are overtly charismatic or pentecostal works, as far as I know (probably quite the contrary – several probably take the position that the gift ceased after the Apostolic Age), yet they nicely support my position, and offer much solid biblical argumentation in favor of it.
*****
1) New Bible Dictionary, edited by J. D. Douglas, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1962, “Tongues, Gift of,” pp. 1286-7:

In the opinion of many modern scholars the glossolalia of Acts 2:1-13 was similar to that described in 1 Cor 12-14, and consisted of unintelligible ecstatic utterances . . . “Corinthian glossolalia differed in some respects from that described in Acts . . . Glossolalia in Acts appears to have been an irresistible and temporary initial experience, but at Corinth it was a continuing gift under the control of the speaker (1 Cor 14:27-28). At Pentecost the ‘tongues’ were readily understood by the hearers, but at Corinth the additional gift of interpretation was necessary to make them intelligible (verses 5,13,27). Only at Pentecost is speaking in foreign languages explicitly mentioned . . .

Tongues varied in character (1 Cor 12:10). At Corinth they were apparently not foreign languages, which Paul denotes by a different word (‘phone,’ 14:10-11), because a special gift, not linguistic proficiency, was necessary to understand them; nor were they meaningless ecstatic sounds, though the mind was inactive (verse 14) and the utterances, without interpretation, unintelligible even to the speaker (verse 13), because words (verse 19) and contents (verses 14-17) were recognized, and interpreted tongues were equivalent to prophecy (verse 5). A definite linguistic form is suggested by the Greek words for ‘to interpret’, which, elsewhere in the New Testament, except in Lk 24:27, always means ‘to translate’ . . . , and tongues are probably best regarded as special ‘languages’ not having ordinary human characteristics, inspired by the Holy Spirit for worship, for a sign to unbelievers (14:22), and, when interpreted, for the edification of believers.

2) Eerdmans Bible Dictionary, edited by Allen C. Myers, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1987, “Tongues, “p. 1011):

The terms ‘speaking in tongues’ and ‘glossolalia’ both arise from Gk. ‘lalein heterais glossais’ ‘to speak in other tongues [i.e., languages]’ (Acts 2:4) and similar forms used in the New Testament of miraculous ecstatic speech. Ecstatic speech and praise are common to many religions ancient and modern, and was present among the early prophets of Israel and surrounding nations (1 Sam. 10:5-6,9-13; 1 Kgs. 18:29).

When the early Church first experienced glossolalia (Acts 2:4-11), it was heard as actual human languages not known to the speakers, but this may have been a miracle of hearing rather than of speaking (cf. vv. 6-8). Otherwise, glossolalia is not normally regarded in the New Testament as actual human language, but as speech directed to God and not intended to be understood by humans (1 Cor 14:2). It may be, however, a sign given to human beings (here, specifically ‘unbelievers’) by the miraculous nature of the speech itself (vv. 21-22). Paul calls glossolalia ‘tongues of men and of angels’ (13:1), the latter designation relating glossolalia to apocalyptic references to ‘angelic language,’ ‘the dialect of the archons,’ and the like (e.g., T.Job 48:2-3; 49:2; 50:2; cf. 52:7). Paul may also refer to the phenomenon as ‘sighs too deep for words’ (Rom. 8:26) . . .

The church in Corinth placed a high value on glossolalia and regarded it as a spectacular evidence of the Spirit’s presence. At their meetings large numbers, it appears, were involved in ecstatic speaking. Paul feared that the resulting scene would be needlessly offensive to outsiders (1 Cor. 14:23) . . . ‘interpretation’ was probably not translation but something closer to the explication of dreams or signs or an activity similar to prophecy.

3) Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, abridged one-volume edition and translation by Geoffrey W. Bromiley; edited by Gerhard Kittel and Gerhard Friedrich — affectionately known as “little Kittel” –, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1985, p. 124, “glossa,” [tongue, language, speech]:

3. Glossolalia.a. Speaking in tongues (1 Cor. 12-14; cf. Mk. 16:17; Acts 2:4) is a gift (1 Cor. 14:2). This speaking is primarily to God (14:2,28) in the form of prayer, praise, or thanksgiving (14:2,14-17). Its benefit is for the individual rather than the community (14:4 ff.). In it the ‘nous’ is absorbed so that the words are obscure (14:2,9,11,15-16). Since the sounds are not articulated, the impression of a foreign language is left (14:7-8,10-11), and uncontrolled use might suggest that the community is composed of mad people (14:23,27). Yet tongues are a sign of God’s power (14:22). To make them useful either the speaker or someone else must interpret (14:5,13,27-28; 12:10,30) . . .

b. It should be noted that, while there are Hellenistic parallels for tongues, there is also an OT basis. Thus the seers of 1 Sam. 10:5 ff. seem to be robbed of their individuality, and their fervor finds expression in broken cries and unintelligible speech (cf. 2 Kgs. 9:11). Drunkards mock Isaiah’s babbling speech (Is. 28:10-11). The later literature, e.g., Eth. En. 71:11, gives similar examples of ecstatic speech (not necessarily speaking in tongues).

c. The event recorded in Acts 2 belongs to this context. Like the speaking in tongues depicted by Paul, it is a gift of the Spirit (v. 4) which causes astonishment (v. 7) and raises the charge of drunkenness (v. 13). But in this case the hearers detect their own languages (vv. 8, 11). Since they are all Jews (v. 9) and an impression of confused babbling is given, it is not wholly clear what this implies . . . .

d. . . . The meaning ‘unintelligible sound’ might seem to fit the case, but Paul sharply criticizes this aspect and ‘glossa’ is for him more than an isolated oracle (1 Cor. 14:2,9,11,26). It seems, then, that ‘language’ is the basic meaning; here is a miraculous ‘language of the Spirit’ such as is used by angels (1 Cor. 13:1) and which we, too, may use as we are seized by the Spirit and caught up to heaven (2 Cor. 12:2 ff.; cf. 1 Cor. 14:2,13 ff. as well as the stress on the heavenly origin of the phenomenon in Acts 2:2 ff.).

4) Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, Joseph Henry Thayer, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Book House, 1977 (orig. 1901), Strong’s word #1100 (‘glossa’), p. 118:

    . . . ‘to speak with tongues’; this, as appears from 1 Co. 14:7 sqq, is the gift of men who, rapt in ecstasy and no longer quite masters of their own reason and consciousness, pour forth their glowing, spiritual emotions in strange utterances, rugged, dark, disconnected, quite unfitted to instruct or to influence the minds of others: Acts 10:46; 19:6; 1 Co. 12:30; 13:1; 14:2,4-6,13,18,23,27,39 . . . according to the more rigorous conception of inspiration nothing human in an inspired man was thought to be active except the tongue, put in motion by the Holy Spirit.

5) Word Studies in the New Testament, Marvin R. Vincent, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1946 (orig. 1887), Vol. III, The Epistles of Paul; commentary on 1 Cor 12:10, p. 257:

IV. Meaning of the Term ‘Tongue’ . . . It does not necessarily mean any of the known languages of men, but may mean the speaker’s own tongue, shaped in a peculiar manner by the Spirit’s influence; or an entirely new spiritual language.V. Nature of the Gift in the Corinthian Church. . . . (3.) It was an ecstatic utterance, unintelligible to the hearers, and requiring interpretation, or a corresponding ecstatic condition on the part of the hearer in order to understand it. It was not for the edification of the hearer but of the speaker, and even the speaker did not always understand it, 1 Cor. 14:2,19. It therefore impressed unchristian bystanders as a barbarous utterance, the effect of madness or drunkenness, Acts 2:13,15; 1 Cor. 14:11,23. Hence it is distinguished from the utterance of the understanding, 1 Cor. 14:4,14-16,19,27.

6) International Standard Bible Encyclopedia, ed. James Orr, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1939, Vol. V, “Tongues, Gift of,” p. 2996:

[referring to 1 Cor 14] The words were spoken ‘in the spirit’ (ver 2); i.e. the ordinary faculties were suspended and the Divine, specifically Christian, element in the man took control, so that a condition of ecstasy was produced. This immediate (mystical) contact with the Divine enabled the utterance of “mysteries” (ver 2) – things hidden from the ordinary human understanding. In order to make the utterances comprehensible to the congregation, the services of an ‘interpreter’ were needed. Such a man was one who had received from God a special gift as extraordinary as the gifts of miracles, healings, or the tongues themselves (12:10,30); i.e. the ability to interpret did not rest at all on natural knowledge . . . as there was to be only one interpreter for the ‘two or three’ speakers (ver 28), any interpreter must have been competent to explain any tongue . . . These characteristics of an interpreter make it clear that ‘speaking in a tongue’ at Corinth was not normally felt to be speaking in a foreign language . . . Hence foreign languages are to be barred out . . . . Consequently, if ‘tongues’ means ‘languages,’ entirely new  languages must be thought of. Such might have been of many kinds (12:28), have been regarded as a fit creation for the conveyance of new truths, and may even at times have been thought to be celestial languages – the ‘tongues of angels’ (13:1) . . . The account in Acts 2 differs from that of 1 Cor 14 in making the tongues foreign languages.

7) Philip Schaff, History of the Christian Church, Vol. I: Apostolic Christianity: A.D. 1-100,Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1975 (orig. 1910), pp. 235-236:

. . . the term ‘diversities’ of tongues, as well as the distinction between tongues of ‘angels’ and tongues of ‘men’ (1 Cor. 13:1) point to different manifestations (speaking, praying, singing), according to the individuality, education, and mood of the speaker, but not to various foreign languages, which are excluded by Paul’s description . . .Most commentators [define ‘tongues’ as] language or dialect (comp. Acts 1:19; 2:6,8; 21:40; 26:14). This is the correct view . . . It does not necessarily mean one of the known languages of the earth, but may mean a peculiar handling of the vernacular dialect of the speaker, or a new spiritual language never known before, a language of immediate inspiration in a state of ecstasy. The ‘tongues’ were individual varieties of this language of inspiration.

(2) The glossolalia in the Corinthian church, with which that at Caesaria in Acts 10:46, and that at Ephesus, 19:6, are evidently identical, we know very well from the description of Paul . . . It was not a speaking in foreign languages, which would have been entirely useless in a devotional meeting of converts, but a speaking in a language differing from all known languages, and required an interpreter to be intelligible to foreigners . . . It was an act of self-devotion, an act of thanksgiving, praying, and singing, within the Christian congregation, by individuals who were wholly absorbed in communion with God, and gave utterance to their rapturous feelings in broken, abrupt, rhapsodic, unintelligible words . . . It was the language of the spirit (‘pneuma’) or of ecstasy, as distinct from the language of the understanding (‘nous’) . . . The speaker in tongues was in a state of spiritual intoxication . . . His tongue was a lyre on which the divine Spirit played celestial tunes . . .

We do not know how long the glossolalia, as thus described by Paul, continued . . . Irenæus (Adv. Haer. 1.v.c.6, § 1) speaks of ‘many brethren’ whom he heard in the church having the gift of prophecy and of speaking in ‘diverse tongues’, bringing the hidden things of men to light and expounding the mysteries of God. It is not clear whether by the term ‘diverse,’ which does not elsewhere occur, he means speaking in foreign languages, or in diversities of tongues altogether peculiar, like those meant by Paul. The latter is more probable.

8) The Catechism of the Catholic Church (1994)

800 Charisms are to be accepted with gratitude by the person who receives them and by all members of the Church as well. They are a wonderfully rich grace for the apostolic vitality and for the holiness of the entire Body of Christ, provided they really are genuine gifts of the Holy Spirit and are used in full conformity with authentic promptings of this same Spirit, that is, in keeping with charity, the true measure of all charisms. (cf. 1 Cor 13)#2003 Grace is first and foremost the gift of the Spirit who justifies and sanctifies us. But grace also includes the gifts that the Spirit grants us to associate us with his work, to enable us to collaborate in the salvation of others and in the growth of the Body of Christ, the Church. There are sacramental graces, gifts proper to the different sacraments. There are furthermore special graces, also called charisms after the Greek term used by St. Paul meaning “favor,” “gratuitous gift,” “benefit.” (cf. Lumen Gentium 12) Whatever their character – sometimes it is extraordinary, such as the gift of miracles or of tongues – charisms are oriented toward sanctifying grace and are intended for the common good of the Church. They are at the service of charity which builds up the Church. (cf. 1 Cor 12). [see also #688, 799, 801, 951, 1508]

This is hardly evidence that the Catholic Church frowns upon the gift of tongues, or stated that it has ceased (along with other spiritual gifts). Even a 1960 Catholic commentary (i.e., before Vatican II) reiterates the views I have been presenting above:

9) New Testament Reading Guide, 1, 2 Corinthians, Claude J. Peifer, O.S.B., Collegeville, Minnesota: Liturgical Press, 1960, pp. 44-45, 48-50:

[1 Cor 12: 8,10]: These extraordinary favors, which all come from the same Spirit, are now enumerated . . . . to utter ecstatic, unintelligible sounds in a state of transport; to understand and interpret such sounds. All of these are free gifts of the Spirit, who distributes them as he sees fit

. . .[1 Cor 14:2,5]: Speaking in tongues was ecstatic and unintelligible to others, a rapturous declamation of divine mysteries, which could be understood only by God or by some other person who had a special gift for this purpose . . .

What good would it do the Corinthians if Paul should come to them speaking ecstatically so that no one could understand him? . . .

[1 Cor 14:14,19]: The ecstatic speaks from emotion; it is his ‘spirit’ which prays, but it is not subject to the control of reason . . . a brief instruction is worth more to the community than a long ecstatic discourse which no one understands.

***

(originally from 2000)

Photo credit: St Francis of Assisi at Prayer (c. 1650), by Bartolomé Esteban Murillo (1617-1682) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

***

August 2, 2018

Liberation theology, process theology, radical feminism, Mariolatry, etc. have all been condemned by the Church, but the Catholic charismatic renewal (“CCR”) has been accepted. The charismatic movement in its Catholic “wing” has not been condemned by the Church. I have seen statements by the pope and people such as Joseph Cardinal Ratzinger, in support of it. Many orthodox Catholics, however, seem to be suspicious of it, often on the grounds of it being a “Protestantizing influence.” Or they consider it subversive of the Mass or distinctive Catholic piety or Catholic obedience, etc.

I attend charismatic Masses occasionally. I’ve also attended healing Masses. To my knowledge, they have not been condemned by the Church. The movement also has implications for ecumenism which are very positive, in my opinion. I’ve heard that charismatic seminarians comprise a great percentage of up-and-coming priests, and that they are solidly orthodox as a group.

There are excesses among individuals, of course (as in, e.g., some alleged Marian apparitions). I have always strongly critiqued these, both as a Protestant and as a Catholic, but I don’t regard the CCR as contrary to orthodoxy at all. God intends His spiritual gifts to be perpetual. He certainly still heals. The degree and frequency of miracles may not be what we saw in the apostolic period, but they still occur. Mother Angelica’s healing was a well-known recent example.

I would be interested to see those Catholics who are skeptical of the Catholic charismatic movement, produce an official Church document which either discourages or condemns Catholic involvement. And if there is no such document, and if the movement is so pernicious, why has the Church not condemned it, I would ask?

Church teaching is clear on all the “disputed” issues. When it comes to the charismatic movement, however, we find no such condemnations. If it were wrong, certainly they would be there, since everything else imaginable (i.e., with regard to theology) has been discussed in official Church documents. The burden of proof lies with the skeptics: to produce the magisterial proclamations that discourage the charismatic movement.

Lacking those, I think the anti-charismatic critique too often falls back upon mere prejudice, misunderstanding, and — most importantly — a wrongheaded equating of excess with essence, or, proverbially, “throwing the baby out with the bath water.” If we have no Church teaching to back up our skepticism, we are relying upon private judgment and going by our own opinion and emotions rather than the mind of the Church.

Critics of the CCR speak of a “hunger for spiritual phenomena.” This is excess, and would be condemned by any thoughtful, educated charismatic. But here again excess is equated with essence, and that is where such observations are fundamentally flawed and fallacious. Any charismatic would admit excess and over-enthusiasm in the movement, among some.

I contend that excess is to be altogether expected as part of the human condition. Our Lord Jesus, in the parable of the wheat and tares informs us that flat-out unbelievers would be mixed in with true believers in the Church, let alone mere imbalances and corruptions of true, sincere believers. The Apostle Paul dealt with problems such as incest in the primal church at Corinth, and had to rebuke the first pope, Peter, for his hypocritical behavior at one point. Welcome to the human race!

That being the case, why should folks be so hard on charismatics, simply because they have some problems? If one is going to be this judgmental, they should at least do so across the board — and that is where the “excess” argument also breaks down, because it proves too much. All Catholic sub-groups (indeed all Catholics whatever) would have to be condemned, if they had to withstand the undue scrutiny of being equated with their flaws and shortcomings and “growing pains.”

Errors among those in the CCR may, for example, flow from inadequate catechesis or the espousal of liberal theological notions. It’s not necessarily the case that they derived from the CCR itself. There is a certain sort of nominal, liberal Catholicism and/or the wrong, false kind of “warm fuzzy,” “E Fluvius Fluffyhead” indifferentist sort of “ecumenism.” Perhaps in past years that sort of thought tended to get mixed in with Catholic charismatic circles. People saw it as an excuse and opportunity to lean towards Protestant thought in several areas.

But that was because they didn’t know their faith in the first place. They didn’t realize that everything in the realm of spiritual gifts, experience, the Holy Spirit, prayer, etc. was perfectly in accord with good Catholic theology and spirituality, and had been for hundreds of years. I think of, for example, Thomas a Kempis’ The Imitation of Christ, which even evangelical Christian bookstores love to carry on their shelves.

In like fashion, a Catholic in, say, 1975, who wanted to study the Bible with other Christians, would have looked around for a Catholic Bible study, found none, and so went to one of the myriad Protestant Bible studies. Does this prove that the Catholic Church is against the Bible? Of course not. But it does indicate that Protestants understood the value of Bible study far better than most Catholics — they were actually being better “Catholics” than Catholics were, with regard to that one aspect. The reverse would hold in matters of sacred tradition and sacramentalism: elements of Christianity that many many evangelical Protestants have largely or wholly ignored.

We shouldn’t be so hard on the particular shortcomings and faults of charismatics, over against their actual doctrinal beliefs, as set forth by the leaders of the movement. The tendency of Catholics to become Protestantized is far more complex than a simple boogeyman of “charismatics.” Correlation doesn’t always equal cause. But I think this was far more true 15-20 years ago than it is today. Why? Because today charismatics (like many other Catholics) are learning their faith, and learning how to defend it, much more than they have in the recent past.

***

No charismatic with half a wit (Catholic or Protestant) I know would deny the existence of counterfeit gifts or manifestations. In fact, they are far more aware of them than non-charismatics, in my experience, for the simple fact that they are interested in (and study) spiritual experience in the first place. We discern spiritual manifestations from experience, Christian maturity, and spiritual intuition, just as any Christian feels that God “talks to them” on occasion, or leads them in a certain direction. Why should we apply a more stringent “discipline” to charismatics only, rather than to all Christians who feel led by the Holy Spirit or God the Father in prayer, etc.?

If we maintain that no Christian can ever know “for sure” that God is leading them, then we have a major problem, and this would extend to all the great saints, and any others who have claimed some “experience.” No sensible charismatic would say that all spiritual manifestations come from God. Some are simply self-generated, and not particularly divine or demonic.

It’s a familiar non-charismatic complaint (both Protestant and Catholic) that charismatics create a “two-tier” state of affairs in which those who don’t have the experiences or particular gifts are made to feel like outsiders or “second-class Christians.” This happens a lot, and is very unfortunate, but I would say, nevertheless, that it isn’t the essence of the outlook, but rather, only a sadly common corruption of it. Some Protestant pentecostal theologies, however, indeed institutionalize this, with their warped theology of the “baptism of the Holy Spirit,” in its implications regarding those who don’t receive it.

I’ve heard Protestant charismatics claim that Billy Graham was not filled with the Holy Spirit because he isn’t a charismatic. That’s sheer nonsense, and arrogant and just plain silly to boot. I never believed in the “second work of grace” as a Protestant, nor that everyone should speak in tongues (clear from 1 Cor 12:1-11, 27-31). I never signed on as a member of the Assemblies of God [which I attended from 1982-1986] because I didn’t accept their belief in the “enduement of power,” evidenced by tongues. I thought that was ludicrous and unbiblical (per the above verses).

One might observe that some “anti-charismatics” tend to be excessively un-emotional, and allow religion to become too much of the “head,” and mere legalism, and not enough heart. This certainly happens a lot. I say the Church is once again “both/and” on this matter: we are to love God with all our heart, soul, mind, and strength. This involves emotions and passion and sometimes visible expression, and charismatics have a good understanding of that, nothwithstanding the excesses.

St. Thomas Aquinas was a mystic and Marian and eucharistic devotee in addition to an extraordinary — perhaps unparalleled — mind. He understood the balance. Catholic charismatics are under the authority of their priests and Church teaching, and they are among the numbers of the orthodox in the Church, not the liberals and dissenters and nominal hordes.

Spiritual experiences may be verified or approved, sure, but in the final analysis they are personal and subjective. That’s why the Church doesn’t impose an obligation to believe in private revelations (such as Marian apparitions). It’s often assumed that Catholic charismatics as a group are lone rangers who are not in touch with the spiritual direction of Church or pastor, or even directives of the prayer group they may be in.

This is ludicrous. It might apply much more to Protestant charismatics, as private judgment is the Protestant principle to start with, but it is far too extreme of a judgment to apply to Catholic charismatics as their “essence.” One mustn’t over-argue a point: it will backfire because it is reduced to absurdity in application.

Excesses are real, and the pope is vigilant to address those. This is natural. But it seems to me that if the movement is essentially non-Catholic in theory and spirit and practice, then wouldn’t Pope John Paul II would boldly point that out? This is a man who is not afraid to tell anyone anything they need to hear: be it Communists or Family Planners or our illustrious President. Yet he is supposedly scared to speak the truth to charismatics?! I just don’t get it.

The pope says the movement is “one of the many fruits of Vatican Council II” and that it stimulated “an extraordinary flourishing of groups and movements especially sensitive to the Holy Spirit.” It is his job, on the other hand, to seek to prevent excesses and errors which can readily be observed. I have critiqued them for 16 years now, and once got “excommunicated” from a charismatic congregation in part because of my critiques — denounced from the pulpit!

I would assert that authentic Catholic charismatic theology and practice is wholly in accord with Catholic Tradition. Whatever is true in Protestantism is already derived from Catholicism.

***

As for tongues, some “babbling” is just that. What else would one expect in a large group of people, concerning a subjective experience? I don’t see that as compelling grounds for outright rejection. Tongues are, after all, a biblical phenomena. We have to incorporate them somewhere in our thinking, if we’re serious about being biblical and apostolic. The Baptists take the position that they have ceased altogether. But on what basis? Some of the arguments for “cessationism” that I have seen (even from otherwise respectable scholars) are laughable and ludicrous. The subjective aspect is a two-edged sword.

Critics of the CCR ask why charismatic distinctives have not been incorporated into the Mass. We know (unarguably) that both tongues and prophecy are biblical and legitimate charisms. Furthermore, there are many legitimate Catholic forms of spirituality (and yes, worship) which are present outside the Mass. Marian apparitions; indeed all private revelations, visions, most miracles, etc., immediately come to mind as examples, as well as various devotional exercises such as the Stations of the Cross, the Spiritual Exercises of St. Ignatius, retreats, Novenas, fasts, the Rosary, the liturgy of the hours, Eucharistic processions and adoration, etc. Bible study in its standard discussion format and extended prayer meetings are not part of the Mass, either. Yet who would deny that all of these are beneficially and piously practiced by Catholics?  Obviously, the Mass is not all-inclusive.

Tongues and prophecy have not been institutionalized within the Mass itself, but that doesn’t rule them out altogether, any more than any of the above practices are impermissible. I sometimes see Catholics reciting the Rosary all through Mass (as I understand used to be common). This is as contrary to the active participation in the Mass which Vatican II stresses (and possibly distracting to others), as is someone praying in tongues at Mass. But if charismatic worship is not “consistent with the mind of the Church,” that brings us back to the question of why the Church hasn’t so pronounced. We have, rather, enthusiastic endorsement, it seems to me.

There are times of reflection and silence, and of congregational singing during the Mass. Soft-spoken worship in tongues doesn’t subvert the Mass, in my opinion, especially if the priest presiding is agreeable to it. We should rejoice that these Catholics are engaging in heartfelt worship, and enjoying the presence of God so much. That’s far better than the millions of dead, nominal “Catholics” who frequent our pews. Even if we ourselves don’t care for the charismatic style of worship, I think we can at least rejoice in the fact that the average charismatic Catholic has a tangible enthusiasm for God and a pious joy in His presence.

***

Charismatics are neither schismatic nor heretical. They aren’t schismatic because they haven’t left the Church. Individual ones have, but then so have several million other sorts of Catholics. Catholics leave the Church for many reasons (all, I think, illegitimate and inadequate in the final analysis, of course).

It’s asserted that charismatic worship is dangerous because it introduces Protestant forms of thought, worship, and theology. Charismatic theology is either orthodox or heretical. If the former, these sorts of  objections collapse, except for the correcting of abuses, which all agree with, anyway. If the latter, then I continue to assert that it is exceedingly strange and implausible that the Church hasn’t condemned the false theology, as it has condemned all other false and heretical beliefs I can think of.

It’s said that charismatics have too much desire for experiences, emotions, and miracles. But perhaps many of them simply had a spiritual experience (without particularly seeking it), and figured out that that was part of the spiritual life, benefited from it, grew closer to God as a result of it, felt more inner joy, and hence pursued it further, and joined with those who could relate to such experiences.

In this instance, the “hunger” would be more so for God than for the experience. The experience is thus a means to an end, as it should be. As long as no dichotomy is made, and experience isn’t made the end of the spiritual life, but — on the contrary — a means to God, I see no wrong in it, and nothing contrary to Catholic spirituality.

Or perhaps they desired a closer relationship with God, more fellowship, more corporate prayer. None of these have to do directly with experience or the gifts, but charismatics stress, and do well in these areas. I must say that — speaking of my own odyssey — these sorts of things drew me closer to Catholicism (in baby steps at that point), not further from it. One charismatic prayer meeting I attended showed me that Catholics loved the Lord as much as my fellow evangelicals.

It was the papal encyclical on Mary on the back table which made me feel that Catholics were lacking in true theology. Ditto for the music of John Michael Talbot, who is a charismatic, I’m pretty sure. So commonality doesn’t always lead one away from the Church, but often to it. One can walk both ways on a bridge.

None of the above aspects are contrary to Catholicism, so they fill an ecumenical function, among other things. They are elements which evangelicals and Catholics hold in common; charismatics have a better understanding of this, and so it becomes a manifestation of the Church which appeals to Protestants who will usually notice the distinctives of Catholicism and oftentimes be put off by those.

Furthermore, I would say that charismatics excel at emphasizing the feelings and emotions and passions, which are altogether proper when we ponder what God has done for us. One could seek that “deeper walk” with God which all Christians ought to pursue, without necessarily having or seeking spiritual experiences. Again, charismatics are more spontaneous in emotional expressions of worship and praise.

I see that (within proper bounds and propriety) as exciting and encouraging, and quite in accord with the true spirit of Vatican II and the Bible itself (read many of the Psalms, where this is patently obvious). In any event, there are several reasons for being attracted to charismatic Catholicism other than an imbalanced “hunger” or “enthusiasm” in the derogatory sense.

Catholic charismatics place an emphasis on the spiritual gifts, and feeling and emotion, but it’s not that they feel themselves spiritually superior simply in doing that. This is no different in essence or purpose from any number of Catholic movements. Dominicans don’t claim to have a lock on reason and logic, nor Missionaries of Charity on love and care of the poor, nor Trappists on silent contemplation, nor Franciscans on simplicity and childlike faith, nor Jesuits on teaching and evangelistic skill and zeal, etc.

Rightly understood, charismatics would not say that non-charismatics didn’t “have the Spirit.” If they did, this would clearly be non-Catholic teaching (especially with regard to confirmation). But they could say they had something to offer by way of understanding and experience, and I see nothing wrong with that, if there is no heresy. All of us are prone to spiritual pride. It would be grossly unfair to pin that on charismatics more so than other sorts of Catholics.

They don’t see the chrisms or gifts as extraordinary, so much as “ordinary”. In others words, everyone should possess one or more spiritual gifts. Therefore, if a Catholic or any other Christian seems to give no place to the Holy Spirit and spiritual gifts, it is he who is abnormal or deficient in spirituality, rather than the charismatic being “extraordinary” or unusual. It’s all in one’s perspective, and in the Bible St. Paul is pretty clear about this, it seems to me.

There are many gifts, and I believe most biblical scholars feel that the New Testament listings are not exhaustive. Paul clearly teaches us that every Christian possesses one or more (1 Cor 12:6-7, 11, 31; 14:1). Paul also talks about being “filled with the Spirit,” as an ongoing process (cf. Eph 5:18; Greek sense: “filled continually”).

The point isn’t will power or self-exertion, but being open to the Holy Spirit and what He desires to give to us. There are many gifts. Many charismatics will say that tongues is the least of the gifts (note, e.g., 1 Cor 14:18-19). As I understand it, tongues do not come from within, as a natural phenomena, but from without: from the Holy Spirit’s prompting (I believe Rom 8:26 might be cited in this vein). It isn’t a matter of “getting yourself to do it,” at least not when properly understood. That may occur in some unsophisticated Protestant pentecostal circles, but I think it’s lousy theology, and coercive to boot.

I don’t think that most Catholic charismatics believe that the gift of tongues is for everyone (1 Cor 12:11, 30). This is why I have never felt “inferior” or “second-class” in the least (as one who has never spoken in tongues), and I have moved in many charismatic circles. I also am pretty sure that much (not sure how much) of what passes for tongues is merely people’s self-willed utterances. Otherwise, I don’t think it would be so nearly universal among charismatics.

There is an argument that can be made about the existence of a “prayer tongue” apart from the gifts, and I’ve made it myself. Each person can only examine themselves as to whether their own tongues-speaking is from the Spirit or psychologically or emotionally driven, from the will: mere self-produced “babbling.”

I think most Catholic charismatics would say they want to feel closer to God, and to have the “power” in the Christian life which He desires them to have, in order to overcome sin, the world, the flesh, and the devil. Nothing wrong with that, that I can see. I’m much more troubled by lukewarm, liberal, compromised, ignorant, uncharitable, fornicating or contracepting or greedy Catholics than by charismatics who love the Lord with all their heart, but who may get excessive in doctrine or deed on occasion.

***

Analogously, how often do we hear about supposed “Mariolatry” and “paganism” and “worshiping of idols” from our anti-Catholic friends? They think (in fact, are thoroughly convinced) that such things are of the essence of Catholicism, don’t they? They define us right out of Christianity because of it. But we know better. And non-believers in general are always quick to point out Christian hypocrisy as an alleged disproof of Christianity. But we know better than that, too.

No one (sensibly) gives up their belief simply because there are always hypocrites and “spiritual ignoramuses” to be found. Many people leave denominations or church groups because of hypocrisy and sin in its history or members, but I have never taken that to be a valid reason, unless such sin was institutionalized in that group. By the same token, the Psalms would have to be ditched because David was a first-degree murderer and adulterer; Paul’s epistles tossed because he killed Christians; the disciples (including Matthew and John) suspect because Judas (chosen by Jesus Himself) was among their number. This is our Bible and apostolic Tradition.

I don’t see charismatics running down the traditional Mass and all the perfectly good and valid forms and customs and traditions which go with it. I love the Latin Mass myself, yet I also like charismatic Masses on occasion. I don’t see that they are mutually exclusive any more than different liturgical rites in the Church are. The Church is big enough to include all these things. This is part of its glory. One Mass may have Gregorian Chant, another spontaneous praises and contemporary worship music. As long as the Mass isn’t subverted, the important thing is to worship God from the heart and soul and mind, in whatever form this takes place (worship in silence is wonderful, too).

There are cultural differences (beyond the charisms issue) which are legitimately incorporated into the Mass. Lousy and embarrassed congregational singing is very much a result of Anglo-Saxon reticence and tempering of overt emotions. I know all about this: I grew up Methodist. We see the difference even in black Catholic churches. Who’s to say what is more spiritual? Silence and solemnity are great, but so are expressed passion and heartfelt emotion, when appropriate. I want excellent aesthetics in church, too, whether we are talking about “traditional” church music or contemporary.

Speaking for myself, I want to become whatever God wants me to be, whatever He calls me to. As I believe in the existence of all the spiritual gifts, I will accept whichever one the Spirit sees fit to grant to me. Thus far, I believe I have the gift of discernment and am a (lay) teacher in the Church.

***

The CCR is analogous to the ecumenical movement, which has only really flourished and been emphasized in the Catholic Church since Pope Pius XII (for about 50 years). This was not a major emphasis by the Church prior to that time, and there were good reasons for that. Various heresies, Protestantism, etc., constituted “competing truth claims” to the Church, and hence the Church assumed a “defensive” / “Catholic Reformation” stance for several hundred years.

Yet the kernel of ecumenism and a less strict interpretation of “no salvation outside the Church” was there at least since St. Augustine and the struggle with the Donatists, when it was decided by the Church that Donatists re-entering the Catholic Church need not be re-baptized. In other words, baptism administered outside the Church proper was considered valid. Protestant trinitarian baptisms are viewed in the same way. This was the seed of the earnest ecumenism we see today: baptismal character and regeneration across many Christian denominational lines.

Quasi-schismatic Catholics today (and many legitimate traditionalists) claim that ecumenism is “un-Catholic,” “indifferentist,” “modernist,” etc. ad nauseam, because it has been supposedly only recently devised. But this isn’t true: development can occur in spurts and starts. Such  Catholics make the same point about the Catholic stance on religious liberty, saying that it contradicts former Catholic dogma, and was an “invention” of Vatican II. The same reasoning holds with regard to religious liberty.

So just as ecumenism has only recently come into the foreground in Catholic thought and practice, without explicit precedent, yet not without seeds throughout Church history (and explicit sanction of infallible Vatican II); in like fashion, so can the charismatic renewal flourish suddenly in our own time: seemingly something very new, yet with much scriptural justification and enough continuance throughout Church history to legitimize it (not to mention the original Pentecost itself).

I think we would have a very difficult time finding any other practice or belief system that is consistently spoken of in such glowing terms by popes and bishops, yet is somehow inherently “un-Catholic” and “quasi-Gnostic,” as one prominent critic seems to believe. I think that whole scenario stretches credulity beyond the breaking point.

On the other hand, if critics of the CCR can simply admit that there are excesses (even many), but that the movement is a good and Catholic thing at bottom, all these difficulties disappear. Between the two choices, there is no contest. If the popes (and bishops) had either not spoken on this, or in a much different, more reticent tone, then the critics might have a case, and I would be quite glad to follow their lead, but as it stands, I can’t agree.

***

(originally 1998; edited down from a very long debate, on 8-2-18)

Photo credit: Day of Pentecost (c. 1620), by Juan Bautista Mayno (1581-1649) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

***

August 1, 2018

*****

“St. Worm” is a friendly guy with whom I’ve interacted off and on through the years. Lately he has started asking some penetrating questions about infallibility. His words will be in blue.

***

Hey Brother St. Worm (I feel like St. Francis . . .),

I have many affinities to your view of things.

Cool. Maybe one day we can persuade you of the infallibility of popes, councils, and the Church, and we can be even more alike.

I did want to, if you could indulge me a bit, play the part of the interlocutor and try to address your argument from all angles, to see if there are any logical inconsistencies.

There are few things I enjoy more!

For while I feel the weight of your argument, I would like to think the best minds of the classical Protestant tradition as having already dealt with your arguments at length.

Most Protestants today don’t even make any claim to fullness of truth anymore. They are flat-out “pessimists” and theological semi-relativists compared to the robust faith of the apostles, fathers, and Catholics.

Perhaps with some dialogue we can dig a bit deeper in this matter to see if your position won’t hold out under logical scrutiny.

Fire away!

My first series of questions to you, brother Dave, are these: Is infallibility a precondition to certainty?

It depends on how one defines “certainty.” I would say, briefly, that Catholics and any Christian who accepts apostolic succession, can have the certainty or certitude of faith, which is not absolute (being faith, after all), but is highly dependable and sufficient for a person to know the truth of the matter beyond a reasonable doubt.

Infallibility is assumed in the Bible and by the apostles and fathers. We see it particularly in the Jerusalem Council. They certainly felt as if their ruling was infallible and binding; guided by the Holy Spirit Himself (Acts 15:28 ). Paul is described as going out and proclaiming the teachings of the Council (Acts 16:4).

If yes, then do you know this from an infallible source or a fallible one?

Much more than an infallible source: a divinely inspired (“God-breathed”) one: Holy Scripture.

If the source is fallible, might you not have erred about whether the Church is truly infallible?

Since Scripture isn’t fallible , the question is moot.

If you say, “Impossible” and yet you assert you are of yourself fallible, then I believe you are no less a Protestant in this matter than most classical Protestants.

Moot point again. Scripture also teaches papal infallibility (at least of a sort, or in effect), in the opinion, not just of Catholic scholars, but Protestant ones:

So Peter, in T.W. Manson’s words, is to be “God’s vicegerent . . . The authority of Peter is an authority to declare what is right and wrong for the Christian community. His decisions will be confirmed by God.” (The Sayings of Jesus, 1954, 205) (New Bible Dictionary, edited by J. D. Douglas, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans Pub. Co., 1962, 1018; “Power,” written by R. N. Caswell)

Not only is Peter to have a leading role, but this role involves a daunting degree of authority (though not an authority which he alone carries, as may be seen from the repetition of the latter part of the verse in 18:18 with reference to the disciple group as a whole). (R. T. France; in Morris, Leon, General editor, Tyndale New Testament Commentaries, Leicester, England: Inter-Varsity Press / Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans Pub. Co., 1985, vol. 1: Matthew, 256)

And what about the “keys of the kingdom”? . . . About 700 B.C. an oracle from God announced that this authority in the royal palace in Jerusalem was to be conferred on a man called Eliakim . . . (Isa. 22:22). So in the new community which Jesus was about to build, Peter would be, so to speak, chief steward. (F. F. Bruce, The Hard Sayings of Jesus, Downers Grove, Illinois: Intervarsity Press, 1983, 143-144)

Even in Old Testament times, some were granted this gift of special protection from error; for example, the Levites, who were teachers, among other things:

Malachi 2:6-8: “True instruction was in his mouth, and no wrong was found on his lips. He walked with me in peace and uprightness, and he turned many from iniquity. For the lips of a priest should guard knowledge, and men should seek instruction from his mouth, for he is the messenger of the LORD of hosts.”

Thank you for your responses. And thank you for letting me play Devil’s Advocate. Again I stress that these questions are for testing your position, and in no way reflects my genuine opinion of things. Like I said, I stand with you on a great many things, so the spirit of this is truly non-combative, rather it is more akin to grappling and sparring — but for the sake of truth.

Good. Surely you don’t accept papal infallibility, as an Anglican. I suppose an Anglican can accept conciliar infallibility, though I think the Protestant elements of Anglicanism would make that problematic at some point.

You’ve given me a bunch of things to consider, and perhaps in due time I can respond to every one of your points,

Fair enough. It’s getting pretty boring around here, debate-wise. I’m glad to have some feedback from more folks than usual. Seems like every time I tackle the authority issue it gets a lot of response. And well it should.

but something is sticking out in my mind, and I must insist we dig a bit more deeply in the question of certainty and the need for infallibility

Okay.

Do you say Scripture guarantees infallibility to the Church perpetually by implication only or by explication? You say the Scripture “assumes” infallibility of the Apostolic band, which I agree, but I have to wonder in that statement how broadly the Scripture applies the notion. Are there limits and constraints to how the idea is applied? And do you find out from the text itself the character of such infallibility? If yes, then where? I’d be interested to see how you textually flesh that out.

Excellent questions. I’m not sure I could answer all these questions specifically or that Scripture itself does, or intends to. I have to appeal back to the arguments I have already produced. I find the Jerusalem Council example to be the most explicit example I am aware of. I don’t see how one can escape that. It’s conciliar infallibility, and a good argument can be made that Peter pretty much presided and confirmed, which is the Catholic model, not the Orthodox or Anglican.

We would expect everything to be relatively undeveloped, but I find all the essentials of the Catholic ecclesiology in place: papal supremacy, apostolic succession, tradition, episcopacy, and conciliar infallibility. The argument then becomes (for many) how it applies to future generations. I think that is common sense: What is in the Bible is normative for ecclesiology: both the doctrinal teaching and how we see it working in practice in the Book of Acts. I think it is all there.

I think because all of that is in place in Scripture and early Tradition, the Fathers follow suit and pretty much agree (though less on the nature of the papacy than on the other things). We can discuss more particulars as we go, because it was a very wide-ranging question and can go in many different directions.

Also, what you say regarding the Fathers, I cannot simply agree (no disrespect intended towards you — but you see how such a sticky wicket patrology can be), I’d have to see a litany of testimony of the Eastern and Western Fathers to feel rather confident in the idea that it was a universally held belief.

One can’t find complete agreement among Eastern fathers on the papacy, of course, but there is more than Orthodox usually claim, with strong statements from many prominent Eastern fathers.

I would say as a Catholic that the East (insofar as it disagreed) simply got this wrong. That wasn’t unusual in the early centuries. They were wrong on several major issues, according to the joint beliefs of both later parties. Cardinal Newman wrote about the mass apostasy of Eastern bishops in the 5th century, so that if Rome hadn’t remained firm, they would have barely stayed orthodox (in Christology) at all. So to be wrong on the papacy is just one more instance of Eastern error.

Blessings to you!

And you!

P.S. while up here in Wisconsin on a 6 month developer contract job, and while I’ve had no Anglican church anywhere close by to go to, I’ve been attending a fully in-communion Roman Catholic Tridentine Mass each Sunday (not to worry, I don’t commune).

Very interesting. I went to one a few months ago in my parish, but prefer the Novus Ordo Latin.

Belongs to some Institute of Christ the King ministry. The church was filled with beautiful ancient hymns from a choir-loft, accompanied by a pipe organ. It was jam-packed with young families, and a sea of veiled heads to boot (99% of the women there were covered)! I love it. The lines to the confessional were backed up even while the liturgy was going. Such a blessing indeed to see the traditional forms taking hold. The diocese up here seems very supportive of the extraordinary Masses. God bless Pope Benedict XVI.

Sounds like a great parish there. I’m glad you found a good place to worship during your time there. We went through Wisconsin twice on our trip out west. I loved the southwest area. It was fun driving the hills.

Some of your responses raise more questions, if you don’t mind:

Not at all. Thanks for the dialogue.

I appreciate the biblical appeal to the Jerusalem council, but I have to wonder if you couldn’t be erring by reading back into the text certain things based on later developments. On the face of things, the text tells us that the Apostles called a council to settle a matter in regards to Gentile conversion. They certainly appeal to the Holy Ghost and their authority (“it seems good to the Holy Spirit and us”) to pass judgment after discussing the matter amongst themselves and the elders. This is all we know. But do we really know that the Spirit’s work in their midst is equal to a gift of infallibility?

How could the Spirit’s direct involvement not be infallible? The question is whether the Holy Spirit protected these men and their decision. If one answers yes, then this is explicit infallibility (and I can hardly think of a more explicit narrative example). If they think not, then it seems that there would be a textual problem of the Holy Spirit’s mention in relation to the decision.

Does the phrase, “It seemed good to the Spirit and us” preclude the council members who weren’t Apostles?

Scripture applies it to the “apostles and the elders, with the whole church” (Acts 15:22; cf. 15:28). That looks to me like the entire assembly: very much as the Catholic Church regards ecumenical councils. I don’t see any restriction to apostles.

More importantly, is there any hint that the Spirit cannot be resisted in this case by members of the body of Christ, but can be elsewhere (as all Christians are able to do)?

How is that relevant? Of course the Spirit can be resisted by individuals. But the point is a protection by the Holy Spirit shown in this example of the first major council of Christian leaders.

We would expect everything to be relatively undeveloped, but I find all the essentials of the Catholic ecclesiology in place: papal supremacy, apostolic succession, tradition, episcopacy, and conciliar infallibility.

Do you really find these items in place? They might be suggested, or they might seem to fit your present view of things, but could it not be as reasonably suggested the text is talking about a temporal Papal Primacy (or even a primacy without a supremacy)?

I was referring here to the entire NT evidences in these regards, not just the Jerusalem Council.

Apostolic succession is not even discussed in this text.

I agree. But it is implicitly implied insofar as this council was clearly a model of what should take place in the future of the Church. It shows us the decision process in the early Church.

Tradition, insofar as it is a handing down of teaching, I concur. Conciliar Infallibility? May it not be as reasonable to say that fallible men delivered the Spirit’s Infallible testimony? If not, then why not (based on this example)?

I think that’s a distinction without a difference. If a result is an infallible decision, what is the logical difference, if it is described as you do it above, or if we say that the pope and/or council was infallible, and delivered an infallible truth? The men are fallible except in those extraordinary instances where the gift of infallibility applies. The gift is obviously (by definition) from God.

Well I think we both hope you are seeing the text correctly, but I have to wonder if in your view of things would allow the text to correct your understanding if indeed there’s a possibility that your belief in an infallibly ecclesial authority is flawed.

It’s a belief held in faith, of course. This is truly how I interpret the text and how I think Catholics, generally speaking, would interpret it. I’m always willing to be dissuaded. That is central to my identity as a socratic, and part and parcel of my experience as a convert. I often arrive at new truths and understandings by means of dialogue, so that if what you say in reply seems more plausible than what I have argued, then I could quite possibly change my mind.

Of course, if the Jerusalem Council is somehow shown not to be infallible, that doesn’t mean that infallibility collapses, because it isn’t based on just one prooftext, but a variety of converging biblical evidences all leading in that direction, taken as a whole.

Or is it the case that, like those who hold to Sola Scriptura, you take that interpretive grid for how you read the text?

I’m sure I do to some extent. We all have biases of creedal affiliation. I’m the first to admit that and state it often. I can only be persuaded otherwise by solid argument that convinces me that my present view is less cogent, coherent, and plausible than a suggested alternative.

If your interpretation has other good and strong possibilities, then how can you even be certain about an infallible Church?

As stated above, because it is based on many considerations, not just one text. I offered this one as the best and most explicit that I have found. It’s not like no Protestants argue similarly. For example, A. T. Robertson in his Word Pictures in the New Testament for Acts 15:28:

Definite claim that the church in this action had the guidance of the Holy Spirit . . . Jesus had promised that the Holy Spirit would guide them into all truth (John 16:13). Even so the church deliberated carefully before deciding. What a blessing it would be if this were always true!

Eerdmans Bible Commentary states:

So completely Spirit-possessed is their consciousness that the community is regarded as the very mouthpiece or vehicle of the Spirit.

F. F. Bruce:

The Spirit . . . speaks through prophets in the church; [Acts 11:28; 13:1 f.; 20:23; 21:4.10 f.] when the apostles and their colleagues reach a common mind, his is the primary authority invoked in its promulgation; [Acts 15:28] it is he who directs the course of missionary activity. [Acts 13:4; 16:6-10] (Paul: Apostle of the Heart Set Free, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1977, p. 208 )

Bruce was Plymouth Brethren; Robertson a Baptist: hardly biased towards a high ecclesiology. So if they can come to these conclusions from their “low church” ecclesiological perspectives, I hardly think it is feasible to be suspicious that my Catholic affiliation is unduly coloring my perception of Acts 15:28. The stuff I note is there! It’s not, I submit, excessive or anachronistic at all to describe it as infallibility in action in the early Church.

Looking forward to hearing more of your answers.

Likewise. I am enjoying this a lot.

By the way, I read some of your responses to Keith Mathison and Kevin Johnson’s commentary on Sola Scriptura — you offered some very penetrating analyses. I commend your thoughtfulness.

Thank you. I’m glad you liked it. I also look forward to interaction with C. Michael Patton in the near future. I’m trying to finish a book: working insanely every day on it!

Your patience with me is more than appreciated. Thank you for your candid responses. I’ve some more questions (surprise? It’s the Socratic way, right? BTW, I’m a big Peter Kreeft fan, he turned me on to Socrates.)

I consider him the greatest living Catholic apologist. I met him briefly once years ago. I was turned on to Socrates in my first philosophy class in late 1977. :-)

How could the Spirit’s direct involvement not be infallible? The question is whether the Holy Spirit protected these men and their decision. If one answers yes, then this is explicit infallibility (and I can hardly think of a more explicit narrative example).

Would you say the infallible decision rendered in this matter is the same thing as unconditional infalliblity? In other words, do we positively know from this text that the right rendering of the the Spirit’s will is positively linked to a perpetual gift of infallibility? 

As I believe I already stated (maybe not), the notion of succession is not in the text itself, but it is a rather straightforward deduction:

1) The early Church’s government is shown to be of a certain nature in the NT, in the book of Acts.

2) It stands to reason that this is a model for later Christians.

3) The Jerusalem Council is stated to have arrived at an infallible decision.

4) Therefore, given #1-3, and other corroborating teachings, such as apostolic succession, papal primacy, and patristic consensus, it is plausible to posit that Church councils throughout history were intended by God to also be in fallible.

Would it not be just as plausible to say, given this text, the Apostles did not err by virtue of their obedience to the Mind of Christ, and it’s not necessary to say they could not err because of some personal obstinancy or vice? 

As I noted above, the text indicates that not only apostles were involved, and it was a collective conciliar decision, under the direct guidance or protection of the Holy Spirit. This is all biblical data: much of it plain and explicit. I fail to see what more is needed. I think what we see in Scripture is precisely what we would expect to see under an antecedent assumption (either espoused on other related grounds, or accepted for the sake of argument) that Catholicism is the later development of biblical, apostolic Christianity. That is true in this instance of an aspect of ecclesiology, and I would argue (and have) that it is true in all areas of theology.

It seems to me the term “infallibility” is not a necessary one to interpret what is going on in this text, if indeed it is possible to obediently render a right judgment through revelation and sanctified reasoning (as displayed in the narrative). For if anyone with those two traits, revelation and sanctified reasoning, can render right judgments, are they to be considered infallible?

Certainly. Infallibility, however, no longer has anything to do with new revelation. It has to do with the continuing development nof the apostolic deposit received in the beginning.

I was referring here to the entire NT evidences in these regards, not just the Jerusalem Council

I’m very happy you have other textual evidences to point to, as I do not think the Jerusalem council per se proves infallibility. It might justly be solicited as another example of it, if indeed there were unambiguous/clearer texts promulgating the idea.

Here is one line of argument that I made in a paper of mine:

Prophets routinely purported to proclaim the very “word of the LORD.” This is a much greater claim than infallibility under limited conditions. Papal infallibility is primarily a preventive, or “negative” guarantee, not positive inspiration. It is easy to argue, then, that infallibility is a far less noteworthy gift than the “revelation on the spot” that we observe in the prophets:

1 Samuel 15:10 “The word of the LORD came to Samuel:”

2 Samuel 23:2 “The Spirit of the LORD speaks by me, his word is upon my tongue.” [King David]

1 Chronicles 17:3 “But that same night the word of the LORD came to Nathan,”

Isaiah 38:4 “Then the word of the LORD came to Isaiah:”

Jeremiah 26:15 “. . . the LORD sent me to you to speak all these words in your ears.”

Ezekiel 33:1 “The word of the LORD came to me:” [“word of the LORD” appears 60 times in the Book of Ezekiel]

Haggai 1:13 “Then Haggai, the messenger of the LORD, spoke to the people with the LORD’s message, ‘I am with you, says the LORD.'”

Objection
*

But that was in the Old Testament. Prophets had to have a special word from God to proclaim their message, because they didn’t know the future. That doesn’t prove that any such gift exists today. Even if the apostles had this gift, it was only for the time when the gospel was first proclaimed (they also performed relatively more miracles).

Reply to Objection
*

To the contrary: the prophets received their inspiration by the Holy Spirit (2 Chron. 24:20; Neh. 9:30; Zech. 7:12). The Holy Spirit is now given to all Christians (Jn. 15:26; 1 Cor. 3:16), so it is perfectly possible and plausible that an even greater measure of the Holy Spirit would be given to leaders of the Church who have the responsibility to teach, since James wrote: “Let not many of you become teachers, my brethren, for you know that we who teach shall be judged with greater strictness” (Jas. 3:1). The disciples were reassured by Jesus: “When the Spirit of truth comes, he will guide you into all the truth” (Jn. 16:13; cf. 8:32), so surely it makes sense that shepherds of the Christian flock would be given an extra measure of protection in order to better fulfill their duties.

* * *

[Apostolic Succession] is implicitly implied insofar as this council was clearly a model of what should take place in the future of the Church. It shows us the decision process in the early Church.

Your understanding of Succession is in no way necessitated by the text itself. 

I agree. It’s a deduction. Apostolic succession itself is shown in other passages.

There are other plausible understandings of succession that could easily fit what’s going on in this chapter, would you not agree? 

No; not when all the biblical evidence and the subsequent patristic consensus is considered together.

If you insist other texts help us interpret this text, that is fine — please point me to the texts that have in mind the sort of succession you believe is being implied here. I’ll leave that to your discretion — that, however, might be a bunny-trail since the point of my questioning is to test your view of infallibility.

That gets into many of my papers devoted to papal primacy and ecclesiology and tradition. It’s too much to bring all that out. In my opinion, the strength of the argument (as often in Catholic apologetics, is in the convergence of all sorts of evidences leading to one conclusion: like a rope made of many strands.

If a result is an infallible decision, what is the logical difference, if it is described as you do it above, or if we say that the pope and/or council was infallible, and delivered an infallible truth?

I don’t believe it’s a distinction without a difference if you admit that an infallible source (the Spirit) can communicate Himself through fallible men, without having to ascribe infallibility to the men themselves. For example, in the book of Acts there are a few examples of prophetic utterances: did they require a gift of infallibility for them to be received as true prophecies? If not, why not?

Okay; I agree that prophecy is another gift and category of knowledge. That could conceivably be applied to the Council of Jerusalem. If it were, though, it seems to me that this would likely be noted in the text itself, since the gift of prophecy is noted in the New Testament. Infallibility is not listed as a gift. It has to be deduced from data suggesting it.

If the Jerusalem Council is somehow shown not to be infallible, that doesn’t mean that infallibility collapses, because it isn’t based on just one prooftext, but a variety of converging biblical evidences all leading in that direction, taken as a whole.

Excellent! Lead me to these texts. 

Consult many of my papers on my Bible & Tradition, Church, and Papacy web pages. I’m sure you’ll find something of what you seek. Then come back and fire more questions and we’ll go from there!

I would be curious if they truly support (unambiguously) your understanding of this matter. As it stands, I cannot find infallibility a necessary component to the Jerusalem Council, unless you have something more textually to show me in this pericope.

I think it comes down to prior dispositions and one’s understanding of development of doctrine. It’s precisely because the Catholic doesn’t require explicit proof of everything in Scripture, that the Jerusalem Council is all the more impressive, because it seems so explicit (at least in its main outlines). If you want absolute, mathematical proof, I don’t think you’ll find that. But the choice is yours: the traditional Catholic (or catholic) view vs. the absurdities of sola Scriptura. You may not think the Catholic view is airtight, but a strong view that isn’t airtight is a heck of a lot better than a self-defeating, unbiblical, ahistorical one.

Blessings to you, dear brother.

And you.

I can’t imagine how you devote so much time to blogging as you do.

I do this full-time; that’s how I can have the time! And I am usually putting in 60-80 hours of work in any given week. At the moment I’m working feverishly on completing a new book, too (it’s up to 240 pages but with a lot to go yet). I hope to announce it within the next few weeks (I think you and many non-Catholics will have an interest in it), and I have some additional significant e-book news too (shortly).

I do have to moderate the Coming Home Network discussion board during much of the day. I am committed to 30 hours a week working for them. Many times what I post over there becomes a new post over here, which works out nicely.

Five of the current seven posts that are posted here (including this very one) actually originated over there. They tend to be relatively less “polemical” because that board is devoted to helping new Catholics, and not to debate per se.

* * * * *

Sorry it’s been a while since responding to this delightful post. I’ve been meaning to interact some more. By my lights you’ve done very well answering my questions, but as you know very well is not necessarily the same as sufficiently well. 

Drats!

With that said, I wanted to pick up on a comment you made in terms of prophecy, categories of knowledge, and infallibility. You wrote:

I agree that prophecy is another gift and category of knowledge. That could conceivably be applied to the Council of Jerusalem. If it were, though, it seems to me that this would likely be noted in the text itself, since the gift of prophecy is noted in the New Testament. Infallibility is not listed as a gift. It has to be deduced from data suggesting it.

I’m extremely happy you’re holding my feet to the fire as to what the text says versus what it doesn’t say. 

Like a good Protestant would, huh? :-)

Silence can be such deafening distraction, no? 

I think it is a wonderful phenomenon, working, as I do, at home, with four vigorous children . . .

You are right, the text makes no mention of this Council coming by way of prophecy (like, “The Word of the Lord came to so and so…” or “He prophesied, saying…”), so I grant we cannot say for certain it’s that sort of thing — but what we do know is that the Spirit is appealed to as the leading factor, yes? 

That appears to me to be the case. Whenever God is said to have participated in a process, clearly He is the leading factor, no?

It’s not like the apostles were suggesting, “It seems good to us, but not the Spirit, so the Spirit loses … ” The point of the text seems to say that the Apostles were men of the Spirit, operating mightily in His power — the discerning agent that leads them into truth, etc. So far I think we can agree. 

Indeed.

But what’s sauce for the goose… the text nowhere indicates this council was a product of a gift of infallibility. 

Not all things need to be explicitly stated to be believed. That in itself is an assumption that can be challenged. There are many doctrines that are deduced from a large number of suggestions. It is the accumulation of evidences that makes something a strong argument, in the absence of explicit statements. Protestants themselves argue in the very same manner with regard to sola Scriptura, because there are no explicit statements of that doctrine.

I think their arguments fall flat, even on a deductive level (having dealt with very many of them myself), but my present point is that everyone uses this sort of argument from Scripture: even supposedly “hyper-biblical” Protestants, who make out that all their beliefs are explicitly grounded in Scripture, when in fact, their very rule of faith is not at all (nor is the canon of Scripture, which can’t be deduced from Scripture in any way, shape, or form whatever). In the present instance, I think my conclusion is a very plausible deduction from the text, with the consideration of other related texts. Systematic theology itself depends on cross-referencing of texts. One might even say that is the primary definition of it.

You say it’s the clearest example, but I think it’s only a probable example and not an explicit or necessary one. 

I think it is quite plausible and probable. It’s not airtight. Moreover, though you might want to argue that the text doesn’t imply infallibility, surely no one would argue that the text as it stands contradicts the notion of infallibility. All arguments from plausibility rest to some extent on factors extraneous to the immediate context of the claims made.

There’s nothing illogical about saying a particular council is not fallible but correct. 

Did you mean to write “infallible”? It’s not illogical, but on the broader scale of what we’re talking about (and far beyond mere logical considerations), it is my contention that God wants to provide His people with doctrinal certainty and not confusion. Protestants deliberately chose private judgment and the primacy of abstract ideals over concrete, institutional unity and infallible received truths (via apostolic succession). Their mistake and naivete was in thinking that the abstract principles would lead to unity.

Every decent Christian (Protestant) man would inevitably arrive at the truths expounded upon by a self-proclaimed Protestant authority (Luther, Calvin, Zwingli, the Anabaptists et al; even Cranmer and the English “Reformers”; insofar as they cared about theology at all, rather than personal wealth stolen from Catholics, and power). We all know what it in fact led to. Lots of decent, equally committed Christian men came to all kinds of conclusions that were contradictory. Thus, the Church was divided against itself. God didn’t want that. Scripture gives no indication whatsoever of any notion of competing denominations and Christian “pseudo-truths.”

So in the gradation of probability, is it not just as likely that the correct answer from the council is rooted in the gift of wisdom and guidance? 

I don’t think so. I think it was intended as a model for subsequent Christian ecclesiology. Councils of elders and bishops were to be led by the Holy Spirit. This Spirit would lead them into all truth (as Scripture says elsewhere). And that is infallibility (as opposed to inspiration).

The Council of Orange (529) is in my mind a correct council, and led by the Spirit, but I don’t believe I have to ascribe infallibility to the bishops and theologians attendant in that provincial council in order to feel confident in its outcome.

Again, what is the practical difference? If you agree with a council and feel confident in its results, then you are making an antecedent assumption that it is trustworthy, and have some assurance that this is dependable and solid. Now, the question is: what is the basis of such assurance? Either it is objective (the Spirit really led it; therefore it is infallible) or subjective: “I think it is correct, based on my reading of Scripture.” The first choice is the Catholic position. But you (or at least your socratic alter-ego) don’t want to accept that; you want to keep questioning infallibility (as all good Protestants must, because they come from the tradition and legacy of skepticism exemplified by Luther at Worms and the Leipzig Disputation).

The other choice is to fall back on yourself or private judgment, which is pure Protestantism. But we all know the problems with that. Everyone else in Protestantism is also doing the same thing, and that does not lead to unity. Disunity is a bad thing. It’s not what God intended. Nowhere in the New Testament to we see the slightest notion of folks deciding things by themselves, apart from God-ordained authority. Doctrine is always the result of authority: either from an apostle, or a council or a papal figure like Peter or the Church referred to generally (as in 1 Timothy 3:15). Scripture speaks of bishops and tradition and of apostolic succession.

Again, my questions and cross-examining are not meant to say I disagree with you necessarily (I’m always a hair’s breadth away from Rome some days, and other days I feel like it’s an impossible thing to convert to for rational/historical/biblical reasons),

Obviously, today was an example of the latter. :-)

but we need to make sure self-critical analysis is never removed precisely because we are fallible creatures.

In the end, everyone who wants to be a Catholic has to accept the authority of the Catholic Church. One can apply reason to determining whether the claim is a valid one; I hope they do; I did myself during my conversion, but in the end it is a matter of grace and faith: not another piece of sola Scriptura and private judgment and the Protestant method of arriving at truth (real or illusory). One accepts Catholic claims as something larger than oneself: not as the end result of a self-generated syllogism based on a private interpretation of Scripture. The system doesn’t work that way. I can only (to use the classic analogy of what apologists do) remove obstacles to acceptance of our claims. I think (and hope) I am doing that.

God Bless, dear brother.

And the same back atcha!

One other thing, while I have a minute to post. You wrote an interesting thing:

Here is one line of argument that I made in a paper of mine:

Prophets routinely purported to proclaim the very “word of the LORD.” This is a much greater claim than infallibility under limited conditions. Papal infallibility is primarily a preventive, or “negative” guarantee, not positive inspiration. It is easy to argue, then, that infallibility is a far less noteworthy gift than the “revelation on the spot” that we observe in the prophets…

This is an interesting but unhelpful comparison for your own case. Are you saying that a prophet is thereby infallible because God told him something to say? 

Insofar as he is truly repeating that which God told him, isn’t that rather obvious and unassailable? He’s infallible in that instance.

If it’s not the case in the former scenario (the greater gift), why would we expect it to be the case in the latter scenario (the lesser gift)?

It is the case in both instances: when the prophet hears the word of God and repeats it, and when the Council hears the affirmation of God and proclaims their binding resolution.

If infallibility were required to communicate the words of God, then no priest on any given Sunday might be trusted to properly preach a homily. 

He is not delivering binding doctrine; he is merely expounding upon the doctrine that has already been delivered. That doesn’t require infallibility, but only adherence and basic reason.

He is after all fallible (right?) But surely we don’t approach things this way. We don’t really expect our priest to be infallible to adjudge his message aright.

We don’t need to. It’s a non sequitur. I don’t need to be infallible, either. I need to come to the place where I accept that the Catholic Church is what it claims to be. I have many reasons for believing that, but in the end it is by faith and not an airtight proposition (as all theology is not, in one important philosophical / epistemological sense). Once I accept that, and accept that God guides His Church, which is the Catholic Church: the One True Faith, then I can accept the teachings proclaimed authoritatively and infallibly by that Church.

I don’t have to figure everything out on my own. I have enough trouble and responsibilities figuring out how to pay my bills and properly raise my kids (and to answer objections such as yours!!), without having to determine every jot and tittle of Catholic doctrine. I’d rather leave that to the Holy Spirit and the Church.

Looking forward to interacting with you.

Same here. Thanks again.

* * *

Thanks for your reply. So far a very enjoyable exchange. I’ll try to keep the momentum here. 

Good.

You wrote regarding the Jerusalem Council and the possibility of its infallibility:

I think it is quite plausible and probable. It’s not airtight. Moreover, though you might want to argue that the text doesn’t imply infallibility, surely no one would argue that the text as it stands contradicts the notion of infallibility. All arguments from plausibility rest to some extent on factors extraneous to the immediate context of the claims made.

Fair enough. I’m glad you don’t say the text is airtight on this matter. And I concur some things are drawn out of the text by corroborating evidence (e.g., infant baptism — nothing explicit, but deduced by premises already in the text). 

Exactly.

I don’t object to the possibility of Infallibility, and indeed embrace it happily as an AngloCatholic (I believe in conciliar infallibility),

That’s a puzzling remark. I thought that was what this dispute was about? You keep questioning the evidence from the Jerusalem Council. If you deny that that is a prooftext for conciliar infallibility, then on what biblical basis do you believe in conciliar infallibility?

but as for my “socratic alter-ego” goes (love that term! can I steal it?), you’re right, I cannot just take up that presupposition and come to the text. 

But I wanna know why you believe in conciliar infallibility in the first place! I thought I was trying to convince you of that. Strange . . .

You need to give me good reasons from the text to argue this way. 

We’ve been round and round. I have nothing else to add. All systematic theology involves cross-referencing and comparison. All theologians (at least orthodox ones) have prior assumptions before they approach any text.

Infant baptism has objective comparisons in Scripture because we see God dealing covenantally with infants in the Old Testament. So while one might object to the OT model being applied to the NT context, it can’t be said there’s nothing objective we can point to for comparison. Infallibility on the other hand has no example explicitly (which you grant), and nothing objectively comparable you can point to from sacred Scripture (so far) that shows infallibility at work (God excluded — we all believe He’s infallible by nature). You can’t ask me to assume the paradigm in order to prove it to me (well you can, but it’s not good reasoning, right?). 

I disagree. I think there is a great deal of Old Testament relevant data (broadly speaking). The aspect of prophets and how they are led by God, presented above, is some of that.

* * *

LOL, Dave — I was trying not to confuse you by letting you know up front I’m playing the socratic skeptic, so to speak. I keep showing my cards to remind you I’m not so much against infallibility, per se, I was just trying to muster up the best arguments I could think of to counter the supposition that infallibility is a pre-requisite for certainty. I took on persona of “skeptic” to test the apologetic waters, not because I outright object to it. I’m not a papal infallibilist, but I am a conciliar infallibilist. 

Sorry about the confusion. The dialogue was still enlightening to me about how you tease out your convictions in the light of Scriptural evidences.

Remember, I was from the beginning testing the strength of your argumentation, to see if it holds up under logical scrutiny. 

Hope it wasn’t a waste of time for you — it wasn’t for me.

So did I pass the test or not? What grade did I get?!

***

(originally 10-6-08)

Photo credit: The main entrance of the Cologne Cathedral. Photograph by Yavor Doychinov (9-24-05) [Wikimedia CommonsCreative Commons Attribution-Share Alike 3.0 Unported license]

***

July 31, 2018

Explanation of the Subtleties of Church Teaching and Debate with Several Radical Catholic Reactionaries

[words of several radical Catholic reactionary opponents will be in blue]

I. THE REACTIONARY POSITION STATED
 
I do not accept the infallibility of Vatican II. I do not because not even the Pope who promulgated it, Paul VI, denied its infallibility. He EXPLICITLY stated that the Council did not invoke the extraordinary magisterium and consequently did not make any infallible definitions:

The magisterium of the Church did not wish to pronounce itself under the form of EXTRAORDINARY DOGMATIC PRONOUNCEMENTS. ( [Emphasis Mine] –Pope Paul VI, discourse closing Vatican II, December 7, 1965)

There are those who ask what authority, what theological qualification, the Council intended to give to its teachings, knowing that it AVOIDED ISSUING SOLEMN DOGMATIC DEFINITIONS backed by the Church’s infallible teaching authority. The answer is known by those who remember the conciliar declaration of March 6, 1964, repeated on November 16, 1964. In view of the pastoral nature of the Council, it AVOIDED PROCLAIMING IN AN EXTRAORDINARY MANNER ANY DOGMATA CARRYING THE MARK OF INFALLIBILITY. ( [Emphasis mine] –Pope Paul VI, General Audience of January 12, 1966)

Therefore I think I am standing on very solid ground when I say that Vatican II in and of itself is not infallible.

Whether it is infallible or not (we shall get into that at great length below) you are required as a Catholic to submit to its teachings, and even to give the obedience of interior (as well as exterior/public) assent. The denial of this leads to Luther’s arbitrary pick-and-choose position against the Church. See CCC #891.

II. LUDWIG OTT ON CONCILIAR INFALLIBILITY

Ludwig Ott discussed conciliar infallibility and the authority of General Councils:

THE TOTALITY OF THE BISHOPS IS INFALLIBLE, WHEN THEY, EITHER ASSEMBLED IN A GENERAL COUNCIL OR SCATTERED OVER THE EARTH, PROPOSE A TEACHING OF FAITH OR MORALS AS ONE TO BE HELD BY ALL THE FAITHFUL. (De fide.)

The Council of Trent also teaches that the Bishops are the successors of the Apostles (D 960); and so does the Vatican Council [ I ] (D 1828). As successors of the Apostles they are the pastors and teachers of the faithful (D 1821). As official teachers of the faith, they are endowed with the active infallibility assured to the incumbents of the Church teaching office.

Two forms of the activity of the teaching office of the whole Episcopate are distinguished – an extraordinary form and an ordinary one.

a) The Bishops exercise their infallible teaching power in extraordinary manner at a general or ecumenical council. It is in the decisions of the General Councils that the teaching activity of the whole teaching body instituted by Christ is most decisively exercised.

It has been the constant teaching of the Church from the earliest times that the resolutions of the General Councils are infallible. St Athanasius says of the Decree on faith of the Nicene Council: ‘The words of the Lord which were spoken by the General Council of Nicaea, remain in eternity’ (Ep. ad Afros 2). St. Gregory the Great recognises and honours the first four General Councils as much as the Four Gospels; he makes the fifth equal to them (Ep. I 25) . . .

b) The Bishops exercise their infallible teaching power in an ordinary manner when they, in their dioceses, in moral unity with the Pope, unanimously promulgate the same teachings on faith and morals. The Vatican Council [ I ] expressly declared that also the truths of Revelation proposed as such by the ordinary and general teaching office of the Church are to be firmly held with ‘divine and catholic faith’ (D 1792) . . . (Ludwig Ott, Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma, ed. James Canon Bastible, tr. Patrick Lynch, Rockford, Illinois: TAN Books and Publishers, 1974; orig. 1952 in German, pp. 299-300)

III. THE INITIAL EXCHANGE: “BLIND OBEDIENCE” OR ROUTINE AUTHORITY?

Catholics are called to obedience, but they are not called to a blind obedience.

How is this “blind” when the Church and popes have spoken so plainly on it, and long before Vatican II itself? You have substituted what you think is a “blind obedience” for a “blind faith” in the erroneous reactionary assumption that one can pick and choose what they like from an Ecumenical Council. That is precisely how Luther began his rebellion. At that point, you have adopted the Protestant principle of authority.

It’s the same old story; I’ve heard this argument over and over. The bottom line is, if you refuse to give assent to Councils, you are like Luther, on the road out of the Church. If you deny that the Church is indefectible, then you are no better than a modernist in my book. The Catholic must have faith that God can preserve His Church and the Sacred Deposit of Faith and Tradition in such instances. Otherwise, obedience becomes a meaningless concept and Catholic Apostolic authority reduces to Protestant pseudo-authority.

It is commonly asserted by reactionaries that the documents of Vatican II are “ambiguous and full of loopholes,” or flat-out contrary to received Sacred Tradition. But Councils and Tradition have always been disputed throughout Church history.The Orthodox, for example, believe that the Fathers denied papal supremacy, and the filioque, and the indissolubility of a consummated marriage.

The Protestants vainly seek to enlist Fathers as advocates of sola Scriptura, or Augustine for a supposedly symbolic Eucharist. Many of the Christological heresies are based on single words, or even letters in some instances. So liberals and reactionaries alike distort the authentic meaning of the Vatican II documents, or arbitrarily pick and choose from them. This is nothing new.

Your overreaction against Luther has almost driven you to impose on me as an article of faith that a Pope and Council can’t waffle, blither, or talk vague (yet mostly pious) claptrap.

What in Trent is “vague” and claptrap?

You have tried to impose on me [the notion] that a Pope and Council can’t sign a modernist document.

I don’t believe a Council (in agreement with the pope) can produce a “modernist document,” no. A pope might (sub-infallibly), but I don’t believe this pope has. If I am gullible or ignorant, then I would rather err in this direction, than in yours, where you feel sufficiently authoritative to disavow the decrees of an Ecumenical Council. Do you think God will condemn me for having too much faith in His Church and His protection of it from error and defection into heresy?

Dave, you know very well that we have no quarrel over the content of this tradition, but only over whether or not Vatican II has compromised it.

Indefectibility and the authority of Ecumenical Councils is part of the Apostolic Tradition, which you overthrow if you persist in this disobedience.

My friend wrote you a letter, in which you accused him of harboring Lutheran tendencies because he questioned the allegedly “dogmatic” nature of the the Second Vatican Council . . . What are the limits or boundaries between the ordinary magisterium and papal or episcopal teaching which is merely human and fallible?

In this instance, we are talking about an Ecumenical Council. If not every jot and tittle of it is infallible in the extraordinary sense, then certainly it is nevertheless entirely binding on the Catholic faithful. If you doubt that, then please tell me which portions of the Council of Trent you reject, on the basis of your private judgment. Or how about Nicaea or Chalcedon or Vatican I.

If the ordinary magisterium is purely “horizontal” (a very innovative phrase!),

The words Trinity and Incarnation and homoousios were very innovative also. They didn’t appear in the Bible. I guess the “conservative Catholics” or “modernists” in the early centuries smuggled those innovative words/concepts into the deposit of faith . . .

Words like Trinity and homoousion were introduced to preserve the old acceptation of doctrines from being distorted by false teachings. A distinction of horizontal and vertical teaching (i.e. a temporal cutting off the Pope and bishops from the necessity of abiding by Tradition) is of another kind altogether.

Of course it doesn’t mean that at all – this is your shameless caricature of the teaching. Authentic collegiality — in line with the  pope and Tradition, is no more in essence than the disciples, with Peter as their earthly leader, and Jesus as their divine leader. You act as if this is a startling innovation, unheard-of before. Nothing could be further from the truth. It has been more precisely explicated as of late, but so what?

i.e. a function of collegiality and papal approbation alone, what does this do to the Council of Trent’s assertion that all irreformable teaching (that is, magisterial teaching) is based upon Sacred Scripture and Sacred Tradition?

All binding Catholic teachings can indeed be found materially in Scripture, either implicitly or explicitly.

The Council Fathers of Trent submitted to the authority of these sources of revelation, were they acting (as I believe they were) infallibly in doing so?

Yes; reactionaries are the ones who (selectively) refuse to obey Ecumenical Councils, not I.

Or can the unbroken chain of Tradition be abrogated?

It cannot; this is indefectibility.

I now proceed to document the perfect orthodoxy of my opinions, and to show that the reactionary position is false. I am thinking in particular of the selective, “pick and choose” acceptance of Vatican II, and the refusal to accept Pope John Paul’s pronouncements in Ecclesia Dei regarding schism, the SSPX, and Abp. Lefebvre’s disobedience, schismatic act, and consequent excommunication.

Note in the following excerpts that even if a clear teaching of the Church is not infallible, it is still binding on the faithful, it requires even interior assent, and may not be disagreed with publicly. Reactionaries violate this Church teaching left and right. I have found nothing in these sources which dissuades me from my position in the least. Note that I cite the Catholic Encyclopedia of 1913, Ludwig Ott, Pope Pius XII, etc., in addition to Fr. William Most. All of this precedes Vatican II; thus reactionaries are out of line with the pre-conciliar teaching, as well as the conciliar teaching (itself completely consistent with prior Tradition).

IV. FOUR LEVELS OF THE CHURCH’S TEACHING

[see article from Fr. William G. Most]

First level:

A) Solemn definition. LG 25: No special formula of words is required in order to define. Wording should be something solemn, and should make clear that the teaching is definitive. Councils in the past often used the form: Si quis dixerit. . . anathema sit. That is: If someone shall say. . . . let him be anathema. But sometimes they used the formula for disciplinary matters, so that form alone does not prove. Further, they also could define in the capitula, the chapters. Thus Pius XII, in Divino afflante Spiritu  (EB 538) spoke of such a passage of Vatican I (DS 3006 — saying God is the author of Scripture) as a solemn definition . . .

B) Second level: LG (Lumen Gentium) 25:

Although the individual bishops do not have the prerogative of infallibility, they can yet teach Christ’s doctrine infallibly. This is true even when they are scattered around the world, provided that, while maintaining the bond of unity among themselves, and with the successor of Peter, they concur in one teaching as the one which must be definitively held.

This means: (1) The day to day teaching of the Church throughout the world, when it gives things as definitively part of the faith, (2) If this can be done when scattered, all the more can it be done when assembled in Council. Thus Trent (DS 1520) after “strictly prohibiting anyone from hereafter believing or preaching or teaching differently than what is established and explained in the present decree,” went on to give infallible teaching even in the capitula, outside the canons.

To know whether the Church intends to teach infallibly on this second level, we notice both the language — no set form required – and the intention, which may be seen at times from the nature of the case, at times from the repetition of the doctrine on this second level.

C) Third Level: Pius XII, in Humani generis:

Nor must it be thought that the things contained in Encyclical Letters do not of themselves require assent on the plea that in them the Pontiffs do not exercise the supreme power of their Magisterium. For these things are taught with the ordinary Magisterium, about which it is also true to say, ‘He who hears you, hears me.’ [Lk 10. 16]. . . If the Supreme Pontiffs, in their acta expressly pass judgment on a matter debated until then, it is obvious to all that the matter, according to the mind and will of the same Pontiffs, cannot be considered any longer a question open for discussion among theologians.

We notice: (1) These things are protected by the promise of Christ in Lk 10. 16, and so are infallible, for His promise cannot fail . . . (2) Not everything in Encyclicals, and similar documents, is on this level – this is true only when the Popes expressly pass judgment on a previously debated matter, (3) since the Church scattered throughout the world can make a teaching infallible without defining – as we saw on level 2 -then of course the Pope alone, who can speak for and reflect the faith of the whole Church, can do the same even in an Encyclical, under the conditions enumerated by Pius XII. Really, on any level, all that is required to make a thing infallible is that it be given definitively. When a Pope takes a stand on something debated in theology and publishes it in his Acta, that suffices. The fact that as Pius XII said it is removed from debate alone shows it is meant as definitive.

In this connection, we note that LG 12 says: The entire body of the faithful, anointed as they are by the Holy One, cannot err in matters of belief. This means: If the whole Church, both people and authorities, have ever believed (accepted as revealed) an item, then that cannot be in error, is infallible. Of course this applies to the more basic items, not to very technical matters of theological debate . . .

D) Level 4: LG 25:

Religious submission of mind and of will must be shown in a special way to the authentic magisterium of the Roman Pontiff even when he is not defining, in such a way, namely, that the judgments made by him are sincerely adhered to according to his manifested mind and will, which is clear either from the nature of the documents, or from the repeated presentation of the same doctrine, or from the manner of speaking.

We note all the qualifications in the underlined part. The key is the intention of the Pope. He may be repeating existing definitive teaching from Ordinary Magisterium level – then it is infallible, as on level 2. He may be giving a decision on a previously debated point – as on level 3, then it falls under the promise of Christ in Lk 10. 16, and so is also infallible. Or it may be a still lesser intention – then we have a case like that envisioned in Canon 752 of the New Code of Canon Law:

Not indeed an assent of faith, but yet a religious submission of mind and will must be given to the teaching which either the Supreme Pontiff, or the College of Bishops [of course, with the Pope] pronounce on faith or on morals when they exercise the authentic Magisterium even if they do not intend to proclaim it by a definitive act.

If they do not mean to make it definitive, then it does not come under the virtue of faith, or the promise of Christ, “He who hears you hears me.” Rather, it is a matter of what the Canon and LG 25 call religious submission of mind and of will. What does this require? Definitely, it forbids public contradiction of the teaching. But it also requires something in the mind, as the wording indicates. This cannot be the absolute assent which faith calls for – for since this teaching is, by definition, not definitive, we gather that it is not absolutely finally certain . . .

If one should make a mistake by following the fourth level of Church teaching, when he comes before the Divine Judge, the Judge will not blame him, rather He will praise him. But if a person errs by breaking with the Church on the plea that he knew better – that will not be easily accepted.

V. THE HIERARCHY OF TRUTHS AND THE TRUTH (Fr. William G. Most; see link)

Sadly, not a few Catholics who consider themselves orthodox, fall into the error of saying that if a thing is not defined, it is free matter: we can take it or leave it as we will. Not so, says the new catechism, echoing Vatican II. in # 891 we read:

The Roman Pontiff chief of the college [of Bishops] actually enjoys this infallibility when, as supreme shepherd and teacher of all the faithful, in charge of confirming his brothers in the faith, proclaims by a definitive act, a point of doctrine on faith or morals.

Before continuing, let us note that word definitive. It means a teaching that is presented as final, with no change possible. But there is nothing in Scripture or Tradition that specifies what wording the Pope must use in order to make a teaching definitive. All that is needed is that in some way, whatever way he may choose, he makes clear that a teaching is definitive. So this section of the new catechism does not add the words ex cathedra. Rather, it refers to LG #25 . . .

All that is required for something to be infallible is that it be taught definitively. But the things described by Pius XII are taught definitively. So what he said was not any new teaching; it was a repetition of what the Church has always done and believed. Some have thought that a Council would have to use the formula: Si quis dixerit… anathema sit , in order to make something infallible. The same persons thought then that only things in the Canons, the Si quis dixerit  sections would be infallible, while the capitula, the bordering sections could not be. But Pius XII in his great Scriptural Encyclical, Divino afflante Spiritu , of 1943, spoke of a statement from Vatican I as a solemn definition, even though not given in a Canon:

In our day Vatican Council I… declared that these same books of Scripture must be considered ‘as sacred and canonical’ by the Church’ not only because they contain revelation without error, but because… they have God as their author. ‘ But when Catholic authors, contrary to this solemn definition of Catholic doctrine… had dared to restrict the truth of Holy Scripture to matters of faith and morals… our predecessor… Leo XIII… rightly and properly refuted those errors. (EB 538. Cf. DS 3006)

What emerges here? Vatican I had taught that God is the Author of Scripture, and that hence all of Scripture is free of error. Pius XII told us that this teaching of Vatican I was a solemn definition, even though not put in the usual wording for such a definition. All that was needed was what we have been speaking of, namely, that it make clear that a teaching is presented as definitive. So any wording that will make that fact clear, that a teaching is definitive, suffices for an infallible teaching. Incidentally, when something is taught repeatedly on the ordinary magisterium level, that very repetition makes clear that it is intended as definitive . . .

But there is still more: The catechism explains in # 889:

To maintain the Church in the purity of the faith transmitted by the Apostles, Christ willed to confer on His Church a participation in His own infallibility, that of Him who is the Truth. By the ‘supernatural sense of the faith’ the People of God, adheres indefectibly to the faith’ under the guidance of the living Magisterium of the Church.

This repeats what Vatican II said in LG #12: The entire body of the faithful, anointed as they are by the Holy One, cannot err in matters of belief. In other words, if the whole Church, people as well as Pastors, has ever accepted something as revealed, that cannot be in error. This is often called passive infallibility. Imagine how many things it covers, e.g., the whole Church from the start has believed there are angels. So those who deny or doubt their existence, deny not just some ordinary teaching, but one that is infallible . . .

We hope Charles Curran is listening. Not only things taught as definitive, but even things not taught that way require even internal assent of the mind. With infallible statements, the assent is based on the virtue of faith; with noninfallible things it is based on the virtue of religion.. . .

[The] Magisterium can tell us so many things. Among others, it can tell us that even though some truths are closer to the center of the hierarchy of truths than others, yet all those presented to us by a divinely protected Magisterium must be believed.

So yes, there is a hierarchy of truths — but it can never lead us to go against the hierarchy of the Church.

VI. THE SPIRIT OF MARTIN LUTHER

If a Council like the Council of Lyons, which had as its specific purpose the reconciliation of the separated Orthodox, was truly inspired by the Holy Ghost (which I affirm it was) why was it possible for it to fail in its mission and fall short of its aim? No lasting reconciliation occurred, and it is now a Council remembered more for its ineffectiveness in accomplishing its stated goals than for any lasting relevance or insight.

The Holy Spirit didn’t guarantee the successfully applied results of a Council’s teaching — that is a function of human free will. What is guaranteed to be free from error are the teachings of the Councils.

The Holy Ghost preserved its Fathers from teaching error, He did not guarantee that their efforts would bear any lasting fruit.

Exactly (I’m answering as I read).

In light of this, is it possible that, even though advocates of the Second Vatican Council like to indulge in triumphalist posturing,

How is it “triumphalist” to merely follow the traditional Catholic belief in the authoritative and binding nature of Ecumenical Councils? To be an “advocate” of an Ecumenical Council is to simply be a Catholic (rather than a Protestant). You act as if this were some sort of amazing thing – a Catholic being obedient to the teaching authority of bishops and the pope, gathered together in Council. Imagine that! Of course, if you seek to prove that Vatican II wasn’t ecumenical, be my guest . . .

the Holy Ghost, while preserving this Council from error, might not necessarily guarantee effectiveness to its methods or its oft-referenced “spirit”?

As to methods, of course not – that isn’t covered by the guarantee of infallibility. The so-called “spirit” is the modernist distortion of authentic Council teaching.

Is there a difference between being preserved from teaching heresy and being preserved from countenancing it?

Yes, but I think it is largely a distinction without a difference, and I deny that the Council “countenanced” error either. The dictionary definition of “countenance” is “to extend approval or toleration; sanction.” Is that what you wish to assert about Vatican II with regard to heresy? That is not merely “omission,” but positive commission of approval, if words mean anything. Perhaps you had in mind Pope Honorius’ failure to act as vigorously as he should have against Monotheletism. That distinction would make much more sense. So what heresy are you saying that Vatican II “countenanced”? Please give me some actual words from the Council . . . That’s the least you can do.

Further, if the laity see the implementation of the Second Vatican Council as a proximate cause of apostasy which threatens the faith of themselves and their children,

All Councils caused upheavals. All Councils caused heretics to willingly remove themselves from the Church or rebel further. The Monophysites left after Chalcedon; the Old Catholics left after Vatican I; Protestant resistance hardened after Trent; the SSPX and kindred reactionary spirits either leave, or are blatantly disobedient and unCatholic in various ways, after Vatican II. I don’t blame the older Councils for the heresies which followed them chronologically; nor do I blame Vatican II for the present crisis. It is the lack of faith and spirit of disobedience and “cafeteria” mentality which characterizes dissidents, heretics, and schismatics on both the left and the right, then and now.

do they have a right to take recourse in a liturgical tradition which has proved to be a powerful bulwark against heterodoxy,

I have no problem with the Tridentine Mass; nor does the pope. I attend Novus Ordo Latin Mass at my church, which is very traditional, and retains all the traditional Catholic aesthetics, rubrics, and reverence.

or are their concerns for the safety of their souls sins which self-righteous men can wantonly label heretical or Lutheran?

The concerns aren’t “heretical.” The false beliefs are (and/or schismatic), to the extent that they go against received Tradition, or entail disobedience to official Church teaching, infallible or not. As for “self-righteous,” it is far more likely that the dissident against legitimate Church authority is guilty of that (though I don’t stoop to accuse you of it), rather than the one simply pointing out the traditional Church teaching.

Would Martin Luther feel more at home in a Novus Ordo German parish which uses the vernacular,

If you so oppose the vernacular, then you must oppose the Latin Vulgate, since that was the common language of Europe at the time (the NT being originally written in Greek, of course), and other translations of the Bible into the vernacular, sanctioned by the Church long since.

communicates divorcees and heretics,

I agree with you here. All priests must be vigilant in that regard.

gives the cup to the laity,

Again, what’s the problem with that? This is the more biblical position, and with much precedent in the early Church.

and permits women on the altar,

Even for readings? The early Church (as seen in the Bible) clearly had women teachers (not priests, of course). Would you not permit St. Therese of Liseux or St. Teresa of Avila or Mother Teresa to read the Bible at Mass? Or to be eucharistic ministers?

A better question regarding St. Theresa of Avila is: would she even have presumed to enter the sanctuary? Did she even want to?

Reading Scripture is not presiding over the Sacrifice of the Mass.

Are new practices introduced by dissidents (not even by the Second Vatican Council) and acquiesced in by the hierarchy, like women reading the Scriptures in the sanctuary, “binding”?

No, but they are permitted.

This is another example of false antiquarianism.

How so? There were certainly women teachers in Scripture.

Or would Luther feel better at the FSSP seminary in Wigratzbad where the Tridentine Mass he yearned to crush is faithfully celebrated?

If the group was schismatic, he would feel right at home. If it sought to undermine or disobey popes and councils, that would hit home with him, too. He would be among kindred spirits, who had forsaken the Catholic rule of faith for his own individualist notion of “authority.”

VII. CONCEPT AND CLASSIFICATION OF DOGMA (Ludwig Ott)

1. Concept

By dogma in the strict sense is understood a truth immediately (formally) revealed by God which has been proposed by the Teaching Authority of the Church to be believed as such. The Vatican Council [ I ] explains:

Fide divina et catholica ea omnia credenta sunt, quae in verbo Dei scripto vel tradito continentur et ab Ecclesia sive solemni iudicio sive ordinario et universali magisterio tanquam divinitus revelata credenda proponuntur. D 1792. All those things are to be believed by divine and Catholic faith which are contained in the Word of God written or handed down and which are proposed for our belief by the Church either in a solemn definition or in its ordinary and universal authoritative teaching.

Two factors or elements may be distinguished in the concept of dogma:-

a) An immediate Divine Revelation of the particular Dogma (revelatio immediate divina or revelatio formalis), i.e., the Dogma must be immediately revealed by God either explicitly (explicite) or inclusively (implicite), and therefore be contained in the sources of Revelation (Holy writ or Tradition).

b) The Promulgation of the Dogma by the Teaching Authority of the Church (propositio Ecclesiae). This implies, not merely the promulgation of the Truth, but also the obligation on the part of the Faithful of believing the Truth. This Promulgation by the Church may be made either in an extraordinary manner through a solemn decision of faith made by the Pope or a General Council (Iudicium solemne) or through the ordinary and general teaching power of the Church (Magisterium ordinarium et universale). The latter may be found easily in the CATECHISMS issued by the Bishops . . .

If a baptised person ‘deliberately denies or doubts a dogma properly so-called, he is guilty of the sin of heresy (CIC 1325, Par. 2), and automatically becomes subject to the punishment of excommunication (CIC 2314, Par. 1) . . .

The Theological Grades of Certainty

1. The highest degree of certainty appertains to the immediately revealed truths. The belief due to them is based on the authority of God Revealing (fides divina), and if the Church, through its teaching, vouches for the fact that a truth is contained in Revelation, one’s certainty is then also based on the authority of the Infallible Teaching Authority of the Church (fides catholica). If Truths are defined by a solemn judgment of faith (definition) of the Pope or of a General Council, they are “de fide definita.”

2. Catholic truths or Church doctrines, on which the infallible Teaching Authority of the Church has finally decided, are to be accepted with a faith which is based on the sole authority of the Church (fides ccclesiastica). These truths are as infallibly certain as dogmas proper.

3. A Teaching proximate to Faith (sententia fidei proxima) is a doctrine, which is regarded by theologians generally as a truth of Revelation, but which has not yet been finally promulgated as such by the Church.

4. A Teaching pertaining to the Faith, i.e., theologically certain (sententia ad fidem pertinens, i.e., theologice certa) is a doctrine, on which the Teaching [p.10] Authority of the Church has not yet finally pronounced, but whose truth is guaranteed by its intrinsic connection with the doctrine of revelation (theological conclusions).

5. Common Teaching (sententia communis) is doctrine, which in itself belongs to the field of the free opinions, but which is accepted by theologians generally.

6. Theological opinions of lesser grades of certainty are called probable, more probable, well-founded (sententia probabilis, probabilior, bene fundata).

Those which are regarded as being in agreement with the consciousness of Faith of the Church are called pious opinions (sententia pia). The least degree of certainty is possessed by the tolerated opinion (opinio tolerata), which is only weakly founded, but which is tolerated by the Church.

With regard to the doctrinal teaching of the Church it must be well noted that not all the assertions of the Teaching Authority of the Church on questions of Faith and morals are infallible and consequently irrevocable. Only those are infallible which emanate from General Councils representing the whole episcopate, and the Papal Decisions Ex Cathedra (cf. D 1839).

The ordinary and usual form of the Papal teaching activity is not infallible. Further, the decisions of the Roman Congregations (Holy Office, Bible Commission) are not infallible. Nevertheless normally they are to be accepted with an inner assent which is based on the high supernatural authority of the Holy See (assensus internus supernaturalis, assensus religiosus). The so-called “silentium obsequiosum,” that is “reverent silence,” does not generally suffice. By way of exception, the obligation of inner agreement may cease if a competent expert, after a renewed scientific investigation of all grounds, arrives at the positive conviction that the decision rests on an error. (Ludwig Ott, Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma, ed. James Canon Bastible, translated by Patrick Lynch, Rockford, Illinois: TAN Books and Publishers, 1974; orig. 1952 in German, 4-5, 9-10)

VIII. A DISCUSSION OF INFALLIBILITY (Fr. John Trigilio: see link)

According to Pope Pius XII in Humani Generis and Vatican II in Lumen Gentium #25, even non-infallible teachings are to receive the submission of mind and will of the faithful. While not requiring the ASSENT OF FAITH, they CANNOT be disputed nor rejected publicly and the benefit of the doubt must be given to the one possessing the fullness of teaching authority. The heterodox concept of a dual magisteria, i.e., the theologians, is not based on scriptural nor traditional grounds. Some have gone as far as to propose a triple magisteria, the body of believers. While it is true that as a whole, the body of believers is infallible in that SENSUS FIDEI  is that the Church as the Mystical Body cannot be in error on matters of faith and morals, the TEACHING AUTHORITY (Magisterium) resides soley with the Roman Pontiff and the College of Bishops in union with him.

IX. PRIVATE JUDGMENT AND HERETICAL CONCILIARISM

Pope Paul VI:

“…it [the Council] avoided issuing solemn dogmatic definitions backed by the Church’s infallible teaching authority.”

Yes, in other words, there were no definitions in Fr. Most’s category #1: as in 1854, 1870, and 1950. That still does not mean that you are free to disobey or doubt the Council where you wish (old man Luther again).

The council’s decrees, said Paul VI, were pastoral in nature.

All teaching is pastoral, in that it is leading the sheep, so to speak.

A pastoral council, by definition, cannot “propose a teaching of faith or morals as one to be held by all the faithful.”

The pastoral vs. dogmatic distinction is bogus. A friend of mine who is a canon lawyer, wrote to me:

    This “pastoral” vs. “dogmatic” council distinction is a bunch of hooey (a technical canonical term meaning whatever). Those two words are descriptive, not definitive. Whatever Vatican II taught authoritatively, Catholics are bound to hold. Period. Of course, finding out just what Vatican II taught authoritatively is not always so clear as it was with, say, Trent, but that’s a different problem from the one your friend wants to pose.

Am I being like Luther?

Yes. I don’t see any essential difference, in terms of the original comparison I made.

No, I am simply following what a Pope has explicitly stated: Vatican II was not infallible.

He didn’t say that; he spoke of “solemn dogmatic definitions.” Here is what he said officially, at the close of the Council:

We decided moreover that all that has been established synodally is to be religiously observed by all the faithful, for the glory of God and the dignity of the Church and for the tranquillity and peace of all men. We have approved and established these things, decreeing that the present letters are and remain stable and valid, and are to have legal effectiveness, so that they be disseminated and obtain full and complete effect, and so that they may be fully convalidated by those whom they concern or may concern now and in the future; and so that, as it be judged and described, all efforts contrary to these things by whomever or whatever authority, knowingly or in ignorance be invalid and worthless from now on.

Given in Rome at St. Peter’s, under the [seal of the] ring of the fisherman, Dec. 8, on the feast of the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin Mary, the year 1965, the third year of our pontificate.

So you are not at liberty to dissent from its teaching in part or in entirety. It’s as simple as that. You are faced with declaring either the Council or the pontificate of Paul VI (or both) invalid – an impossible task, if precedent means anything. Either way, your position (as an orthodox Catholic proposition) collapses.

And yes, Popes, Councils, and a unanimous college of Bishops scattered throughout the world can err WHEN NOT ISSUING DOGMATIC DEFINITIONS.

Theoretically they may err in rare cases, yet as a Catholic, you are obliged to accept their teaching. It is not for you to judge. They judge themselves. We are Catholics, not Protestants.

We all agree that Vatican II was valid an ecumenical council, validly convoked and promulgated by two validly elected Popes. We all agree it did not define any dogmas.

Not as Vatican I did, no.

We also, I think, agree its purpose was pastoral, that is to come up with more effective ways of disseminating Catholic doctrine rather than teaching or clarifying Catholic doctrine itself.

As long as this isn’t used as a tactic to dismiss its authoritativeness, as I have argued previously. The Council did indeed clarify much doctrine, including even the notion of Mary as Mediatrix, the nature of the Church, conciliar infallibility, extra ecclesiam nulla salus, etc.

If anyone doubts this last point, let me supply a quote from John XXIII:

The greatest concern of the Ecumenical Council is this, that the Sacred Deposit of Christian Doctrine should be guarded and taught more efficaciously…The salient point of this Council is not, therefore, a discussion of one article or another of the fundamental doctrine of the Church.

(Opening speech of Vatican II)
Also, another one from Paul VI:

DIFFERING from other Councils, this one was not directly dogmatic, but disciplinary and pastoral.

[Emphasis mine]–Pope Paul VI, August 6, 1975, General Audience

Yes, this was the overall purpose, but that doesn’t rule out any and all dogmatic considerations in the documents, nor does it give a carte blanche approval of disobedience. I also cited Paul VI’s injunction at the end which called for total obedience to the Council. So why do you feel free to disobey any part of it at will?

Now, you ask, can an ordinary layman call a Pope to task for making heretical statements? Yes, he can, as I mentioned in my previous email and gave examples.

In extraordinary instances, yes. The present situation is not one of those.

Your reply was that these men were saints. Well, maybe so, but I must ask, did they know they were saints when they were doing it?

Probably not, as saints are humble, by definition. But they were acting in cases of clear dereliction of duty. You can’t show that what we have today in Church teaching departs from received Tradition. If so, then how do you avoid accepting the notion that the Church defected, violating Jesus’ promise in Matthew 16 to Peter?

I’d like to quote from two Ecumenical Councils – the Council of Constance and the Second Vatican Council.

[This Council] declares that, legitimately assembled in the Holy Spirit, constituting a General Council and representing the Catholic Church militant, it has power immediately from Christ; and that everyone of whatever state or dignity, even papal, is bound to obey it in those matters which pertain to the faith.

(from Decretum Haec Sancta, Council of Constance, April 6, 1415)

This is the heresy of Gallicanism, or conciliarism: condemned at Vatican I. Councils are only infallible to the extent that they are ratified by the pope (Remember Leo the Great and the 28th Canon at Chalcedon?), so that overcomes this alleged contradiction in Catholic ecclesiology. Pope Pius II (formally an advocate of conciliarism himself), in his Bull Execrabilis (1460) formally forbade an appeal from a pope to a Council. Vatican I made this a matter of dogmatic definition. Do you accept it?

    • The college or body of bishops has for all that no authority unless united with the Roman Pontiff, Peter’s successor, as its head… for the Roman Pontiff, by reason of his office as Vicar of Christ, namely, and as pastor of the entire Church, has full, supreme and universal power over the whole Church, a power which he can always exercise unhindered. (Dogmatic Constitution

Lumen Gentium

     22, Second Vatican Council, November 14, 1964)

Precisely. This is authentic Catholic Tradition.

I would reaffirm now my belief that Sacred Scripture and Sacred Tradition are the two sources of the Magisterium.

I agree. I believe in the material sufficiency of Scripture, as authoritatively interpreted by the Church, and preserved in its Tradition. Three-legged stool . . .

A few points:

Father Ludwig Ott and Father William Most are not themselves infallible sources of teaching, and their theories regarding the proper sorting of magisterial pronouncements are precisely that — theirs.

So this is your “answer” to all that material I painstakingly collected? Give me Church documents, then, to overthrow what I have argued, by using them as sources. You guys place your own fallible opinions or that of Abp. Lefebvre or St. Robert Bellarmine above that of the pope or Ecumenical Councils, then turn around and say our citing of people like Ott and Most is improper and inconclusive. I continue to await an authoritative counter-argument. This is surely not it. All you have said is “who are they?” — a mild form of the ad hominem logical fallacy.

What is the sensus fidelium? What meaning does this phrase have when, for example, 70% of the American faithful no longer believe in the Real Presence?

Those people are out of the Church, by definition, as they have espoused blatant heresy. So this is a non sequitur with regard to sensus fidelium, which has to do with the opinion of real Catholics, not merely nominal ones.

How is holding firm to tradition different from being like Luther? Traditional Catholics do not introduce brand new ideas like salvation by faith alone or the sufficiency of Scripture . . . They simply try to abide by the teaching handed down to us from the Apostles rather than coming up with new PR to make heretics like us more.

Disobeying popes and Councils alike are not “brand new ideas?”

I “refuse to obey Ecumenical Councils”? That’s a strong accusation. What direct command of the Second Vatican Council have I disobeyed?

You have tried to split hairs and play word games, in attempt to be “for” the Council and against it simultaneously. This is a classic case of undermining the authority of a Council, all the while claiming to uphold it. This is as clever as Calvin’s tortured logic in opposition to the Church. The Council is either authentic (i.e., protected by the Holy Spirit) and consistent with Catholic Tradition or it is not. But you are bound as a Catholic to obediently submit to it. If you don’t like it, then say so plainly, and become an Anglican or an Orthodox. This gets back to the bottom line of indefectibility, which I discussed in other posts today.

What schismatic act have I committed? Are you competent to judge of me in this matter?

What I have said is that there is such a thing as a “schismatic spirit.” As far as I am concerned, these discussions we are having shouldn’t even have to be necessary between Catholics. You guys are arguing far more like Anglicans than Catholics, in my opinion.

X. CHURCH CONCILIAR “CRISES,” INDEFECTIBILITY, AND “VAGUENESS”

The Second Vatican Council is “completely consistent with prior tradition”?

Yes. Otherwise, the Church has defected – precisely what it cannot do, according to our Lord Jesus.

The decrees on ecumenism, religious freedom and the heretics are remarkably de novo – the most prominent referenced source is one encyclical of His Holiness Pope John XXIII, Pacem in Terris.

Rapid recent development, based on clear kernels in ancient Tradition. You can either deny development itself, or rapid development (if so, please explain 4th and 5th century Christology, Mariology, papal supremacy, and the Canon of Scripture, among other things), or deny that the Donatists were considered implicitly part of the Church by virtue of their baptism (hence Augustine argued against their re-baptism), etc. I have much on these subjects already on my website — by flaming liberals such as Karl Adam and Fr. John A. Hardon.

The vagueness of the documents (as opposed to the straightforward clarity of Vatican I, Trent, etc.) is the stuff of legend.

So you say. Very well, then. You maintain in principle that a professed Catholic can selectively accept decrees of Ecumenical Councils. So I ask you again, for all to see: which decrees of Nicaea, Trent, and Vatican I do you dissent from? If none, how is it that the Holy Spirit could protect those Councils from error, yet when it comes to another indisputably Ecumenical Council, it is a free-for-all and a successful modernist “conspiracy of ambiguity”? Was the Holy Spirit on leave from 1962-1965? I don’t buy it. One must exercise faith. The modernists have not succeeded in perverting a single doctrine of the Catholic faith. Nor will they ever do so. If history teaches us anything, it is that. And if you can’t see that, you have no business being a Catholic, as far as I am concerned. If you do see it, you have no business trashing Vatican II the way you do. It is scandalous; contemptible.

Of course there are all sorts of attempts to subvert the faith by bad bishops and theologians, even at the Council itself. It has always been so. Look at the Arians at Nicaea, the “Robber Council” of 449, the conciliarists of Constance, the Nestorians at Ephesus, or the ultramontanists at Vatican I. The hand of God is shown in the fact that these conspiracies never succeed. Jesus promised us that they never would, and history remarkably confirms this. But you apparently lack the faith to see the hand of God in the present crisis of liberalism. Rather than viewing the Holy Father’s writings and actions as the decisive blow against modernism (which I believe the verdict of history will amply confirm), you see him as part of the problem. Quite amazing.

I could do without veiled references to me being a heretic or a schismatic. I think we’re all trying to be obedient Catholics.

I attribute to all reactionaries good will, prima facie. One, however (especially an apologist like myself), has to speak plainly about the harmful implications of positions. As far as I remember, I have sought to not apply the term “schismatic” or “heretic” to people as blanket descriptions, but rather, to try to persuade them that their position is perilous and very close to those things, in spirit, and by logical extension. But even If I did that, is it any worse than reactionaries calling people like Louis Bouyer or de Lubac or von Balthasar “modernists” (as, e.g., Gerry Matatics has done)?

Dave has grudgingly admitted that the faithful may resist heretical Popes and bishops, qualifying his statement that such occurrences are rare and justified only in extreme situations.

:-) “Grudgingly?” LOL I have had the following web page on my website for well over a year now: “Laymen Advising and Rebuking Popes.”

In any event, it remains true that no pope has ever taught heresy as binding upon the faithful (and that includes the famous trio: Honorius, Liberius, and Vigilius). As far as I know, John XXII is the only one who ever held a heretical opinion even privately, and he retracted it before he died. So then, no pope has ever been an obstinate heretic, let alone binding the faithful to such error. And you guys come along and say John Paul II is a loose cannon, teaching all sorts of error . . . Amazing . . .

What of indefectibility? If Vatican II issued statements that were in error, has the Church defected? Not at all, for there still is a remnant of those who are faithful to the tradition (I’m not necessarily speaking of the SSPX; I don’t know enough about them to say). There are good bishops still in union with Rome who have not adopted the heretical attitudes of Vatican II.

Which attitudes are those?

The situation is not without precedent. Back in the 4th century we had a situation when practically the entire Church with the exception of St. Athanasius, was Arian. Even the Pope, while not explicitly and Arian, signed a very problematic creed. Did the Church defect? No, the Arian crisis passed and the mainstream became orthodox again. Indefectibility does not guarantee that the majority of the Church can’t err when not excercising its infallible authority.

Rome stood steadfast during the Arian crisis, as always. That’s all we need to know, for the purpose of our present discussion. This fact rather supports my position, not yours. Here is some of my research on the history of heresies:

    The heresy Arianism held that Jesus was created by the Father. In trinitarian Christianity, Christ and the Holy Spirit are both equal to, uncreated, and co-eternal with, God the Father. Arius (c.256-336), the heresiarch, was based in Alexandria and died in Constantinople. He was a student of Lucian of Antioch (d.312), who denied the eternal existence of Christ, and was the head of the theological school at Antioch. Eusebius (d.342), also a disciple of Lucian, and the next most prominent Arian, was Bishop of Nicomedia, the former capital of Turkey, and also wound up in Constantinople after 339. Eudoxius (300-70) was Bishop of Antioch and Constantinople in 358 and 360 respectively. Aetius (d.c.370), a prominent philosopher of Arianism, came from Antioch and later moved to Alexandria. In 363 he was ordained a Bishop by Arians without a fixed see. Eunomius (d.394), studied in Alexandria under Aetius, moved to Antioch and became Bishop of Cyzicus (northwest Turkey) in 360. Macedonius (d.c.362), Bishop of Constantinople from c.342 to 360, was a semi-Arian. George of Cappadocia (d.361), an extreme Arian, was Bishop of Alexandria from 357 to his death. In a Council at Antioch in 341, the majority of 97 eastern bishops subscribed to a form of semi-Arianism, whereas in a Council at Rome in the same year, under Pope Julius I, the trinitarian St. Athanasius was vindicated by over 50 Italian bishops. The western-dominated Council of Sardica (Sofia) in 343 again upheld Athanasius’ orthodoxy, whereas the eastern Council of Sirmium in 351 espoused Arianism, which in turn was rejected by the western Councils of Arles (353) and Milan (355).

The Council of Nicaea was orthodox in the midst of the Arian heresy. Likewise, Vatican II was orthodox in the midst of the modernist heresy. I don’t see you selectively agreeing with Nicaea (or any other Council thus far). But you want to pick and choose from Vatican II, like a good modernist, cafeteria Catholic. Why is this? Who are you to judge an Ecumenical Council, pray tell? What authority do you bring in order to overthrow the orthodoxy of its decrees? You think your charism of “conscience” or whatever you want to call it, is superior to that which rests upon the bishops as a corporate body, and on the pope?

Thank you for falling so far short of the anathemas I have had hurled at me . . . I find you a LOT easier to listen to. If only you could teach your style of ecumenism to [name].

Well thanks. “. . . in all things, charity.” I try to speak the truth (as I understand it) in love, by God’s help. But I thought ecumenism was one of those “liberal” things? . . .

Did the Pope and bishops who compromised with Arianism lose the faith? I’m talking compromise, not blatant heresy.

Both Arianism and Semi-Arianism are heresies – and very serious ones indeed, as they are Christological. So they did lose the faith. But the (Roman) Councils and popes of the time did not. Hence, Roman primacy and indefectibility.

Likewise did Peter lose the faith when Paul rebuked him? I don’t think so. Faith can be weak, without necessarily being absent. Our Lord said words to that effect several times: “Ye of little faith”, “If you had faith as a grain of mustard”, etc.

But this doesn’t line up with your much more severe judgments elsewhere. Being in bed with the liberals, in effect, is not merely “weak,” it is betrayal – conscious or not. Or at least radical compromise.

The indefectibility of the Church is based on the words of Our Lord: “He who hears you, hears Me”, “…the gates of hell shall not prevail against it” etc. I could multiply recent examples of very bad behaviour by bishops and by bishops conferences, but for you that doesn’t excuse my criticism of the council. So what, exactly, have I accused the council of? Of compromise. Of (implicitly) trying the impossibility of serving two masters. But not of explicitly turning against God – that’s not what trying to serve two masters means.

This is getting weird. The Council was either double-minded or it wasn’t. Even you say it is impossible to serve two masters, following the words of Jesus (Mt 6:24). If a man can’t serve two masters, then how can a Council, which has a special charism from the Holy Spirit? I think you want to have it both ways, and this is your way of hanging on to orthodox Catholicism. But to do so, you are forced to ironically equivocate in a fashion far more in line with the “ambiguity” you falsely accuse the Council of. I find this particular line of reasoning of yours downright surreal.

Our Lady of La Salette uses quite strong language – She says “Rome shall lose the faith and become the seat of the Antichrist”. Is this a false apparition? St John Vianney feared so, but change his mind later. Never mind for now whether Our Blessed Mother actually said those words, are the words themselves impossible: “Rome shall lose the faith”?

I suppose the papacy could relocate, as it once did. The papacy itself can never “lose faith.”

I’m accusing Vatican II of compromising the faith, not losing it, like St Peter and Pope Liberius before them. I see Vatican II as the lukewarm church of Sardis (Apoclaypse 3:1-6) “quia nomen habes quod vivas, et mortuus es”.

So all other General Councils were protected by the Holy Spirit, but Vatican II somehow was not. Why not just (somehow) deny that it is ecumenical? You are really between a rock and a hard place on this one. You must posit an essential change of principle which distinguishes this Council from all the others. Trouble is: that would overthrow both Catholic ecclesiology and proper Newmanian development of doctrine.

If Our Lord could call a church – a real church, really part of His Mystical Body – that you have the name of being alive, and you are dead, then I think it just might be permissible that I say the same of a council. Vatican II has the name of being alive, and it is dead. Certainly I must not qualify or distinguish my attachment to the Catholic Church, but if I were living in Sardis at the start of the second century I certainly should qualify and distinguish my attachment to the behaviour of that local church. Likewise, you believe in Vatican II without reservation. I don’t.

Then you certainly believe in defectibility, if it is “dead.” This is the very highest level of collegial Catholic authority. The Council speaks for the whole Church. As the Council goes, so goes the Church. So if it is dead, then the Church is also.

It’s hard for you to tolerate what I say, because if we can’t take Vatican II as a rock, what CAN we trust?

Not “what;” “Whom.” Jesus – the basis for the trust in the authority of the Council in the first place. If we had to trust in mere men, indeed there would be no hope at all.

Obviously not the mere human opinions of the SSPX.

Now there’s a sentence where you hit the nail on the head! LOL

And you’ll want to know what grounds I have for treating Vatican II as a unique case among councils. I don’t have a theological argument for that. I only have evidence – i.e. the lack of commands and anathemas.

The entire teaching is a “command” of sorts – by its very nature as a General Council. So this is rather a self-fulfilling prophecy.

I seem to get nowhere pointing out the vagueness of it – you won’t let yourself see that because it’s a council.

I don’t think it is vague. I think it is nuanced and expressive, giving evidence of profound and spiritual and complex thought (in other words, exhibiting many of the characteristics which drew me to Catholicism as the fullness of truth), and geared towards facing the increased challenges of modernity. This is exactly as it should be. But I deny that it is vague about any heretofore-held Catholic doctrine.

So what did it actually teach? Religious liberty, ecumenism, collegiality. I have no problem with these things as practised by YOU – you read these things in a Catholic sense. But the liberals take these three things in a heretical sense. I hear you say “So what?” So, they have as much claim as you to be faithful to the WORDS “Religious liberty, ecumenism, collegiality” – words which mean what people want ’em to mean. The founder of the SSPX saw it coming while the council was in progress.

Thus you reveal to us that your entire argument rests on an obvious and glaring fallacy: viz.,

    P1 The Council says x (in its actual words).
    P2 The “conservatives” (i.e., orthodox Catholics) interpret the words in a Catholic sense, consistent with Sacred Tradition.
    P3 The liberals (or, modernists) interpret the words in a heterodox, unCatholic, revolutionary sense.
    C1 The words of the Council must therefore lend themselves – in their essence, intrinsically, and objectively – to either interpretation.
    C2 Since both readings occur in fact, therefore the Council is deliberately ambiguous, and “compromises the faith.”

The fallacy lies in C1, leading to further false assertion C2. It is not established by logic; nor is it proven that the Council is the sole (or even primary) cause of what comes after it. I shall show you how fallacious this is, using the analogy of the Bible:

    PP1 The Bible says x (in its actual words).
    PP2 Catholics interpret the words in a Catholic sense, consistent with Sacred Tradition.
    PP3 Protestants, and heretics such as Jehovah’s Witnesses or Mormons interpret (many of) the words in a heterodox, unCatholic sense.
    CC1 The words of the Bible must therefore lend themselves – in their essence, intrinsically, and objectively – to either the Catholic or the heretical interpretation.
    CC2 Since both readings occur in fact, therefore the Bible is deliberately ambiguous, and “compromises the faith.”

The reasoning is precisely the same in both cases. All Christian sects and heresies appeal to the Bible (and here we encounter the madness, chaos, and relativism of sola Scriptura). Likewise, liberals appeal to Vatican II. We would expect no less, since they also appeal to Scripture (even homosexual activists try to find support for their abominable viewpoints in Scripture, with some of the worst, twisted exegesis known to man). Pro-aborts find abortion in the U.S. Constitution, under a supposed “right to privacy” — rather like the ersatz liberal alleged “spirit” of Vatican II. Just as the Bible in no wise teaches what they claim it does, so it is the case that Vatican II does not teach their damnable heresies, either.

One must look at the objective words of the Council, interpreted through cross-reference within its own documents, and the historical precedent of Catholic orthodoxy, just as one does with the Bible: through exegesis, hermeneutics, and the appeal to the apostolic Tradition as a norm of authentic interpretation. You have it exactly backwards – you locate the meaning of the conciliar documents in the liberal distortions and “co-opting” of them, which makes no sense at all; in fact, it is scandalous, coming from one who claims to be upholding Tradition. It is as unseemly as taking a Mormon interpretation of Scripture as the criterion for proper biblical hermeneutics, then condemning the Bible because of the stupidity of Mormon teaching.

Conclusion: a council, even one presided over by a Pope, CAN compromise (not lose) the faith.

You are correct in concluding that I say – by faith – that this is impossible. But even if I assume for a moment that it were possible, the reasoning you give for coming to that conclusion (liberal interpretation and application) is entirely fallacious. That won’t do; you would have to show blatant contradictions between Vatican II documents and their predecessors. I know: ecumenism, blah blah blah, right? I’ve tried to explain that in papers and links on my website, but one seems to either “get” that explanation or not, to see the inherent value of ecumenism or not see it, for some reason or other.

Is my conclusion impossible? Why?

Yes, because in its supreme teaching authority (only slightly less than the pope’s), if a Council were to err in that fashion, the Church would not have certainty and truth, as brought about by the working of the Holy Spirit – expressly promised by our Lord Himself. And – again – Luther would have been right at Worms in 1521. You would have no argument to bring against his central thesis, and basis for his rebellion: that “popes and Councils can and do err.” You would have been in his cheerleading section, I guess. That is the seed of defectibility which made it thinkable at all for the so-called “Reformers” to set up rival Christianities and churches. You know, the “Babylonian Captivity.”

Whether I’m right or wrong in my attitude to Vatican II in particular, I agree with all my heart with what you say about the Church’s indefectibility.

Then I must conclude that you are inconsistent – talking out of both sides of your mouth. Maybe you truly don’t see that. I don’t question your sincerity for a moment. I hope this post makes it more clear to you, what you are doing. I say it again: this brand of reactinaryism logically leads to Anglicanism, Orthodoxy, or sedevacantism. It is self-defeating.

And I don’t think the true church is exclusively the traditionalists – I think very highly of you as a brother in the faith.

Well, I appreciate that. I like you, too. It’s too bad these differences have to exist – whatever the truth is in fact.

Maybe a philosophical definition of liberalism? Liberalism is more about self-deception than deception of others. The liberal does not curse God, but instead he vaguely assumes that God won’t mind what he gets up to. Archbishop Lefebvre has said that the Church has always condemned liberalism, but has not always excommunicated liberals. This is because it is impossible to leglislate against vagueness.

This is silly, too. We know precisely what liberals / modernist dissidents believe, en masse. Examples:

    1. They favor contraception.
    2. They favor radical secularist / unisex feminism and women priests.
    3. They think Jesus (and inspired Scripture) could be in error, and teach theological error.
    4. They favor divorce, or at least a very loose application of annulments.
    5. They deny the Real Presence.
    6. They favor situational and relativist ethics (especially in sexual matters).
    7. They habitually deny or disobey Church and papal authority and infallibility; pick and choose what they want to believe (Protestantized “cafeteria Catholicism”) and apply an erroneous, anti-traditional view of conscience.
    8. They undermine and decry liturgical tradition.
    9. They make the first eleven chapters of Genesis completely metaphorical, which subverts the doctrines of monogenism and original sin.
    10. They underemphasize or downplay Catholic distinctive doctrines, and either adopt indifferentism, or something close to it, including the denial of “no salvation outside the Church.”
      11. They deny the

in partu 

    virginity of Mary (physical virginity during the birth of Jesus), and sometimes perpetual virginity itself.
    12. Some are even anti-supernaturalists; deny the devil’s existence (McBrien), various miracles (even those of Jesus), etc.

Etc., etc. What’s vague about all this?

You seem to think liberals and modernists are generally malicious and inexcusable. I don’t – I think they’re mostly successful in convincing themselves that they’re perfectly respectable Catholics.

I agree. They’re self-deluded, but that doesn’t make their views any less false, or execrable.

Peter compromised. Weakness, not sin. That is exactly what I understand is the case with most liberals and modernists – very few have the malice to really know what they are doing.

But that’s irrelevant. You are talking hypocrisy and culpability. I am talking objective sin and false teaching. Apples and oranges.

John Paul II is no pope, if indeed (which I vehemently deny) he has so little true authority in your eyes, and is so self-contradictory. You forget that the notorious “bad popes” of the Renaissance had little use for teaching, and so didn’t do it much. One can’t say that about thispope! But you fault his teaching. I had more respect for the Holy Father as a Protestant, for Pete’s sake, than you do as a Catholic! I guess you will think that proves your point. But I think not.

Okay – so I may privately doubt the council, but may not vocalise my doubt? I doubt that’s what you mean. If I must, must, MUST receive the non-infallible word of Vatican II without question, how is that different from ex cathedra? My turn to refuse your distinction :-)).

You must give the Council internal assent and submission of mind and will. This being the case, public doubt is certainly prohibited. As I’ve stated many times, this is the distinction between obedience and technical levels of infallibility (which canon lawyers and theologians with nothing better to do in their ivory towers can mull over). I, as a parent, can tell my son to not fornicate. That would be, in effect, an infallible statement, in terms of moral certainty. I could also forbid him to stay out till, say, 11:00 PM. Obviously, the second is a much less certain proposition, in terms of right and wrong. But my son is bound to obey both “commands,” by the natural order of the authority of parents. Two very different levels of “infallibility,” yet both entail more or less absolute obedience.

It’s silly to restrict obedience (even in theoretical terms) only to ex cathedra statements. That would lead, e.g., arguably to a position whereby one could favor women priests, contraception, and abortion (as some liberals have, in fact, argued). That’s why this desire to have so many loopholes in conciliar and papal authority is a fundamentally liberal and dissenting outlook.

Your denial that compromise is possible in a Church Council document is human opinion, not dogma.

Hardly. This was the consensus of the Fathers – no small consideration – and was always pretty much assumed, according to Ott. It has been more explicitly defined in Vatican II, which even you admit is an Ecumenical Council. That’s more than enough for most Catholics to accept, my friend. But again, if the documents were properly applied, and people followed them, everything would have been great. Human nature being what it is, that didn’t happen. You blame the Council; I blame human rebelliousness, pride, and the cultural zeitgeist of the late 60s and 70s. God couldn’t make Adam and Eve remain sinless and obedient (given free will). Neither can Vatican II make liberals obedient, by the same token (and one wouldn’t expect it – given pride and Church history).

I claim the modernists HAVE succeeded in getting deliberately vague texts passed by the council.

How does one go about proving that something is “vague” anyway?

Indeed, I find your inability to see the Pope as a problem equally amazing. Have you ever heard of him telling anyone that they need the Roman Catholic religion if they wish to gain heaven and avoid hell?

Sure (will this crazy slander of the Holy Father ever cease?):

Today many people seem to rebel against the claim that salvation can be found only in the Church. (Crossing the Threshold of Hope, 1994, p. 135 – he had just mentioned the “Catholic Church” in the previous sentence, so context makes it clear to what he refers)

He cites explicit NON-AMBIGUOUS teaching of Vatican II, from Lumen Gentium 14, to the same end (pp. 139-140):

    Those who do not persist in charity, even if they remain in the Church in ‘body’ but not in ‘heart,’ cannot be saved.

So one not only ought to be a member of the Church, but an active, devout one. Then he interprets the Council:

The Council’s words . . . shed light on why the Church is necessary for salvation. (p. 140; emphasis in original)

People are saved through the Church, they are saved in the Church, but they always are saved by the grace of Christ. (p. 140; emphasis in original)

[T]he Catholic Church knows that it has received the fullness of the means of salvation . . . (p. 141; emphasis in original)

The Church wants . . . to point out to all the path to eternal salvation, the fundamental principles of life in the Spirit and in truth. (p. 141)

I’m sure I could find a hundred more such references, if I had the time and desire. But obviously you see in the pope’s writings only what you want to see there (just as with Vatican II). E.g., you would point out, I imagine, some ecumenical, diplomatic gesture of the pope, as if it contradicted his above sentiments, and then conclude that he is two-faced and liberal – never dreaming of any way that apologetics and ecumenism can actually co-exist together. You said in your own words that you saw both of these things even in me! There is no contradiction here, between the two functions of the pope, and all Catholics, to some extent.

Nothing in Vatican II goobledygook is obvious. That’s why I don’t feel too worried about ignoring it.

This is flat-out ridiculous. Why even bother to reply to such a sweeping charge (how can one rationally do so, anyway?) – obviously derived from an emotional bias from the outset.

The Novus Ordo Mass did not develop, . . . [but] I’m not going to call it invalid, nor a complete overthrow of the earlier Mass.

More doublespeak and equivocation. If it didn’t develop, it is a corruption, and no part of Catholic Tradition. If it is a corruption, it is a “complete overthrow,” as the essence has changed. And it is invalid. This is straight out of Newman’s classic exposition of development. But you want to have it both ways. Again, you do the very thing you falsely accuse the Council of. So you say that John Paul II is trying to destroy the Church?

Yes. And – on the evidence – he does not realise that he is doing so.

So you would apply to the Vicar of Christ (and by extension, the Church) a state of affairs which Christ Himself said was impossible (Mk 3:22-27)?

You astonish me.

Good. Jesus had that effect, too.

You think that in the face of rebellion the only right action is private prayer for the rebels?

No; there has been plenty of action taken. Not nearly enough for your taste, but plenty nonetheless.

Failure on the part of authority to condemn error – especially error that claims the name Catholic – is failure to preach the Gospel.

Have you not seen the Catechism? Are you unfamiliar with The Slendor of Truth, or any number of hard-hitting encyclicals? Did you forget what happened to Boff, Curran, Kung, Fox et al? This is the condemning of error. Discipline, on the other hand, is not so absolute – it is a matter of prudence and wisdom.

You are blind! Call that severe! Excommunicate the bloody lot I say. Whole countries have been under interdict before now, and it was extremely good for them. What makes the 20th century so special?

I see. Is that why England is now a Catholic country? Flourishing in religious revival? I used to think exactly like you, so I am tolerant of it. I understand it. Probably on more days than not, even now, I agree with this approach, by temperament. But I also believe that the pope and the mind of the Church has a little more wisdom than I do.

Call that forceful? Get a text of John Paul II rebuking a subordinate and compare to any pre-V2 Pope doing the same. He gives a slap over the wrist with a damp cloth, and says no more about it.

This is curious. We just witnessed you blowing off [name] because of his bluster and harsh words for you (and I can’t say that I blame you, by the way). You say you much prefer my more “ecumenical” approach (thus strongly implying that I have a far better chance to persuade you). But when it comes to the pope, you want him to be much more of [name’s] style, and somehow conclude that that will work better with other people than a calmer, more ecumenical, nuanced approach, even though your very own reaction to a scathing rebuke proves otherwise. Do you deny that a large-scale schism would occur if the pope acted as you wish he would act?

No. But it would be worth it. Publicly declaring apostates to be such would help, not harm their souls.

Why does it not surprise me that you regard schism as a minor thing, not as the ghastly thing – to be avoided at all costs – that it is?

There’s one statement you made here that really struck me:

Someone (I forget who) wrote: “May I toss a fantasy at you: If (God forbid) a future Pope were to teach that contraception is good, would you accuse that Pope of an abuse of power, and publicly reprove him?”

And you wrote:

    Yes, and beyond that, I would leave the Church, unless he was removed due to insanity.

May I ask why you would leave the Church? Similar things have happened. As I have noted, pope John XXII explicitly taught formal heresy, of which the above is definitely an example. He even imprisoned a monk who confronted him. Would you have left the Church then?

No. In that case, it was not a matter of an outright espousal of immorality, but rather, a somewhat speculative matter of eschatology. He did retract the opinion also. But if contraception were now accepted by a pope (and taught authoritatively), that would be calling evil good, and would mean that the Church had defected. And if it had defected, it couldn’t be the true Church, or else it would be reduced to the level of all the other Christian sects – just one of many options. I ruled out Orthodoxy because of its acceptance of contraception, so if the Catholic Church reversed itself, I would have to rule it out, too. But of course I don’t believe this will ever happen . . . I am just applying my principles to a wildly speculative scenario.

In John XXII’s case, Catholic historian Warren Carroll thinks senility may have been involved, as the controversy occurred in his 88th-90th years of age. In 1332, he explained that his sermons on this topic were not intended to define doctrine but simply to initiate discussion. He claimed that he was acting as a private theologian, not as the pope. Carroll states that this was “imprudent in the highest degree.” But in any event, the aged pope retracted the heresy on his deathbed – not having defined it, so that infallibility was not involved.

XI. SO-CALLED “CONSERVATIVES” VS. REACTIONARIES

I think I detect a systematic error the pervades most “conservative” apologists, especially converts from Protestantism. They seem to equate the Church, and the magisterium with the hierarchy that’s presently in power. Anything the present hierarchy teaches must be true because only then will the faithful have absolute assurance of the truth.

Of course I have never said this. The very fact that I cited Ott and Most on varying levels of authority mitigates against this thesis. And I have admitted that popes could theoretically teach error, by citing the very case of John XXII. Furthermore, to the best of my knowledge, Ott and Most weren’t converts. The authors of the two Catholic Encyclopedia articles I cited were probably not converts, etc. So this theory doesn’t apply to me – whether or not it applies to other convert apologists. And it would involve many people who are not converts.

Interesting speculation, though. :-) All my sources believe that obedience is not optional for a Catholic. I have clearly made the distinction all along between infallibility and the duty of obedience.

This error may be a result of the doctrinal chaos in Protestantism that caused them to convert in the first place. If the present hierarchy always teaches truth, then there can be no doctrinal chaos.

Infallibility and indefectibility mean something. Obedience also means something. Roman primacy means something. This has nothing to do with Protestantism, but everything to do with our Lord’s promises, and the nature of God-ordained authority in the Church.

Unfortunately, as appealing as it would be if this were true, in fact Popes as individuals, and even the entire college of Bishops have erred in the past when not excercising infallible teaching authority. What, then, is the individual Catholic to do? He must discern, not privately judge, but discern based on what has been taught in the past. Several monks and other members of the faithful were able to discern that John XXII’s statements on the beatific vision were false. They were not exercising private judgement. They were merely following what the Church had always taught in the past, using it to discern the truth of the present situation.

In that instance, as I have said before, a firestorm was raised, and prominent theologians (e.g., the heirs of Aquinas at the University of Paris) raised their voices. And it was indeed a strong case, based on past teaching. To compare that with the petty disobedience of a fringe schismatic group to Ecclesia Dei, is stretching quite a bit – to put it mildly. Furthermore, this was a doctrinal matter, where there had been a strong Tradition prior to the controversy, whereas in the case of Abp. Lefebvre, he was flat-out disobedient – leading to automatic excommunication – and was disciplined, as a straightforward matter of Canon Law.

How does one dissent from that? It is not a matter of doctrine, but rather, the supreme teaching authority of the pope. John Paul II did pronounce fairly definitively on the matter; John XXII did not. The pope is to be obeyed. Many papal encyclicals have said so. Councils have said so. To ignore that is to adopt private judgment, and a schismatic spirit. And to pass such an attitude off as “traditional” and quintessentially Catholic, is beyond bizarre.

This discernment is akin that of individual Catholics, with consciences properly formed by the magisterium, discerning right and wrong in individual instances. Catholics are not robots, called to blindly obey and praise every whim or action of the Pope no matter how scandalous or heretical.

Here is the notorious “blind obedience” straw man. Pathetic . . . Obviously, I don’t have the attitude of “blind obedience,” if I could envision extraordinary circumstances where I would actually leave the Church – which even surprised you.
 
No, Catholics are competent to know the basics of the faith as has been taught for all time and are competent to know when the present hierarchy is betraying it (as I would argue is happening before our very eyes)!

But you won’t call it defectibility? You want to play the word games that apparently typify the reactionary arguments on these matters? The Council is good and it isn’t (it’s “ambiguous”); the New Mass is valid, but a stench in God’s nostrils; the pope is a wonderful man, but he is unwittingly destroying the Church, etc.

How does that make us different from modernists? We discern based on what has been clearly taught in the past by the magisterium. Modernists do not.

Disobedience to the pope (especially in a disciplinary matter) has not been taught by the magisterium. If you disagree, then produce the documents. We’re all waiting. You basically ignore the conciliar and papal and patristic and theological documentation we have produced for our views, yet give us nothing for your own case. Mainly, I hear the opinion of St. Robert Bellarmine. That’s great, but he was just a man, too, and was fallible, just as even St. Augustine (some aspects of predestination) and St. Thomas Aquinas (the Immaculate Conception) were. Who else (or what else) can you bring to the table?

We are loyal to tradition;

Selectively so, which is pure modernism.

modernists reject it, and in fact some of them explicitly admit that they do not find tradition binding. The traditionalist, on the other hand, finds himself bound more by magisterial tradition than by the fallible opinions of present popes and bishops.

Us so-called “conservatives” don’t have to make a false dichotomy between Tradition and the current leadership of the Church. We believe the Holy Spirit can preserve the Church no matter who is in charge of it. As Malcolm Muggeridge and others have observed: seeing the sort of people who have often been in charge of the Church, this is a strong indication of the Divine Hand.

In the following excerpts, it will be seen over and over that — as I have often stated — reactionaries are exercising precisely the same unCatholic principles of dissent which typify liberals and modernists. For example:

1. Liberals dissented from Paul VI’s Humanae Vitae on the grounds that it was not defined ex cathedra; therefore not infallible; therefore not obligatory upon Catholics.

2. Reactionaries dissented from John Paul II’s Ecclesia Dei (or part or all of Vatican II) on the grounds that it was not defined ex cathedra; therefore not infallible; therefore not obligatory upon Catholics.

XII. CONCLUDING ORTHODOX AND NON-SCHISMATIC POSTSCRIPT
*
I approach this discussion from a series of bottom-line, presuppositional principles, which I shall explain presently:
1. In a general sense, Ecumenical Councils are infallible, as my many sources have stated.
*
2. The ins and outs, loopholes, technicalities, restrictions, extent of binding definitions, varying levels of authority, etc. of this conciliar infallibility are best left to canon lawyers, theologians, bishops, and the pope. I don’t think it is the place for laymen to do the sort of exhaustive analysis which we have done. We simply don’t have the ecclesial authority (and in most cases, a lack of formal theological training), and I think it is unseemly prima facie. 
*
3. In any event, Catholics are bound to accept and obey Vatican II in toto, whatever the fine distinctions which are able to be legitimately made. Public disagreement is forbidden, and even internal assent must be granted to the teaching.
*
4. Vatican II does not contradict earlier Councils or popes or Sacred Tradition in general. The seemingly casual acceptance that it did, on the part of several people on this informal list, is, in my opinion, an exercise in private judgment, and a belief in (at the very least) the quasi-defectibility of the Church.

*

Even [name] (who questions some – many? – aspects of Vatican II) largely grants the truthfulness of my proposition #3 above. Note what he writes:

    So where does that leave us? Well, let’s think in terms of the Categories of Truth issed by the CDF that Andrew Kong sent to us. Clearly, since Vatican 2 did not definitively teach anything, Categories 1 & 2 are out (except for repetition of previously defined dogmas). That leaves Category 3:

Teachings which are from the Pope or an Ecumenical Council when they exercise their authentic magisterium in a non definitive act. Catholics must adhere with religious submission of intellect and will to these teachings. Contrary propositions are called erroneous, rash or dangerous and may incur merely a just penalty.

    So at best, the decrees of Vatican 2 belong to this 3rd level. That means that I must submit my mind and will to its non-infallible decrees.

So far, so good, but the trouble is, [name] goes on to deny proposition #4, which leads him inexorably on to the folly of setting popes against Councils, popes against popes, Councils against Councils, just as Luther did, and as the modernists and agnostics today do.

I continue to maintain that this spirit is one of individualism and private judgment – straight from the Protestant mindset. And I know a little about that, because I was a very fervent Protestant, and I believed in private judgment with every fiber of my body. I can smell it a mile away when a Catholic is acting and believing like a Protestant in some fashion. He may not be aware of this subliminal and cultural influence, but I sure am.

No one here has yet persuaded me that this way of thinking is any different from Luther at Worms. All the primary ingredients are present: incessant doubt, belief that the Church can actually be enclosed in a “Babylonian Captivity,” the spurning of authority; disobedience to superiors, an almost cynical skepticism, a pessimistic disbelief in God’s promise to protect His Church from error, hyper-rationalism, a sectarian, nitpicking, quasi-schismatic mentality, selective espousal of authority and magisterial decrees, with the ultimate criterion being one’s own private opinion.

This is not the Catholic spirit, folks. What does “authority” mean, anyhow? Why even have it at all, if people refuse to acknowledge it, and live consistently under it? That was never God’s plan. Please allow me to expand upon the notion of authority for a moment:

We might ponder other examples of authority, such as the military. Does a private cavalierly disobey the orders of a captain, let alone a General? Of course not. Does a lowly trial lawyer disregard the orders of a judge, let alone the rulings of the Supreme Court of his state or the nation? No; or if he does, there is a penalty to pay. Even in a family, there is a clear God-ordained authority. Children obey their parents. They instinctively know this. Down deep, they want to do this (and they know that they need to).

My 6- and 8-year-old sons fully understand the rationale for punishing them. They know that it is not inconsistent with either love, or the nature of things, in terms of familial authority and order. Just as the father is the head of the household, so the Holy Father is the head of the Church. Even wives are ultimately bound to submit to their husbands in rare cases of serious disagreement. Wives might be seen as analogous to the bishops in that respect – equal in most respects, but subject to the father/pope in the final analysis.

This is all self-evident. People understand the basic concept of authority. Yet when it comes to the Catholic Church, which has always believed in a Supreme Teacher, the Vicar of Christ, the Head of the Church, upon whom rests the final appeal in Church matters in every sense, we have the curious and astonishing novelty of mere laymen routinely questioning his authority (I think specifically of the SSPX refusal to accept Ecclesia Dei). Likewise, we have a skeptical questioning and deriding of an Ecumenical Council, which also partakes of infallibility, when in full agreement with the pope.

Do “hard cases” exist? Sure. I myself discuss on my website (or have links about) Honorius and John XXII, the time when there were three rival claimants to the pope, the Inquisition and what that all meant, an acknowledgement that the pope can be rebuked on occasion, the complex issues of Galileo, slavery, usury, anti-Semitism, etc. But C. S. Lewis said: “the rules of chess create chess problems.” We would expect anomalies and difficulties in any complex, thoughtful worldview.

In fact, if there weren’t any, the view which claimed to be free of them would automatically be suspect, in my opinion. My point is that people such as us are not the ones to resolve these problems. It is unseemly, improper, imprudent, divisive, and – the primary consideration – disobedient.

I have used many analogies during this discussion, as I am very fond of that method of argumentation (I’ve been highly influenced in that regard by my love for Cardinal Newman). Here is another one:

1. The Bible is said (by agnostics, atheists, stuffed-shirt professors, and modernists) to be full of many irreconcilable contradictions, which are considered to be evidence of its untrustworthiness and lack of divine inspiration and infallibility.

2. Likewise, infallible Councils and papal pronouncements (especially since “1958” – which seems to be the “magic” year of transformation) are said (by modernists, reactionaries, Orthodox, and Protestants) to be full of many irreconcilable contradictions, which are considered to be evidence of their untrustworthiness and lack of divine guidance and infallibility.

Where is the difference in principle between the two scenarios? Christians can readily see the folly and insufficiently compelling nature of the first argument. Countless so-called contradictions or “impossibilities” in Holy Scripture have been resolved by textual advances, archaeological discoveries, scholarly exegesis, linguistic analysis, documented fulfilled prophecy, the exposing of unnecessarily and unfairly hostile academic theories, etc.

Many “paradoxes” on their face have been clearly shown to be in fact logically complementary. The supposed “contradiction” is almost always merely an outgrowth of a prior prejudice and preconceived notions (oftentimes a flat-out anti-supernaturalism of radical philosophical or textual skepticism).

The point here is that the committed, devout Christian of any stripe, grants to the Bible its inspired status. He has faith that it is indeed God’s Revelation, God-breathed, preserved in its text in almost miraculous fashion, canonized by Catholic Councils under the guidance of the Holy Spirit, maker of Western Civilization and breaker of cycles of immorality and decadence, and of tyrannies and tinpot dictators throughout history. The supposed “errors” are believed to have a solution.

The benefit of the doubt is granted to Holy Scripture, while scholars wrestle with the “difficulties” of text and exegesis. One has faith, based on what they have seen by way of positive proofs and indications – a cumulative case which rings true, which is not contrary to reason, but which transcends it; harmonizes with it. I assume we here on this list all agree with that, with regard to Sacred Scripture. In any event, it is Catholic, and general Christian belief.

So why is it different when it comes to the Church and the papacy? Catholicism is a three-legged stool: Holy Scripture, Holy Tradition, and Holy Mother Church, led by the Holy Father, the pope. How is it that self-professed Catholics can deign to summarily dismiss whole decrees of an Ecumenical Council, assuming (with a deluded air of “certainty”) from the outset that they contradict earlier pronouncements of popes and Councils? Why is not the benefit of the doubt and suspension of skepticism allowed in this instance?

How can people who claim to believe — with me — in the indefectibility of the Church, and supernatural protection against any error which would bind the faithful, believe such things? What becomes of faith in God’s promises? Does such a person actually believe for a moment that God would allow mere modernists, who – by doubting and disbelieving – have lost the supernatural virtue of faith altogether – to subvert an Ecumenical Council, and by implication, the Church itself?

The very notion is preposterous!!! It’s unthinkable. It’s unCatholic. It has never happened, and will never happen. And it is the triumph of private judgment and modernist skepticism within the Church (i.e., among the crowd who accept these ludicrous propositions).

Granted, what I am discussing requires supernatural faith, and God’s grace to believe. It is not an airtight logical case. [name] claims to be an optimist rather than a pessimist, vis-a-vis the Church, strongly agreeing with my Chesterton quotes about the marvelous supernatural history of the Church and the demonstration of God’s guidance over it. How, then, can he believe what he does about the Council and the present pope?

One must persevere! One must keep the faith! One must take the long view of history, if there remains any doubt that God has supernaturally protected His Church. What becomes of one’s Christian assurance and trust in the Lord, existing side-by-side with this incessant Protestantized doubt about magisterial pronouncements?

It is absurd to be a Catholic while believing such things. The fabulous joy, hope, and overwhelming feeling of “coming home” which I – along with many converts – have experienced upon entering the Catholic Church could not last a day if I were to adopt the views which reactinaries manage to hold. For the life of me, I don’t comprehend why such people (or, for that matter, modernists) choose to remain Catholic. If you don’t believe that the Church is uniquely preserved — yes, even in this huge present CRISIS- – then, I’m sorry, this is pure Luther, pure Protestant ecclesiology. And I am well familiar with the latter, believe me.

I had the “freedom” to accept (sincerely) all sorts of errors in various denominations as a Protestant. I could essentially construct my own religion, with myself as “pope” and arbiter – sole determinant of all “doctrinal” decisions. I decided what was true and good and proper, and then sought to consistently live by it. Then by the grace of God I entered the Catholic Church (that was in 1990), only to discover that there are many people in it who want to selectively accept this and that, according to their own whims and fancies.

Catholics do this, yet they don’t seem to realize the intrinsic self-defeating nature involved. I understood early on that to be Catholic was not to act or believe in this way at all. Fr. Hardon, who received me into the Church (and who baptized my first two sons), often says that a Catholic must believe in all the Church’s teaching, by definition.

So reactionaries want to wrangle, nitpick, judge – in some cases mock and deride – popes and Ecumenical Councils, as if it is permitted or proper to do so among professed Catholics. Luther judges Councils and popes alike. So do they. The modernists dissent from Humanae Vitae. Reactionaries dissent from Ecclesia Dei and Vatican II, on no basis (ultimately) other than their own private judgment, thus attaining more power and authority in a concrete sense than the pope himself. Trust is placed in mere man or schismatic sects like SSPX, rather than in God’s grace and promises, whereby His Church will withstand the gates of hell (which is what modernism surely is).

I felt that we had to get beyond all the technical distinctions, hair-splitting, and semantics, and get down to brass tacks, fundamental premises, and an examination of first principles. I believe in the Church, because I believe in the God Who established it. I don’t believe it can defect, because Jesus said so, and because history itself more than amply bears this out. I don’t believe that the modernists will ever subvert it (including the “halfway” sense which has been discussed in this ongoing debate). Even most critics of Vatican II — wanting to hang on to indefectibility — seek to maintain a schizophrenic approach that it was “ambiguous,” that it did not espouse heresy, yet its language encouraged it, blah, blah, blah, along with a host of other ludicrous equivocations and rationalizing word games.

Again, I say let the theologians and canon lawyers work through all the technical distinctions of infallibility and Magisterium. They are above my head (as my confessed error at the beginning of this letter demonstrated). Bottom line is: you must accept the teaching of Vatican II and give it even internal assent. [name] acknowledged this above for a second, before proceeding to do precisely the opposite: to posit alleged contradictions of Catholic Tradition. He is convinced that Vatican II erred with regard to religious liberty, among other things:

    I do not think anyone can interpret their way out of this one. Pius IX’s syllabus of errors, to which we owe at least as much obedience and submission of the will as Vatican 2, explicitly condemned the proposition . . .

Very well, then. He believes this. Obviously, the prejudice against the Council runs deep. I am very used to prejudicial bias, leading to irrationality. And I know that it is useless to try to overcome it by logical argumentation. It must be attacked at the root — dug up whole like a weed. Look at all the errors of anti-Catholic Protestants. They engage in a quixotic, tragi-comic crusade against (as Fulton Sheen said) what they think the Catholic Church is. By the same token, I say that reactionaries engage in a futile, wrong-headed, cynical, faith-damaging endeavor to undercut the authority of Vatican II, which I submit that they do not fully understand.

But isn’t it part and parcel of obedience to sometimes accept what we don’t understand? Isn’t that true of a 2-year-old child (my youngest) and their father or mother? Or with all of us and God? Is not any profound tragedy, like the loss of a child or a spouse far more challenging to faith than the supposed “vagueness” and “ambiguity” of Vatican II (assuming for the sake of argument that it is actually present)? And God tells us not to even be surprised by such “fiery ordeals.” Can’t one’s faith in God and His Church overcome such self-generated difficulties of comprehension?

Why would we expect to understand everything fully, anyway (more Protestantism)? We’re talking about mysteries of divine revelation, of the deposit of faith, of the mind of the Church, as directed by the Spirit of God. And we think we can figure all that out without difficulty? Hence the confusion which has followed all Councils. Don’t be duped by the modernist co-opting of Vatican II. Don’t accept their lies about what it taught, or its supposed “spirit.” Believe that God can protect His Church!

Shall the duty of obedience to the magisterium of the Church now be disputed also, and subjected to the death of a thousand qualifications? Are we too sophisticated to submit to the injunction to offer assent to Catholic teaching? Are us apologist-types exempt from it – as if we are still Protestants? I myself will abide by it (and it is not difficult at all for me to do, because I am not plagued and tormented by the doubts and existential agonies of reactionaries). Call that “blind obedience” if you will. Whatever it is, I am honored and privileged to do that – and I’ve been accused by agnostics and critics of Christianity of being gullible and irrational all along. That doesn’t bother me in the least. Such is the lot of faithful Christians. It’s sad, though, when the accusation comes from other Christians.

And all this means that I must cease participation in this discussion, since by continuing I would be tacitly acknowledging that this debate is lawful, legitimate, and edifying. It is not. It has become (or always was) vain disputation. It is ridiculous and tragic to have to argue about Vatican II with fellow Catholics, as opposed to Protestants or Anglicans or Orthodox (who at least are consistent in their objection to it). One can only seek to refute such error and deliberate disobedience. It does not deserve a prolonged consideration. Nothing personal at all, but I think reactionaries need to take a long, hard, serious look at their own underlying presuppositions, and the harmful consequences of them. I hope that what I have written here is a catalyst towards that end.

Related Sources
*

Catholic Encyclopedia“Infallibility”

Catholic Encyclopedia“General Councils”

The Historical Credibility of Hans Kung, Joseph F. Costanzo, S. J.

Papal Magisterium and Humanae Vitae, Joseph F. Costanzo, S. J.

Doctrinal Commentary on the Concluding Formula of the Professio Fidei, Pope Benedict XVI

Academic Dissent: An Original Ecclesiology, Joseph F. Costanzo, S .J.

What Went Wrong With Vatican II?, Ralph McInerny

***

(originally 7-30-99. Terminology updated, and a few minor changes made on 7-31-18)

Photo credit: official portrait of Blessed Pope Paul VI (r. 1963-1978), uploaded by BastienM. He is to be canonized in October 2018 [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

***

July 30, 2018

Pastor Larry A. Nichols (Lutheran – Missouri Synod, or “LCMS”) is the author of several books, including Dictionary of Cults, Sects, Religions, and the Occult (Zondervan Publishing House, 1993, with George A. Mather & Alvin J. Schmidt), Masonic Lodge (Zondervan, 1995; with George A. Mather & Alan W. Gomes), Discovering the Plain Truth: How the Worldwide Church of God Encountered the Gospel of Grace (Intervarsity Press, 1997; co-author George A. Mather), and Encyclopedic Dictionary of World Religions (2006; with George A. Mather & Alvin J. Schmidt). He has also written many journal articles.
***
Pastor Benjamin O. Maton (Lutheran – Missouri Synod [“LCMS”] ) pastors two congregations: in Ashaway, Rhode Island and New London, Connecticut.
***
Pastor Nichols’ words will be in blue, Pastor Maton’s in green, their combined words in brown.  Words of former Lutheran, now Catholic Johnny Montalvo will be in purple.
*****

Jesus taught concerning Church discipline that if a brother refuses to hear the Church’s verdict on a dispute, let him be to you like a heathen and a tax collector. Mathew 18:15-20. This is also taught in the Law of Moses. However, in Deuteronomy 17:8-13 the sentence is harsher. This binding and loosing Authority by the Church was given to her by God and should be taken very seriously. I would like to know by what authority did Luther have to start his own church after he was excommunicated for refusing to listen to the Church?

Here is our response to your first question. We collaborated on the answer.

This lead question in our debate contains false assumptions which, if they were not challenged, would immediately concede the very thing that we are attempting to debate in the first place, namely, the nature of the Church, where is the one true Church? 

The above question would have made sense neither to Luther nor to his 16th century papal opponents. It seems it is asked from the (unfortunate) perspective of the fractured denominationalism of post-reformation Christendom — a time when disgruntled pastors and laity up and desert their communion for whatever reason and “start their own Church” in a space rented from the local Elks’ Club. Whether such a state of affairs is to blame on Lutheran ecclesiology, we can debate somewhere down the road.

For now, let it suffice to say that from the perspective of the 16th century combatants it was not a matter of being in this Church or that Church. It was a matter of being the Church or not the Church (or perhaps Church or anti-Church or Church or the “devil’s Church” as Luther would say in good 16th century polemical fashion). Since the Church is the product of the Gospel and the outcome of the evangelical mission of the Triune God, one could (or can) as little “start a new Church” as one could gin up a new gospel (“let him be anathema!”) or alter God (“who changest not”). The question in not then, “by what authority did Luther (or whoever, whenever) start his own Church.” The question is “who is the Church.” On that Luther and the Lutheran reformers could not be clearer.

Johnny’s question assumes that Luther was convinced that he suddenly, or perhaps gradually, found himself in a false Church or that somehow or other, the Church that used to be the true Church at some point became a false one to which he now needed to step outside of and start a new one.

We cannot read anywhere in Luther or in the Confessions where the Reformer(s) ever came to this conclusion. In the Preface to the Augsburg Confession, one reads where the Lutherans refer to their adversaries as “papists” or “the papacy” or “Romanists,” or “our party” verses “their party,” etc. But one does not find references to we, the true Church, addressing the Roman Catholic Church as the false Church. This was simply not part of the consciousness of the day and to conclude so would be anachronistic, at best. Luther did, however, eventually reach the conclusion that the papacy was the antichrist foisted upon the one holy catholic and apostolic Church of which she need rid herself of.

When the Lutherans (excluding Luther himself), made the presentation of the Augsburg Confession in 1530 to the Emperor, at the Emperor’s request, they were not doing so because they now wanted to start a new Church. Not at all! This was never their understanding nor was it their intention. They wanted rather, to present a confession of the truth and point out where the Papacy had erred and veered off the path from the apostolic tradition and the rule of faith. We in turn pose the question in reverse of Johnny’s question: “By what authority did the Papists jettison the teaching of the apostles and start a new Church?” This is the underlying question that was being presented at Augsburg in 1530. 

At the conclusion of the both part of their foundational confession before the emperor at Augsburg in 1530 the Evangelical princes affirmed that there was nothing in their confession “that departs from the Scriptures or the catholic faith.” The confession is replete with such language.

Seven years later as it was becoming increasingly clear that the pope would never call a truly free universal council of the Church to which the Lutherans would be invited as full participants to debate on the basis of Scripture rather than as heretics prostrate before the pope, Luther penned his Smalcald Articles where he says plainly, “We do not concede to them that they are the Church, and frankly they are not the Church.”

Earlier in those same articles Luther rejects the pope’s excommunication both theologically — the pope’s excommunication counts for nothing because in forbidding the gospel to be freely preached he is not a true bishop, and jurisdictionally — at most the pope is the bishop of the Church at Rome and those who willingly attach themselves to him and so has no authority to excommunicate someone from the universal Church. 

The Augsburg Confession is not a document that signaled the beginning of a “new Church” with a cornerstone marked “1530.” It is a glorious statement of true catholic and apostolic teaching. Where are the words of the AC not catholic or apostolic? On the other hand, where is the sale of Indulgences for example, or the popular practice of the day to gaze at relics anywhere a part of the apostolic tradition? Where do we see any support for Indulgences among the writings of the Church Fathers, even those most sympathetic to legitimizing the papacy? Clearly, the AC is a true presentation of the doctrine of the blessed apostles.

If we have written clearly, we are left now to discuss the nature of the true Church.

This was the complete joint reply of Pastors Nichols and Maton. I thank my esteemed brothers in Christ for the succinct statement and the opportunity to interact with it. I’m afraid that it is impossible to respond with similar brevity, from a Catholic perspective, because we also believe that a number of assumptions made here are by no means self-evident. Part of the difficulty in Catholic-Lutheran dialogue is that words and concepts are often defined differently. We can only try to do our best to clarify and make the proper distinctions.

What strikes me above all in this reply is a seeming contradiction (perhaps, however, I have misunderstood some finer nuances). On the one hand, it is stated:


one could (or can) as little “start a new Church” as one could gin up a new gospel . . . or alter God . . .

Johnny’s question assumes that Luther was convinced that he suddenly, or perhaps gradually, found himself in a false Church or that somehow or other, the Church that used to be the true Church at some point became a false one to which he now needed to step outside of and start a new one.

But one does not find references to we, the true Church, addressing the Roman Catholic Church as the false Church.

How is the preceding statement (and Luther’s common rhetoric of the “devil’s Church” etc.) not in contradiction to the following cited statement from the Smalcald Articles?:

We do not concede to them that they are the Church, and frankly they are not the Church.
The Smalcald Articles (XII: Of the Church) continues:

. . . nor will we listen to those things which, under the name of Church, they enjoin or forbid. 2] For, thank God, [to-day] a child seven years old knows what the Church is, namely, the holy believers and lambs who hear the voice of their Shepherd.
What is this, if not a claim that what was known as the Catholic Church was indeed not the true Church? Even a child knows what the Church is, so Luther informs us (and it is defined in an invisible sense). Luther, in fact (I must respectfully disagree) made many such statements (that I have compiled elsewhere) “addressing the Roman Catholic Church as the false Church”. Here are just a few clear examples of a “true church vs. false church” scenario (with some additional words of Luther not included in my previous paper):


From: Wider Hans Wurst, or Against Jack Sausage (1541), translated into English in Luther’s Works, 55 volumes, Philadelphia: Fortress Press (also Concordia Publishing House), 1955 -, General editors: Jaroslav Pelikan (vols. 1-30) / Helmut T. Lehmann (vols. 31-55). This was a polemical piece against the Catholic (and corrupt) Duke Heinrich (or Henry) of Braunschweig / Wolfenbuttel. It is reprinted in Volume 41 of Luther’s Works, pp. 179-256; translated by Eric W. Gritsch:

[T]hey allege that we have fallen away from the holy church and set up a new church. This then is the answer: since they themselves boast that they are the church, it is for them to prove that they are. If they can prove it with a single reason (I don’t ask for more), then we shall give ourselves up as prisoners, willingly saying, “We have sinned, have mercy upon us.” But if they cannot prove it, they must confess (whether they like it or not) that they are not the church and that we cannot be heretics since we have fallen away from what is not the true church. Indeed, since there is nothing in-between, we must be the church of Christ and they the devil’s church, or vice versa. Therefore it all turns on proving which is the true church. (pp. 193-194)

“But what if I prove that we have remained faithful to the true, ancient church, indeed, that we are the true ancient church and that you have fallen away from us, that is, the ancient church, and have set up a new church against the ancient one?” Let us hear that! (p. 194)

We have proved that we are the true, ancient church . . . Now you, too, papists, prove that you are the true church or are like it. You cannot do it. But I will prove that you are the new false church, which is in everything apostate, separated from the true, ancient church, thus becoming Satan’s synagogue. (p. 199)

. . . yet you still want to be honored as the church. Besides, the private mass is one of the worst abominations, whose harm and trouble can neither be measured nor fathomed. With it you have built the devil a new church and worshiped him, thereby turning into murderers of souls, just like Moloch, the devourer of children. (p. 203)

We are certainly the true, ancient church, without any whoredom or innovation. (p. 205)

If they are not the church but the devil’s whore that has not remained faithful to Christ, then it is irrefutably and thoroughly established that they should not possess church property. (p. 220)

But Luther seems to contradict himself. He will make these sorts of statements, but then qualify them with others:


We acknowledge not only that you have, with us, come from the true church and been washed and made clean in baptism . . . but also that you are in the church and remain in it. (pp. 209-210)

It is true that the true ancient church with its baptism and the work of God still remains with you, and your god, the devil, has not been able to obliterate it entirely. (p. 210)

He may have in mind the distinction between the visible and invisible church, but that can’t totally reconcile the extremity of his statements.

Now, when I cite Luther, Lutherans will invariably “inform” me of something I already know: that Luther is not the norm of Lutheran theology, but rather, the confessions in the Book of Concord comprise that rule. But we don’t find much better rhetoric there, either. For example, the Apology of the Augsburg Confession rather absurdly compares the Catholic mass to the worship of Baal:
Carnal men cannot stand it when only the sacrifice of Christ is honored as a propitiation. For they do not understand thew righteousness of faith but give equal honor to other sacrifices and services. A false idea clung to the wicked priests in Judah, and in Israel the worship of Baal continued; yet the church of God was there, condemning wicked services. So in the papal realm the worship of Baal clings — namely, the abuse of the Mass . . . And it seems that this worship of Baal will endure together with the papal realm until Christ comes to judge and by the glory of his coming destroys the kingdom of Antichrist. Meanwhile all those who truly believe the Gospel should reject those wicked services invented against God’s command to obscure the glory of Christ and the righteousness of faith. (Article XXIV: “The Mass,” in The Book of Concord, translated and edited by Theodore Tappert, St. Louis: Concordia Publishing House / Muhlenberg Press, 1959, 268)
Martin Luther, in the Smalcald Articles (part of the Book of Concord), states:

Besides, this dragon’s tail — that is, the Mass — has brought forth a brood of vermin and the poison of manifold idolatries. (Part II, Article II: “The Mass,” in Tappert, ibid., 294)
And in the same section, Luther rails:

The Mass in the papacy must be regarded as the greatest and most horrible abomination because it runs into direct and violent conflict with this fundamental article. Yet, above and beyond all others, it has been the supreme and most precious of the papal idolatries . . .

. . . Will the Mass not then collapse of itself — not only for the rude rabble, but also for all godly, Christian, sensible, God-fearing people — especially if they hear that it is a dangerous thing which was fabricated and invented without God’s Word and will?

The Mass is again called an “abomination” in the Formula of Concord (Solid Declaration, Article VII: “Lord’s Supper”; Tappert, ibid., 588). The implications of this jaded view are wide-ranging, as I’ve stated:

[Y]ou [i.e., Lutherans] would be in the incoherent, odd position of agreeing that Catholicism is Christian, despite the fact that its central rite is utterly non-Christian (and, far beyond that, anti-Christian, as it is idolatry, blasphemy, etc.).
The difficulty for Lutherans on this point is the fact of widespread patristic belief in eucharistic sacrifice (i.e., the Mass). Lutheran historian Jaroslav Pelikan, in his study of patristic doctrinal development, concluded:


By the date of the Didache [anywhere from about 60 to 160, depending on the scholar]. . . the application of the term ‘sacrifice’ to the Eucharist seems to have been quite natural, together with the identification of the Christian Eucharist as the ‘pure offering’ commanded in Malachi 1:11 . . .

The Christian liturgies were already using similar language about the offering of the prayers, the gifts, and the lives of the worshipers, and probably also about the offering of the sacrifice of the Mass, so that the sacrificial interpretation of the death of Christ never lacked a liturgical frame of reference . . .

. . . As Irenaeus’s reference to the Eucharist as “not common bread” indicates, however, this doctrine of the real presence believed by the church and affirmed by its liturgy was closely tied to the idea of the Eucharist as a sacrifice. Many of the passages we have already cited concerning the recollection and the real presence spoke also of the sacrifice, . . . One of the most ample and least ambiguous statements of the sacrificial interpretation of the Eucharist in any ante-Nicene theologian was that of Cyprian . . . “the passion of the Lord is the sacrifice that we offer” [Ep. 63.17]

. . . Liturgical evidence suggests an understanding of the Eucharist as a sacrifice, whose relation to the sacrifices of the Old Testament was one of archetype to type, and whose relation to the sacrifice of Calvary was one of “re-presentation,” just as the bread of the Eucharist “re-presented” the body of Christ. (The Christian Tradition: A History of the Development of Doctrine: Volume 1: The Emergence of the Catholic Tradition (100-600), University of Chicago Press: 1971, 146-147, 168-170)


Protestant historian Philip Schaff concurs:


In general, this period, . . . was already very strongly inclined toward the doctrine of transubstantiation, and toward the Greek and Roman sacrifice of the mass, which are inseparable in so far as a real sacrifice requires the real presence of the victim.

. . . The Catholic church, both Greek and Latin, sees in the Eucharist not only a sacramentum, in which God communicates a grace to believers, but at the same time, and in fact mainly, a sacrificium, in which believers really offer to God that which is represented by the sensible elements. For this view also the church fathers laid the foundation, and it must be conceded they stand in general far more on the Greek and Roman Catholic than on the Protestant side of this question.

. . . In this view certainly, in a deep symbolical and ethical sense, Christ is offered to God the Father in every believing prayer, and above all in the holy Supper; i.e. as the sole ground of our reconciliation and acceptance . . .

. . . We pass now to the more particular history. The ante-Nicene fathers uniformly conceived the Eucharist as a thank-offering of the church; the congregation offering the consecrated elements of bread and wine, and in them itself, to God. This view is in itself perfectly innocent, but readily leads to the doctrine of the sacrifice of the mass, as soon as the elements become identified with the body and blood of Christ, and the presence of the body comes to be materialistically taken. The germs of the Roman doctrine appear in Cyprian about the middle of the third century, in connection with his high-churchly doctrine of the clerical priesthood. Sacerdotium and sacrificium are with him correlative ideas,

. . . The doctrine of the sacrifice of the mass is much further developed in the Nicene and post-Nicene fathers, though amidst many obscurities and rhetorical extravagances, and with much wavering between symbolical and grossly realistic conceptions, until in all essential points it is brought to its settlement by Gregory the Great at the close of the sixth century.

. . . 2. It is not a new sacrifice added to that of the cross, but a daily, unbloody repetition and perpetual application of that one only sacrifice. Augustine represents it, on the one hand, as a sacramentum memoriae, a symbolical commemoration of the sacrificial death of Christ; to which of course there is no objection. But, on the other hand, he calls the celebration of the communion verissimum sacrificium of the body of Christ. The church, he says, offers (immolat) to God the sacrifice of thanks in the body of Christ, from the days of the apostles through the sure succession of the bishops down to our time. But the church at the same time offers, with Christ, herself, as the body of Christ, to God. As all are one body, so also all are together the same sacrifice. According to Chrysostom the same Christ, and the whole Christ, is everywhere offered. It is not a different sacrifice from that which the High Priest formerly offered, but we offer always the same sacrifice, or rather, we perform a memorial of this sacrifice. This last clause would decidedly favor a symbolical conception, if Chrysostom in other places had not used such strong expressions as this: “When thou seest the Lord slain, and lying there, and the priest standing at the sacrifice,” or: “Christ lies slain upon the altar.”

3. The sacrifice is the anti-type of the Mosaic sacrifice, and is related to it as substance to typical shadows. It is also especially foreshadowed by Melchizedek’s unbloody offering of bread and wine. The sacrifice of Melchizedek is therefore made of great account by Hilary, Jerome, Augustine, Chrysostom, and other church fathers, on the strength of the well-known parallel in the seventh chapter of the Epistle to the Hebrews.

. . . Cyril of Jerusalem, in his fifth and last mystagogic Catechesis, which is devoted to the consideration of the eucharistic sacrifice and the liturgical service of God, gives the following description of the eucharistic intercessions for the departed:

*
When the spiritual sacrifice, the unbloody service of God, is performed, we pray to God over this atoning sacrifice for the universal peace of the church, for the welfare of the world, for the emperor, for soldiers and prisoners, for the sick and afflicted, for all the poor and needy. Then we commemorate also those who sleep, the patriarchs, prophets, apostles, martyrs, that God through their prayers and their intercessions may receive our prayer; and in general we pray for all who have gone from us, since we believe that it is of the greatest help to those souls for whom the prayer is offered, while the holy sacrifice, exciting a holy awe, lies before us.
*
This is clearly an approach to the later idea of purgatory in the Latin church. Even St. Augustine, with Tertullian, teaches plainly, as an old tradition, that the eucharistic sacrifice, the intercessions or suffragia and alms, of the living are of benefit to the departed believers, so that the Lord deals more mercifully with them than their sins deserve. (History of the Christian Churchvol. 3, A.D. 311-600, rev. 5th ed., Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, rep. 1974, orig, 1910, 492, 503-504, 506-510; see further primary documentation by visiting the link provided)
Likewise, the same description of patristic belief in this regard is made by another prominent Protestant reference:


It was also widely held from the first that the Eucharist is in some sense a sacrifice, though here again definition was gradual . . . In early post-NT times the constant repudiation of carnal sacrifice and emphasis on life and prayer at Christian worship did not hinder the Eucharist from being described as a sacrifice from the first . . .

From early times the Eucharistic offering was called a sacrifice in virtue of its immediate relation to the sacrifice of Christ. (The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church, edited by F. L. Cross and E. A. Livingstone, Oxford Univ. Press, 2nd edition, 1983, 476, 1221)

Patristic historian J. N. D. Kelly argues essentially the same thing also, citing Justin Martyr, the Didache, and Irenaeus. I have digressed a bit to examine the question of the Sacrifice of the Mass to make a very important point. Lutherans are simply incorrect about the history of this matter. The contradiction can be logically stated as follows:


1. Lutherans claim to be the ancient Church, and to adhere to and preserve ancient precedent, as represented by the 16th century Lutheran “reform”.

2. Lutherans (following Luther) assert that the Catholic Church headed by the pope in Rome is not the ancient Church and has departed from ancient precedent.

3. Lutherans (following Luther) argue that one prime example of this departure is the doctrine of the sacrifice of the mass, which is (so they allege) an invention of men, idolatry, blasphemy, and an abomination (hence, the widespread prohibition of the mass in Lutheran territories early on, and the self-serving justification for theft of Catholic church properties).

4. Lutherans argue that the Church fathers did not hold to this doctrine; therefore they reject it as an innovative corruption.

5. But in fact, the Church fathers did hold this doctrine, quite widely, according to non-Catholic historians, Pelikan, Schaff, Kelly, and The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church.

6. Therefore, these facts support the Catholic position on the Sacrifice of the Mass, rather than the Lutheran denial of it (and considerable biblical indication can also be brought to bear).

7. I assert, furthermore, that this is but one example of many where the Church fathers are strong witnesses for the claim that the Catholic Church is indeed the one, holy, catholic, and apostolic Church.

8. Conclusion: John Henry Cardinal Newman: “to be deep in history is to cease to be a Protestant.”

This contradiction that we see in Luther (Catholics and Catholicism are and aren’t truly Christian), also runs through the Book of Concord. I do completely agree that both sides thought there could only be one true Church. It was not like today, where “Church” has had to necessarily become a far more abstract concept because of the scandalous multiplicity of denominations and sects (Luther, of course, despised sectarianism as much as anyone).

In practical terms, however, it is pretty much a distinction without a difference, because competing claims of being the one “Church” create a state of affairs in which ecclesial oneness becomes impossible. Both sides claim superiority, but both cannot be right. Thus, in my opinion, the truly fundamental and crucial question reduces to:

“Which side: the Catholics, or the Lutherans, has a more reasonable, plausible, biblical, historically defensible claim to being the one, holy, catholic, and apostolic Church? They can’t both be right, where they contradict, so how does one choose between the two, and on what basis?”
From the Catholic perspective, it is necessarily the case that if Catholic theology and ecclesiology is correct, Lutheranism is a competing ecclesiological claim; in effect, a claimed “new Church” (and as we have seen, Lutherans return the favor and charge of someone coming up with a “new Church”). We understand that Lutherans perceive themselves as reforming the one historic Church and not radically departing from it. But we must respectfully reject that contention, under the weight of scrutiny.

That gets to the heart of Johnny’s (I think, extremely relevant) question. Sure, he is assuming Catholic ecclesiology in his question, but how could he do otherwise (Lutherans assume theirs, too)? Our position is that these things were understood — as we understand them — prior to Luther’s time. Luther was the one who wanted to change the definitions, or change horses in midstream, so to speak. Therefore, it is incumbent upon him and upon Lutherans to prove that their new conceptions of ecclesiology are more defensible than the traditional Catholic outlook.

Luther and the early Lutherans couldn’t merely assert previously unacceptable notions. All of this has to be argued. Both sides claim to be going back to the patristic heritage of the early Church, as I stated last time. That is always what this discussion comes down to. We contend that Lutherans cannot (consistently and comprehensively) do this, and Lutherans say the same of us. Both sides recognize the high importance of precedent. For example, Luther wrote:

This testimony of the universal holy Christian Church, even if we had nothing else, would be a sufficient warrant for holding this article [on the sacrament] and refusing to suffer or listen to a sectary, for it is dangerous and fearful to hear or believe anything against the unanimous testimony, belief, and teaching of the universal holy Christian churches, unanimously held in all the world from the beginning until now over fifteen hundred years. (Martin Luther, in the year 1532; from Roland H. Bainton, Studies on the Reformation [Boston: Beacon Press, 1963], p. 26; primary source: WA [Werke, Weimar edition in German], XXX, 552)
I would contend at length that Luther radically contradicted himself on this score, because he cannot demonstrate that all the Lutheran distinctives were in line with this “unanimous testimony.” This is rather easily shown. I managed to identify (in a paper of mine) no less then fifty areas where Luther departed from received Christian tradition and doctrine in his three treatises of 1520 alone, all prior to the great confrontation of the Diet of Worms in 1521. Brief allusion was made to “heretics prostrate before the pope.” Yet I ask readers to stop for a moment and ponder just what the Catholic Church of that time was asked to accept in the face of Luther’s challenge (Protestants rarely consider this). I wrote in that paper:


I have summarized how he was heterodox by 1520, . . . this is not a discussion of whether Catholic teaching is right or wrong, but rather, whether Luther was “heterodox” or “heretical” by that same teaching (i.e., whether the Church was at least self-consistent in excommunicating him, or whether it was a power play unrelated to truth or Luther’s actual – or falsely-imagined – heresy).

It is absolutely evident that Luther was heretical and that the Church was under no obligation to even contend with him at the Diet of Worms in 1521. Since it was obvious that he was teaching heresy, it was equally obvious that the Church should demand that he recant, renounce, and cease doing so. He refused, because he knew more than the Church (as he in effect implied, many times). But no Protestant body would have acted any differently, then or now, in the face of dozens of rejections of its own stated dogmas.

. . . Is that enough [the 50 departures, just listed] to justify his excommunication from Catholic ranks? Or was the Church supposed to say, “yeah, Luther, you know, you’re right about these fifty issues. You know better than the entire Church, the entire history of the Church, and all the wisdom of the saints in past ages who have believed these things. So we will bow to your heaven-sent wisdom, change all fifty beliefs or practices, so we can proceed in a godly direction. Thanks so much! We are forever indebted to you for having informed us of all these errors!!”

Is that not patently ridiculous? What Church would change 50 things in its doctrines because one person feels himself to be some sort of oracle from God or pseudo-prophet: God’s man for the age? . . .

No sane, conscious person who had read any of his three radical treatises of 1520 could doubt that he had already ceased to be an orthodox Catholic. He did not reluctantly become so because he was unfairly kicked out of the Church by men who would not listen to manifest Scripture and reason . . .

Therefore, the Church was entirely sensible, reasonable, within her rights, logical, self-consistent, and not hypocritical or “threatened” in the slightest to simply demand Luther’s recantation of his errors at the Diet of Worms in 1521, and to refuse to argue with him (having already tried on several occasions, anyway), because to do so would have granted his ridiculous presumption that he was in a position to singlehandedly dispute and debate what had been the accumulated doctrinal and theological wisdom of the Church for almost 1500 years.

That is the Catholic perspective, and it is rarely heard or discussed in these terms, because most such discussions are conducted with Protestant starting assumptions granted beforehand, without argument or examination. But from this perspective, by what authority did Luther make his claims? He had none. He was simply an Augustinian monk. One has to virtually agree with Luther’s own self-perception as a sort of prophet who has an absolutely unique message to bring to the Church. But why should anyone do that? Because he cites Scripture? Obviously, Catholics could do that, too (though, granted, the Catholics in his time were not particularly known for their piety or biblical acumen; that would come later in the century after a revival took place).

Everyone cites Scripture for their side. How does one decide who is right when they disagree? This is one of the truly insuperable difficulties that all Protestants have. It’s not just the Catholic-Protestant divide. Luther soon found himself in vigorous, passionate disagreement with the Anabaptists and the sacramentarians: all of whom cited Scripture just as he did. Lutherans disagreed with the Calvinists on free will issues and the nature of the Eucharist and baptism. All appealed to Scripture. Calvin was every bit as confident and supposedly “unanswerable” in his Institutes as Luther had been in his many treatises. Who decides who is right?

That is, of course, the prerogative of the Church (1 Timothy 3:15; the Jerusalem Council in the book of Acts). But if one redefines the Church to simply one’s own set of assumptions, without reference to established precedent (read, Christian or apostolic “tradition”) then it is logically circular. This is what heretics had done all through history. Precisely for that reason, the Church Fathers always appealed, not just to Scripture (and they certainly did that) but to apostolic succession and the authority of the Church.

Tradition (always in harmony with Scripture) was the final arbiter as to who was heretical and who was orthodox. And so it was in Luther’s day as well. That is why the Catholics appealed to past precedent and the authority of the Church, based on apostolic succession. That was the patristic and the Catholic method of determining truth. We followed ancient precedent; Luther wanted to change that by adopting (almost by default, because he really had no other option) the method and rule of faith of sola Scriptura, that had always been the method of the heretics (Arians, for example, appealed to plenty of Scripture and were countered with Scripture and the ongoing tradition of the Church that Jesus was God, not a creature).

Finally, it was claimed by Pastors Nichols and Maton that the Lutheran Augsburg Confession of 1530 was “a glorious statement of true catholic and apostolic teaching. Where are the words of the AC not catholic or apostolic?”, and that it was “a true presentation of the doctrine of the blessed apostles.” Well, it certainly wasn’t a true presentation of catholic, patristic doctrine concerning the sacrifice of the mass, as we have seen above (and that is one answer to their question that I have already provided in detail).

Nor could even Martin Luther and Philip Melanchthon come to full agreement on matters connected with the Augsburg Confession, as indicated by a series of letters between them at the time of the Diet of Augsburg. Melanchthon, true to his more conciliatory, mild character, took a much different approach than Luther:

He sweated over every portion of the Apology, for he wanted to state the core of evangelical doctrine without alienating the Roman Catholics. (Melanchthon: The Quiet Reformer, Clyde Leonard Manschreck, New York: Abingdon Press, 1958, 182)
The nature of the Mass was a dividing point all along, and indicates the contradictory nature of the Lutheran position, that was claiming to be a continuation of “catholic history” but in fact was an innovation, if it didn’t even retain the central act of Christian worship, according to all those centuries from the time of Christ to 1517. Melanchthon biographer Manschreck subtly notes this disconnect:


Melanchthon’s letters that Sunday afternoon, June 19, to Myconius, Luther, and Camerarius show that he thought the entire dispute might be settled by correcting abuses. Melanchthon believed that the evangelical movement in Germany was a product of the vital spirit of the old Latin church, that the fundamental doctrines of justification by faith were not anything new but a reassertion of the heart of the Christian gospel, which in the centuries of church development had become obscured by ecclesiastical observances. In casting these aside Melanchthon believed the evangelicals were adhering to the pristine practices of the church, as reflected in Scripture and the early fathers, particularly Augustine. To Valdes he was trying to show that the reformation practices were in accord with the old canonical rules and compliant with genuine catholic Christianity, and ought, therefore, to be tolerated and encouraged by the Emperor.

But something happened. Although the evangelicals attended the early morning mass, June 20, as requested . . . not a single evangelical representative participated in the ancient, mysterious rites. Charles showed his displeasure, but the Protestants seemed to have determined upon another course of action. (Manschreck, ibid., 190)

Luther (as we would fully expect) was far less conciliatory than Melanchthon. He wrote to the latter on 28 or 29 June 1530:

I have received your Apology, and I am wondering what you mean when you say you desire to know what and how much we may yield to the Papists? According to my opinion, too much is already conceded to them in the Apology . . . I am ready, as I have always written to you, to yield up everything to them, if they will only leave the Gospel free. (Ibid., 195)
Luther seems to have thought (far differently than Melanchthon) that reconciliation with the Catholics was impossible. Indeed, Manschreck noted that “Historians writing on the Augsburg Confession usually criticize Melanchthon as childish if not traitorous for his activity during this period” (p. 204). He contends that Luther himself would not agree with such an assessment of his friend and successor, but clearly saw “that the basic difference was one of authority” (p. 205).

Catholic historian Warren Carroll presents a synopsis of these events:


Early in July the bishops presented their complaints to the Diet of the plundering and destruction of churches, seizure of monasteries and hospitals, prohibition of Masses, and attacks on religious processions by the Protestants. When Charles called upon the Protestants to restore the property they had seized, they said that to do so would be against their consciences. Charles responded crushingly: “The Word of God, the Gospel, and every law civil and canonical, forbid a man to appropriate to himself the property of another.” He said that as Emperor he had the duty of guarding the rights of all, especially those Catholics unwilling to accept Protestantism or go into exile, who should at least be allowed to remain in their homes and practice their ancestral faith, specifically the Mass; the Protestants replied that they would not tolerate the Mass . . .

By July it was clear that on matters of doctrine the Lutherans at Augsburg were dissimulating, concealing their real beliefs in the hope of avoiding a final breach without making genuine concessions. On July 6 Melanchthon made the incredible statement:

*
We have no dogmas which differ from the Roman Church . . . We reverence the authority of the Pope of Rome, and are prepared to remain in allegiance to the Church if only the Pope does not repudiate us.
*
As it happened, on the very same day Luther, in an exposition on the Second Psalm addressed to Archbishop Albert of Mainz, declared:
*
Remember that you are not dealing with human beings when you have affairs with the Pope and his crew, but with veritable devils! . . .
*
On the 13th [of July] Luther announced from Coburg that the Protestants would never tolerate the Mass, which he called blasphemous, and said of the Emperor:
*
We know that he is in error and that he is striving against the Gospel . . . He does not conform to God’s Word and we do . . .
*
Luther stated in a letter to Melanchthon August 26 [cited by Manschreck, p. 204]:
*
This talk of compromise . . . is a scandal to God . . . I am thoroughly displeased with this negotiating concerning union in doctrine, since it is utterly impossible unless the Pope wishes to take away his power.
*

In subsequent letters he declared that no religious settlement was possible as long as the Pope remained and the Mass was unchanged . . .

Luther prepared the final Protestant answer:

*
The Augsburg Confession must endure, as the true and unadulterated Word of God, until the great Judgment Day . . . Not even an angel from Heaven could alter a syllable of it, and any angel who dared to do so must be accursed and damned . . . The stipulations made that monks and nuns still dwelling in their cloisters should not be expelled, and that the Mass should not be abolished, could not be accepted; for whoever acts against his conscience simply paves his way to Hell. The monastic life and the Mass covered with infamous ignominy the merit and suffering of Christ. Of all the horrors and abominations that could be mentioned, the Mass was the greatest.
*
. . . no Catholic of spirit and courage could be expected, let alone morally required, to give up all his religious rights without a struggle; and few Protestants, at this point, would allow Catholics to exercise those rights if the Protestants were strong enough to deny them. These were the irreconcilable positions taken by the two sides at the Diet of Augsburg in 1530, which made those long and bloody years of conflict inevitable. (The Cleaving of Christendom; from the series, A History of Christendom, Volume IV, Front Royal, Virginia: Christendom Press, 2000, 103-107)
The very notion that the Augsburg Confession was in entire agreement with prior Catholic history is quite debatable. Catholic Luther biographer Hartmann Grisar wrote:


In fact, the first official edition of the “Confession,” printed in 1530, contained the deceptive declaration (which was subsequently altered) that the impugned doctrines meant no deviation from the Scriptures or the teaching of the Roman Catholic Church, in as far as that teaching could be ascertained from Catholic authors.

. . . the Catholic theologians . . . noted the absence of any declaration relative to the pope, whom the Lutherans had come to regard as Antichrist. The declaration was silent about the universal priesthood of all the faithful in place of the clergy, the incapacity of the human will to do good, and absolute predestination, the very pillars of the doctrinal system of Lutheranism. The antitheses between the two religions on the subject of indulgences and Purgatory were likewise hushed up, and the differences in the veneration of the saints had also vanished.

Hence, honest candor, the preliminary condition of reunion, was missing. (Martin Luther: His Life and Work, translated by Frank J. Eble, edited by Arthur Preuss, Westminster, Maryland: The Newman Press, 1950, 376)

Grisar says of Melanchthon that “His depressed condition of mind is the only thing that helps him over the charge of conscious deception” (p. 377). He implies that Luther (in his letter of August 26th, 1530, partially cited above) was aware of a certain “vacillation” — or at least likely perceptions of same — from the Protestants in the negotiations of Augsburg:

[W]e shall be charged with perfidy and vacillation. But what will the consequence be? Matters may easily be remedied by the steadfastness and the truth of our cause. True, I do not wish that it should so happen; but speak in such wise that, if it should happen, despondency do not ensue. For, once we shall have attained peace and escaped violence, we shall easily make amends for our tricks . . and failings, because God’s mercy rules over us. (Ibid., p. 388)
To briefly illustrate again my contention that Lutheranism cannot lay claim to being the historic Christian Church of the ages (i.e., uniquely apostolic), based on a harmony with patristic theology and practice, it is interesting to see how Luther treats the doctrine of intercession of the saints, in a little appendix of his work On Translating: An Open Letter, completed by 12 September 1530, shortly after the Diet of Augsburg:

“Nay,” say they, “that way you condemn the whole Church, which has hitherto observed this practice everywhere.” I reply: I know full well that the priests and monks seek this cloak for their abominations and want to put off on the Church the damage that they have done by their own neglect, so that if we say, “The Church does not err,” we will be saying at the same time that they do not err, and thus they may not be accused of any lies or errors, since that is what the Church holds . . . They inject this foreign question in order to lead us away from our case. We are now discussing God’s word; what the Church is or does belongs elsewhere; the question here is, what is or is not God’s Word; what is not God’s word does not make a Church. (from Works of Martin Luther, Volume V, Philadelphia: A. J. Holman Co. & The Castle Press, 1931; translated by C. M. Jacobs, 25)
Note how Luther doesn’t even attempt to show that the history of this doctrine throughout Christian history is more in accord with Lutheran belief than Catholic. He seems to concede the point without argument. But this doesn’t go along with his stated beliefs concerning, for example, the Real presence in the Eucharist. When dealing with that (especially when confronting Protestant sacramentarians, Zwingli, etc.), Luther vehemently appeals to the unbroken tradition of the Church, as in the citation from 1532, above. But here, all of a sudden, he becomes radically ahistorical, and the same history is irrelevant, since all we need is God’s word to settle any question.

The Lutheran co-opting of St. Augustine is another case in point of the weakness of their polemical historical argumentation. I looked up every single reference to St. Augustine in my copy of the Book of Concord (the doctrinal standard for Lutheranism). Without exception it claims that Augustine is in full agreement with Lutheran doctrine. Furthermore, it makes outright false factual claims, such as that Augustine denied ex opere operato (the notion that the sacraments have inherent power apart from the dispenser or recipient) and purgatory. These are erroneous judgments. As for purgatory, Augustine wrote:


The man who perhaps has not cultivated the land and has allowed it to be overrun with brambles has in this life the curse of his land on all his works, and after this life he will have either purgatorial fire or eternal punishment. (Genesis Defended Against the Manicheans, 2, 20, 30. From Jurgens, William A., editor and translator, The Faith of the Early Fathers, Vol. III, Collegeville, Minnesota: Liturgical Press, 1979, 38)

Temporal punishments are suffered by some in this life only, by some after death, by some both here and hereafter; but all of them before that last and strictest judgment. But not all who suffer temporal punishments after death will come to eternal punishments, which are to follow after that judgment. (City of God, 21, 13. From Jurgens, ibid., 105)

The prayer . . . is heard on behalf of certain of the dead; but it is heard for those who, having been regenerated in Christ, did not for the rest of their life in the body do such wickedness that they might be judged unworthy of such mercy, nor who yet lived so well that it might be supposed they have no need of such mercy. (City of God, 21, 24, 2. From Jurgens, ibid., 106)

That there should be some such fire even after this life is not incredible, and it can be inquired into and either be discovered or left hidden whether some of the faithful may be saved, some more slowly and some more quickly in the greater or lesser degree in which they loved the good things that perish, – through a certain purgatorial fire. (Enchiridion of Faith, Hope and Love, 18,69, Jurgens, ibid., 149. See also — in the same work — 29,109-110; The Care That Should be Taken of the Dead, 1, 3)

In a paper on Lutherans and St. Augustine, I stated:

Does this mean that the Book of Concord and Philip Melanchthon (its primary author) were deliberately dishonest, and rascally scoundrels? I would not make that claim, and I don’t think so. Much more likely is that their Protestant and anti-Roman biases simply blinded them to certain facts and thus led to inaccuracies. Or they did inadequate research . . .
In any event, this sort of tension with the facts of history and selective espousal and appeal to it when it is an advantage to do so, and ignoring or downplaying it it when it is not, runs rampant through confessional Lutheranism, and Lutheran apologetics (insofar as the latter exists at all). And I respectfully submit that all of this is an indication of the superiority of the Catholic historical case and harmony with the patristic consensus in theology. In turn, that is a major reason why we view ourselves as the one true Church: apostolic and historically continuous, uniquely preserving true (developed) Christian doctrine in its fullness and specially guided by the Holy Spirit, Who grants the gift of infallibility in order to protect the Church from error.

On the other hand, where is the sale of Indulgences for example, or the popular practice of the day to gaze at relics anywhere a part of the apostolic tradition? Where do we see any support for Indulgences among the writings of the Church Fathers, even those most sympathetic to legitimizing the papacy? 

I recently put together a paper on indulgences, derived from my book, A Biblical Defense of Catholicism. The essence of the doctrine of indulgences is derived from explicit biblical proofs, as I contended in the book. The key notion is the power of the Church to bind and loose. “Binding” is penance, whereas “loosing” is an indulgence. Thus, when the fathers write about those issues or related ones, they are touching upon indulgences, insofar as penances are lifted. For instance, St. Ambrose states:

For those to whom [the right of binding and loosing] has been given, it is plain that either both are allowed, or it is clear that neither is allowed. Both are allowed to the Church, neither is allowed to heresy. For this right has been granted to priests only. (Penance 1:1 [A.D. 388])
Relics have explicit biblical support as well (most notably, Elisha’s bones bringing a man back to life).
*
Philip Schaff acknowledged the prevalence of the belief in relics in the early Church, amounting to an “avalanche” (p. 450) in a section of his History of the Church, Vol. 3, 449-460 (see further source data for this volume above). He stated that biblical miracles such as Elisha’s bones, the shadow of Peter, and handkerchiefs of Paul were cited as evidence for relics by “Origen, Cyril of Jerusalem, Ambrose, Chrysostom, and other fathers” (p. 453). He mentions the advocacy of Tertullian, Epiphanius, Jerome (p. 452), St. Cyprian (p. 454), and St. Augustine (pp. 459-460), and the preservation and veneration of St. Ignatius of Antioch’s and St. Polycarp’s bones (p. 453). He concluded:
The most and the best of the church teachers of our period, Hilary, the two Gregories, Basil, Chrysostom, Isidore of Pelusium, Theodoret, Ambrose, Jerome, Augustine, and Leo . . . gave the weight of their countenance to the worship of relics. (p. 456; Schaff means by “worship” the same thing that Catholics would classify as a sub-worship “veneration”)

I informed my two pastor friends of my reply:

Be forewarned that it required extensive historical analysis and documentation because that was necessary in order to counter the claims made and to show exactly how and why Catholics disagree with them. It’s easy to claim continuity with the fathers; another thing to demonstrateit. So in opposing this particular Lutheran claim, I had to use a lot of “ink.” I enjoyed the discussion and look forward to future topics as we move along.

Thanks for your timely and thorough reply. Larry and I have both had a chance to read through it and will be forthcoming with a response. A couple of the many points you make are well taken, but several others require proper contextualization, clarification, correction, and indeed, rebuttal. We ask your patient indulgence (not the RC kind!) in awaiting our reply. Unlike you clearly do, neither Larry nor I have on hand previous work and ready responses from conversations like these from which to draw. We are starting from scratch, so to say. And as the blessed work of tending souls and forgiving sins (not to mention caring for wives and children) which our Lord has granted to us as parish pastors takes up much of our time, it might be a while before you receive our response. Should our Lord delay his return a couple more weeks (Come, Lord Jesus!), be assured the response will come.

Peace in Jesus,


Ben 

Dear Pastor Maton [also sent to Pastor Nichols and Johnny Montalvo, like all the replies],

Thanks for your letter. I completely understand the demands of time. Please do not feel any pressure. This is what I do for a living, so I could simply take one long day and make a reply (and, as you note, draw from past work of mine that required many hours itself when I did that research before).

I am enjoying the exchange and am happy to hear that you plan to make some sort of rebuttal. I find that the “counter-response” stage of any discussion is always more interesting and educational (and fun) than the first round, because then challenges are being made and it is a real “debate.”

Please be assured of my great respect for your “blessed work of tending souls” and I will look forward (assuming the Second Coming will not preclude it) to your reply whenever it is made.

Your brother in Christ,

Dave

***

(originally 10-9-07)

Photo credit: Market Church of the Holy Spirit: largest wooden church in Germany (Lutheran), in Clausthal: completed in 1642. Photograph by hpgruesen (9-2-16) [PixabayCC0 Creative Commons license]

***

July 22, 2018

VicQRuiz is a friendly “agnostic/deist” who commented on my 2001 exchange: The “Problem of Good”: Great Dialogue With an Atheist. I compiled those replies and my responses, and now will reply to further comments of his. His words (complete) will be in blue. My older words to which he is responding will be indented.

*****

From your lengthy reply I have selected those comments upon which I think I can best opine. If there is something else you said which you think I really should address, please go right ahead and point it out to me.

I think God, like our (partial) agreement on possible visiting aliens, would “reveal [Him]self publicly to all” and I believe He did so with the Bible and several interactions with human beings throughout history. Why would God not do so? If He exists, and is benevolent, it seems to me self-evident that He would want to make Himself known, for the good of mankind.

Except that God has never to my awareness revealed himself “publicly to all”.

According to the Bible:

Romans 1:19-20 (RSV)  For what can be known about God is plain to them, because God has shown it to them. [20] Ever since the creation of the world his invisible nature, namely, his eternal power and deity, has been clearly perceived in the things that have been made. So they are without excuse

That’s revealing at least His existence, and also His power: to all, since they see “the things that have been made.” Other things (such as trinitarianism) are only made apparent through written revelation (the Bible).

We reject the accounts of alien abduction because they are based only on the hearsay evidence of a select group of abductees and because no evidence outside of personal attestation can be detected.

Yes, I agree.

(NB – have you written on the subject of alleged miracles outside of the conventional Christian tradition….for example in the eastern religions, or Joseph Smith’s translation of the plates?)

Not really. Joseph Smith was a fraud, though, and plagiarized a great deal of the King James Version and drew from many other sources for his goofy ancient American history. It’s not new revelation; it’s a fraud.

If someone jumps off a building to kill himself, God (being good and all-powerful) is supposed to make the sidewalk jelly just before he lands, etc. I have argued that this would produce a chaotic universe, in which science wouldn’t even be possible.

I quite agree, provided that when someone falls from a great height and survives largely unhurt (it has happened) the Christian has no reason to conclude that this is because God has stepped into 3D space at precisely the right instant to cushion his fall. Likewise the survivors of calamities in general, they have no more reason to think they are blessed by God than the victims are cursed by him.

Well, you seem to discount all miracles, and apparently do so by prior “category impossibility” (just as David Hume essentially did). I recently wrote about some hard (scientific-type) evidence for miracles continuing into our own time. The atheist I wrote to offered no counter-response whatsoever to deny the existence of those miracles.

The distinction we draw is that God has the right and prerogative to judge human beings (whom He created) in a way that we do not have with each other. Thus, I deny the analogy you attempt here. I’ve written about this many times:

It sounds to me as if you are an adherent of divine command theory. See my final comment below.

I am not, and the Church is not, as briefly explained in an EWTN article. I believe that God (as Creator and Judge) has the inherent prerogative to judge persons and nations. Another article in Catholic Herald states: “Divine Command Theory, while once held by certain medieval theologians, back in the day, is now regarded by Catholic theologians as utterly mistaken, for it leads to the nonsense of believing that God could command things that are inherently unjust.”

I should clarify, too, that Catholics (and many other sorts of Christians) do not believe that Jews and atheists / agnostics (and any other non-Christians) automatically go to hell because they are not Christians / have not accepted Jesus Christ as their Lord and Savior. It’s far more involved than that, and each individual is judged by what they truly know (see Romans 2). Degrees of culpability vary widely. See my papers:

I read the links, but did not see my “degree of culpability” referenced, understandable because I was not the audience for which it was written.

It depends on how much you personally have learned and what you know and what you have accepted or rejected. That would be a long long conversation, and even then, no human being can say with certainty what your eternal destiny will be. We can say at best only that certain beliefs or unrepented sins potentially endanger your soul and eternal destiny.

I do think that if it is not possible for a human being to know if he is bound for heaven or hell, that’s certainly a tick on the ledger for divine hiddenness.

There are many things we don’t know with absolute certainty (in fact, almost all things, if we want to be strictly philosophical). Catholics believe in a very high degree of “moral assurance” of salvation, but not absolute certainty of salvation. We don’t know the future of every (or any) person.

But of course they do not all do so and are not all saved, and that’s because God permitted them the free will to reject Him and His grace, if that is their choice. Thus, in this way, even an omnipotent God can’t get everything He desires, because He has allowed “counter-desires” or a counter-will to make that (virtually, though not intrinsically) impossible. It started right with one of His angels, Lucifer, who rebelled against Him.

Do you think that God has ever intervened on earth in such a way as to override an exercise of free will? If the answer is yes, then I don’t see how you can argue that “God can’t get everything he desires”.

Yes, God has overridden free will at times, in particulars. And it is for the person’s ultimate good, if so. It doesn’t logically follow that He can get all His desires. He can’t, as soon as He allows even one free will decision to dissent against His perfect will. The fall of Satan was the first such thing, as far as I know. That brought in a “counter-will” to God’s will, that God allowed. God desired that Satan didn’t rebel and fall, but nevertheless Satan did. Therefore, “God can’t get everything He desires” in a world where free will is allowed.

From my Catholic perspective (and what I believe is true, period), He wants you and every other non-Catholic to be a Catholic, but you’re not, so God has not gotten everything He wants in that regard (and many others).

(VR) Either morality exists independent of God, or it does not. If it does, then God’s actions may be judged by that morality just as human actions may. 

(DA) I agree. I think He passes that test. Technically, our view is that “God is love.” He is the embodiment of it. It’s grounded” in God from our limited perspective. Whatever is good, God is. Whatever God is, is good. God isn’t “subject” to morality. He simply is goodness itself.

He is also all-merciful and all-good. He is love. So what He does, is out of love.

This is the sort of talk from Christians which unfortunately leaves me slack jawed and nearly speechless. “God is the good, God is love.” How can I possibly come to such a conclusion starting from an agnostic point of view?

By God’s revelation of Himself: especially through Jesus Christ. That’s how you do it.

By analogy, I know my wife loves me, and I know that love is an immaterial thing, not a conjunction of atoms and molecules. But I recognize her love only by her actions toward me. If her actions were perceived by me to be often loving and caring, but with a sizable leavening of apparent cruelty and caprice, I could easily conclude differently. I see God in exactly the same way.

Then you are not looking at the right things. You’re not looking at Jesus going through unimaginable suffering for your sake, because He loves you and all human beings and wants you (and all) to be able to spend eternity in heaven with Him. If someone dies for someone else, secular society recognizes that as love. If I rescue a child from a criminal hostage-taker or kidnapper and get shot and killed I’m considered a hero. If I jump in front of a speeding car to help an unknowing baby (or even a dog) and get hit and killed, I’m a hero, because I laid down my life. We say that about soldiers and cops and firefighters.

So there you go. This is what Jesus did. God became man and took on flesh in order to suffer and die for all human beings to potentially be saved, by repenting and believing in His act of redemption.

Instead, you choose to look at the usual “hard cases” in the Old Testament, but they have to do with judgment. They are special cases and specific situations that do not prove that God is evil or capricious.

(VR) Now the thought experiment is this: Suppose an observer from Universe C were to arrive at one of these two universes. Would he be able to determine which one he was in?

(DA) He wouldn’t, unless he had other good reason to believe that God exists.

Yes, I agree that he wouldn’t. This is why I am not convinced that objective morality exists (although I would like it to exist) nor convinced that it is on its own an argument for God.

This is another long, complex discussion, and we already have about ten different sub-discussions going.

We teach them right and wrong to the best of our abilities and (Catholic) lights. They may not always perfectly follow it (in fact I know they do not, because I don’t, either). But if I’ve done my best as a parent and moral teacher, it’s not my fault when they mess up.

But you are a fallible and impatient human, as am I. God is not. (This seems an almost insultingly trivial objection, yet I can’t help but raise it….)

God allows free will, which was the point I was making there.

I would approach those by saying that the laws of science are what they are, and they include natural disasters. If we don’t want God intervening in nature every two seconds, then we have to accept those, and — this being the case –, some people die or get hurt. It’s reality.

That seems to me to argue the existence of a deistic, “wind up the watch and let it go” God. Not so much for hurricanes and earthquakes, but clearly apparent in the existing of something like the Ebola virus.

He lets the natural laws of science operate (which is why science has been so spectacularly successful in obtaining knowledge and allowing wonderful new inventions and help to human beings). But he also ultimately oversees the same laws (which we know from revelation), and sometimes intervenes and deviates from the usual course of nature with miracles, and He reveals Himself (i.e., those things that deism denies).

“How Can God Order the Massacre of Innocents?”

I perceive you as an adherent of divine command theory, as mentioned above. Do you agree?

No, as explained.

Although I find DCT repugnant and not at all in keeping with my view of what God would have to be,

So do I. We have enough disagreements!

I do commend you for the integrity to take an issue like the massacre of the innocents and deal with it head on.

I deal with it in accord to what the Bible reveals about those things and about God Himself.

It does seen to me that DCT is much more commonly found among Protestants, particularly of the reformed persuasion, than of Catholics.

Yes; and among Muslims.

I’ve heard quite a few Catholic apologists attempt to rationalize and “soften the blow” and frankly I expected you to follow suit. (A couple of examples here and here.

I don’t disagree with anything that I can see in Jimmy Akin’s article. He’s a friend of mine and fellow apologist. But that article doesn’t deal directly with the question of judgment, which is what I dealt with.

Bishop Barron (in your second link) does mention the Amalekites, and he and I might disagree, and that would have to be unpacked. I have disagreed with him on Adam and Eve (twice). Individual bishops are not “magisterial” in and of themselves. They can be wrong in some things.

And let me close this post by asking you at some point (if you have not already done so) to talk about the ranges of beliefs that are found in Catholicism. It’s become increasingly clear to me that the catechism is not an all encompassing guide to exactly what must be believed and what rejected.

There are many areas where Catholics are allowed to disagree with each other, but they are generally lesser or relatively less important matters (such as the exact nature of predestination: Thomism vs. Molinism: I am of the latter camp). Many things that are thought to be “up for grabs” are actually not, and have been determined by the Church to be binding doctrines or dogmas.

The Catechism is the best “popular level” way to determine what those doctrines and dogmas are, and was intended as a “sure norm” for the faith. For most people (non-scholars) who want to determine what we believe and teach, that is the best one-stop source. And it is available online.

If you want to deeply delve into what is believed and how much is required of all Catholics to believe (different levels of authority, whch gets complicated), then you go to Ludwig Ott: Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma (recently revised in English), or (more technically), Denzinger’s Enchiridion Symbolorum. Both in their latest revisions were worked on and partially translated by my good friend, Dr. Robert Fastiggi, a systematic theologian at Sacred Heart Seminary here in Detroit. I just saw him two days ago, in fact, and we talked a bit about Ott.

What is the acceptable spectrum of Catholic belief across:

Historical inerrancy versus allegorical content in the Bible?

That gets into proper interpretation of the Bible, how and when to know what literary genre is being employed, etc. Early Genesis, for example definitely utilizes symbolism (e.g., the trees, the snake / serpent), but there are also actual persons (like Adam and Eve) and events that literally took place in history (including the very fall of mankind, leading to original sin). It’s not always “either/or.” In early chapters in Genesis, symbolism is present, but also literal history as well. One simply has to determine which is which: what genre is being employed, and the intent of the writer.

Almost everyone (including myself) believes that some minor discrepancies (things such as numbers or a botched name) probably crept into the manuscripts we have of the Bible (none the original ones). Orthodox Catholics (who accept all that the Church teaches) do not believe, however, that the Bible teaches theological or moral error. We believe it is inspired and infallible in its purpose.

Natural selection versus guided creation?

Catholics are free to believe in theistic evolution; obviously not materialistic evolution.

Limited atonement versus universalism?

Catholics believe in universal atonement (God’s free offer of mercy for all men to potentially be saved, contingent upon their acceptance or rejection of His grace) but deny universalism (all are in fact saved in the end).

Eternal torment versus annihilation?

We deny annihilationism and hold to the biblical teaching of an eternal hell, in which unrepentant sinners are punished.

It’s been a pleasure and a great mental exercise working through this. “See” you again soon.

My pleasure, too. Thanks for your amiability and inquisitiveness!

***

Photo credit: [Max Pixel /  Creative Commons Zero – CC0 license]

***


Browse Our Archives