2024-02-15T17:16:30-04:00

[response to an evangelical Christian (one whom I like a lot) who has rejected the doctrine of hell and who thinks that the OT God was mean and evil and fundamentally different from Jesus. See the first part of my reply on Facebook: “Angry” OT God “vs.” “Meek and Mild” Jesus?]
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I think this line of thought you are expressing will entail many serious difficulties. The apologist’s job is to tackle tough questions, and I have some more thoughts.
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As I alluded to, Jesus and God the Father are one, as Jesus Himself says. There is no separation between them at all. They always agree. To deny that would be to call into question the Holy Trinity, which has always been a central doctrine for all Christians. If someone denies that, they have always been considered non-Christians or heretics (e.g., Jehovah’s Witnesses, Mormons, Unitarians).
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Secondly, it’s a dangerous principle and road to go down if we start deciding that certain things are too difficult to accept, so that we decide to reject them. This means that we have questioned the doctrine of the inspiration of Scripture.
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There are many things that are very difficult for us to understand. A friend of mine just lost his one-year-old son to a rare form of cancer. I don’t understand that. I don’t understand hell or God’s eternity or omnipresence or timelessness or how we can have free will and still be predestined to heaven (those who are in the elect).
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If we start questioning the inspiration of Holy Scripture, anything then becomes possible, and people who went down that road claim to be Christians and yet think abortion is fine and dandy, and same-sex “marriage” and fornication, and a host of other things.
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The Old Testament God was a loving God, just as Jesus (God the Son) is a loving God. I just reposted yesterday an article of mine entitled, “God’s ‘Valentine’: His Love, Mercy, & Compassion.” All it is, is Scripture, and about half of it came from the OT.
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Excerpts:
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Psalm 103:3-5 (RSV) who forgives all your iniquity, who heals all your diseases, [4] who redeems your life from the Pit, who crowns you with steadfast love and mercy, [5] who satisfies you with good as long as you live so that your youth is renewed like the eagle’s.
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Isaiah 43:4 . . . you are precious in my eyes, and honored, and I love you, . . .
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Isaiah 49:15-16 Can a woman forget her sucking child, that she should have no compassion on the son of her womb? Even these may forget, yet I will not forget you. [16] Behold, I have graven you on the palms of my hands; . . .
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Isaiah 54:10 For the mountains may depart and the hills be removed, but my steadfast love shall not depart from you, and my covenant of peace shall not be removed, says the LORD, who has compassion on you.
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Isaiah 62:4-5 . . . the LORD delights in you . . . [5] . . . as the bridegroom rejoices over the bride, so shall your God rejoice over you.
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Isaiah 66:13 As one whom his mother comforts, so I will comfort you; you shall be comforted in Jerusalem.
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Jesus didn’t reject the Law at all. He said:
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Matthew 5:17-19 “Think not that I have come to abolish the law and the prophets; I have come not to abolish them but to fulfil them. [18] For truly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the law until all is accomplished. [19] Whoever then relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but he who does them and teaches them shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
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Jesus followed OT law to the letter, including observance of all of the Jewish holy days and various commands.
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As for the doctrine of hell, the Bible records Jesus saying much more about it than He did about heaven. See my article: “Biblical Evidence for an Eternal Hell.”
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Again, if we start picking-and-choosing what we will accept in the Bible, based on our own feelings and questions, and even do that with Jesus Himself, there is no end to it.
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Rather than question the Bible and Jesus, I think it would be more fruitful for you to question your “fundamentalist religious background” which taught you false ideas that you have struggled with, and which have led you in the long run to start rejecting biblical doctrines.
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This is very common, too. I can’t tell you how many of the atheists I have interacted with, report that they had a fundamentalist background. Invariably, they think that Christianity teaches a host of things that it doesn’t teach, and I try to explain that to them: that they rejected a straw man, not actual Christianity, beyond the narrow fundamentalism (similar to Pharisaism). That’s where the errors lie and where they arose, looks like to me.
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I think you are aware of how dangerous this view is, even though you have decided to adopt it. If we start saying that this and that are wrong in the Bible, how does it ever end? You have made yourself the arbiter of God’s revelation, rather than accepting it in faith. Now, whether you are right or wrong in that, I think you have to admit that it is a subjective and arbitrary point of view, which could literally go anywhere.
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How do you know that you won’t become one of those atheists who maybe started questioning hell at first, or another difficult doctrine, then got rid of it, and it was only the first of many rejections, leading ultimately to atheism?
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If you say that hell is nonexistent and that the “OT God” is different, this hearkens back to the old heresies of dualism and gnosticism, where you have a good God and an evil counter-god. It’s very dangerous territory. And you would be flat-out denying Jesus’ teaching.
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All you can do at that point is start denying that Jesus’ teaching really is His. In this view, when you disagree with something, you say that Jesus didn’t really say it. If you go that route, you’d probably leave the Christian faith within a year, because that’s how all apostasy and atheism begins, if the person began as some sort of Christian.
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There are views that simply assert annihilationism and soul sleep, without denying other Christian doctrines, like Seventh-Day Adventism, but you have already gone farther than they do, by separating Jesus from God the Father.
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I think the fundamental error in this approach is what I would call “hyper-rationalism.” Every atheist thinks like that. I know, because I have spent many thousands of hours interacting with them, and my book about biblical archaeology [The Word Set in Stone: How Archaeology, Science, and History Back Up the Bible] was a direct result of that.
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That book, by the way, provides strong independent evidence that the Bible is inspired revelation. Most of it is about the OT too. I’ll send you a free pdf copy in a PM.
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[The OT] God is following His own laws and His nature of being love itself. We follow His example if we, for example, shoot a terrorist who is holding fifty children hostage, threatening to kill them. That’s an act of love and simultaneously acting as God’s agent of justice, on behalf of the children.
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If the Israeli Army kills Hamas terrorists: the ones who beheaded children and tortured, raped, and murdered women, it’s the same thing. It’s loving with regard to the rest of the Israeli population who might be treated in the same way, and an act of judgment towards unrepentant murderers and evil people.
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God was very strict in the OT because He had to be. He was trying to illustrate the reality of sin and how it separates a person from God. So there was capital punishment. It doesn’t follow, however, that everyone who was executed is lost for eternity. If many of them went to heaven, they have all eternity in happiness and bliss, compared to one second when they were punished with death. That changes everything.
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God judged Sodom and Gomorrah. Jesus alluded to that. He agreed with it. You might recall how Abraham pled with God if there were just ten righteous people in the cities, to not judge them. But there weren’t. That sin had gotten to the point of no return. That’s why God judged.
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There is judgment in the NT In Acts 5, Ananias and Sapphira were killed for holding back some of their profits, after they donated to the apostles. It seems harsh, but there it is. Do you rip that page out of the Bible because it’s difficult to understand? I don’t. I say, “God knows much more about their hearts and motives than I do. God knows what He is doing.”
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There was that man who died because he tried to stop the ark of the covenant from tipping over. God was showing how holy the item was. Was that man damned for all eternity? I highly doubt it.
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Essentially your view boils down to a denial that God can justly judge sin. That’s the road to ethical relativism and subjectivism. You don’t want to go down that road. You need to seriously re-think all this.
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Jesus didn’t call the OT God a “murderer.”
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John 8:38-45 I speak of what I have seen with my Father, and you do what you have heard from your father.” [39] They answered him, “Abraham is our father.” Jesus said to them, “If you were Abraham’s children, you would do what Abraham did, [40] but now you seek to kill me, a man who has told you the truth which I heard from God; this is not what Abraham did. [41] You do what your father did.” They said to him, “We were not born of fornication; we have one Father, even God.” [42] Jesus said to them, “If God were your Father, you would love me, for I proceeded and came forth from God; I came not of my own accord, but he sent me. [43] Why do you not understand what I say? It is because you cannot bear to hear my word. [44] You are of your father the devil, and your will is to do your father’s desires. He was a murderer from the beginning, and has nothing to do with the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he lies, he speaks according to his own nature, for he is a liar and the father of lies. [45] But, because I tell the truth, you do not believe me.
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The “murderer” there is the devil (“You are of your father the devil,. . . He was a murderer from the beginning.”). Jesus contrasts His Father with the devil, who is the Pharisees’ father, in the passage. You seem to have completely ignored the context. Are you reading materials that are teaching you these unbiblical doctrines?
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We’re limited by the fact that we are finite creatures and not God. God knows everything. A creature cannot know everything, because then he or she would be God, and we’re not. We have limitations. That’s what faith is about. We accept things that we don’t fully understand, based on what we do know. And in fact all fields of knowledge entail that. They all have unproved premises and conclusions that follow from data that are not airtight or absolutely undeniable. We exercise a sort of “faith” to believe in them.
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We’re not penalized for not understanding. We’re judged based on what we know and our level of intent, just as in secular law different penalties are applied, so that a “crime of passion” or one done in temporary insanity is penalized a lot less than premeditated murder, that was planned for months.
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The Bible has a lot about degrees of culpability and ignorance and how they cause us to be judged less than we otherwise would have been. See, e.g.,:
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Luke 12:47-48 And that servant who knew his master’s will, but did not make ready or act according to his will, shall receive a severe beating. But he who did not know, and did what deserved a beating, shall receive a light beating. Every one to whom much is given, of him will much be required; and of him to whom men commit much they will demand the more.
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Luke 23:34 And Jesus said, “Father, forgive them; for they know not what they do.” . . .
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John 9:41 Jesus said to them, “If you were blind, you would have no guilt; but now that you say, ‘We see,’ your guilt remains.”
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John 19:11 . . . he who delivered me to you has the greater sin.
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Acts 17:30 The times of ignorance God overlooked, but now he commands all men everywhere to repent,
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Romans 3:25 . . . This was to show God’s righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins;
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1 Timothy 1:13 though I formerly blasphemed and persecuted and insulted him; but I received mercy because I had acted ignorantly in unbelief.
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Hebrews 10:26 For if we sin deliberately after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins,
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James 3:1 Let not many of you become teachers, my brethren, for you know that we who teach shall be judged with greater strictness.
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I don’t know why hell is eternal, but I know that it’s just punishment, because I know that God is both just and loving, in what He has revealed about Himself. Jesus is both. He judges and kills millions on the Last Day (Rev 19:11-21). That’s in the Bible.
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I guess you could be like Thomas Jefferson (a Unitarian) and take scissors to the Bible and cut out everything that is not to your liking. He tried to remove every miracle, since he didn’t believe in them. Problem is, Jesus; death on the cross for our salvation is also a miracle. So much for Christianity as related to Jefferson!
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I have also written a book in which I refute 191 alleged “contradictions” in the Bible: Inspired!: 191 Supposed Biblical Contradictions Resolved (June 2023). It’s totally free online at this link.
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Can God judge His creation or not? If not, on what basis do you claim such a thing? And the consequences of such an uninvolved, unloving (yes, unloving) God would be too horrible to contemplate. God only judges after making any and every effort to reach unrepentant people. He would have not judged and destroyed Sodom and Gomorrah if they had even ten righteous people, as the Bible says. But they didn’t. That was the whole point. They were beyond redemption because they chose to be. The few righteous people that were there (Lot and his family) were allowed to escape. That’s God.
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We presuppose that judgment is a good thing in every law that we pass and every penalty for not abiding by them. Imagine a nation in which there were no penalties for murder and rape (even one with no traffic laws)! That’s loving; that’s just? Of course it isn’t. The laws are made out of love and concern for people. If we don’t judge lawbreakers, all the law-abiding people suffer for it.
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What G. K. Chesterton wrote about tradition also applies to God’s laws. He compared tradition to a fence around a field that sits on top of a hill that has dangerous drop-off cliffs on all sides. When the fence is there, the children play completely free of all worries about falling off the edge. They’re free! But if it isn’t there they aren’t free at all. Every second, they are worried about falling off the edge and being killed and they can’t enjoy life and be carefree children.
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If I punish a child severely because he or she ran into the street without looking or went into a car with a stranger, is that a loving act or a selfish, immoral act? Is it necessary? Of course it is. Failing that, the child may actually get killed or abducted and sold into child trafficking. That isn’t a very loving parent, is it? Likewise, God punishes and chastises us for our own good, as the Bible states several times (many times in the NT, since you seem to now think that the OT is so wicked). It’s made necessary by original sin and our rebellion against Him.
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Lot was relatively righteous, compared to the others. He offered the daughter in order that the evil men wouldn’t try to rape the angels that were visiting him. I’m not saying it was right, but this was a very early period in salvation history. If he had been more morally advanced, he would and should have said, “take me rather than abuse these angels.”
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According to your logic, God should have killed David after he arranged to have a man killed in battle so he could take his wife. But He didn’t. Instead, He had already made an eternal covenant with him, knowing that he would commit this sin (and would sincerely repent of it), just as He called Paul to be a great apostle, knowing that he was going to persecute and kill who knows how many Christians.
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Imagine hiring a pastor who had killed 75 Christians in his past! But God did much more than that with Paul. He went on to be the greatest evangelist of all time and write much of the NT. And David was the prototype of the Messiah, Jesus, and God said he was a man after his own heart (though He knew from all eternity that he would be a murderer and an adulterer).
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Hell has no redemptive purpose. I deny the premise behind your question. It’s the final place for people who utterly reject God. It’s existence utterly without God. The people who will be there chose it. No one is predestined to go there from all eternity, by God’s decree (this is a most unbiblical falsehood of Calvinism). That would be extremely unjust; I agree. I don’t know why it’s eternal and so severe, but again, I know that it must be a just and somehow necessary punishment, because I know God’s character, from His revelation and indeed from His dealings with me as I have sought to be His disciple, lo these past 47 years.
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We can’t possibly understand all His teachings. We should fully expect not to, just as a two-year-old child can’t understand quantum mechanics or advanced engineering. Who are we to say we know better than God? That was Satan’s first lie, that brought about the fall of man. “I know better than God.” Eve bought that lie and sold it to Adam, who was also foolish and rebellious enough to buy it.
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It sounds to me that it may very well be that you were severely abused in some manner in the past, either by parents or someone in authority over you, and that you are now trying to blame God for that, or equate him with your abuser, as if He is the Cosmic Abuser. He’s not. He’s not at all like whoever abused you: if indeed that is what happened. God didn’t cause it. He doesn’t agree with it. He loves you. He wants to heal you. He suffered unimaginably and died for you, and would have if you were the only person He ever created. God doesn’t cause evil. He overcomes it and is the solution for it. He brings joy and peace, not misery and hopelessness.
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It’s very common to project human abusers onto God. It starts forming a person’s conception of God. You stated that this goes way back in your thinking. In fact, it’s known that many famous atheists projected their terrible relationship with their fathers onto God, and eventually rejected Him and became atheists. I have written about that.
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You’re on that road now, Bethany, at least potentially, and it breaks my heart to see it. We are trying to warn you because we love you. As an apologist for 43 years I have seen this progression many times. I know where it leads. It doesn’t prove you will become an atheist, but we do know that the beginning of the journey of millions of atheists out of Christianity began in this way. That’s simply a fact. And it should give you the greatest pause, and cause you to seriously think about where this sort of thinking ends or could very well end.
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I don’t gain anything by telling you this. You may reject me. I have no motivation other than love. I tell you because I love you as a sister in Christ and because falsehood doesn’t help anyone. The devil wants you. He wants your family. And he starts doing that by getting you to doubt the Bible and God. You’re even directly rejecting the words of Jesus, Who taught the doctrine of hell.
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As I said, that was the first sin that caused the downfall of Adam and Eve and all of humanity. “We know better than God.” He told us to do x, but we know that that was wrong advice, that we can dissent from, and that the devil knows better than God.” I can’t imagine anything more groundless and foolish than that. He’s after you because you are a precious child of God: one who has eloquently shared His truth with others, and who has been an admirable witness for perseverance through health problems. Don’t let him do it!
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The Bible has to be properly interpreted. If you try to do that all on your own, you can possibly adopt one of thousands of errors. Authorities in the Christian life exist for a reason. They are to guide us. That’s true in your Protestant tradition just as it is in Catholicism. It’s a different principle in some ways, but there are still authorities and guidance. It’s not just “the Bible, the Holy Spirit, and me.” Protestants have confessions and creeds that they go by: that offer interpretations of the Bible. And they have histories of what they have believed. The theological liberal simply ignores all that.
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You are reading something that is causing some rather radical doubts. Your question about David and the census [i.e., who inspired him: God or Satan?] ultimately comes straight from either atheism or extreme biblical skepticism, that is passed down for centuries in some cases. It’s very unlikely that a Christian reading the Bible would ever come up with that. And it’s explainable (I provided you two articles that did so). It need not give anyone any pause.
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We’ve already seen how your own interpretation led you to believe that Jesus was condemning His own Father as a “murder” and a “liar” when the passage clearly stated that Jesus was referring to Satan, and was contrasting him with God the Father, with Whom He was one (Jn 10:30: two chapters later). If that’s an example of your “new” approach to the Bible — nothing personal! — , I’d hate to see others.
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Something you are reading is leading you far astray. If you think these sources are “objective” and are merely calling things as they see them, you’re wrong. They are hostile to Christianity and the Bible. They have an agenda. You need to read books like mine about biblical archaeology and refutations of alleged biblical “contradictions” (both written from a general Christian, not specifically Catholic perspective) so you can strengthen your faith, and be confident in it, rather than have it slowly but surely shattered by irrational skepticism and hyper-rationalism.
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G. K. Chesterton noted how the problem with a madman is not that he has no reason, but that he has nothing but reason. That’s atheism in a nutshell, and I hate to say it, but in what you are expressing in this thread, you are thinking very much as they do. Believe me, I know. I devoted an entire year of work a few years ago, just interacting with atheists. And I had done a lot before that, including in person. I know how they think and reason.
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I am trying to help you heal from whatever you experienced by driving home the point that going after the Bible and God and pretending that they are what they are not are not the solution to anything. That will make you more miserable. You’re blaming God for what people did. He is not them. He doesn’t approve of any such abuse. Your indignation is misplaced. Be angry at the abusers (and also forgive them, lest you be destroyed in bitterness). Don’t take it out on God or project these sins onto Him. That’s the very last thing that will help you because you are making the all-loving God evil. If that’s not a key step to misery and hopelessness and atheism, I don’t know anything at all.
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My replies and reasoning here have nothing to do with Catholic authority. You are radical by your own Protestant standards. No Protestant denomination teaches that the OT God is evil and the equivalent of Satan. That hearkens back to ancient heresies; particularly gnosticism. None teach (that I am aware of) that Jesus called God the Father a “murderer” and a “liar” in John 8. If you ever see such a commentary, please direct me to it.
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Neither of my books I directed you to are “Catholic books.” They defend things that Protestants and Catholics have in common: biblical historical accuracy, self-consistency, infallibility, and inspiration. I’m trying to directly help all Christians with those books, to be more confident in the Bible and their faith. I’m not trying to defend Catholicism. I do that in most of my other books!
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Not all of the Pharisees were bad. Jesus Himself followed pharisaical teachings because that was the mainstream. He was accusing some of them of rank hypocrisy. Elsewhere he even told His disciples to follow their teachings, but not their hypocrisy:
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Matthew 23:1-3 Then said Jesus to the crowds and to his disciples, [2] “The scribes and the Pharisees sit on Moses’ seat; [3] so practice and observe whatever they tell you, but not what they do; for they preach, but do not practice.
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Paul called himself a Pharisee (as a Christian) twice (Acts 23:6; 26:5). You have not shown how your interpretation of John 8 can withstand scrutiny. If you think it’s so obvious and compelling, by all means respond to my critique. You’re now appealing to your own ability to interpret Holy Scripture in a way superior to every Protestant tradition I am aware of (and Orthodox and Catholic), so, that being the case, defend it over against critique.
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Or you can start claiming that you have secret esoteric knowledge that very few mortals will ever understand, bound as we are by corrupt human traditions. That’s what the ancient gnostics did and what their current followers do, and that is the path you are on. It’s frightening and chilling.
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So up till recently you attended a church where the leader[s] and other congregants despised you, showed no love, and repeatedly said you were “vile or wretched”? If so, it took you this long to figure out that that wasn’t Christianity? And now you reject all of Protestantism, as if all of it is like that? If that is the nature of the place you worshiped, it is not Christianity. It may have been doctrinally, but not in essence, because Christians must love as Jesus loved us.
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I worshiped in about ten different Protestant settings in my 13 years as an evangelical, and none of them were remotely like what you describe. I am extremely thankful for all that I learned in all of them. I use that knowledge every day in my work. Yet you seem to think you have to leave Protestantism or “Bible Christianity” or whatever you wish to call it, because of your horrible experiences?
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You’ve clearly been traumatized and it is affecting your thinking. When I debated you years ago I had every impression that you were a thoughtful, happy, informed Protestant. It’s hard for me to believe that all of that was worthless in your past.
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You say you are no longer Protestant. I will happily and zealously defend my Protestant brethren against this insinuation that all they are, are abusers. That’s just not reality. There are bad apples everywhere, but that’s just it; the bad apples are the exception, in Christian circles.
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What I call you now is a hurting, traumatized person. That’s what needs to be addressed. You need to identify exactly who did this to you (it’s not all Christians everywhere), heal, forgive them, and move on with your life. Radical skepticism and supposed “freedom” to believe whatever you want is not the solution. I tell you this out of love (and thank you for accepting my stated motivations).
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You have simply discovered the true God. What you describe as what you used to believe certainly wasn’t the God I know and love: the God of the Bible.
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I will stop now. Others who know you in person and much better than I do are in a far better place to dialogue and interact with what you are saying. I hope my books and other articles are helpful to you. God bless you with all good things. I’m always here if you want to “talk” with me.
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Summary: My response to a friend who believes that the OT God is evil & different from Jesus, & that hell is an unjust doctrine. I warned her of the likely dire consequences.

2024-02-13T14:43:47-04:00

Dr. Gavin Ortlund is a Reformed Baptist author, speaker, pastor, scholar, and apologist for the Christian faith. He has a Ph.D. from Fuller Theological Seminary in historical theology, and an M.Div from Covenant Theological Seminary. Gavin is the author of seven books as well as numerous academic and popular articles. For a list of publications, see his CV. He runs the very popular YouTube channel Truth Unites, which seeks to provide an “irenic” voice on theology, apologetics, and the Christian life. See also his website, Truth Unites and his blog.

In my opinion, he is currently the best and most influential popular-level Protestant apologist, who (especially) interacts with and offers thoughtful critiques of Catholic positions, from a refreshing ecumenical (not anti-Catholic), but nevertheless solidly Protestant perspective. That’s what I want to interact with, so I have done many replies to Gavin and will continue to do so. His words will be in blue. I use RSV for all Bible passages unless otherwise specified.

All of my replies to Gavin are collected in one place on my Calvinism & General Protestantism web page, near the top in the section, “Replies to Reformed Baptist Gavin Ortlund.”

This is my 19th reply to his material.

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This is a response to portions in Gavin’s video, “Response to George Farmer and Allie Beth Stuckey on Catholicism Vs. Protestantism” (5-8-23)

4:07 the whole appeal of Protestantism was a return and retrieval of practices of the early church.

4:18 I often recommend some of these classical treatments of Protestantism, like John Jewell and the Anglican tradition, Martin Chemnitz in the Lutheran tradition, Francis Turretin in the Reformed tradition. All of them are arguing from the church fathers. Here’s how [John] Calvin again put it in a 1539 dispute he had with a Catholic theologian [probably Cardinal Sadoleto]:

Our agreement with antiquity is far greater than yours, but all that we have attempted has been to renew the ancient form of the church that existed in the age of Chrysostom and Basil among the Greeks and of Cyprian, Ambrose, and Augustine among the Latins.

Pause the video and read that quote ten times. It’s an astonishing claim. What he’s saying is all Protestantism is, is a return to the third, fourth, fifth centuries.

That’s the “Protestant myth of Church history”  that I’ve refuted — with tons of facts — times without number. Protestantism says that its two “pillars” are sola Scriptura (“Scripture alone” as the final and infallible authority in Christianity) and sola fide (“faith alone” as the way of being saved and extrinsic, imputed justification).

Let’s look at the second thing first. Did Protestantism simply revive or retrieve what was believed and practiced in the early Church? No. I call as my witnesses, Protestant scholars Alister McGrath and Norman Geisler. I cite both from books where they defend Protestantism over Catholicism. They have no gripe against their own views and obviously can’t be accused of bias. So what do they say about this topic? First, the late great Norman Geisler:

For Augustine, justification included both the beginnings of one’s righteousness before God and its subsequent perfection — the event and the process. What later became the Reformation concept of ‘sanctification’ then is effectively subsumed under the aegis of justification. Although he believed that God initiated the salvation process, it is incorrect to say that Augustine held to the concept of ‘forensic’ justification. This understanding of justification is a later development of the Reformation . . .

Before Luther, the standard Augustinian position on justification stressed intrinsic justification. Intrinsic justification argues that the believer is made righteous by God’s grace, as compared to extrinsic justification, by which a sinner is forensically declared righteous (at best, a subterranean strain in pre-Reformation Christendom). With Luther the situation changed dramatically . . .

. . . one can be saved without believing that imputed righteousness (or forensic justification) is an essential part of the true gospel. Otherwise, few people were saved between the time of the apostle Paul and the Reformation, since scarcely anyone taught imputed righteousness (or forensic justification) during that period! . . . . . (Roman Catholics and Evangelicals: Agreements and Differences, with Ralph E. MacKenzie, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Book House, 1995, 502, 85, 222)

This spectacularly confirms that sola fide was a novelty and corruption (I don’t see how it can even be a “later development” as Geisler described it), and that infused, intrinsic justification was the ongoing tradition, and that of St. Augustine, supposedly the great forerunner of Luther’s “faith alone.” If there is any “development” of Augustine’s and the Church fathers’ well-nigh unanimous view, it is in Catholicism, since imputed justification was a late-arriving doctrinal novelty of the 16th century. The renowned Protestant scholar Alister McGrath makes virtually the same point:

Whereas Augustine taught that the sinner is made righteous in justification, Melanchthon taught that he is counted as righteous or pronounced to be righteous. For Augustine, ‘justifying righteousness’ is imparted; for Melanchthon, it is imputed in the sense of being declared or pronounced to be righteous. Melanchthon drew a sharp distinction between the event of being declared righteous and the process of being made righteous, designating the former ‘justification’ and the latter ‘sanctification’ or ‘regeneration.’ For Augustine, these were simply different aspects of the same thing . . .

The importance of this development lies in the fact that it marks a complete break with the teaching of the church up to that point. From the time of Augustine onwards, justification had always been understood to refer to both the event of being declared righteous and the process of being made righteous. . . .

The Council of Trent . . . reaffirmed the views of Augustine on the nature of justification . . . the concept of forensic justification actually represents a development in Luther’s thought . . . .

Trent maintained the medieval tradition, stretching back to Augustine, which saw justification as comprising both an event and a process . . . (Reformation Thought: An Introduction, 2nd edition, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Book House, 1993, 108-109, 115; my italics and bolding)

A “complete break” is simply not a consistent development of doctrine. Therefore, it can’t be said — i.e., if these men are to be believed — that sola fide brought back what was widely believed in the early period of Church history. It wasn’t taught then, and one need not merely take my word for it. Here we have two eminent Protestant scholars and apologists freely admitting that it wasn’t. They are simply recording the actual facts of the matter.

Thank you, Dr. Geisler and Dr. McGrath. You make my work as a Catholic apologist a  lot easier: especially my analysis of the actual historical development of soteriology. Quotations like these save me literally days and days of work. Gavin likes to cite Catholic scholars who disagree with Catholic magisterial teaching. Very well, then, by the same token, I cite Protestant scholars who disagree with certain widespread “Protestant myths” of Church history. Goose and gander . . .

5:48 Protestants just try to be honest about the messiness of history, but they said — and this is the common claim — that on the main issues of dispute, certainly on a greater number of issues the church fathers supported the Protestant position.

Again, I have concentrated on the two pillars of the so-called Protestant “Reformation” (sola Scriptura and sola fide): the very things that Protestants believe are particularly important and crucial, and where they think they are considerably more biblical and “patristic” than Catholics. Let’s switch over to sola Scriptura now. I’ve written more about it — including two books [one / two] — than about any other topic, in my 4,500+ articles and 55 books. And I’ve done more patristic research about it than any other topic.

If we examine the fathers that John Calvin mentioned above, and what they thought about the issue of the rule of faith (the relationship of Bible, tradition, and the Church), we see that they did not believe in sola Scriptura at all. I’ve written about all of them in this respect:

St. John Chrysostom (d. 407) vs. Sola Scriptura as the Rule of Faith [8-1-03]

Chrysostom & Irenaeus: Sola Scripturists? (vs. David T. King) [4-20-07]

Dialogue on St. John Chrysostom & Sola Scriptura (Includes a Discussion of the Proper Definition of Sola Scriptura) [2-23-21]

Highlight:

“So then, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye were taught, whether by word, or by Epistle of ours.” Hence it is manifest, that they did not deliver all things by Epistle, but many things also unwritten, and in like manner both the one and the other are worthy of credit. Therefore let us think the tradition of the Church also worthy of credit. It is a tradition, seek no farther. (On Second Thessalonians, Homily IV)

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Basil the Great (d. 379) vs. Sola Scriptura as the Rule of Faith [8-1-03]

David T. King and William Webster: Out-of-Context or Hyper-Selective Quotations from the Church Fathers on Christian Authority: Part II: St. Basil the Great [11-11-13]

Vs. James White #16: St. Basil Held to Sola Scriptura? [11-19-19]

Self-Interpreting Bible & Protestant Chaos (vs. Turretin): Including Documentation that St. Basil the Great — Contrary to Turretin’s Claim — Did Not Believe in Sola Scriptura [8-29-22]

Highlight:

[Y]ou should confess the faith put forth by our Fathers once assembled at Nicæa, that you should not omit any one of its propositions, but bear in mind that the three hundred and eighteen who met together without strife did not speak without the operation of the Holy Ghost, . . .  (Letter No. 114 to Cyriacus, at Tarsus; NPNF2-8)

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Lutheran Chemnitz: Errors Re Fathers & Sola Scriptura (including analysis of Jerome, Augustine, Origen, Epiphanius, Ambrose, Lactantius, Athanasius, and Cyprian) [8-31-07]

Cyprian (c. 210-258) vs. Sola Scriptura [12-23-21]

Highlights:

Peter, upon whom by the same Lord the Church had been built, . . . (Epistle 54: To Cornelius, 7)

After such things as these, moreover, they still dare — a false bishop having been appointed for them by, heretics— to set sail and to bear letters from schismatic and profane persons to the throne of Peter, and to the chief church whence priestly unity takes its source; and not to consider that these were the Romans whose faith was praised in the preaching of the apostle, to whom faithlessness could have no access. (Epistle 54: To Cornelius, 14)

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St. Ambrose (c. 340-397) vs. Sola Scriptura [12-18-21]

Highlight:

He said to Peter: I have prayed for you, that your faith fail not. Luke 22:32 To the same Apostle, again, when on a former occasion he said, You are the Christ, the Son of the living God, He made answer: You are Peter, and upon this Rock will I build My Church, and I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven. Matthew 16:18 Could He not, then, strengthen the faith of the man to whom, acting on His own authority, He gave the kingdom, whom He called the Rock, thereby declaring him to be the foundation of the Church? (Exposition of the Christian FaithBk. IV, chapter 5, section 57)

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St. Augustine (d. 430) vs. Sola Scriptura as the Rule of Faith [8-1-03]

Augustine & Sola Scriptura (vs. Gavin Ortlund) [4-28-22]

Augustine & Sola Scriptura, Pt. 2 (vs. Gavin Ortlund) [4-29-22]

Reply to a “Reformation Day” Lutheran Sermon [Vs. Nathan Rinne] (Including St. Augustine’s View on the Rule of Faith & the Perspicuity of Scripture; Luther & Lutherans’ Belief in Falling Away) [10-31-23]

Highlights:

The authority of our books, which is confirmed by the agreement of so many nations, supported by a succession of apostles, bishops, and councils, is against you. (Against Faustus the Manichee, XIII, 5; cf. XI, 5; XIII, 16; XXXIII, 9)

My opinion therefore is, that wherever it is possible, all those things should be abolished without hesitation, which neither have warrant in Holy Scripture, nor are found to have been appointed by councils of bishops, nor are confirmed by the practice of the universal Church, . . . (Epistle 55 [19, 35] to Januarius [400] )

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On my Fathers of the Church web page I have collected dozens of articles on the Church fathers’ rejection of sola Scriptura. See the section: “Bible / Tradition / Sola Scriptura / Perspicuity / Rule of Faith.” It’s easy to show that the Church fathers held an entirely “Catholic” view of the rule of faith. I cite three prominent Protestant Church historians, summing up the views of the Church fathers:

As regards the pre-Augustinian Church, there is in our time a striking convergence of scholarly opinion that Scripture and Tradition are for the early Church in no sense mutually exclusive: kerygma, Scripture and Tradition coincide entirely. The Church preaches the kerygma which is to be found in toto in written form in the canonical books.

The Tradition is not understood as an addition to the kerygma contained in Scripture but as the handing down of that same kerygma in living form: in other words everything is to be found in Scripture and at the same time everything is in the living Tradition.

It is in the living, visible Body of Christ, inspired and vivified by the operation of the Holy Spirit, that Scripture and Tradition coinhere . . . Both Scripture and Tradition issue from the same source: the Word of God, Revelation . . . Only within the Church can this kerygma be handed down undefiled . . . (Heiko Oberman, The Harvest of Medieval Theology, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, revised, 1967, 366-367)

It should be unnecessary to accumulate further evidence. Throughout the whole period Scripture and tradition ranked as complementary authorities, media different in form but coincident in content. To inquire which counted as superior or more ultimate is to pose the question in misleading terms. If Scripture was abundantly sufficient in principle, tradition was recognized as the surest clue to its interpretation, for in tradition the Church retained, as a legacy from the apostles which was embedded in all the organs of her institutional life, an unerring grasp of the real purport and meaning of the revelation to which Scripture and tradition alike bore witness. (J. N. D. Kelly, Early Christian Doctrines, San Francisco: Harper & Row, fifth revised edition, 1978, 47-48)

In the substance of its doctrine this apostolic tradition agrees with the holy scriptures, and though derived, as to its form, from the oral preaching of the apostles, is really, as to its contents, one and the same with those apostolic writings. In this view the apparent contradictions of the earlier fathers, in ascribing the highest authority to both scripture and tradition in matters of faith, resolve themselves. It is one and the same gospel which the apostles preached with their lips, and then laid down in their writings, and which the church faithfully hands down by word and writing from one generation to another. (Philip Schaff, History of the Christian Church, Vol. 2 [Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1966, from the fifth revised edition of 1910], Chapter XII, section 139, “Catholic Tradition,” p. 528)

I’ve done some research involving the Church fathers and faith / salvation / soteriological issues, too:
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Summary: Gavin Ortlund claimed that Protestants are closer to early Church teachings. I cite five Protestant scholars who show that the fathers rejected Bible Alone & Faith Alone.

2025-01-23T12:09:57-04:00

Chapter 6 of my book (available for free online), Inspired!: 198 Supposed Biblical Contradictions Resolved. See the Introduction and ch. 1: How Do Atheists Define a “Biblical Contradiction”? All Bible passages RSV unless otherwise noted.

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  1. How can God regret or change his mind about what he has done (Gen. 6:6-7; 1 Sam. 15:10-11, 35), if he is omniscient and knows all things?

What does it mean for God to say, “I regret”? Can God change his mind? Is God ignorant about the future? Is he just like us in that he makes honest mistakes and sometimes look back at his decisions and says, “I wish I could do that one over again”? It seems as if the Bible teaches that God makes mistakes. And yet, we know this is not the right way to understand God’s “regret” because of what we read from the prophet Samuel, in 1 Samuel 15:29: “the Glory of Israel will not lie or repent; for he is not a man, that he should repent” (cf. Num. 23:19). The Bible teaches that God cannot change (what is called in theology “immutability”): see Malachi 3:6 (“I the Lord do not change”); James 1:17 (“with whom there is no variation or shadow due to change”); and Hebrews 13:8 (“Jesus Christ is the same yesterday and today and for ever”). How do we reconcile and harmonize all of this? The figurative scriptural expression of the “repentance” of God is an alternate, graphic way of expressing God’s mercy or judgment. Jeremiah 18:7-10 (God speaking to and through the prophet Jeremiah) is very instructive in understanding this Hebrew poetic expression in reference to the nature of God:

If at any time I declare concerning a nation or a kingdom, that I will pluck up and break down and destroy it, and if that nation, concerning which I have spoken, turns from its evil, I will repent of the evil that I intended to do to it. And if at any time I declare concerning a nation or a kingdom that I will build and plant it, and if it does evil in my sight, not listening to my voice, then I will repent of the good which I had intended to do to it.

This is simply a poetic, partially non-literal way of expressing the same notion that occurs many times in the Old Testament: conditional blessings or curses / judgment, depending on whether a person or nation decides to obey God’s commands or not. Instead of saying, “if that nation turns from its evil, I will bless it” (literal), he expresses it in the converse or “negative” sense: “I will repent of the evil that I intended to do to it” (a non-literal, figurative statement in terms of the immutable God, but literal in its overall essence: the nation won’t be judged and will be blessed). Likewise, instead of saying, “if it does evil in my sight. I will judge and forsake it,” God says, “if it does evil in my sight . . . I will repent of the good which I had intended to do to it.” Elsewhere in Jeremiah, and many many times in the Old Testament (the “norm” so to speak), the same sentiment (“if . . . then” conditional prophecies or warnings) is expressed literally, which in turn provides the interpretation of the figurative passages expressing the same thing:

Jeremiah 7:5-7 For if you truly amend your ways and your doings, if you truly execute justice one with another, if you do not oppress the alien, the fatherless or the widow, or shed innocent blood in this place, and if you do not go after other gods to your own hurt, then I will let you dwell in this place, in the land that I gave of old to your fathers for ever. (expressed in the opposite fashion in 7:13-15)

Jeremiah 12:17 But if any nation will not listen, then I will utterly pluck it up and destroy it, says the Lord.

Jeremiah 15:19 . . . If you return, I will restore you, . . .

Jeremiah 17:27 But if you do not listen to me, to keep the sabbath day holy, and not to bear a burden and enter by the gates of Jerusalem on the sabbath day, then I will kindle a fire in its gates, and it shall devour the palaces of Jerusalem and shall not be quenched. (cf. 22:5; 26:4-6; 27:8)

Our conclusion, then, based on all of this data understood as a whole, is that God is indeed immutable. When he is described as seemingly changing his mind, it’s merely a figurative way of expressing literal truths (what is known in theology by the 50-cent words, anthropomorphism or anthropopathism), as explained by example above. In so doing, God “condescends” to human beings so that they will be able to understand him in their own terms, according to the limits of human knowledge. We change our minds all the time, so God acts as if he does so, when in fact he does not, so that we can relate to him. We have a very difficult time comprehending an omniscient and immutable Being, which is why God employed these methods in Holy Scripture.

  1. Can God do anything (Gen. 18:14; Jer. 32:27; Matt. 19:26; Luke 18:27; Rev. 19:6) or are there some things he can’t do, such as defeating iron chariots (Judg. 1:19)?

Judges 1:19 And the LORD was with Judah, and he took possession of the hill country, but he could not drive out the inhabitants of the plain, because they had chariots of iron.

Granted, it’s a bit hard to tell at first, but the one who couldn’t drive out the inhabitants due to iron chariots was Judah, not God. How can we be sure? We can by consulting good old context, as so often. The expressions “took possession” and “drove out” are the keys. In other verses in the same chapter they are always used in relation to people, not God: “Judah also took Gaza with its territory, . . .” (1:18); “the men of Judah fought against Jerusalem, and took it” (1:8); “And Othniel the son of Kenaz, Caleb’s younger brother, took it [Kiriathsepher: v. 12]” (1:13); “ But the people of Benjamin did not drive out the Jebusites . . .” (1:21); “Manasseh did not drive out the inhabitants of Bethshean . . .” (1:27); compare 1:29-33 (five times). It’s also clear from the progression, that Judah was being referred to:

Judges 1:18-19 Judah also took Gaza with its territory, [and two other cities] . . . And the Lord was with Judah, and he took possession of the hill country, . . .

It was the Lord being “with Judah” that enabled him to do these things. The progression of (paraphrasing) “Judah did x, and the Lord was with him, helping him to do x [the same thing]” is decisive in determining who was unable to win a military victory against iron chariots. As the Bible repeatedly teaches (even the atheist knows it), God is omnipotent (i.e., all-powerful or able to do anything that is possible to do).

  1. Did God harden Pharaoh’s heart (Exod. 4:21; 7:3; 10:1, 20, 27, etc.) or did Pharaoh harden his own heart (8:15, 19, 32; 9:7, 34-35)?

To express the notion that “God hardened Pharaoh’s heart” is a typically pungent Hebraism for God allowing something to happen in his Providence. It really all hinges on human free will. Human beings are given a choice by God: “If you forsake the Lord and serve foreign gods, then he will turn and do you harm, and consume you, after having done you good” (Josh. 24:20; cf. 1 Chron. 28:9; 2 Chron. 7:17-20; 15:2). In a sense, to say that “God did so-and-so” when he simply allowed it to take place, is an assertion of God’s overall Providence. God is asserting that he is in control. There is also a strong sarcastic element in this sort of biblical concept (that we see in Job and often in the prophets), as if God were saying, “okay; you don’t want to follow me and do what is best for you? You know better than do about that? Very well, then, I’ll let you become blind and deluded. See how well off you’ll be then.”

  1. How is it not unjust for God to “visit” the “iniquity of the fathers upon the children to the third and the fourth generation” (Exod. 20:5; cf. 34:7; Num. 14:18)?

This passage and its erroneous interpretation are old chestnuts of anti-Christian and anti-biblical polemics. But at least the confusion is understandable, because this is a somewhat complex concept to fully understand. Bible passages of this sort exaggerate God’s traits in a non-literal way in order to make him more understandable to us. We must recognize that the Bible also contains many passages (to be taken literally) referring to human beings being judged for their own sins, not that of another. 2 Kings 14:6 states that “The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, or the children be put to death for the fathers; but every man shall die for his own sin” (cf. Jer. 31:30). Ezekiel 18:20 concurs: “The son shall not suffer for the iniquity of the father, . . .  the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon himself.” And 1 Peter 1:17 proclaims that God “judges each one impartially according to his deeds.”

The context of two passages cited in the title suggests that punishment “to the third and fourth generations” applies only to children who deliberately choose to follow the sinful ways of their parents, and not in any absolute sense that would preclude individual pardon, as indicated by the phrases close by: “a God merciful and gracious, slow to anger, and abounding in steadfast love and faithfulness, keeping steadfast love for thousands, forgiving iniquity and transgression and sin” (Exod. 34:6-7) and “‘Pardon the iniquity of this people, I pray thee, according to the greatness of thy steadfast love, and according as thou hast forgiven this people, from Egypt even until now.’ Then the Lord said, ‘I have pardoned . . .’”  (Num. 14:19-20). Jeremiah shows in one passage that the two concepts are not mutually exclusive:

Jeremiah 32:17-19 Ah Lord God! . . .  who showest steadfast love to thousands, but dost requite the guilt of fathers to their children after them, O great and mighty God whose name is the Lord of hosts, great in counsel and mighty indeed; whose eyes are open to all the ways of men, rewarding every man according to his ways and according to the fruit of his doings;

Lastly, if we are to make much of God talking about punishment over three or four generations (setting aside how to interpret that, for a moment), then we ought to also notice two passages that strikingly highlight God’s extraordinary mercy down through generations:

Deuteronomy 7:9 . . . the faithful God who keeps covenant and steadfast love with those who love him and keep his commandments, to a thousand generations,

1 Chronicles 16:15 He is mindful of his covenant for ever, of the word that he commanded, for a thousand generations,

Thus the “good stuff” and the mercy are described as lasting for “a thousand generations,” and the “bad stuff” for only four (and even that is adequately explained as limited and non-problematic by the above considerations, in my opinion). That’s 250 times longer for the good things, compared to the bad. But in the final analysis, these are to be understood in their essence as Hebraic exaggerations and hyperbole. The literal biblical teaching in this regard is that, ultimately, every person is responsible and will be judged for his or her own sin, not someone else’s. If they don’t repent, they’ll be judged, and it won’t be God’s fault at all (or their ancestors’ fault), but rather, totally their own.

  1. “You shall love the LORD your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your might” (Deut. 6:5). This makes God seem like an insecure monarch; top-heavy with ego. How is it not colossal cosmic narcissism? What sense does it make for God to demand and command and get off on human adoration?

Nice melodramatic histrionics there (all of my examples come from actual atheists or other biblical skeptics). The Bible teaches that God is in need of nothing (Acts 17:25). That’s not the purpose of his commanding us to worship him. He’s all-sufficient and self-sufficient (what is called aseity in theology). I searched “demand worship” and “God demand(s)” in my online RSV Bible and they never appear. God does say in the Ten Commandments: “You shall have no other gods before me. . . . you shall not bow down to them or serve them” (Exod. 20:3, 5). It is the purpose and nature of such worship that atheists are not grasping. It’s for our good, not God’s. Why does God give his commands, which include monotheism and worship of him alone? That’s explained many times. We are to keep his commandments, including worship of him alone, so that “it may go well with” us (Deut. 4:40; 5:33; 6:18; 12:28 all repeat that phrase). God wants to bless his people:

Deuteronomy 28:1 And if you obey the voice of the Lord your God, being careful to do all his commandments which I command you this day, the Lord your God will set you high above all the nations of the earth.

All the blessings God will give to his followers are then listed in 28:2-14. It’s always the same, and this is the constant story of the Old Testament and the ancient Jews. God urges – virtually pleads with — them to follow his laws and commands, so that everything will be completely wonderful for them. Then they decide not to and to rebel against God and it goes terribly, just as God said it would. Then these same men (and atheists today who think like them) blame God rather than their own stupidity and stubbornness. But if we sum up what God wants, as expressed in the Bible, he “desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth” (1 Tim. 2:4). Atheists are simply projecting excessive, sinful sorts of human emotions onto God, as if he is some sort of high maintenance drama queen who needs constant attention. Atheists love this theme because they can caricature God and make him look like a mad maniac. But it’s certainly not what the Bible or Christianity teach. It’s a myth from the atheist fictional imagination. God knows that we are most happy and fulfilled living as he intended it to be: in as close of a union with him as possible. Likewise, parents know that their children will be happier if they accept both their love and correction. If they reject both, they will likely have problems in their lives. God also praises human beings (Rom. 2:29; 1 Cor. 4:5) and shares his glory with us (Isa. 60:1-2, 4; John 17:22; Rom. 2:10; 5:2; 9:23; 2 Cor. 3:18; 2 Thess. 2:14; 1 Pet. 4:14; 5:1, 4; 2 Pet. 1:3-4). The Christian outlook is: “We love, because he first loved us” (1 John 4:19). Because we are “grateful” for all God has done, and is, we “offer to God acceptable worship, with reverence and awe” (Heb. 12:28).

We’re saying that God is inherently infinitely greater than we are. He created the universe. He gave us life. He loves us and blesses us in so many ways. So we praise him and worship him for who he is. Another analogy would be how we act towards those we are in love with. If we look at any love poems we find rapturous praise, lavish, over-the-top compliments, placing this loved one at the very center of our existence and the meaningfulness of our life and indeed our happiness and fulfillment. So we praise and compliment in the most extravagant ways. Yet when it comes to God, atheists can’t comprehend that we praise and worship him because of what we believe his loving, all-benevolent nature is; because he created us and fulfills us when we serve him, and due to all the wonderful things he has done or made possible for us to do, and because he “is love.” But if atheists redefine what God is like (the arbitrary, capricious, vicious tyrant of the atheist imagination), then yes, I can see why they couldn’t comprehend worship of a Being like that. The question then becomes: “what is God really like?” Since the answers are polar opposites, we act differently towards this God. We Christians love and worship him for all he is and has done, and they mock him and pretend that he doesn’t exist (all the while being irrationally furious about all the supposed negative characteristics of what they think is an imaginary myth). Go figure . . .

  1. Who Caused Job to Suffer — God (Job 42:11) or Satan (2:7)?

This is a very clear and straightforward example of God permitting a thing (God’s permissive will, as opposed to his perfect will), while the Bible says that he did it; see also Job 2:3: “. . . you moved me against him, to destroy him without cause.”  It’s the Hebraic expression of God’s Providence. If we want to discover the literal truth of what was going on at a far deeper spiritual level, the beginning of the book explains it, in its narrative. God permitted Satan to afflict Job:

Job 1:12 And the LORD said to Satan, “Behold, all that he has is in your power; only upon himself do not put forth your hand.”

Job 2:6 And the LORD said to Satan, “Behold, he is in your power; only spare his life.”

Again: sometimes the Bible states that “God did x,” but what it really means at a deeper level is that “God did not will x, but rather, permitted it in his omniscient providence, for a deeper purpose.” An analogous example is God being described as killing King Saul (1 Chron. 10:13-14), when in fact Saul committed suicide (1 Sam. 31:4). In neither case is a contradiction present, once these factors about Hebrew idiom are understood.

  1. How could Jesus say that he was meek and lowly (Matt. 11:29), but then make whips and drive the moneychangers out of the temple (Matt. 21:12; Mark 11:15-16; John 2:15)?

Jesus was meek and lowly and humble. It doesn’t follow, however, that he could never express righteous indignation. The most “meek and mild” father will become a roaring lion if someone tries to kidnap his son or daughter. And this is entirely proper. Likewise, if a judge gives a life sentence to a proven-guilty murderer, we don’t say that the judge failed to be personally “meek and mild.” He was doing his duty and protecting society. Likewise, Jesus (who was God) was disgusted that money-grubbing merchants had turned the temple into “a den of robbers” (Matt. 21:13). It was a time for righteous indignation and God’s wrath, and Jesus acted accordingly. I’ve done further study on exactly what scholars think these moneychangers were doing. It would scandalize anyone who has a caring, compassionate concern for the poor being treated fairly and not being taken advantage of for monetary gain: and in a holy place at that.

  1. Matthew, Mark and Luke all contain passages in which Jesus argues that the Messiah need not to be a son of David (Matt. 22:41-46; Mark 12:35-37; Luke 20:41-44; all quoting Psalm 110:1). This contradicts many Old Testament passages indicating that the Messiah will be a descendant of David, as well as Peter, who asserts the same (Acts 2:30-36).

The Messiah (Jesus) was indeed the Son of David, which is why he accepted this title for himself, and never rebuked or denied it (Matt. 9:27; 15:22; 20:30-31; 21:9; Mark 10:47-48; Luke 18:38-39), and why Peter repeated this truth. The falsehood involved here is thinking that the three passages first listed contradict this understanding. They do not, because they record a certain kind of socratic rhetoric that Jesus frequently used; not intended as a denial at all. Rather, Jesus is pressing the Pharisees to recognize the teaching in Psalm 110:1 that the Messiah is Lord and the Son of God (in His Divine Nature) as well as David’s (in his human nature). He said to them: “How is it then that David, inspired by the Spirit, calls him Lord, saying, ‘The Lord said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand, till I put thy enemies under thy feet’? If David thus calls him Lord, how is he his son?” (Matt. 22:43-45). English Baptist pastor John Gill wrote on this passage in his Exposition on the Entire Bible in 1763:

Had they understood and owned the proper divinity of the Messiah, they might have answered, that as he was God, he was David’s Lord, his maker, and his king; and, as man, was David’s son, and so both his root and offspring [cf. Rev. 22:16]; and this our Lord meant to bring them to a confession of, or put them to confusion and silence, which was the consequence.

Again, Jesus was not denying that the Messiah (himself) was a son of David; he was asserting that he was also (and most importantly) the Son of God. Hence, when the high priest asked him, “Are you the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?” . . . Jesus said, “I am; . . .” (Mark 14:61-62). Once all of this scriptural data is taken together and understood, the challenge demolishes, since it is based on a demonstrably and dramatically false premise.

  1. Why does the Bible teach that Jesus (Mark 4:11-12) and God the Father (2 Thess. 2:11-12) are sometimes responsible for unbelief (Mark 4:11-12), but also claim that the devil causes it (Luke 8:12)?

God never causes unbelief. Note (regarding one of these passages in context) that it was human rebellion that brought it about: “those who are to perish, because they refused to love the truth and so be saved” (2 Thess. 2:10). Mark 4:11-12 is an instance of sarcasm: very common in the Bible. Jesus was telling parables at first, because he knew they would be understood by those who want to understand (“for those outside everything is in parables; so that they may indeed see but not perceive, and may indeed hear but not understand; lest they should turn again, and be forgiven.”) and not understood by those who don’t (hence the sarcasm). It was a matter of the will and being open (Matt. 7:7-8). Jesus always wants any and all of us to believe (Matt. 23:37) and to be saved (Luke 19:10; John 12:47). So does God the Father (1 Tim. 2:3-4; 2 Pet. 3:9). Yes, the devil – not God! — will cause unbelief and try to tempt us and get us to fall, but only if we let him. The late great comic Flip Wilson had an ongoing joke based on that: “the devil made me do it.” People laughed at that. Why? Well, it’s because we instinctively know that that mentality is a cop-out: that the devil can only “make” us do what we choose to do by our free will. Ultimately, we are responsible for our actions. We stand before God in the end to give account for ourselves, and “the devil made me do it” won’t cut it when the game is up at that time.

  1. How can Christians believe that Jesus was sinless, in light of Mark 10:18 and Luke 18:19?

Mark 10:18 reads: “And Jesus said to him, ‘Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone.’” (Lk 18:19 is almost identical). This was merely a rhetorical retort by Jesus: employing socratic method, as he often did. It has no implication that he himself was sinful. Besides, here he’s saying that God is uniquely good (knowing that this person didn’t think or believe that he was God), while massively asserting many other times that he himself is God: and this includes many instances in the Synoptic Gospels, too. Jesus states in John 8:46: “Which of you convicts me of sin?” In Hebrews 4:15 he is described as “without sin.” Being called the “Lamb of God” (Jn 1:29, 36; cf. 1 Cor. 5:7; “the Lamb” many times in Revelation) is also an assertion that he is without blemish (sin: 1 Pet. 1:19).

  1. What would Paul have said about whether the Holy Spirit was part of the Godhead? Did it even cross his mind [Acts 28:25-27]?

Paul cites an Old Testament prophecy (Isaiah 6:8-10) in Acts 28:25-27, but with one important language difference. The Old Testament passage says that “I heard the voice of the Lord saying . . .” (Isa. 6:8). But when Paul cites it, he introduces it as follows: “The Holy Spirit was right in saying to your fathers through Isaiah the prophet” (Acts 28:25). This is a direct (logical) unarguable equation of the Holy Spirit with God. He makes the same equation in the following passages:

1 Corinthians 3:16-17 Do you not know that you are God’s temple and that God’s Spirit dwells in you?  If any one destroys God’s temple, God will destroy him. For God’s temple is holy, and that temple you are. (cf. 6:19; 2 Cor. 6:16)

1 Corinthians 12:4-6, 11 Now there are varieties of gifts, but the same Spirit; and there are varieties of service, but the same Lord;  and there are varieties of working, but it is the same God who inspires them all in every one. . . . All these are inspired by one and the same Spirit, who apportions to each one individually as he wills.

2 Corinthians 3:17-18 Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom.  And we all, with unveiled face, beholding the glory of the Lord, are being changed into his likeness from one degree of glory to another; for this comes from the Lord who is the Spirit.

  1. 2 Thessalonians 2:11 states that “God sends upon them a strong delusion, to make them believe what is false.” Does this mean that we have no free will and are subject to the arbitrary whims of God?

The statement has to be understood and interpreted in context. This action of God comes only after human beings have decided in their free will to reject God. Hence, the verse before refers to “those who are to perish, because they refused to love the truth and so be saved.” And the verse after reiterates: “so that all may be condemned who did not believe the truth but had pleasure in unrighteousness.” God merely pronounces judgment upon people who made up their own mind which way to go: with God and his moral laws, or against both. In Romans 1, the same dynamic is present: “God gave them up in the lusts of their hearts to impurity” (Rom. 1:24), and he “gave them up” to “dishonorable passions” (1:26) and “a base mind and to improper conduct” (1:28). But did God predetermine or predestine all that? No. Human beings chose to reject his truth, as the chapter (context, again!) repeatedly affirms, by referring to “men who by their wickedness suppress the truth” (1:18),  and those who “became futile in their thinking,” whose “senseless minds were darkened” (1:21), who “exchanged the truth about God for a lie and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator” (1:25), and who “did not see fit to acknowledge God” (1:28). Their rebellion is aptly summed up in Romans 1:32: “Though they know God’s decree that those who do such things deserve to die, they not only do them but approve those who practice them.” To blame God for pronouncing judgment on such rebels and ingrates, who had every chance to repent and receive god’s free offer of grace and salvation, is like blaming a human judge for sentencing a serial killer to life in prison. Whose fault brought about that result? 

  1. Is there is one God (1 Tim. 2:5; James 2:19) or three (1 John 5:7)?

Indeed, there is one God. The “traditional” 1 John 5:7 is a verse that isn’t in the earliest manuscripts, so those who place a high priority on accurate manuscripts say that it’s simply not part of the biblical canon (therefore, not inspired). But let’s accept the view that it is in the Bible for the sake of argument. The King James version of the disputed verse reads: “For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.” This doesn’t state that there are three gods. The chapter refers to the one “God” over and over; not to “gods.” 5:7 affirms that there are three [implied, Persons] and that “these three are one” [implied, God]. The Holy Trinity is the belief that the one God subsists in three Divine Persons (trinitarian monotheism), not that there are three gods (tri-theism).

  1. Is God “love” (1 John 4:8, 16) and “forbearing . . . not wishing that any should perish” (2 Pet. 3:9) or does he “respect no one” (Deut. 10:17; 2 Chron. 19:7; Acts 10:34; Rom. 2:11; Gal. 2:6; Eph. 6:9; Col. 3:25; 1 Pet. 1:17)?

The long list supposed utter lack of respect for persons came (as with all my examples of objections to the Bible) from an atheist source. Most of them are based on a rather elementary and inexcusable idiom with a completely different meaning: the notion of “not being a respecter of persons.” This doesn’t mean, “don’t respect anyone”; rather, it means, as most English dictionaries will confirm, “treat all people in the same way.” This particular atheist “laundry list” of  falsely alleged “contradictions” utilizes the KJV, from 1611. The English language has evolved a great deal in 400 years. KJV states (Deut. 10:17) that God “regardeth not persons.” The atheist skeptic takes this, literally, to mean that he has no regard for anyone, but of course, it’s idiomatic expression, meaning “not being a respecter of persons.” But even granting that archaic language can understandably be misunderstood, there is still no excuse for ignoring context. The context of this passage in the KJV proves that, far from regarding no one, God loves: “the Lord had a delight in thy fathers to love them” (10:15); “He doth execute the judgment of the fatherless and widow, and loveth the stranger, in giving him food and raiment” (10:18). RSV at Deuteronomy 10:17 provides a literal rendering: God “is not partial.” “No respect of persons” in the meaning clarified above (idiomatic for “impartial”) is the correct interpretation for all the other verses listed, too, save for the different expression in Galatians 2:6, which in KJV partially reads: “God accepteth no man’s person.” Again, RSV changes the outdated idiom to “God shows no partiality” (cf. ESV), in line with many other modern translations: “God does not show favoritism” (NIV); “God shows no favoritism” (NASB); “God shows personal favoritism to no man” (NKJV), etc. Context (the same chapter) again proves that it’s outrageously unjust and unfair to characterize God as God as having no respect for anyone (in the bad sense), since it refers to (still in KJV): “the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me” (2:20). The love of God for us is beautifully expressed in chapter 4:

Galatians 4:3-7 (KJV) Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage under the elements of the world: But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, to redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons. And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father. Wherefore thou art no more a servant, but a son; and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ.

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Summary: Ch. 6 of Dave Armstrong’s book, “Inspired!”: in which he examines 198 examples of alleged biblical contradictions & disproves all of these patently false claims.

2025-01-23T12:08:36-04:00

Chapter 5 of my book (available for free online), Inspired!: 198 Supposed Biblical Contradictions Resolved. See the Introduction and ch. 1: How Do Atheists Define a “Biblical Contradiction”? All Bible passages RSV unless otherwise noted.

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  1. Did Jesus (Matt. 3:16; Mark 1:10) or John the Baptist (John 1:32) see the Holy Spirit descending like a dove at his baptism?

They both saw the same thing. So what? If my wife and I both see a meteor lighting up the night sky, that’s somehow a “contradiction”?! Remember, that’s what all of these are supposed to be, according to our never-ending critics. A real contradiction would be, for example, Matthew and Mark saying that only Jesus saw this, and John stating that only John the Baptist did.

  1. Did Satan tempt Jesus (Matt. 4:1-10; Mark 1:13; Luke 4:1-2) or have no interest in him at all (John 14:30)?

This is ridiculous. Jesus merely notes in John that the devil had “no power over” him. This has nothing to do with whether Satan would try to tempt him or not. He would and did because he is stupid, and doesn’t know that he’s completely out of his league, in trying to manipulate Jesus. Any being who is present with God in heaven and chooses to rebel and leave “for better things” has to be absolutely the dumbest and most clueless and tragic creature imaginable.

  1. Did the devil take Jesus to the pinnacle, then to the mountain top (Matt. 4:5-8) or the other way around (Luke 4:5-9)?

Matthew doesn’t specify sequence. He writes: “Again [as opposed to “later” or “afterwards”], the devil took him to a very high mountain . . .” (4:8). Nor does Luke indicate sequence. He says, “And he took him to Jerusalem, and set him on the pinnacle of the temple . . . ” (4:9). Therefore, a contradiction of sequence cannot occur, since sequence isn’t specified in the first place. Accounts mentioning multiple events in a single setting don’t always indicate the order in which they occurred (nor are they obliged to). For example, if I say, “I went to Burger King and I also went to the grocery store,” this is not necessarily a declaration of exact sequence. But if I specified an exact time for each visit and mixed them up in two different recollections, that would be an actual logical contradiction.

  1. Did Jesus teach that good works should be seen (Matt. 5:16) or not seen (Matt. 6:1-4)?

Matthew 5:16 lays out the principle that good works are good in and of themselves and are a witness to Christianity; therefore, it’s good that they are seen, so that people can “give glory to your Father who is in heaven.” Matthew 6:1-4, on the other hand, refers to a more specific, internal thing: the mentality of pridefulness and doing works not simply because it is the right thing to do, but “in order to be seen” (6:1); in other words, an outlook of “look how wonderful I am, since I am doing all this good stuff. Come and praise me!” In the first scenario, the intention is to glorify God; in the second, it is one’s own inflated ego and pride. In Matthew 6:2 Jesus gives the example of people sounding trumpets when they give alms “that they may be praised by men.” That’s what he’s talking about in that instance: pride when doing good works; being sure to be noticed and seen, out of a prideful motivation; not that good works should never be seen at all. It’s two different topics, and so according to the laws of logic, it’s no contradiction.

  1. How can Jesus command us to love our enemies (Matt. 5:44), yet approve of destroying enemies (Luke 19:27)?

Luke 19:27 is a parable about the final judgment (which is God’s sole prerogative). As such it has nothing directly to do with how we should approach enemies in this life, with a loving and forgiving spirit. We’re not anyone else’s Creator or Ultimate Judge.

  1. Was the Lord’s Prayer taught to many during the Sermon on the Mount (Matt. 6:9), or only to the disciples at another time (Luke 11:1)?

It looks like Jesus simply repeated the prayer (no law against that!): seeing what importance it would have in the history of the Church, as the collective Christian prayer: the most well-known of all. Repetition is a great teacher. In Luke, he taught it to his disciples in a shorter version. Luke 11:1-4 never states that he did so only with them at this time. That is wrongly read into the passage by the skeptic who came up with this. Then Jesus expanded the Our Father prayer and taught it to the “crowds” (Matt. 5:1; 7:28) in the Sermon on the Mount. None of this is implausible or unlikely to the slightest degree, and it certainly isn’t a “contradiction.”

  1. Are we to not worry at all about tomorrow, because God will take care of us (Matt. 6:25-34; Luke 12:22-31), or is a man who does not provide for his family worse than an infidel (1 Tim. 5:8)?

Matthew 6:25-34 (Luke is a parallel passage) is about anxiety, and how God provides our basic needs, and it’s very good, practical advice: especially “Let the day’s own trouble be sufficient for the day” (Matt. 6:34). In other words: “we’ll cross that bridge when we come to it” or “one day at a time.” We can’t worry about all the “what ifs”. That will drive us crazy. It’s not a denial that we should be responsible in providing a living for ourselves and our families. “Don’t worry” is not the same thought as “don’t provide” or “don’t work and be a lazy bum.” Therefore, it’s one of innumerable cases of “apples and oranges”: as so many of these are. They have nothing to do with each other. It has to be the same subject matter to possibly be a contradiction. The first two passages simply don’t disagree with the third, and Paul is quite firm about the wrongness of sloth and able-bodied people not working (2 Thess. 3:6-12).

  1. Why did Jesus say that salvation was only for the Jews (Matt. 10:5-6; 15:24; John 4:22; Rom. 11:26-27), while Paul wrote that it was also for the Gentiles (Acts 13:47-48)?

Jesus and the disciples first concentrated on the Jews, because they were God’s chosen people, who had carried the message of his salvation for the previous 1700 or so years: since at least Abraham (and they were all Jews as well). Then the plan was for the gospel to be preached to all and sundry (Matt. 24:14; 28:19; Acts 10:34-35; Rom. 2:9-16; 2 Pet. 3:9). But instructions to preach to the Jews only in one place and time (Matt. 10:5-6) are not logically antithetical to a later outreach to the Gentiles. And Jesus saying that he was “sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel” (Matt. 15:24) doesn’t preclude or exclude his disciples later doing otherwise. Jesus in John 4:22 says, “salvation is from the Jews”: which has nothing to do with the topic at hand. Historically, it was indeed from the Jews, as God’s chosen people. But that’s a non sequitur in relation to this attempted claim of contradiction. Moreover, Romans 11:26 states that “all Israel will be saved.” The problem for our skeptic is that this is not to the exclusion of the Gentiles, since the previous verse stated, “until the full number of the Gentiles come in” (i.e., are saved). This entire miserably failed attempt is shot-through with shoddy, sloppy, illogical thinking, as shown.

  1. Why was Jesus thankful that some things are hidden (Matt. 11:25; Mark 4:11-12) in light of his saying that all things should be made known (Mark 4:22)?

In Matthew 11:25 Jesus states: “I thank thee, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that thou hast hidden these things from the wise and understanding and revealed them to babes.” Mark 4:11-12 is about Jesus’ use of parables. He deliberately used them, knowing that those who don’t want to know the truth won’t grasp them. Then he sarcastically decried the notion of their freely chosen obstinacy: “that they may indeed see but not perceive, and may indeed hear but not understand; lest they should turn again, and be forgiven” (Mark 4:12). In Mark 4:22, on the other hand, Jesus teaches that the state of affairs just described will not be permanent; that one day “there is nothing hid, except to be made manifest; nor is anything secret, except to come to light.” Thus, a temporary, limited “hiddenness” simply isn’t contrary to the idea that things won’t always be this way.

  1. Did Jesus heal two blind men (Matt. 20:29-30) or only one (Mark 10:46-52)?

I tend to believe in an instance like this that there were two similar traditions in existence about one event (just as eyewitnesses in a court trial will differ on some details): one of them had one blind man and the other had two. But as far as contradictoriness goes, what we know about this incident doesn’t establish it, according to the laws of logic.  Mark 10:46 and also parallel verse Luke 18:35 do indeed state that one blind man was healed.  But neither claim that “only one” was (which would be required for a contradiction). “One” doesn’t logically exclude a possible second man. “Only one” does. Elementary logical errors of this sort are annoyingly common in “atheist laundry lists” of alleged contradictions. If atheists want to keep making these silly and embarrassing mistakes, apologists like myself will be all too happy to correct them. But it would be better for all if they would attempt to be rigorously logical and not so sloppy in their analyses. I’m actually offering constructive advice for their future critiques throughout this book.

  1. Did Jesus go to Bethphage and the Mount of Olives, then to Bethany (Matt. 21:1, 17), or to Bethphage and Bethany at the Mount of Olives (Mark 11:1; Luke 19:29), or to Bethany and then Jerusalem (John 12:1, 12)?

Bethany and Bethphage are both located on the eastern slope of the Mount of Olives. They are only 2.8 miles from each other. In Matthew, it’s reported that Jesus came through Bethphage, then down the western slope of the Mount of Olives to Jerusalem. That night (Palm Sunday), he went back up the mountain to lodge in Bethany. Mark adds that he also went through Bethany on his way to Jerusalem (which is not a contradiction), and agrees that he stayed in Bethany overnight (11:11-12). So far so good. Luke agrees with how Mark describes the journey: Jesus went through both Bethany and Bethphage on the Mount of Olives, but doesn’t include the detail of his staying in Bethany that night. None of this is contradictory in the slightest. Not every Gospel includes every detail of a story (or is logically required to). John’s account mentions that Jesus went through Bethany en route to Jerusalem on Palm Sunday, without also mentioning Bethphage, or the night spent in Bethany after he was in Jerusalem. But of course, this is not contradictory, either. All of the accounts complement each other. A true contradiction would be something like, “Jesus went only through Bethphage on the way to Jerusalem on Palm Sunday” according to one account, and another Gospel saying “Jesus went only through Bethany on the way to Jerusalem on Palm Sunday”. That‘s a contradiction, but nothing like that is in the four Gospel stories of the same broad events. So, no dice. Sorry, skeptics! You try so hard . . . A for effort, E for your conclusion.

  1. Why did Jesus curse the fig tree so that it wouldn’t bear fruit (Matt. 21:19; Mark 11:14), when it wasn’t time to bear fruit (Mark 11:13)?

To note that it wasn’t the season for figs (Mark 11:13) is different from Jesus saying, “May no fruit ever come from you again!” (Matt. 21:19) and “May no one ever eat fruit from you again” (Mark 11:14); therefore, this is no contradiction. This objection is what is known in logic as a non sequitur (Literally, “it doesn’t follow”).

  1. Did the fig tree wither immediately, amazing the disciples (Matt. 21:19-20), or did they first notice that it was withered the next day Mark 11:20-21)?

The objection itself doesn’t accurately describe what these passages assert. Mark doesn’t indicate when the fig tree withered, but informs us that the disciples saw it withered on the next day. Matthew, on the other hand, notes that it withered immediately, but doesn’t specify exactly when the disciples saw it. It provides no reference to time span. Therefore, we have no indisputable logical contradiction in this instance. It would be an example of “apples and oranges” (or should I say, “apples and figs”?).

  1. Was the kingdom of God prepared from the beginning (Matt. 25:34), or was it prepared by Jesus after he died (John 14:2-3)?

It was “from the beginning” in the sense that God knew all about it and ordained it: being out of time and knowing all things. To “prepare something” when it is about to be implemented is not the same thing as having known about the thing for a long time beforehand. So, for example, one of my two granddaughters is having her first birthday party tomorrow. Her parents are busy preparing for it. They have known that there would be such a party (for whatever children they had) from the time even before she was born (and we knew it, too). It’s not “contradictory” to prepare for it when the time arrives. Another example would be King Charles III of England. He has known from birth that he would likely be king, and hence was “prepared” for that from the early 1950s. But now as I write he’s actually preparing for it more specifically and tangibly in his upcoming coronation.

  1. Will the righteous have eternal life (Matt. 25:46) or are they barely saved (1 Pet. 4:18)?

I see no conflict here at all (apples and oranges). The proposed “contradiction” isn’t even coherent. It makes no sense, and reeks of desperation. The ones who persevere in good works (as a general proposition) will have eternal life, according to the context of Matthew 25. At the same time, salvation is difficult to attain (another general proposition).

  1. Did Peter deny Jesus before the cock crowed once (Matt. 26:34, 74; Luke 22:34; John 13:38) or twice (Mark 14:30, 72)?

Note that Mark’s second crow is after a first one, with a gap of time. This is key to understanding the non-contradiction. RSV doesn’t indicate when the first crow occurred, but KJV, utilizing a different (later, inferior) manuscript, has it after the first denial (14:68). Then after his third denial, the Gospel of Mark reads “And immediately the cock crowed a second time” (14:72). This alleviates any supposed difficulty, because it’s not a matter of “one crow only” vs. “two crows in a row at one time” (after the third denial). Rather, we must note what each Gospel was specifically referring to. Matthew, Luke, and John all refer to what Mark states is the second crow: that occurred after Peter’s third denial. But none of the three states that this particular crow is the “only” one. Therefore, it’s not contradictory. Nor does it become one simply because three Gospels didn’t mention an additional earlier crow made after the first denial (argument from silence).

  1. How do we harmonize texts asserting that Peter’s second denial was to another maid (Matt. 26:71-72), the same maid (Mark 14:69-70), to a man (Luke 22:58), and to more than one person (John 18:25), and that his third denial was to several bystanders (Matt. 26:73-74; Mark 14:69-70), to one person (Luke 22:59-60) and to a servant (John 18:26-27)?

Matthew specifies “another maid” (26:71), and “bystanders” (26:73). In the latter instance, a direct quote is given, so it is likely from just one of them, as they would not — obviously — all say in unison exactly the same words. In Mark it is “the maid . . . began again to say” (14:69), and “the bystanders” (14:70), again with a direct quote for the latter, suggesting that only one person said it. The only possible difference with Matthew is whether it was the same maid or a second one in the second instance. “Again” may have the meaning of “in addition to the first maid.” Luke says it was “some one else” (22:58), and “still another” (22:59). That’s perfectly consistent with both Mark and Luke, provided my explanation for the “second maid” in Mark is accepted. John has “They” (with an exact quotation: 18:25), which can be an unspecified second maid (per Matthew and Mark), and “One of the servants of the high priest, a kinsman of the man whose ear Peter had cut off” (18:26). This is a specified person, which is consistent with a “bystander” (Matthew and Mark) and “still another” (Luke). No undeniable inconsistency exists across the four accounts. Some descriptions are merely more vague. If I’m called by four different people, “a man”, “a Catholic apologist”, “Dave”, and “a guy raised in Detroit” this is not contradictory at all, as all four descriptions are true statements. The one point that might be suspected to be a contradiction (Mk 14:69) has a perfectly plausible explanation.

  1. Did Jesus refuse to answer any of the charges against him (Matt. 27:12-14; Luke 23:9), some of them (Mark 14:61-62), or all of them (John 18:33-37)?

In Matthew 27:11, right before the passage above, Jesus answered Pilate’s question: “Are you the King of the Jews?” by saying, “You have said so”: which was another way of saying “yes”. Matthew 27 dealt with Jesus’ second appearance before the high priest, scribes, and elders: on the morning of the day of his crucifixion. The previous meeting / monkey trial was the night before, and he definitely answered the question of the high priest (Matt. 26:63-64). But in the second meeting, he didn’t answer them (27:12). Why bother? They had already concluded He was a blasphemer, worthy of death, the night before. There was nothing left to talk about, from Jesus’ perspective. Jesus had already said what he needed to say, to bear witness to himself. In Luke 23:9, we learn that Jesus didn’t answer Herod. Mark 14:61-62 records Jesus giving essentially the same answer to the high priest that Matthew records in 26:64. Thus far, no contradiction at all.  John 18 is about Jesus’ replies to Pontius Pilate. He responded with a rhetorical question regarding being King of the Jews, and then two “straight answers” about the same thing, which are perfectly harmonious with Matthew 27:11. Where, then, is the contradiction?

  1. Did the chief priests and elders persuade the people to ask for the release of Barabbas (Matt. 27:20), or only the chief priests (Mark 15:11), or did the chief priests and the people persuade themselves (Luke 23:13-23)?

Mark doesn’t claim that “only the chief priests” persuaded the people. Thus the above characterization is a misrepresentation of the biblical text. Mark wrote that “the chief priests stirred up the crowd”. Yes they did; so did the elders. The lack of an exclusive term like “only” in Mark accounts for the difference between a contradiction and two complementary statements. This is an example of the latter. Reading the three stories side-by-side, we see that the priests and elders seek to persuade the people to release Barabbas. Mark mentions only one (so what?: it’s an argument from silence). After that, (in Luke) Pilate calls them and the common people together to find out who they want released. It’s all perfectly harmonious. Logic 0101.

  1. Were James and John with Jesus when he healed Peter’s mother-in-law (Mark 1:29-31) or not (Luke 4:38-39; 5:10-11)?

Mark mentions that James and John were present, and so they were. Luke doesn’t mention that tidbit, but also doesn’t deny it. He doesn’t write something like, “Jesus alone entered . . .”: which would be an actual, authentic contradiction. Hence, this is another always-lousy argument from silence, and in no way, shape, or form proven to be a logical contradiction.

  1. The scribes who put together the Gospel of Mark included two versions of the same story of Jesus miraculously feeding crowds of people (Mark 6:32-44 and 8:1-10). This is more proof that Mark wasn’t an eyewitness.

This is untrue, and easily shown to be so. The two events took place in two entirely different locations, as the text states. The feeding of the 5,000 was near Bethsaida, which was on the north side of the Sea of Galilee (Mark 6:45; cf. Luke 9:10-17). The feeding of the 4,000, however, was a completely different story that occurred in a different place, in “the region of the Decapolis” (Mark 7:31), which was east of the Sea of Galilee, and included the town of Hippos. There is evidence that the place where the feeding of the 4,000 occurred was near the archaeological site of Kursi. Immediately after the miracle, according to Matthew 15:39, the parallel verse, Jesus “got into the boat and went to the region of Magadan” (another name for Magdala, where Mary Magdalene was from). That would have been directly across the Sea of Galilee. In any event, it’s clearly two entirely different places being described in the stories of the two feedings. They are perfectly harmonious and non-contradictory (just as my eating breakfast at home and lunch at a restaurant is not a “contradiction”).

  1. How did Mark know what Jesus said in his private prayer in Mark 14:32-36? Jesus specifically goes out of his way to leave the disciples behind, taking only James, John and Peter with him.

Jesus could have simply communicated what he was praying to Peter, who passed it on to Mark. One long conversation in one evening by Jesus would contain far more words, by far, than all of his words recorded in Scripture. And he was constantly with the disciples for three years, day and night. Mark 6:34 notes in one instance, even with the crowds, not just the disciples: “he began to teach them many things.” None of them are recorded. Mark 4:34 adds: “privately to his own disciples he explained everything.” Some of this “everything” could have easily been what Jesus prayed. All Jesus had to do was tell Peter, “last night I prayed [so-and-so]” (maybe in response to the ever-zealous Peter asking him) just as we see instances where he revealed what he prayed in Scripture: “I have prayed for you that your faith may not fail” (Luke 22:32; spoken to Peter). Then Peter could tell Mark about one of these prayers, or it could have entered oral tradition and eventually reached Mark. It’s not rocket science to envision such a scenario, and absolutely not impossible. Much ado about nothing . . .

  1. Did Peter make his first denial only to a maid (Mark 14:66-68; Luke 22:55-57; John18:17-18) or to a maid and some others (Matt. 26:69-70)?

Matthew has him answering the maid, while others nearby also hear. We would expect this, since it was within a group of people, including “bystanders” (Matt. 26:73; Mark 14:70) and “servants and officers” (John 18:18). He wasn’t responding to them, but to the maid. If I was talking to my wife (say about some car repairs) and one or more of my four children (or now, grandchildren) are also listening, no one would say that I was replying — or talking to — to all of them, when I was responding only to my wife. Nor if I were riding a bus with a friend and rather vehemently stated, “I’m not a Democrat!” others will also hear, but nevertheless, it’s silly to think that I was replying to them. That’s how foolish and desperate this so-called “contradiction” is. But in fact, Mark, Luke, and John also make it apparent that others heard, too (while they weren’t being replied to). They all mention that Peter was by a fire warming himself, with others, when he replied to the first maid. Obviously, then, the others around the fire would also have heard his reply. Matthew is the only one that didn’t mention the fire. But none of this is a contradiction in the slightest. Much ado about nothing.

  1. Did Jesus begin his ministry before (Jn 3:22-24) or after (Mark 1:13-14) John the Baptist’s arrest?

John writes, “Jesus and his disciples went into the land of Judea” (3:22) and specifies that “John had not yet been put in prison” (3:24). Mark simply doesn’t state that he began his ministry in his first chapter. He says, rather, “after John was arrested, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the gospel of God” (1:14). The emphasis was on location. This claim is a bare assumption made about what simply isn’t in the text: an argument from silence. Apples and oranges; no “contradiction.”

  1. Were the people very impressed with the feeding of the multitude (John 6:14) or not impressed (Mark 6:52)?

It’s not “the people” referred to in Mark, but rather, the disciples (see 6:45, 51-52). They “did not understand” the miracle of loaves and fish because “their hearts were hardened” (Mark 6:52). But John 6:14 refers to the crowds (“the people”) being impressed and believing that Jesus was a “prophet.” Therefore, because it’s two different sets of people being referred to in these two passages, no contradiction exists.

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Photo Credit: soundlessname (9-16-23) [Deviant Art / Creative Commons Attribution-Noncommercial-Share Alike 3.0 License]

Summary: Ch. 5 of Dave Armstrong’s book, “Inspired!”: in which he examines 198 examples of alleged biblical contradictions & disproves all of these patently false claims.

2025-01-23T12:07:10-04:00

Chapter 4 of my book (available for free online), Inspired!: 198 Supposed Biblical Contradictions Resolved. See the Introduction and ch. 1: How Do Atheists Define a “Biblical Contradiction”? All Bible passages RSV unless otherwise noted.

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  1. Genesis 1:1: “In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth” doesn’t assert that God created everything out of nothing (ex nihilo).

I submit that it is quite reasonable and straightforward to interpret this verse as describing creation of everything out of nothing. In any event, many passages in the Bible plainly assert creatio ex nihilo. Whenever it states that God made “all things” (Isa. 44:24; John 1:3; Rom. 11:36; 1 Cor. 8:6; Eph. 3:9; Col. 1:16; Rev. 4:11), that is everything out of nothing, since no “thing” came into existence without God. It follows that he created everything, (“without him was not anything made that was made”: John 1:3), and that this must be (logically) creation of all things out of nothing at all: creation from literally “no thing.” The Bible also proclaims that “By the word of the Lord [i.e., not by existing matter] the heavens were made” (Ps. 33:6). All of this is also (almost needless to say) perfectly consistent with the Big Bang theory: currently the consensus model among scientists, with regard to the origin of the universe.

  1. The water” in Genesis 1:2 wasn’t created by God, but was material that he worked with to create.

Verse 2 cannot be taken in isolation apart from verse 1. It’s false to argue that this water wasn’t made by God because the Bible teaches that God made all things out of nothing (which would include the water on the early “formless” earth). Nothing in that notion precludes further “developmental” or evolutionary creation. At first the earth that he created from nothing as part of the universe was “without form and void”. Then God began to work with the initial chaotic form to make the earth as we know it. There is no logical necessity at all to interpret this as “water existed eternally” (a notion currently scientifically impossible to prove, based on what we know about matter as non-eternal) and God “created” from it. It’s ludicrous. Water was part of his creation of everything. Peter accurately sums all of this up: “by the word of God heavens existed long ago, and an earth formed out of water and by means of water” (2 Pet. 3:5). God made the initial formless earth that included water. Then he proceeded to further develop the earth as we know it.  

  1. What did all the carnivores eat on Noah’s ark for an entire year (Gen. 7:11; 8:14-16)?

How have sailors — for millennia –, survived out at sea for months? They had salted pork and beef (which could last up to two years), stored in barrels. Also, dried food goes back to 12,000 B.C. Dried fish, such as cod, has a storage life of several years. That gives us at least two methods of preserving meat or fish, known to the ancients, that would easily sustain carnivores, just as dog and cat food (dried meat) do the trick today. Cats in particular must have meat, and they do quite well with dry cat food. Smoking or curing meat also goes back to ancient times. A favorite ration of the Egyptian army was smoked goose. Pickling was a fourth way of preserving meat, which is of ancient pedigree. For those who say in reply that the preserved foods above would not be sufficient for some, many, or all carnivores, there are several other options that would provide fresh meat. More animals could have been brought on the ark for the sole purpose of being slaughtered and fed to the carnivores.  The biblical text doesn’t preclude that possibility. Fish could have been caught, or offspring slaughtered for food, or parents slaughtered after giving birth. Animals that breed at a very high rate (like rabbits or mice) could have been kept and bred. All of these things are clear and unarguable available options. The “difficulty” in this instance is how and why atheists who devise all these “Bible difficulties” couldn’t conceive of all these perfectly plausible options?

  1. The implication of the story of the paralytic that Jesus healed (Mark 2:2-12) is that physical affliction is a consequence of sin, and that, once sin is forgiven, the body can be repaired. The notion that suffering is one of the ways that God punishes us has seeped into Christian thinking.

Jesus simply said to the man, “My son, your sins are forgiven” (Mark 2:5b). He never said that his sins had caused his paralysis. In fact, the immediate context explains why he said that: because he “saw their faith” (2:5a; cf. Matt. 9:2; Luke 5:20). In other words, saying he was forgiven was due to Jesus’ knowledge and observation that he and his friends were faithful: which state brings about forgiveness (which has nothing to do with his or their physical condition). This ties into other similar sayings of Jesus when he healed. He is recorded in the Gospels saying no less than six times: “your faith has made you well” (Matt. 9:22; Mark 5:34; 10:52; Luke 8:48; 17:19; 18:42). As to sin being a reason for why this man was sick, or for anyone’s sickness, Jesus roundly refutes this notion elsewhere. Once, he was asked if a man’s sin or his parents’ sin caused his blindness. He replied: “It was not that this man sinned, or his parents, . . .” (John 9:3). In another instance, he denied that “these Galileans were worse sinners than all the other Galileans, because they suffered” (Luke 13:2). After asking a rhetorical question, he answered it with “No” (13:3). Then Jesus gave an example of “eighteen upon whom the tower in Siloam fell and killed them” (Luke 13:4). Again, he asked a rhetorical question and answered it in the negative: “do you think that they were worse offenders than all the others who dwelt in Jerusalem? I tell you, No; . . .” (13:4-5). In other words, physical affliction is not everywhere and always a result of sin. That’s not Jesus’ teaching, and it’s not biblical teaching. The book of Job had already resolved that matter long since. God describes Job: “there is none like him on the earth, a blameless and upright man, who fears God and turns away from evil” (Job 1:8; cf. 2:3). Yet the entire book is about his extreme sufferings.

  1. Mark 8:10 refers to the “the district of Dalmanutha.” As far as is known, there was no such place in Galilee.

Commentators freely admit that there is little known about this place-name from Mark, but that’s not proof that such a town never existed. Many biblical places or items previously mysterious have been illuminated by scores of archaeological findings. Matthew 15:39, the parallel verse, gives us our only biblical geographical clue: “he got into the boat and went to the region of Magadan.” That provides at least something to work with and from. Magadan is an alternate name for Magdala: where Mary Magdalene was from. This town is known to have been located on the western shore of the Sea of Galilee: between biblical Capernaum and Tiberias. It so happens that archaeologists (as reported in September 2013) have indeed found an ancient town that fits the bill, and might be Dalmanutha: since it was about 500 feet from Magdala. If Matthew can be trusted, and Dalmanutha was in “the region of Magadan” then this could very well be Dalmanutha. Mark (like Matthew) reports that Jesus departed a town after feeding the 4,000 and “getting into the boat again he departed to the other side” [of the Sea of Galilee] (Mark 8:13). There is evidence that the place where this feeding occurred was near the archaeological site of Kursi, on the eastern shore of the Sea of Galilee. If so, it is almost directly across from Magdala and what may be Dalmanutha.

  1. It’s believed that Jesus’ crucifixion took place in Nisan, and Mark 11:8 asserts that others spread leafy branches”: referring to the events that Christians now celebrate as Palm Sunday, but how can this be, since there are no leafy branches in March (Nisan) in Jerusalem?

The Mount of Olives was where Jesus was (Matt. 21:1; Mark 11:1) before His entry into Jerusalem (Matt. 21:10; Mark 11:11; John 12:12), and of course it has a lot of olive trees. At the base of it is also the Garden of Gethsemane: with many old olive trees, and they have leaves in March or April, as “evergreen” tropical trees. Since Mark didn’t specify which tree he was referring to, one can reasonably opine that it is the olive tree, since everything matches up perfectly. Nehemiah 8:15 is similar: “. . . “Go out to the hills and bring branches of olive, wild olive, myrtle, palm, and other leafy trees to make booths, . . .” The word for “branches” in both KJV and RSV for Matthew 21:8 is klados. In Jeremiah 11:16 in the Greek Septuagint it’s used for “branches” of an “olive tree.” Zechariah 4:12 has “branches” of “olive trees.” In Romans 11:16-19, 21 (five usages) it refers again to an olive tree (see 11:17, 24). Both Matthew and Mark could be referring to olive leaves or possibly mustard leaves. Olive trees, however, were a lot more common in Israel (mentioned in the Hebrew Bible 46 times), whereas mustard trees receive zero mentions in the Hebrew Bible and only five references in the New Testament.

John 12:13 specifically mentions “branches of palm trees” in connection with the first “Palm Sunday.” Date palms grew in Jericho, which is 3,280 feet lower in elevation than Jerusalem, and only 25 miles east. Jericho is called the “city of palms” in Deuteronomy 34:3 and 2 Chronicles 28:13. They can survive all the way down to 20 degrees Fahrenheit, and the leaves are ten to twenty feet long (the average is about 13 feet) and do not shed. Date palms easily survive in Jericho all year-round, based on temperature data and averages. The mean minimum never dips below 43 degrees Fahrenheit in January or February or below 47 in December, while the mean maximum temperatures for those months are 53-58 degrees. The most likely scenario is that the crowds hailing Jesus had both olive leaves and palm tree “branches” or leaves. The texts do not contradict each other. Luke doesn’t mention the people having leaves, but it’s not required that he do so to avoid a “contradiction.” He doesn’t deny it.

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Practical Matters: Perhaps some of my 4,500+ free online articles (the most comprehensive “one-stop” Catholic apologetics site) or fifty-five books have helped you (by God’s grace) to decide to become Catholic or to return to the Church, or better understand some doctrines and why we believe them.
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Summary: Ch. 4 of Dave Armstrong’s book, “Inspired!”: in which he examines 198 examples of alleged biblical contradictions & disproves all of these patently false claims.

 

2025-01-23T11:49:55-04:00

Photo Credit: Direction Paradox Contradiction, by CDD20 (12-3-21) [Pixabay / Pixabay Content License]

[completed on 3 June 2023; 146+ pages; all biblical citations from RSV; available for FREE via linked installments on this page]

 

Table of Contents 

Introduction [read below]

Chapter One: How Do Atheists Define a “Biblical Contradiction”? [read online]

Chapter Two: Critics’ Misunderstanding of Biblical Idiom, Language, Theology, or Culture (#1-35) [read online]

Chapter Three: Alleged Factual and Historical Discrepancies (#36-89) [read online]

Chapter Four: Supposed Contradictions and Errors with Regard to Science (#90-95) [read online]

Chapter Five: Manufactured “Contradictions” Based on Ignorance of Logic (#96-120) [read online]

Chapter Six: God’s Revealed Nature and Character (#121-134) [read online]

Chapter Seven: Allegedly Contradictory Accounts of the Infancy of Jesus (#135-138) [read online]

Chapter Eight: Supposedly Clashing Reports of Jesus’ Passion and Crucifixion (#139-158) [read online]

Chapter Nine: Claimed Inconsistencies in the Stories of Jesus’ Burial and Resurrection (#159-191) [read online]

Chapter Ten: Reputed Biblical Moral Difficulties & Internal Confusion (#192-198) [read online]

Appendix: Anthropomorphism and Anthropopathism [read online]

Introduction 

Atheists, particularly of the “anti-theist” variety: those who specialize in a constant criticism of Christianity, Christians, and the Bible, are very fond of asserting ad nauseam that the Bible is chock-full of alleged “contradictions.” This, of course, is a disproof, as they see it, of Christian claims that the Bible is God’s inspired revelation, and/or infallible and inerrant. If it’s full of such errors, then clearly (I agree) it couldn’t and wouldn’t be inspired revelation. And then Christians would have a huge problem, since our faith is based on this Bible.

Christian apologists like myself, as a result of these polemical and aggressive, even relentless attacks, have a duty to respond and to disprove a great number of the accusations of alleged massive self-contradiction. This duty flows not only from intellectual principle and the courage of one’s convictions, but also from the responsibility to those within the Christian community who may be stumbled or even lose their faith as a result of these attacks. And we need to be assured and confident that our faith and our Bible are harmonious with reason, including logic.

I have taken up this challenge, and my solutions or resolutions in this book came about and were stimulated as a result of direct challenges from atheists: either personally to me or expressed in articles that I have (I think) refuted. The material found herein is entirely of that nature: based on becoming familiar with a charge made by an atheist and then responding to it with a rebuttal.

There are no “hypothetical” atheist objections in this book. What is here was actually expressed by an atheist or other sort of biblical skeptic. Readers will see for themselves, how such critics reason, and (here’s the good news) how invariably weak – very often, downright foolish and sillytheir reasoning is, again and again and again.

I respond in part because Christians, generally speaking (but especially Christian teachers, apologists, catechists, priests, pastors, theologians, etc.), are commanded to defend the faith and by extension, the Bible when they are attacked:

1 Peter 3:15 . . . Always be prepared to make a defense to any one who calls you to account for the hope that is in you, yet do it with gentleness and reverence;

Jude 3 . . . contend for the faith which was once for all delivered to the saints.

And I enter into a controversy like this with a robust faith in the power of Holy Scripture to bear witness to itself:

Hebrews 4:12 For the word of God is living and active, sharper than any two-edged sword, piercing to the division of soul and spirit, of joints and marrow, and discerning the thoughts and intentions of the heart.

That makes my job much easier. If indeed a set of books is inspired revelation, and therefore, powerful and moving, due to the fact that they are ultimately the product of not only an omniscient but an all-loving God, then in a sense this collection of canonical books, the Bible, can in effect fully defend itself. It is what it is. The work I am doing, though assuredly necessary, is merely laying out the internal consistency and coherence in the Bible that has always been there, as an inherent aspect of its majesty.

In other words, what I present is nothing new. People simply had to become aware of it. It’s a matter of “revealing the hidden treasures.” When a thing is true, it’s easy to defend, and I have found that to universally be the case in the course of this work (not to deny that some aspects of biblical defense involve more complexity and labor and probing than others). Truth possesses intrinsic power in a way that falsehood never can.

My book, The Word Set in Stone: How Science, History, and Archaeology Prove Biblical Truth (Catholic Answers Press, 2023) was devoted to external objective, scientific and historiographical verification of biblical accuracy and trustworthiness. This one is sort of a companion-piece or parallel work in relation to that volume, and it examines the internal objective logical verification of the Bible.

Is Holy Scripture able to “pass” both of these tests? I think it does so with flying colors! And I have provided readers with 198 separate arguments and abundant intellectual justification and warrant for believing this to be the case.

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Or you may believe my work is worthy to support for the purpose of apologetics and evangelism in general. If so, please seriously consider a much-needed financial contribution. I’m always in need of more funds: especially monthly support. “The laborer is worthy of his wages” (1 Tim 5:18, NKJV). 1 December 2021 was my 20th anniversary as a full-time Catholic apologist, and February 2022 marked the 25th anniversary of my blog.
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PayPal donations are the easiest: just send to my email address: [email protected]. Here’s also a second page to get to PayPal. You’ll see the term “Catholic Used Book Service”, which is my old side-business. To learn about the different methods of contributing (including Zelle and 100% tax-deductible donations if desired), see my page: About Catholic Apologist Dave Armstrong / Donation InformationThanks a million from the bottom of my heart!

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Photo CreditDirection Paradox Contradiction, by CDD20 (12-3-21) [Pixabay / Pixabay Content License]

Summary: Book by Dave Armstrong (6-3-23), in which he examines 198 examples of alleged biblical contradictions and demonstrates that they actually aren’t that at all.

Last updated on 23 January 2025

2022-04-11T11:26:20-04:00

I will be resolving all of the alleged “contradictions” from the web page entitled “194 CONTRADICTIONS, New Testament.” It’s perpetually striking to observe how many of these are obviously not logical contradictions, and how very easy they are to refute (many being patently and evidently absurd). A few here and there do seem to be genuinely perplexing (at first glance) and require at least some thought and study and serious examination (they save my patience). But all are ultimately able to be (in my humble opinion) decisively resolved. Readers can decide whether I succeed in my task or not, in any given case. My biblical citations are from RSV. The words from the web page above will be in blue.

See further installments:

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#1-25) [4-5-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#26-50) [4-6-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#51-75) [4-7-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#76-100) [4-8-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#101-125) [4-8-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#126-150) [4-9-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#151-175) [4-11-22]

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176) Paul teaches not to steal. Eph.4:28.
Paul admits to stealing. 2 Cor.11:8.

Commentaries on the second passage:

The intensity of St. Paul’s feelings, smarting under base calumny and ingratitude, reveals itself by the passionate expression which he here uses. . . . It is meant rather ironically than literally. (Pulpit Commentary)

Paul thus strongly expresses the fact that he had accepted from other churches more than their share, that he might not draw on the Corinthians. (Vincent’s Word Studies)

In other words, he was being sarcastic and non-literal. Of course, Paul wouldn’t rob anyone. Again, our skeptic is eager to disgustingly besmirch Paul and anyone else in the all-important effort to attack the Bible. He has failed miserably in his task.

177) Paul was assured that he would not be hurt. Acts 18:9,10.
Paul was often physically abused. 2 Cor.11:23-27.

The Acts passage is about how Paul wouldn’t be harmed in Corinth only. God told him: “no man shall attack you to harm you; for I have many people in this city” (18:9). Is our skeptic unable to properly understand English sentences? This is a ridiculously clueless supposed “contradiction”: beyond and below the usual rock-bottom quality of this collection.

178) Paul states that the law is necessary. Rom.3:31.
Paul states that the law is not necessary. Rom.6:14.

I dealt with these general questions of the law in #41 and #151-154. No need to repeat myself.

179) Jesus said to go and baptize. Mt.28:19.
Paul said he was not sent to baptize. 1 Cor.1:17.

Division of labor. Paul’s specialty was evangelism and dealing with hard-nosed unbelievers. He could assign others to baptize new converts. It’s not difficult to do. No biggie and no contradiction.

180) Paul said he was not sent to baptize but to preach. 1 Cor.1:17.
Paul baptized. 1 Cor.1:16.

Patience, patience; almost done! This is the flip side of #179. As Paul indicated in 1 Corinthians 1:16, he baptized one household, as an exception to his rule, and couldn’t remember baptizing anyone else.

181) Jesus said that he did not come to abolish the law. Mt.5:17-19.
Paul said otherwise. Eph.2:15.

More questions about the law. See #41 and #151-154.

182) Jesus said that God did not condemn the world. Jn. 3:17.
Paul said that God did condemn the world. Rom.5:18.

Jesus did not talk in John 3:17. It was John or whoever wrote the Gospel bearing his name. Nor did he make this blanket statement. Rather, He said something more specific: “For God sent the Son into the world, not to condemn the world, but that the world might be saved through him.” It was specifically about why He sent Jesus.

Paul sort of says this in Romans 5:18, but the leading thought is that the fall of man and our rebellion was our fault, not God’s, just as a convicted murderer’s wicked act is his fault, not that of the judge who sentences him.

In light of all this, no contradiction can be drawn from the above passages.

183) Those present at Paul’s conversion stood. Acts 9:7.
They fell to the ground. Acts 26:14.

Why couldn’t it be both things in sequence?: they initially fell to the ground, and then got up and stood there speechless. Perfectly possible . . . See also my reply to #184 below.

184) Those present at Paul’s conversion heard a voice but saw nothing. Acts 9:7.
Those present at Paul’s conversion saw a light but heard nothing. Acts 22:9.

Acts 9:3-7 Now as he journeyed he approached Damascus, and suddenly a light from heaven flashed about him. [4] And he fell to the ground and heard a voice saying to him, “Saul, Saul, why do you persecute me?” [5] And he said, “Who are you, Lord?” And he said, “I am Jesus, whom you are persecuting; [6] but rise and enter the city, and you will be told what you are to do.” [7] The men who were traveling with him stood speechless, hearing the voice but seeing no one.

Acts 22:6-9 “As I made my journey and drew near to Damascus, about noon a great light from heaven suddenly shone about me. [7] And I fell to the ground and heard a voice saying to me, ‘Saul, Saul, why do you persecute me?’ [8] And I answered, ‘Who are you, Lord?’ And he said to me, ‘I am Jesus of Nazareth whom you are persecuting.’ [9] Now those who were with me saw the light but did not hear the voice of the one who was speaking to me.”

Acts 26:14 And when we had all fallen to the ground, I heard a voice saying to me in the Hebrew language, `Saul, Saul, why do you persecute me? It hurts you to kick against the goads.’

The Catholic Encyclopedia (“Acts of the Apostles”) disposed of this objection way back in 1907:

It is urged that the three accounts of the conversion of St. Paul . . . do not agree. . . . There are many solutions of this difficulty. . . . Pape and others give to the eistekeisan the sense of an emphatic einai, and thus it could be rendered: “The men that journeyed with him became speechless”, thus agreeing with 26:14. Moreover, the three accounts can be placed in agreement by supposing that the several accounts contemplate the event at different moments of its course. All saw a great light; all heard a sound from Heaven. They fell on their faces in fear; and then, arising, stood still and speechless, while Paul conversed with Jesus, whose articulate voice he alone heard. In Acts 9:7, the marginal reading of the Revised Edition of Oxford should be accepted: “hearing the sound”. The Greek is akoyontes tes phones. When the writer speaks of the articulate voice of Christ, which Paul alone heard, he employs the phrase outer phrase, ekousan phonen. Thus the same term, phone, by a different grammatical construction, may signify the inarticulate sound of the voice which all heard and the articulate voice which Paul alone heard.

185) Shortly after his conversion, Paul went to Damascus where he spent some time with the apostles. Acts 9:19.
Paul went to Damascus three years later and saw only Peter and James. Gal.1:18,19.

186) Shortly after his conversion, Paul went to Damascus and then to Jerusalem. Acts 9:18-26.
Shortly after his conversion, Paul went to Arabia, then to Damascus, and then, 3 years later, to Jerusalem. Gal.1:17,18.

This is clearly another instance of compression, or telescoping. Luke employs it in Acts 9, which is his narrative of Paul’s conversion and his meeting the apostles: just as he did in his Gospel, chapter 24, and Paul does not in Galatians 1. But in Acts 22:17, Paul himself uses the same technique of compression, during his trial.

He recounts his conversion, then (desiring to condense the story for whatever reason) skips right over the three years in Arabia at Acts 22:17 and starts talking about being in Jerusalem and the initial skepticism that he had converted, after persecuting Christians. Paul does it one place and not in another (which is perfectly fine). This is how ancient literature works. And no doubt there are analogous examples in our time as well. Steve Diseb explains the literary technique of compression:

Do this: Think about telling a story to a friend about something that happened to you that would take at least 5 minutes to tell. Now, imagine telling the same story if you only had 10 seconds. What details would you take out? How would you tell the story differently?

This idea helps us to understand what’s called telescoping (or compression) and why we see some variations in the same events written about by different Gospel writers. Simply, telescoping/compressing means telling a shortened version of an event with selective information.

Sometimes the Gospel writers (and other ancient writers) varied story length, shortening or lengthening the same episode like a telescope. Some of the writers give a fully extended version of the story, while other writers shortened their version, compressing it like a telescope. When compressing, the author may take “shortcuts” in telling the story by omitting information. (“The Joy & Angst of Four Gospels – Part 6 – Narrative Creativity: Telescoping & Compressing”, God From the Machine, 3-17-15)

187) In Damascus, the governor attempts to seize Paul. 2 Cor.11:32.
In Damascus, the Jews attempt to seize Paul. Acts 9:22,23.

Both did, in cahoots:

(1) . . . Damascus was under the immediate control, not of the Governor of Syria, but of a governor or an ethnarch; (2) . . . the ethnarch was appointed, not by the Roman emperor, but by Aretas (the name was hereditary, and was the Greek form of the Arabic Haret), the King of the Nabathæan Arabs, who had his capital at Petra, who was the father of the first wife of Herod Antipas . . .; (3) . . . the ethnarch lent himself to the enmity of the Jews, and stationed troops at each gate of the city to prevent St. Paul’s escape. (Ellicott’s Commentary for English Readers)

188) The holy spirit forbids preaching in Asia. Acts 16:6.
Paul preaches in Asia anyway. Acts 19:8-10.

Norman Geisler answers this:

Paul was only forbidden immediately. God had a more strategic route for the Gospel through Europe first (Acts 16:9). Eventually, however, the Gospel got to Asia and to every place through Paul’s converts in Europe (cf. 1 Thes. 1:7) and by Paul himself (Acts 19:10, 22, 26; 20:4, 16, 18; 1 Cor. 16:19). So, the prohibition was only temporary, not permanent. (“Acts 16:16 — Why Did the Holy Spirit Forbid Paul to Preach in Asia . . .?”, Defending Inerrancy, 2014, from a 1992 book)

189) Paul said he would not be a servant of Christ if he tried to please men. Gal.1:10.
Paul said that he tried to please men. 1 Cor.10:33.

It denotes what takes place on the apostle’s side through his endeavour, namely, to be the servant of all, and to be all things to all men (1 Corinthians 9:19 ff.); not the result of his endeavour, as if he actually did please all (see on Galatians 1:10); . . . (Meyer’s NT Commentary)

Paul’s universal compliance is qualified by its purposeἵνα σωθῶσιν, in the light of which the verbal contradiction with Galatians 1:10, 1 Thessalonians 2:4, is removed; there is nothing in his power that P. will not do for any man, to help his salvation (cf. 1 Corinthians 9:22 b). (Expositor’s Greek Testament)

190) Paul says that he was the chief of all sinners. 1 Tim.1:15.
He who commits sin is of the devil. Children of God cannot sin. 1 Jn.3:8-10.

Rehash of #155 in the previous installment. I John habitually uses proverbial language, meaning that that it utilizes statements of general truths that nevertheless sometimes admit of exceptions. I explained this about 1 John in greater detail in my reply to #29 in my second installment.

191) Paul said that Jesus is the judge. 2 Tim.4:1.
Paul said that God is the judge. Heb.12:23.
Paul said that the saints would judge. 1 Cor.6:2.

Rehash of #166 from the previous installment.

192) Paul said that Jesus was the Son of God. Rom.1:3,4.
Paul said that Jesus was just a man. Heb.7:24.

Rehash of #171 from the previous installment. I guess that’s why this list is near its end: if the writer can only repeat himself.,

193) Do not boast. Lk.18:14.
Do not be proud. Rom.11:20; 1 Pet. 5:5.
Paul proudly boasts. 2 Cor.11:16-18; Gal.2:9-11.

So-called “super-apostles” had found their way to Corinth. These parasitic charlatans had followed in the wake of the Lord’s servant and were siphoning off glory from God and discrediting Paul in order to inflate the appearance of their self-importance.

If it had only been about his reputation, Paul wouldn’t have wasted his ink. But these men were not only maligning Paul, they were distorting the gospel. They were maligning Paul in order to distort the gospel. The situation demanded that Paul call these imposters out and contrast their doctrine, character and labors with his own. But it was tortuous for him: “I am talking like a madman” (2 Corinthians 11:23).

Reluctantly Paul cataloged revelations he had received, suffering he had endured for the gospel and the church, and how he had never financially benefitted from the Corinthians. (“Paul: I Am Content with Weakness”, Jon Bloom, Desiring God, 8-1-10)

We recognize in the English language that boasting, like pride can have different meanings. We’re “proud” of our children; we “boast” about our wife becoming a manager of a business, etc. That’s how Greek is, too. Paul was being semi-sarcastic, but with a very serious point underneath, as always.

194) Jesus commends the church at Ephesus for discerning the lying apostles. Rev. 2:1,2.
Paul was the apostle to Ephesus. Eph.1:1.

Paul was a genuine apostle. Many call themselves by that title, but are false apostles. That’s all the refutation this ultra-silly “objection” requires. 0 for 194 . . . E for effort, and an E- for content.

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It so happens that there is another complete answering of this same list, from the Unam Sanctam Catholicam web page [part one / part two / part three]. I found out about it early on but decided not to draw any of my answers from it. This means we have two comprehensive replies from orthodox Catholics. I totally agree with that series’ conclusion as to what is required to refute these charges: “some knowledge of Christian theology, an unbiased application of linguistics, and pure common sense.”

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Summary: A Bible skeptic has come up with 194 alleged biblical “contradictions” (usually recycled from old lists). I am systematically going through the list and refuting each one.

2022-04-11T11:31:28-04:00

I will be resolving all of the alleged “contradictions” from the web page entitled “194 CONTRADICTIONS, New Testament.” It’s perpetually striking to observe how many of these are obviously not logical contradictions, and how very easy they are to refute (many being patently and evidently absurd). A few here and there do seem to be genuinely perplexing (at first glance) and require at least some thought and study and serious examination (they save my patience). But all are ultimately able to be (in my humble opinion) decisively resolved. Readers can decide whether I succeed in my task or not, in any given case. My biblical citations are from RSV. The words from the web page above will be in blue.

See further installments:

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#1-25) [4-5-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#26-50) [4-6-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#51-75) [4-7-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#76-100) [4-8-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#101-125) [4-8-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#126-150) [4-9-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#176-194) [4-11-22]

*****

151) All who have sinned without the law will perish without the law. Rom.2:12.
Where there is no law there is no sin or transgression. Rom.4:15.

Taking the second first, Barnes’ Notes on the Bible stated:

This is a general principle; a maxim of common justice and of common sense. Law is a rule of conduct. If no such rule is given and known, there can be no crime. Law expresses what may be done, and what may not be done. If there is no command to pursue a certain course, no injunction to forbid certain conduct, actions will be innocent. The connection in which this declaration is made here, seems to imply that as the Jews had a multitude of clear laws, and as the Gentiles had the laws of nature, there could be no hope of escape from the charge of their violation.

Romans 2:12 is addressing something different: our consciences and consciousness of right and wrong regardless of whether laws exist or not. It has to be understood in the context of the next four verses:

Romans 2:13-16 For it is not the hearers of the law who are righteous before God, but the doers of the law who will be justified. [14] When Gentiles who have not the law do by nature what the law requires, they are a law to themselves, even though they do not have the law. [15] They show that what the law requires is written on their hearts, while their conscience also bears witness and their conflicting thoughts accuse or perhaps excuse them [16] on that day when, according to my gospel, God judges the secrets of men by Christ Jesus.

Since it is two distinct, separate concepts addressed in the two passages, they aren’t contradictory. Paul’s teaching is completely self-consistent. His teaching — especially regarding the relationship of law and grace –, is extremely complex and subtle and sophisticated. It takes years to properly understand. With the persistent manifest ignorance of even the simplest principles of biblical theology (not to mention the laws of logic) that the skeptic has exhibited again and again, there is little or no chance that he or she could grasp the fine points of Paul’s theology:

1 Corinthians 2:14 The unspiritual man does not receive the gifts of the Spirit of God, for they are folly to him, and he is not able to understand them because they are spiritually discerned.

But I have provided a broad reply regarding these two passages, for the sake of others more open-minded and familiar with New Testament soteriology, and to overcome yet another bogus pseudo-“contradiction.”

152) Doers of the law will be justified. Rom.2:13.
Doers of the law will not be justified. Rom.3:20; Gal.3:11.

Romans 2:13 is talking about good works in a general sense, which are certainly necessary for salvation in the overall equation (being the proof of authentic faith), though always ultimately enabled by God’s grace.  Romans 3:20 and Galatians 3:11 (see the context of 3:10) are both talking about “works of the law”: which has a distinct meaning of its own. My friend and radio talk show host and author Al Kresta explained this in a section of my first book, A Biblical Defense of Catholicism (2003):

Paul’s arguments against works of the law are not fundamentally arguments against human participation in or human cooperation with the saving purposes of God, but arguments against Judaistic pride that sought to define membership in the covenant community by reference to Jewish marks of identity, such as circumcision, Sabbath-keeping, etc. and not fundamentally faith in Jesus as Messiah. (p. 42)

This outlook is known as “The new perspective on Paul.” It was “new” for the Protestants who developed this understanding in the 1970s (Anglican Bishop N. T. Wright being prominent among them); not so much for Catholics and Orthodox Christians. The Wikipedia article on it explains further:

Paul’s letters contain a substantial amount of criticism regarding the “works of the Law“. The radical difference in these two interpretations of what Paul meant by “works of the Law” is the most consistent distinguishing feature between the two perspectives. The historic Protestant perspectives interpret this phrase as referring to human effort to do good works in order to meet God’s standards (Works Righteousness). In this view, Paul is arguing against the idea that humans can merit salvation from God by their good works alone (note that the “new” perspective agrees that we cannot merit salvation; the issue is what exactly Paul is addressing).

By contrast, new-perspective scholars see Paul as talking about “badges of covenant membership” or criticizing Gentile believers who had begun to rely on the Torah to reckon Jewish kinship. It is argued that in Paul’s time, Israelites were being faced with a choice of whether to continue to follow their ancestral customs, the Torah, or to follow the Roman Empire’s trend to adopt Greek customs (Hellenization, see also AntinomianismHellenistic Judaism, and Circumcision controversy in early Christianity). The new-perspective view is that Paul’s writings discuss the comparative merits of following ancient Israelite or ancient Greek customs. Paul is interpreted as being critical of a common Jewish view that following traditional Israelite customs makes a person better off before God, pointing out that Abraham was righteous before the Torah was given. Paul identifies customs he is concerned about as circumcisiondietary laws, and observance of special days.

Again, these are very deep theological waters, debated among equally sincere and theologically educated Christians. The skeptic almost certainly won’t grasp these fine distinctions, but I trust that Christian readers will, or else will be motivated to study the issue more in-depth. In any event, this understanding easily overcomes the supposed “contradiction.”

153) The law has dominion. Rom.7:1.
The law does not have dominion. Rom.6:14.

154) The law was the result of sin. Gal.3:19.
Sin is the result of breaking the law. 1 Jn.3:4.

These both have to do with the deep waters of Paul’s teaching on law and grace. Rather than delve into it again like I did in #151 and #152, I’ll simply link to a good, relevant, in-depth treatment of what is brought up here: whether Christians are still under “the law” or not. See: “The Law of God” (Jimmy Akin, Catholic Answers, 1 October 2000).

155) Those of “God” cannot sin. 1 Jn.3:9.
Those of “God” can sin. 1 Jn.1:7 8.

I John habitually uses proverbial language, meaning that that it utilizes statements of general truths that nevertheless sometimes admit of exceptions. I explained this about 1 John in greater detail in my reply to #29 in my second installment.

156) The anointing of Jesus teaches right from wrong. 1 Jn.2:27.
The law written on the heart and conscience teaches right from wrong. Rom.2:15.

Both do. They complement each other. It’s self-evident to say that we can learn the same thing from more than one source.

157) Abraham was justified by faith. Heb.11:8.
Abraham was justified by works. Jms.2:21.
Abraham was not justified by works. Rom.4:2.

See my paper, Justification: Not by Faith Alone, & Ongoing (Romans 4, James 2, and Abraham’s Multiple Justifications) [10-15-11].

158) It is not good to eat or drink anything that might cause your brother to stumble or be offended. Rom.14:21.
Let no one pass judgment on you in matters of food or drink. Col.2:16.

Both things are true, in opposite ways. In the first, we should try not to offend others by what we eat or drink. It’s true that they are probably weak in their understanding, but charity understands that and still is considerate of their state. The second is talking about folks judging us for what we eat. Since the New Testament teaches that all foods are now “clean” they have no basis to do so. Apples and oranges . . .

159) It is better that widows should not remarry. 1 Cor.7:8.
It is better that young widows should remarry. 1 Tim.5:11-14.

Both passages in context say that it is well and good for widows to remarry:

1 Corinthians 7:9 But if they cannot exercise self-control, they should marry. For it is better to marry than to be aflame with passion.

1 Timothy 5:14 So I would have younger widows marry, bear children, rule their households, and give the enemy no occasion to revile us.

Both of these are consistent. Widows can remarry; young widows are a sub-group of these widows (who can remarry). So far so good. The supposed “contradiction” comes from 1 Corinthians 7:8: “To the unmarried and the widows I say that it is well for them to remain single as I do.” To say that singleness is a preferable state to being married is not to forbid marriage or say that it is a bad thing. In the larger section, Paul teaches that singleness is better in the following sense:

1 Corinthians 7:28 But if you marry, you do not sin, and if a girl marries she does not sin. Yet those who marry will have worldly troubles, and I would spare you that.

1 Corinthians 7:32-35 I want you to be free from anxieties. The unmarried man is anxious about the affairs of the Lord, how to please the Lord;[33] but the married man is anxious about worldly affairs, how to please his wife, [34] and his interests are divided. And the unmarried woman or girl is anxious about the affairs of the Lord, how to be holy in body and spirit; but the married woman is anxious about worldly affairs, how to please her husband. [35] I say this for your own benefit, not to lay any restraint upon you, but to promote good order and to secure your undivided devotion to the Lord.

Paul is also very pro-marriage:

1 Corinthians 7:2 But because of the temptation to immorality, each man should have his own wife and each woman her own husband.

Bottom line: Paul in this chapter teaches that everyone should live as God has called them to live:

1 Corinthians 7:7 I wish that all were as I myself am [i.e., unmarried]. But each has his own special gift from God, one of one kind and one of another.

1 Corinthians 7:17 Only, let every one lead the life which the Lord has assigned to him, and in which God has called him. This is my rule in all the churches.

1 Corinthians 7:24 So, brethren, in whatever state each was called, there let him remain with God.

That could be either single or married. No contradictions at all, once Paul’s teaching is fully understood.

160) The god of this world blinds people to the gospel. 2 Cor.4:4.
There is only one god. 1 Cor.8:4.

Barnes’ Notes on the Bible comments on the first passage:

In John 12:31, he is called “the prince of this world.” In Ephesians 2:2, he is called “the prince of the power of the air.” And in Ephesians 6:12, the same bad influence is referred to under the names of “principalities, and powers,” “the rulers of the darkness of this world,” and “spiritual wickedness in high places.” The name “god” is here given to him, not because he has any divine attributes, but because he actually has the homage of the people of this world as their god, as the being who is really worshipped, or who has the affections of their hearts in the same way as it is given to idols. By “this world” is meant the wicked world; or the mass of people. He has dominion over the world. They obey his will; they execute his plans; they further his purposes, and they are his obedient subjects. He has subdued the world to himself, and was really adored in the place of the true God; . . .

In other words, it’s a metaphorical, sarcastic attribution of the word “god” to the devil. In fact, the Bible makes it clear that there are no other Gods (or gods) besides the one true God:

Deuteronomy 32:17, 21 They sacrificed to demons which were no gods, . . . They have stirred me to jealousy with what is no god; they have provoked me with their idols. . . .

Deuteronomy 32:39 See now that I, even I, am he, and there is no god beside me; I kill and I make alive; I wound and I heal; and there is none that can deliver out of my hand.

2 Chronicles 13:9 . . . Whoever comes to consecrate himself with a young bull or seven rams becomes a priest of what are no gods.

Jeremiah 2:11  Has a nation changed its gods, even though they are no gods? . . .

Jeremiah 5:7 . . . Your children have forsaken me, and have sworn by those who are no gods. . . . (cf. 10:14)

Jeremiah 16:20 Can man make for himself gods? Such are no gods! (cf. 51:17)

1 Corinthians 8:4-6 Hence, as to the eating of food offered to idols, we know that “an idol has no real existence,” and that “there is no God but one.” [5] For although there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth — as indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords” — [6] yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.

Galatians 4:8 Formerly, when you did not know God, you were in bondage to beings that by nature are no gods;

161) The powers of this world are wicked, so fight against them. Eph.6:11-13.
All powers are ordained of God and, if you resist, you are damned. Rom.13:1,2.

Variation of #148-149: answered last time.

162) Bear one another’s burdens. Gal.6:2.
Bear your own burdens. Gal.6:5.

RSV has “burdens” for 6:2 and “load” for 6:5; and it does because it is two different Greek words. Eric Lyons of Apologetics Press explains:

In verse 2, “burdens” is translated from baros, meaning “weight,” or figuratively, an “experience of someth[ing] that is particularly oppressive” [Danker, Frederick William, William Arndt, and F.W. Gingrich, (2000), Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament (Chicago, IL: University of Chicago Press), p. 167]. In verse 5, “burden” is from fortion, meaning “that which constitutes a load for transport,” or “that which is carried and constitutes a burden” (Danker, p. 1064, emp. added).

We see, then, that the meaning of the two taken together, is “bear particularly oppressive burdens of others, and your own ordinary load.” Lyons continues:

Galatians 6:2 and 6:5 do not represent an either/or command. If it is possible for the Christian both to (1) bear his own burden/load, while at the same time (2) help bear another’s burden, then both commands must be followed, without assuming that one command must be obeyed to the exclusion of the other. . . . Are we to work to take care of our families and ourselves? Yes. Are we to help others who are genuinely in need (i.e., who have burdens that they are unable to bear alone)? Yes. (“Bear One Another’s Burdens, or Just Bear Your Own?”, 22 March 2015)

163) Anyone who even greets a non-believer shares his wicked work. 2 Jn.10,11.
Always be ready to answer any man concerning your faith. 1 Pet.3:15.

1 Peter 3:15 is one of the classic biblical rationales for apologetics. We are to be ready to explain and make a “defense” (Greek, apologia) to anyone who “calls” us “to account” for the hope that is in us, and the Christian faith. I’m doing that very thing right now by showing how these objections to the Bible fail.

Norman Geisler gives an excellent explanation of the meaning of 2 John 10-11:

The passage in 2 John is not talking about someone who simply comes to visit. Rather, John is talking about false teachers who are deceivers (v. 7) and who come to present their doctrines.

First, John is instructing the local church, and the individuals of the local church, not to extend hospitality to these persons, because that would imply that the church accepted or approved of their teaching. The people of the local church were directed not even to give a Christian greeting to them, lest this be misconstrued as an attitude of tolerance of their false doctrines. This was by no means a command not to love one’s enemy. In fact, following John’s directives would be the supreme act of love for one’s enemy. By clearly demonstrating an intolerance for false doctrine, it would be possible to communicate to false teachers that they needed to repent. On the contrary, if the church or individual were to extend hospitality to a false teacher, he would be encouraged in his position and take this action as an acceptance of his doctrine, or as a covering of his unrighteousness.

Second, it must be remembered that, in the early church, the evangelistic and pastoral ministry of the church was conducted primarily by individuals who traveled from location to location. These itinerant pastors depended on the hospitality of the people of a local congregation. John is directing the church not to extend this kind of hospitality to teachers of false doctrine. This is not contradictory to Jesus’ teaching. We are to love our enemies, but not encourage them in their evil deeds. We are to do good to them that hate us, but not to condone their wickedness. As Jesus said, we are to show ourselves to be children of our Father. In the very same Sermon on the Mount, Jesus went on to warn His disciples to beware of false prophets “who come … in sheep’s clothing” (Matt. 7:15). John gave practical application to this warning, and thereby encouraged the local church to maintain its purity and devotion to Christ. (“2 John 10 — Why Does This Verse Tell Us Not to receive Certain People When Jesus Told Us to Love Our Enemies?”, Defending Inerrancy, 2014, from a 1992 book)

164) All of the grass on the earth is burned up. Rev.8:7.
The army of locusts are instructed not to harm the grass. Rev.9:4.

Perennial grass varieties have the ability to withstand fire’s damaging effects. The top growth of the grass will suffer damage or death, but the growing points of the plant reach deep below the soil. Fire usually impacts only the top 25 percent of the soil, according to the University of Nebraska. The well-established roots of the perennial grass remain untouched by the fire’s intensity. The grass quickly grows back after a fire and often produces more abundant growth. (“Will Grass Grow Back That Has Been Burned?”, Kimberly Sharpe, Hunker)

The lush, green lawn that you see outside your window every spring is largely composed of perennial grass. (“The Difference Between Annual and Perennial Grass”, Lisa Dingman, Hunker, 3-6-22)

There is an undisclosed timespan between the two verses. It’s entirely possible and plausible that the burnt grass simply grew back: Based on the horticultural information above.

165) Only “The Father” knows. Mk.13:32.
“Jesus” and “The Father” are one. Jn.10:30; 17:11,21,22.

Cornelius a Lapide (1567-1637), the great Jesuit exegete, explains this:

[T]he Son, both as God and as man, by infused knowledge, knows the Day of Judgment and of the end of the world, for it pertains for Him to know this, inasmuch as He has been appointed the Judge of the world. But Christ denies that He knoweth this as man, and as He is God’s messenger to us, because He did not know it so that He could reveal it to us, or because He had not been commissioned by the Father to reveal it to us. As an ambassador who was questioned concerning the secrets of his prince would reply that he did not know them, although he did know them, because he did not know them as an ambassador. For an ambassador declares only those things which he has a commission to declare.

Christ’s meaning then is, “God only knows what year and day and hour the end of the world and the Judgment shall be. And although God has caused Me, Christ, as I am man, to know the same, as I am that one man who is united to the Word; yet as I am the Father’s ambassador to men, He has not willed Me to make known that day, but to keep it secret, and to stir them up continually to prepare themselves for it.”

166) Jesus said that he would judge. Jn.5:22,27-30; Jn.9:39.
Jesus said that he would not judge. Jn.8:15; Jn.12:47.
Jesus said that The Father judges. Jn.12:48,49.
Jesus said that The Father does not judge. Jn.5:22.
Jesus said that his disciples would judge. Lk.22:30.

Here’s another passage about judgment:

John 3:17-19 For God sent the Son into the world, not to condemn the world, but that the world might be saved through him. [18] He who believes in him is not condemned; he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only Son of God. [19] And this is the judgment, that the light has come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil.

The article, “Does Jesus Judge People?” (Contradicting Bible Contradictions, 8-29-13) comments on this passage: “The overlooked principle is: Jesus doesn’t need to judge. Whoever does not believe, is judging himself.” It continues its analysis of the issue:

The first coming

The first coming of Jesus had a very special purpose as we read in verse 17: to save the world and not to judge the world. Remarkably this is not against God’s general divine judgement concerning all evil. Jesus being the Light was always more in his spiritual and moral standards. He didn’t need to say what people did wrong; in his appearance people experienced that He was more, His divine light entered into the innermost recesses of the heart.

References of the critic that Jesus don’t judge are related to the first coming:

You judge according to the flesh; I am not judging anyone. John 8:15
If anyone hears My sayings and does not keep them, I do not judge him; for I did not come to judge the world, but to save the world. John 12:47

The second coming

In Matthew 25:31-32 Jesus states: “But when the Son of Man comes in His glory, and all the angels with Him, then He will sit on His glorious throne. All the nations will be gathered before Him; …”  In the second coming Jesus will take place on his glorious throne to judge. And so it is said about Him: “… this is the One who has been appointed by God as Judge of the living and the dead.” (Acts 10:42)

References of the critic that Jesus will judge are related to the second coming:

For not even the Father judges anyone, but He has given all judgment to the Son,John 5:22
… and He gave Him authority to execute judgment, because He is the Son of Man. John 5:27
And Jesus said, “For judgment I came into this world, … John 9:39 . . .

Conclusion

The critic failed to see that there are two different moments/situations concerning the question of Jesus’ judgement. The texts that He will not judge are related to the first coming and the texts about his judgement are related to his second coming.

As to portions not addressed in the above article:

Luke 22:30 that you may eat and drink at my table in my kingdom, and sit on thrones judging the twelve tribes of Israel.

This is a specific judgment (related to the twelve tribes) rather than universal, and so is a separate subject matter (therefore not contradictory).

In John 12:48 the judge isn’t the Father but Jesus’ own words: “He who rejects me and does not receive my sayings has a judge; the word that I have spoken will be his judge on the last day.” This is consistent with Jesus being the judge on the Last Day, having been assigned that role by the Father, as this objection notes (John 5:22).

167) He that does not believe is damned. Mk.16:16.
Thomas did not believe and was not damned. Jn.20:27-29.

Mark 16:16 in context is belief in the Gospel and the saving redemption of Jesus Christ. But John 20 was about whether Thomas believed the risen Christ was really Him or not. That’s a separate issue altogether, and in any event, Thomas believed as soon as He felt Jesus’ wounds, and exclaimed: “My Lord and my God!”: one of the most explicit indications in the NT that Jesus was God (since He accepted this address without rebuke).

168) “When his branch is yet tender”. Mt.24:32.
“When her branch is yet tender”. Mk.13:28.

Really? Talk about scraping the bottom of the barrel . . . This is about the fig tree. My RSV has “its” for the “his” and “her” above in an undisclosed translation. “His” is used for Matthew 24:32 in only 6 out of 61 translations (KJV being one). But “so what?” in the first place. It’s simply use of personification. We call ships and countries “she” and “her” sometimes, and currently we call hurricanes by both male and female names.

Jesus did the same; that is, if this is not from older, outdated manuscripts (as it appears to be), so arguably, the “him” and “her” are not even in the original copies and hence not in the Bible. Either way (legitimate manuscript or no), there is no difficulty here, because poetic, non-literal expression is common in all languages.

169) Jesus is God. Jn.10:30.
Jesus is the “image” of God. 2 Cor.4:4.
Jesus was a man approved by God. Acts 2:22.

170) Jesus and God are one in the same. Jn.1:1.
Jesus is beside himself. Mk.16:19; Acts 2:32,33; 7:55; Rom.8:34; etc.

“God” in the second and third examples of #169 and the second line of #170 means “God the Father” as often happens in Scripture: usually understood by context. Jesus, because He was a man, is the “image” of the invisible Father, Who has no body. And Jesus is a man, whereas the Father is not. It’s all standard trinitarian biblical theology.

171) Jesus is the Son of God. Jn.6:69; Jn.20:31.
Jesus is the Son of Man. Mt.18:11; Lk.21:27.

Two titles: both true. The first emphasizes His Divine Nature and the second His incarnation and Messiahship (the phrase comes from a famous messianic OT passage: Daniel 7).

172) Paul states that he does not lie. Rom.9:1; 2 Cor.11:31; Gal.1:20; 1 Tim.2:7.
Paul states that he does lie. Rom.3:7.

This ridiculous and desperate “problem” was dealt with here: Pearce’s Potshots #16: Does St. Paul Justify Lying? [2-12-21].

173) Paul said that he does not use trickery. 1 Thes.2:3.
Paul admits to using trickery. 2 Cor.12:16.

Paul does no such thing in 2 Corinthians, and here we go again with sloppy and indefensible “exegesis” [choke]. He was falsely accused of same by the Corinthians (“I was crafty, you say, and got the better of you by guile”). He defends himself from the false charge in the next three verses. Expositor’s Greek Testament discusses this false accusation:

[H]is adversaries hinted that, although he did not accept maintenance directly, yet the collection made for the Judæan Christians was under his hand, and that he was not above suspicion in his disposal of it. To this he returns an indignant denial, and appeals directly to their own observation of the messengers whom he had sent, of whom Titus (at least) had met him in Macedonia with a report (2 Corinthians 7:6) and was sent back to Corinth with two companions to complete the business, carrying this letter (2 Corinthians 8:62 Corinthians 8:18 ff.).

My patience with this nonsense and folly hangs by a thread. But only 21 to go, so I’ll survive and live to tell the tale. Enduring these “objections” is surely a proof of God’s grace and strength during trials (the trial being an enduring of patience and not any particular difficulty refuting any of these).

174) Paul says that circumcision is nothing. 1 Cor.7:19.
Paul says that circumcision is profitable. Rom.2:25; Rom.3:1,2.

In Romans 2:25 he qualifies his statement by saying “if you obey the law” so he’s simply saying, “those who keep the law get circumcised as part of that law.” 3:1-2 is a variation of that: referring to Jews and Judaism, and the requirement of circumcision. Thus, “apples and oranges” and no contradiction.

175) Do not covet. Rom.7:7; Rom.13:9.
Paul says covet. 1 Cor.12:31; 1 Cor.14:39.

Clearly, different senses of the word “covet” are in play here. The Romans passages reiterate one of the Ten Commandments, where “covet” means “sinful desire for” or “jealousy”, “envy” etc. The Greek word used in both is epithumeó (Strong’s Greek word #1937). It’s used mostly in this negative sense, but not always. For these two verses, Thayer’s Greek Lexicon gives the meaning of “to lust after, covet, of those who seek things forbidden.”

1 Corinthians 12:31, on the other hand,  in RSV reads “earnestly desire.” The antiquated language of “covet” in the verse appears in only 6 out of 61 English translations. The Greek word in both passages in 1 Corinthians (also 14:1 in the same sense) is zéloó (Strong’s Greek word #2206). It can be used in both senses: in a bad sense (envy, jealousy): see Acts 7:9; 17:5; 1 Cor 13:4) and a good one, as in these two passages, alongside 1 Corinthians 14:1): defined by Thayer’s Greek Lexicon for these verses as “to desire earnestly, pursue.”

The usage of the word “covert” is exactly the same in English. It has a “bad behavior” definition and a “good / neutral” one. Hence, Dictionary.com for “Covet”:

verb (used with object)
to desire wrongfully, inordinately, or without due regard for the rights of others:
to covet another’s property.
to wish for, especially eagerly:
He won the prize they all coveted.

Merriam-Webster offers a similar dual definition as well, but reverses the order, with the “good one” first (which probably suggests that the “good” usage is a bit more common today).

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Summary: A Bible skeptic has come up with 194 alleged biblical “contradictions” (usually recycled from old lists). I am systematically going through the list and refuting each one.

2022-04-11T11:31:01-04:00

I will be resolving all of the alleged “contradictions” from the web page entitled “194 CONTRADICTIONS, New Testament.” It’s perpetually striking to observe how many of these are obviously not logical contradictions, and how very easy they are to refute (many being patently and evidently absurd). A few here and there do seem to be genuinely perplexing (at first glance) and require at least some thought and study and serious examination (they save my patience). But all are ultimately able to be (in my humble opinion) decisively resolved. Readers can decide whether I succeed in my task or not, in any given case. My biblical citations are from RSV. The words from the web page above will be in blue.

See further installments:

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#1-25) [4-5-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#26-50) [4-6-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#51-75) [4-7-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#76-100) [4-8-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#101-125) [4-8-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#151-175) [4-11-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#176-194) [4-11-22]

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126) At the time of the ascension, there were about 120 brethren. Acts 1:15.
At the time of the ascension, there were about 500 brethren. 1 Cor.15:6.

Acts doesn’t say that is the entire number of Christians in the world; only the amount in that place, who were living together. It’s sheer speculation to assert otherwise. Jesus appeared for forty days after He rose again (Acts 1:3), and so 500 Christians could have easily existed by the end of that period, seeing how wildly enthusiastic the early Christians were to spread the Good News of His resurrection. 500 doesn’t contradict 120, as long as the latter is not stated to be the sum total of all Christians. Paul doesn’t say 500 is the total, either, but we know there were at least that many before the Ascension took place.

127) The moneychangers incident occurred at the end of Jesus’ career. Mt.21:11,12.
The moneychangers incident occurred at the beginning of Jesus’ career. Jn.2:11-15.

Eric Lyons of Apologetics Press answers this:

There were two temple cleansings.

Why not? Who is to say that Jesus could not have cleansed the temple of money-hungry, hypocritical Jews on two separate occasions—once earlier in His ministry, and again near the end of His life as He entered Jerusalem for the last time? Are we so naïve as to think that the temple could not have been corrupted at two different times during the three years of Jesus’ ministry? Jesus likely visited the temple several times during the last few years of His life on Earth (especially when celebrating the Passover—cf. John 2:13,23; 6:4; 11:55), likely finding inappropriate things going on there more than once. . . .

[T]he different details recorded by John likely are due to the fact that we are dealing with two different temple cleansings. Only John mentioned (1) the oxen and sheep, (2) the whip of cords, (3) the scattering of the money, (4) Jesus’ command, “Take these things away,” and (5) the disciples’ remembrance of Psalm 69:9: “Zeal for Your house has eaten Me up” (2:17). Furthermore, John did not include Jesus’ quotation of Isaiah 56:7 [“my house shall be called a house of prayer”], which is found in all three of the other accounts, and stands as a prominent part of their accounts of the temple cleansing. (“Chronology and the Cleansing of the Temple”, 26 May 2004)

128) Zacharias was the son of Jehoida, the priest. 2 Chr.24:20.
Jesus said that Zacharias was the son of Barachias. Mt.23:35. (Note: The name Barachias or Barachiah does not appear in the OT.)

In the Bible, people often had multiple names, and people were also not infrequently called “son of so-and-so” when in fact they were a grandson. Those are two possible explanations of this. But I think the more plausible explanation is that Jesus was referring to the prophet Zechariah, in saying, “that upon you may come all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of innocent Abel to the blood of Zechari’ah the son of Barachi’ah, whom you murdered between the sanctuary and the altar.” It was a sort of “beginning and end / A to Z” saying, seeing as Zechariah was perhaps the last prophet of Old Testament times. How he was murdered is not in the OT, but that could have been a Jewish tradition, or simply known by Jesus in His omniscience (being God).

There are many Zechariahs mentioned in the Bible. So Jesus narrows in on the specific one He meant by giving his (presumed) father. Our beloved skeptic claims that the father’s name never appears in the Old Testament. This is untrue (sometimes spellings of names can slightly change, for various reasons):

Zechariah 1:1 . . . the word of the LORD came to Zechari’ah the son of Berechi’ah, son of Iddo, the prophet, . . .

Seems pretty clear, huh? Zechariah, son of Jehoiada lived some 400 years before Zechariah son of Berechiah. With an explanation this plain, I don’t think we need to probe this supposed “contradiction” any further.

129) The coming of the kingdom will be accompanied by signs and miracles. Mt.24:29-33; Mk.13:24-29.
It will not be accompanied by signs and miracles since it occurs from within. Lk.17:20,21.

Matthew and Mark are talking about the Last Days or Day of Judgment; the Second Coming. That’s one sense of the “kingdom” yes, but Jesus also uses it in the sense of referring to His first coming, and this is the case with Luke 17:20-21. There are many other indications of His use of the word with the same meaning. For example:

Matthew 12:28  But if it is by the Spirit of God that I cast out demons, then the kingdom of God has come upon you.

Mark 4:11 And he said to them, “To you has been given the secret of the kingdom of God, but for those outside everything is in parables;”

Luke 10:8-9 Whenever you enter a town and they receive you, eat what is set before you; [9] heal the sick in it and say to them, `The kingdom of God has come near to you.’

Luke 11:20 But if it is by the finger of God that I cast out demons, then the kingdom of God has come upon you.

“Apples and oranges”; hence, no contradiction. It must be frustrating for the skeptic who is systematically refuted by the Christian, but that’s how it goes.

130) The kingdom was prepared from the beginning. Mt.25:34.
Jesus said that he was going to go and prepare the kingdom. Jn.14:2,3.

It was “from the beginning” in the sense that God knew all about it: being out of time and knowing all things. To “prepare something” when it is about to be implemented is not the same thing as having known about the thing for a long time beforehand. So, for example, one of my two granddaughters is having her first birthday party tomorrow. Her parents are busy preparing for it. They have known that there would be such a party (for whatever children they had) from the time even before she was born (and we knew it, too). That’s not “contradictory” to preparing for it when the time arrives. This is one of the many “plain silly” charges in this relentlessly faulty and weak list.

131) Blasphemy of the Holy Spirit is an unforgivable sin. Mk.3:29.
All sins are forgivable. Acts 13:39; Col.2:13; 1 Jn.1:9.

Generally speaking, yes: all sins are forgivable. But as in most things, there is an exception. The blasphemy of the Holy Spirit is the rejection of God altogether, which in a sense is not “forgivable” because the person hasn’t repented and asked to be forgiven, by the definition of having rejected God. In that sense, it can’t be forgiven, because “it takes two.”

One could say, as an analogy, “all horses are able to drink from the stream. But I can’t force my horse to do so if it doesn’t want to or choose to do so. I can only bring it to the stream. There are things that are made impossible by the contrary will of the creature involved. God can offer the free gift of grace and salvation to all, but we have to accept it. He won’t violate our free will because He thought it was senseless to create robots who could only do wat He commanded. Once free will is present, rebellion is always possible and can’t be altogether avoided.

132) The ascension took place while the disciples were seated together at a table. Mk.16:14-19.
The ascension took place outdoors at Bethany. Lk.24:50,51.
The ascension took place outdoors at Mt. Olivet. Acts 1:9-12.

Mark is an example of what is called “compression” or “telescoping”: techniques which were common, especially in ancient literature, and sometimes appear in the Bible. The text simply “jumps to a future occurrence. It’s obvious that the disciples weren’t indoors watching the Ascension, for how could they see Jesus being “taken up into heaven” (Mk 16:19)?

Bethany is located on the Mount of Olives (I’ve been there). That takes care of all the alleged “difficulties” here!

133) The holy spirit was with John from before he was born. Lk.1:15,41.
The holy spirit was with Elizabeth before John’s birth. Lk.1:41.
The holy spirit was with Zechariah. Lk.1:67.
The holy spirit was with Simeon. Lk.2:25.
The holy spirit is obtained by asking. Lk.11:13.
The holy spirit did not come into the world until after Jesus had departed. Jn.7:39; Jn.16:7; Acts 1:3-8.

Nice try. So much effort there! The Bible has many passages about the Holy Spirit being especially present with holy and especially “chosen” people, in both Testaments. That explains the first four instances. Anyone can search “Holy Spirit” in the Bible and find many more. In Luke Jesus was referring to that and also anticipating what was to come: which was every Christian believer being indwelt with the Holy Spirit as a matter of course: from the time of baptism (John 3:5-6; Acts 2:38; 9:17-18; 1 Cor 12:13; Titus 3:5).

Acts 1 and 2 are about the Day of Pentecost: the beginning of the Christian Church and the ability of every Christians to be filled with the Holy Spirit. That’s the difference: not that no one ever had the Spirit before, but that all Christians could henceforth. This was what John 7:39 and 16:7 were referring to. This was “developing Christian theology” so to speak. Developments are not contradictory because they always build on what went before.

134) Sometimes God is responsible for unbelief. 2 Thes.2:11,12.
Sometimes Jesus is responsible for unbelief. Mk.4:11,12.
The devil causes unbelief. Lk.8:12.

God never causes unbelief. Note regarding the first passage above, in the verse before it, it was human rebellion that brought it about: “those who are to perish, because they refused to love the truth and so be saved” (2 Thess 2:10). Mark is an instance of sarcasm: very common in the Bible. Jesus was telling parables at first, because He knew they would be understood by those who want to understand (“If any man has ears to hear, let him hear”: Mk 4:23) and not by those who don’t (hence the sarcasm). It was a matter of the will and being open (Mt 7:7-8). Jesus always wants [any and all of] us to believe (Mt 23:37) and to be saved (Lk 19:10; Jn 12:47).

Yes, the devil will cause unbelief and try to tempt us and get us to fall, but only if we let him. The late great comic Flip Wilson had an ongoing joke based on that: “the devil made me do it.” People laughed at that. Why? Well, it’s because we instinctively know that that mentality is a cop-out: that the devil can only “make” us do what we choose to do by our free will. Ultimately, we are responsible for our actions. We stand before God in the end to give account for ourselves, and “the devil made me do it” won’t cut it when the game is up at that time.

135) Whoever hates his brother is a murderer. 1 Jn.3:15.
If anyone claims to love God but hates his brother, he is a liar. 1 Jn.4:20.
No one can be a disciple of Jesus unless he hates his brother. Lk.14:26.

1 John 3:15 expresses the principle (stressed in the Sermon on the Mount) that murder and every other sin have to start in our hearty first” in our thoughts and intentions. Law recognizes this based on degrees of guilt, based in turn on how premeditated and “voluntary” it was.

1 John 4:20 is about rank hypocrisy. One can’t love God and hate other people, because loving God includes in it obedience to His command to love all people, even our enemies.

Luke 14:26 is an instance of exaggeration or hyperbole: the typically Hebraic way of expressing contrast. Literally it means “if you love your brother more than Me [God] you can’t follow Me” [since that would be idolatry]. For more on this, see: Dr. David Madison vs. Jesus #1: Hating One’s Family? [8-1-19] / Madison vs. Jesus #5: Cultlike Forsaking of Family? [8-5-19].

As you can see, these “contradictions” [?????!!!!!] are “apples and oranges.” They have northing directly to do with each other.

136) Believers do not come into judgment. Jn.5:24.
All people come into judgment. Mt.12:36; 2 Cor.5:10; Heb.9:27; 1 Pet.1:17; Jude 14,15; Rev.20:12,13.

John 5:24 means that a believer will be saved (“has eternal life; he does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life”). “Judgment” there has the specific meaning of “judged as worthy of damnation” or more broadly, “conviction” in a legal sense. But everyone will be judged in the wider sense of having to give account before God, Who then declares if we are saved or not. John 5:24 doesn’t conflict with that, so this is much ado about nothing.

137) Jesus says that, if he bears witness to himself, his testimony is true. Jn.8:14.
Jesus says that, if he bears witness to himself, his testimony is not true. Jn.5:31.

Eric Lyons of Apologetics Press tackles this one:

When Jesus conceded to the Jews the fact that His witness was “not true,” He was not confessing to being a liar. Rather, Jesus was reacting to a well-known law of His day. In Greek, Roman, and Jewish law, the testimony of a witness could not be received in his own case (Robertson, 1997). “Witness to anyone must always be borne by someone else” (Morris, 1995, p. 287). The Law of Moses stated: “One witness shall not rise against a man concerning any iniquity or any sin that he commits; by the mouth of two or three witnesses the matter shall be established” (Deuteronomy 19:15; cf. Matthew 18:15-17). The Pharisees understood this law well, as is evident by their statement to Jesus: “You bear witness of Yourself; Your witness is not true” (John 8:13). . . .

But why is it that Jesus said to the Pharisees at a later time that His “witness is true” (John 8:14)? The difference is that, in this instance, Jesus was stressing the fact that His words were true. Even if in a court of law two witnesses are required for a fact to be established (a law Jesus enunciated in verse 17), that law does not take away the fact that Jesus was telling the truth, . . . (“Was Jesus’ Witness ‘True’ or ‘Not True’?”, 26 April 2009)

138) Men can choose whether or not to believe. Jn.5:38-47.
Only God chooses who will believe. Jn.6:44.

We have free will to accept God’s free offer of grace and salvation or reject it, as I have discussed in many previous replies. John 6:44 is expressing a truth that goes alongside what I just wrote: that only by grace is anyone saved at all. God’s grace draws all person who are eventually saved, but we have to cooperate with it. If we do so, there is a sense in which both things are true: 1) “we’re saved because we repented and accepted God’s free gift” and 2) “all who are saved are ultimately saved due to the enabling power of God’s grace.” The denial of this grace alone doctrine is the heresy of Pelagianism (being saved by works), which was condemned early on in Church history, along with the relatively better (but still heretical) view of Semi-Pelagianism. If we reject God’s grace, that’s all on us, not on God, who gives sufficient grace for anyone who wishes to be saved.

139) None of Jesus’ followers would be lost. Jn.10:27-29.
Some of Jesus’ followers would be lost. 1 Tim.4:1.

This is basically a rehash of the idea in #86. See my reply to that in the fourth installment.

140) Jesus is the ruling prince of this world. Rev.1:5.
The prince of this world will be cast out. Jn.12:31.

This is a strained, implausible interpretation in the desperate effort to find a contradiction. As with most words in the Bible, this one can and does have different meanings and applications. John 12:31 refers to the devil, who is the ruler of this world-system or kosmos in Greek. Jesus says (in the same sense): “My kingship is not of this world” (Jn 18:36). Yet in the next verse He uses the first sense: “You say that I am a king. For this I was born, and for this I have come into the world, to bear witness to the truth.”

141) Jesus says all men will be saved. Jn.3:17.
Only 144,000 virgin men will be saved. Rev. 14:1-4.

John 3:17 means universal atonement: that all who wish to be — who are willing to be disciples of Jesus with all that that entails — can be saved. This is biblical teaching. Revelation 14 doesn’t teach that this was the sum total of all who are saved. It specifically calls them the “first fruits” (14:4); in other words, there are many more to come and these are only the “first batch.”

142) God wants all men to be saved. 1 Tim.2:3,4; 2 Pet.3:9.
God does not want all men to be saved. Jn.12:40.

See #86 in the fourth installment and my article on universal atonement. John 12:40 refers to the phenomenon of hardening hearts, which is very poorly understood. See my article explaining that, too. In fact, it is no proof at all of God supposedly not wanting all men to be saved.

143) Peter asks Jesus where he is going. Jn.13:36.
Thomas asks Jesus where he is going. Jn.14:5.
Jesus said that no one asked where he was going. Jn.16:5.

Erik Manning explains this:

Peter had a bit of a bodyguard complex and didn’t want to hear about Jesus taking off by himself. So when he asks the question in John 13:36 about where Jesus is going, he doesn’t get it.

And in John 14:1-5, Jesus talks about going to his Father to prepare places for them. Thomas asks a question, but it’s because he’s not picking up what Jesus is laying down. He doesn’t ask what Jesus means by any of these things. And we know Thomas is a bit slow on the uptake, as we find out later in John’s Gospel. Thomas and Peter were both thinking naturally.

We see that Jesus is disrupted with another question in John 14 but isn’t asked another question in John 15. Jesus so far has mentioned his departure, but then in John 15:22-16:4, he talks about persecution headed their way. You know, some heavy stuff. Now their hearts are sorrowful. They fall silent with sadness after being so inquisitive earlier.

It’s at 16:5 that Jesus is saying, “guys…you still don’t get it. You went quiet on me with all these hard sayings of persecution and me leaving. But I’m not leaving you alone. I’m sending the Spirit in my place. Now is the time to be asking questions again, but this time let’s be a little sharper and ditch the gloomy pessimism.”

After this, they interrupt Jesus again twice more in John 16, showing they still don’t understand what he’s talking about. Read John 16:17-19: . . .

Jesus then answers their questions, and finishes by saying “I came from the Father and have come into the world, and now I am leaving the world and going to the Father.” 

The light bulb finally seems to turn on. They quit looking at earthly things and start to see the spiritual realities Jesus is talking about. In John 16:28-30 the disciples exclaim, his disciples said, “Ah, now you are speaking plainly and not using figurative speech!Now we know that you know all things and do not need anyone to question you; this is why we believe that you came from God.” Jesus answered them, “Do you now believe?

The metaphors are over in their minds. Jesus is now speaking clearly. They fell silent after some heavy sayings from Jesus, but now it’s dawning on them after Jesus prompts them to probe further. . . .

Only when we leave no room for conversational nuance would we have to conclude Jesus had a mental lapse or that something strange is going on with the writer of John. (“Busting One of Bart Ehrman’s Favorite Bible Contradictions”, Cross-Examined.Org, 8-12-20)

144) Jesus lost only one disciple. Jn.17:12.
Jesus lost no disciples. Jn.18:9.

This is yet another rehash of #86 in the fourth installment. I don’t need to re-answer what I’ve already answered.

145) Jesus came into the world to bear witness to the truth. Jn.18:37.
The truth has always been evident. Rom.1:18-20.

Yes, the second thing is true, but the same passage notes how men deliberately reject what they know to be true. So Jesus had to come to offer more evidence for the truth and to bear witness to the character of God. That goes beyond what Romans 1 was addressing: which was only “his eternal power and deity” as evident “in the things that have been made” (1:20). Jesus revealed much more than that. Some truth about God has always been evident in His creation; Jesus brought a much fuller revelation of spiritual truth.

146) During his first resurrection appearance, Jesus gave his disciples the holy spirit. Jn.20:22.
The holy spirit was given to the disciples after his ascension. Acts 1:3-8.

This is a variation of #133 above.

147) The world could not contain all that could be written of Jesus. Jn.21:25.
All was written. Acts.1:1.

Acts 1:1 is a general statement. Luke was saying that his Gospel dealt with “all that Jesus began to do and teach” in a broad sense. We do this all the time in how we use language today. We might say, for example, “I’ve been all over the world.” No doubt there are several dozen countries where we haven’t been. This is understood by the hearers, who know that it is a broad, generalized statement. Or a woman says, “I’ve been unhappy all of my life.” Are we to understand that literally for every second she was unhappy? No. It’s understood that it means, “unhappiness is a recurrent problem and dominant theme in my life that I can’t seem to shake off or resolve.”

Thus, analogously, Acts 1:1 is general and broad, whereas John 21:25 exaggerates to make the point that “there is a lot more material out there about Jesus than what I have recorded.” There is no conflict, once the different use of language is understood, just as we do all the time in life in interpreting people using literal or non-literal language. Usually context helps us understand which is being employed. It’s the same in the Bible.

148) Obey the laws of men for it is the will of God. 1 Pet.2:13-15.
The disciples disobey the council. Acts 5:40-42.

149) Obey God, not men. Acts 5:29.
Obey men. It is God’s will. Rom.13:1-4; 1 Pet.2:13-15.

There is always an exception to the rule. Peter gave the general good principle that — all in all — we obey laws and governments and rulers. But the Jewish council in Acts laid down an unjust law that no Christian could follow: “they . . .charged them not to speak in the name of Jesus.” Early Christians were murdered by the Roman government because they wouldn’t swear an oath to Caesar that violated their consciences. We mustn’t do the latter, and that sometimes means going against laws. Many laws have been unjust and wicked, such as those upholding slavery and legalizing childkilling and infanticide, along with a host of other immoral practices that laws sometimes protect and sanction.

150) God hated Esau and loved Jacob even before they were born. Rom.9:10-13.
God shows no partiality and treats all alike. Acts 10:34; Rom.2:11.

Romans 9 has to be properly understood. See my article on that.

***

Practical Matters: Perhaps some of my 4,000+ free online articles (the most comprehensive “one-stop” Catholic apologetics site) or fifty books have helped you (by God’s grace) to decide to become Catholic or to return to the Church, or better understand some doctrines and why we believe them.

Or you may believe my work is worthy to support for the purpose of apologetics and evangelism in general. If so, please seriously consider a much-needed financial contribution. I’m always in need of more funds: especially monthly support. “The laborer is worthy of his wages” (1 Tim 5:18, NKJV). 1 December 2021 was my 20th anniversary as a full-time Catholic apologist, and February 2022 marked the 25th anniversary of my blog.

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Photo credit: mohamed hassan (2-22-21) [public domain / Pxhere.com]

***

Summary: A Bible skeptic has come up with 194 alleged biblical “contradictions” (usually recycled from old lists). I am systematically going through the list and refuting each one.

2022-04-11T11:30:35-04:00

I will be resolving all of the alleged “contradictions” from the web page entitled “194 CONTRADICTIONS, New Testament.” It’s perpetually striking to observe how many of these are obviously not logical contradictions, and how very easy they are to refute (many being patently and evidently absurd). A few here and there do seem to be genuinely perplexing (at first glance) and require at least some thought and study and serious examination (they save my patience). But all are ultimately able to be (in my humble opinion) decisively resolved. Readers can decide whether I succeed in my task or not, in any given case. My biblical citations are from RSV. The words from the web page above will be in blue.

See further installments:

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#1-25) [4-5-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#26-50) [4-6-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#51-75) [4-7-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#76-100) [4-8-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#126-150) [4-9-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#151-175) [4-11-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#176-194) [4-11-22]

*****

101) One doubted. Jn.20:24.
Some doubted. Mt.28:17.
All doubted. Mk.16:11; Lk.24:11,14.

That’s “Doubting Thomas” in John, and he believed after Jesus appeared to him (20:28). In Mark, the disciples didn’t believe Mary Magdalene’s report of the risen Jesus at first, but later did believe (16:20). Matthew doesn’t specify later belief of the doubters, but doesn’t deny it (argument from silence). We know from the Gospels and early Church history that all the disciples (save Judas) were enthusiastic believers and evangelists, and all but John died martyr’s deaths.

In Luke, the two disciples on the road to Emmaus later believed (24:32-35), and so did the rest of the disciples (24:52). What is the point of this “objection”? So some folks momentarily doubted . . . so what?! People often doubt things and come around later. People can waver, too, between faith and doubt, or have a perpetually weak faith, or fall away from the faith altogether. The accounts reflect this, with regard to a miracle that most of us would find hard to accept at first. It perfectly reflects human nature and how people usually react. This is supposed to be a demonstration of logical contradictions in the Bible and there are none here.

I definitely need supernatural grace to endure the inanities of the final 93 supposed “contradictions.” But I will do it!

102) Jesus said that his blood was shed for many. Mk.14:24.
Jesus said his blood was shed for his disciples. Lu.22:20.

The disciples were a sub-group of the “many.” Duh! If taxes were lowered for the entire middle class, then my family would have our taxes lowered, too!

103) Simon of Cyrene was forced to bear the cross of Jesus. Mt.27:32; Mk.15:21; Lu.23:26.
Jesus bore his own cross. Jn.19:16,17.

Jesus obviously carried His cross in all accounts. It was part of the Roman punishment. John simply didn’t mention Simon of Syrene, and never stated, “and no one else bore His cross . . .”. For the tenth time: arguments from silence are not “contradictions” and they don’t prove anything, one way or the other.

104) Jesus was offered vinegar and gall to drink. Mt.27:34.
Jesus was offered vinegar to drink. Jn.19:29,30.
Jesus was offered wine and myrrh to drink. Mk.15:23.

The Domain for Truth website offers a characteristically thorough and devastating rebuttal:

  1. Just a quick observation: What the skeptics call “vinegar” the NASB calls “sour wine.”
  2. The skeptic tries to pit Mark 15:23 on the one hand against Mark 15:36 and Luke 23:36 on the other hand.  According to the skeptic Mark 15:23 teaches that the Roman soldiers gave wine and myrrh for Jesus to drink while both Mark 15:36 and Luke 23:36 teaches that the Roman soldiers gave Jesus vinegar/sour wine to drink.  Yet the two are not contradictory because these two sets of passages occurred at separate time[s].
    1. Notice for Mark 15:23 wine and myrrh was offered before Jesus was crucified.  How do we know that?
      1. Jesus being crucified is stated in the next verse in Mark 15:24a.
      2. Notice the offering of wine and myrrh occurred right when they got to the place of the crucifixion as the verse before mentioned (Mark 15:22).
      3. Jesus being offered wine and myrrh is also before the soldiers divided Jesus’ garments in Mark 15:24b, suggesting the offer of wine and myrrh was early on.
      4. Why would they offer wine and myrrh?  It was a way to make the pain less painful.  Yet Jesus did not take it.
    2. As a contrast Mark 15:36 and Luke 23:36 recorded chronologically near the end of how before Jesus died the Roman soldiers offered vinegar/sour wine to Jesus. How do we know that?
      1. Luke 23:36 parallel Mark 15:36.
      2. Mark 15:36 which mentioned Jesus being offered vinegar/sour wine is obviously 13 verses after Mark 15:23.  So after Jesus was first offered with wine they offered Him vinegar/sour wine.
      3. Note also Jesus died in the next verse from crucifixion in Mark 15:37.
      4. Why would they offer Jesus vinegar/sour wine instead of wine and myrrh towards the end?  Very likely the better wine ran out.  Don’t forget there were two other men being crucified next to Jesus that day and there’s also the possibility that the Roman soldiers themselves helped themselves to drink the wine.  This observation fit with the biblical timeline.
    3. The two different offer[s] by Roman soldiers to Jesus of something to drink along with the order of first the wine and then the vinegar/sour wine is also confirmed in Matthew 27 (see Matthew 27:33-34 and Matthew 27:48).
    4. Thus it is not a contradiction with Jesus being offered on the one hand wine mixed with myrrh while also being offered vinegar/sour wine on the other hand, since these different offering[s] from the Roman soldiers occurred [at] during different time[s]. . . .

3. The skeptic rightly noted Matthew 27:34 teaches that the Roman soldiers offered vinegar and gall.  That is what the text says.  However this added detail of “gall” does not contradict with the passages that mentioned Jesus was offered vinegar.  None of those passages said the Roman soldiers offered Jesus only vinegar, with nothing else added.

4. As a side note it is important to note that the Greek word for “gall” doesn’t necessarily have to refer to literal liquid from the liver; it can refer to anything that is bitter and the meaning of bitter can be seen in Acts 8:23 and the verbal form in John 7:23.  Matthew 27:34 indicates that Jesus fulfilled the Messianic prophecy in Psalm 69:21 with what the Roman soldiers offered to Jesus: “They also gave me gall for my food And for my thirst they gave me vinegar to drink.“ (“Bible Contradiction? What did the soldiers give Jesus to drink?”, 8-7-19; the numbers are 3-4, 6-7 in the original)

105. Jesus refused the drink offered him. Mk.15:23.
Jesus tasted the drink offered and then refused. Mt.27:34.
Jesus accepted the drink offered him. Jn.19:30.

In Mark and Matthew, this was before Jesus was crucified, as indicated by the preceding and following verses in both cases. In John 19:30, it occurred while He was on the cross, just before He died. Since this is two different times, it isn’t a contradiction. One justifiably wonders what the skeptic was drinking when he/she came up with this silly one.

106. Both “thieves” mocked Jesus on the cross. Mt. 27:44; Mk.15:32.
One “thief” sided with Jesus on the cross. Lu.23:39-41.

It could have been that the two reviled Him initially, and in the course of doing that, one of them thought the other was too harsh on Jesus, and reconsidered and started defending Him (and/or what Jesus may have said — unrecorded — persuaded him otherwise). Such a thing not infrequently happens in arguments and debates. Human beings can change their minds. Matthew and Mark don’t say they reviled Him “the entire time” or never ceased doing so, etc. So the possibility for change of heart and mind exists, and seems to be a perfectly plausible explanation.

107) Joseph of Arimathaea boldly asked for the body of Jesus. Mk.15:43.
Joseph of Arimathaea secretly asked for the body of Jesus. Jn.19:38.

The two attributes aren’t mutually exclusive. One can be both bold and operating in secret. Every special forces raid is of such a nature, as is every clandestine espionage assignment. It was “bold” to ask Pilate (not the nicest guy) this, whether it was in secret or not.

108) Jesus was laid in a nearby tomb. Mk.15:46; Lu.23:53; Jn.19:41.
Jesus was laid in Joseph’s new tomb. Mt.27:59,60.

Again, these things aren’t mutually exclusive. Matthew merely adds the information that it was Joseph’s own planned tomb. Someone not saying something doesn’t contradict another saying something. If these logic-challenged skeptics would ever grasp this elementary logical principle and fallacy, half of their objections would instantaneously vanish. But let them keep doing it and making themselves look silly and foolish. That is to the Christian’s (and Bible’s) advantage and the skeptic’s / atheist’s disadvantage, in a “PR” and “strength of argument” sense.

109) A great stone was rolled in front of the tomb. Mt.27:60; Mk.15:46.
There was nothing in front of the tomb. Lu.23:55; Jn.19:41.

There was no stone yet in Luke 23:55 because this referred to the time when Jesus was placed in the tomb (see 23:53-54). When women went back two days later, they found the stone rolled away (24:1-2). John 19:41 simply doesn’t mention the stone, but in John 20:1 we learn that there was one, which was rolled away. Therefore all four Gospels — taken together — note that the tomb had a stone in front of it, which was rolled away. No contradiction; rather, it is complete harmony. 0 for 109 . . .

110) Nicodemus prepared the body with spices. Jn.19:39,40.
Failing to notice this, the women bought spices to prepare the body later. Mk. 16:1; Lu.23:55,56.

What happened is explained right in the challenge! The women likely didn’t see that Jesus’ body was prepared with spices, and the Sabbath was quickly approaching (Jn 19:42) — where this work would be disallowed –, so that they probably concluded that there hadn’t been enough time for such preparation. The women saw that Jesus was laid out with a linen shroud (Lk 23:53-55), but wouldn’t necessarily know if He had been anointed with spices. Therefore, they prepared the spices and ointments (23:56) and returned after the Sabbath to apply them (24:1).

111) The body was anointed. Jn.19:39,40.
The body was not anointed. Mk.15:46 to 16:1; Lk.23:55 to 24:1.

Mark and Luke don’t deny that Jesus’ body was anointed. If they don’t, there is no necessary contradiction. I submit that the women simply weren’t aware that at least some spices had been applied (as indicated in John 19:39-40). In any event, no contradiction has been proven.

112) The women bought materials before the sabbath. Lu.23:56.
The women bought materials after the sabbath. Mk.16:1.

Luke 23:56 doesn’t assert this. It says they “returned [back home], and prepared spices and ointments.” Then they brought them on Sunday (Lk 24:1; Mk 16:1). At this point (after 112 examples), with such absolutely lousy, clueless alleged “contradictions” like this sterling example, one wonders whether the skeptic even reads the passages that he/she lists. Certainly even a basic understanding of what they mean is absent in the majority of cases: in the zealous rush to find a “gotcha!” contradiction to embarrass Christians with. The embarrassment is (or should be) all on their end.

113) Jesus was first seen by Cephas, then the twelve. 1 Cor.15:5.
Jesus was first seen by the two Marys. Mt.28:1,8,9.
Jesus was first seen by Mary Magdalene. Mk.16:9; Jn.20:1,14,15.
Jesus was first seen by Cleopas and others. Lu.24:17,18.
Jesus was first seen by the disciples. Acts 10:40,41.

1 Corinthians doesn’t say that he “first” appeared to Cephas (Peter). Peter is singled out as a witness not because he was the absolutely first person to see the risen Jesus, but rather, because he was the leader of the disciples and the early church (see the first half of the book of Acts).

Mark 16:9 actually does say that Mary Magdalene was the “first.” And so she was. John’s account is consistent with that notion. Does Matthew contradict this because of the second Mary? Not necessarily. Many scenarios can be easily imagined that instantly harmonize the passages. For example, maybe “the other Mary” happened to be looking away when the risen Jesus suddenly “met them”, so that Mary Magdalene was, technically, the first to see Him. Or Jesus met Mary Magdalene with no other women around, and then Matthew 28:9 records a second instance of His appearing to her, except with another woman, too.

Luke 24 has the story of the two men on the road to Emmaus. Nothing definitely indicates they were the first; indeed, they could not have been because various Gospels record Mary Magdalene and the other Mary seeing Jesus early in the morning on the first Easter Sunday, whereas in this account it is said that the time was “toward evening” with the day being “far spent” (24:29).

Acts says that the disciples were in the select group to whom Jesus appeared, as opposed to “all the people.” But it doesn’t say they were absolutely the first, and doesn’t therefore rule out Mary Magdalene being the first person, which is expressly stated in Mark. Conclusion?: all of these passages are perfectly harmonious and pose no problem for biblical infallibility.

114) The two Marys went to the tomb. Mt.28:1.
The two Marys and Salome went to the tomb. Mk.16:1.
Several women went to the tomb. Lu.24:10.
Only Mary Magdalene went to the tomb. Jn.20:1.

So Matthew didn’t mention Salome. So what? That’s of no relevance. In light of Luke, we can conclude that several women (more than the two Marys) saw the empty tomb (though not necessarily the risen Jesus). Mary Magdalene could have told these other women about the tomb and also the fact that she had seen the risen Jesus. This implies repeated trips to witness the empty tomb, which was easy because it was right outside of town.

As for John, this may have been an earlier, initial visit by Mary Magdalene alone: perhaps indicated by “while it was still dark.” Then she went again with others. The text never states that “only Mary” went to the tomb, or that “Mary alone and no other woman” did so. Those are the sorts of words that would be required for an actual contradiction to be present.  As it is, no contradiction has been established: not even to the slightest degree. The text simply records an instance with Mary Magdalene alone, without denying that other women saw the risen Jesus, too.

115) It was dawn when Mary went to the tomb. Mt.28:1; Mk.16:2.
It was dark when Mary went to the tomb. Jn.20:1.

Exactly! This confirms my hypothesis that Mary Magdalene made an earlier pre-dawn visit (see #114). Is there any law against that? No. Is it inconceivable? No. Is it possible? Yes. The skeptic acts as if no one could have possibly visited Jesus’ tomb (where the greatest miracle in history had just occurred) more than once.

116) An angel sat on the stone at the door of the tomb. Mt.28:2.
A man was sitting inside the tomb. Mk.16:5.

There could have simply been two angels. Or Matthew was referring to the time when the stone was actually rolled away, per my reasoning in my paper, Resurrection #14: When Was the Stone Rolled Away? [4-27-21].

117) Two men were standing inside the tomb. Lk.24:3,4.
Two angels were sitting inside the tomb. Jn.20:12.

Angels are often called “men” in Scripture. Luke indicates they were angels by describing them as having “dazzling apparel”, while John uses the description, “angels in white.”

118) Peter did not go into the tomb but stooped and looked inside. Lk.24:12.
Peter did go into the tomb, and another disciple stooped and looked inside. Jn.20:3-6.

Luke 24:12 is a disputed verse, not found in the earliest manuscripts, which is why RSV doesn’t even include it. So it’s irrelevant to the discussion.

119) After the resurrection, the disciples held Jesus by the feet. Mt.28:9.
After the resurrection, Jesus told Thomas to touch his side. John 20:27.
After the resurrection, Jesus said that he was not to be touched. Jn.20:17.

See my paper, Resurrection #18: “Touch Me Not” & Mary Magdalene [4-29-21].

120) Mary first saw Jesus at the tomb. Jn.20:11-15.
Mary first saw Jesus on her way home. Mt.28:8-10.

I proposed that John records a pre-dawn Sunday visit by Mary Magdalene (see #114 and it’s alluded to by objection #115), which was the first recorded post-Resurrection appearance of Jesus to anyone.

121) The women entered the tomb. Mk.16:5; Lk.24:3.
The women stayed outside the tomb. Jn.20:11.

This again refers to Mary’s pre-dawn visit alone (see my reply #114 and #120). It’s different things happening at different times and hence, no contradiction. I know it must be frustrating for the skeptic, but logic is what it is. I didn’t make it up.

122) The disciples were frightened when they saw Jesus. Lk.24:36,37.
The disciples were glad when they first saw Jesus. Jn.20:20.

In Luke it was because they (just two of them) “supposed that they saw a spirit”: an event which almost always causes fear in recorded instances in Scripture. Then Jesus showed them His hands and feet (24:39) and they settled down. In John (a different incident) they were glad for the same reason: because He “showed them his hands and his side”: quickly proving that He was Jesus, so they wouldn’t be afraid.

123) Twelve disciples saw Jesus. 1 Cor.15:5.
Eleven disciples saw Jesus. Thomas was not there. Mt.28:16,17; Jn.20:19-25.

In 1 Corinthians, either it was after Judas’ replacement with Matthias (Acts 1:20-26), so there were again twelve, or the title “twelve” was being used as a description of the group (see my paper, Resurrection #26: “Twelve” or Eleven Disciples? [5-4-21]). Matthew 28 was a time right before Jesus’ Ascension, before Judas had been replaced. Hence, “eleven.” John uses “twelve” as the group title, even though Judas had by then departed. No problem here . . .

124) The disciples doubted that Jesus had risen from the dead. Mt.28:17.
The Pharisees and chief priests believed it possible. Mt.27:62-66.

“Some” did, for a time, yes. It was the typical human skepticism regarding miracles. The enemies of Jesus believed no such thing. In the passage from Matthew above, they thought the disciples would steal Jesus’ body and fake a resurrection, which is why they asked for a guard in front of the tomb. I search in vain for any “contradiction” here.

125) Jesus ascended on the third day after the resurrection. Lk.24:21,50,51.
Jesus ascended the same day as the crucifixion. Lk.23:42 43.
Jesus ascended forty days after the resurrection. Acts 1:3,9.

See my paper, Seidensticker Folly #15: Jesus’ Ascension: One or 40 Days? [9-10-18].

***

Practical Matters: Perhaps some of my 4,000+ free online articles (the most comprehensive “one-stop” Catholic apologetics site) or fifty books have helped you (by God’s grace) to decide to become Catholic or to return to the Church, or better understand some doctrines and why we believe them.

Or you may believe my work is worthy to support for the purpose of apologetics and evangelism in general. If so, please seriously consider a much-needed financial contribution. I’m always in need of more funds: especially monthly support. “The laborer is worthy of his wages” (1 Tim 5:18, NKJV). 1 December 2021 was my 20th anniversary as a full-time Catholic apologist, and February 2022 marked the 25th anniversary of my blog.

PayPal donations are the easiest: just send to my email address: [email protected]. You’ll see the term “Catholic Used Book Service”, which is my old side-business. To learn about the different methods of contributing, including 100% tax deduction, etc., see my page: About Catholic Apologist Dave Armstrong / Donation InformationThanks a million from the bottom of my heart!

***

Photo credit: mohamed hassan (2-22-21) [public domain / Pxhere.com]

***

Summary: A Bible skeptic has come up with 194 alleged biblical “contradictions” (usually recycled from old lists). I am systematically going through the list and refuting each one.

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