2022-06-16T15:01:44-04:00

[originally from 10 June 2007]

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Reformed Baptist John Knight’s words will be in blue.

See these articles that are referred to in the exchange:

Critique of Van Til’s Presuppositionalism [10-23-04]

Critique of Presuppositionalism & Greg Bahnsen [4-14-07]

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I would describe myself as a Reformed Baptist, following broadly within the Van Tillian tradition, especially as developed by Greg Bahnsen on the one hand & John Frame on the other. (Both were students of Van Til.) By common consent, Dr. Van Til was a poor writer, one whose sparkling analogies sometimes appeared in the oddest places. And, no doubt, there are additional issues, clarifications, & corrections to be addressed by Christian thinkers to day & in the future. However, it is worth noting that Van Til’s writings anticipated many of the important developments in 20th Century philosophy. The challenges posed by Wittgenstein, Kuhn, Quine, Sellars, Polanyi, & Plantinga to “modern philosophy” support Van Til’s general critique of unbelief.

Thanks for your cordial remarks in the Open Forum.

. . . Assuming, of course, that you really want to get into some of the more interesting questions in the debate.

Absolutely! Good dialogue is an increasingly rare commodity these days. How refreshing to find someone who seems to enjoy it as much as I do, and a nice guy to boot!

As to Mr. Armstrong’s comments on Dr. Bahnsen’s article, Mr. Armstrong returns repeatedly to the claim that Bahnsen is presenting a Straw Man of evidential apologetics by accusing evidential apologists of neutrality. This criticism appears to be Mr. Armstrong’s core complaint, which he repeats throughout the article.

I don’t claim to be an expert on Bahnsen. I was simply responding to the best of my ability, to what I understood his arguments to be. Sometimes one can make further assumptions about opponents’ underlying premises that are mistaken. We’d have to go through my replies and see where our differences lie.

And please call me Dave!

To that extent, I do think that I have interacted with the substance of his comments.

Not if you haven’t gone through my reasoning point-by-point, as I am doing presently. You don’t know if you have misunderstood some of my arguments or misconceived the premises lying behind them. We’re all prone to that mistake (and usually unintentionally) . It’s always good to look at the actual particulars of someone else’s argument rather than make broad, grand assumptions which may be mistaken in part or wholly.

I hope I have done so politely & amiably.

Yes; I greatly appreciate that, as I am sick to death of completely unnecessary hostilities simply because people have some honest disagreements. I’ve never fully understood that, and I don’t think I ever will.

[I]t is possible that our disagreements can sorted out through a simple clarification of terms & issues.

I think that is a distinct possibility, once you fully understand my overall outlook on apologetics and philosophy. Several indications of common ground have already appeared, as I responded (below). I can tell by the people you cite (Plantinga and Polanyi, whom I love and have been highly influenced by, Kuhn, etc.; Cardinal Newman: a profound influence on my thought, has been compared to Polanyi in several ways) that we are on the same page quite often. That doesn’t surprise me. It may not surprise you, either, but surely it shocks many who think that the divide in these areas is much bigger than it should be (i.e., we have much more in common than people think).

As a Reformed Baptist & recovering evidentialist, I find Mr. Armstrong’s reply to Dr. Bahnsen unsatisfying. He seems to misunderstand Bahnsen’s critique of attempted epistemological neutrality as an attack on the sincerity of evidentialists & “classicists.”

Okay; we’ll see!

Bahnsen is not attacking the good intentions of classicists & evidentialists. He is instead pointing out the futile nature of trying to prove the truth of Christian theism from non-Christian presuppositions.

This, of course, hinges on what one means by “prove”. I think there are relatively few things that one can absolutely prove. On the other hand, I believe in natural theology, which means that I think there are certain things that all men know intuitively or instinctively or with a properly formed intellect by virtue of logic, that Christians can then build upon in their apologetic.

What would be the basis of your argument?

My argument against Bahnsen is in my paper. I don’t recall all particulars without revisiting it (as I have written many hundreds of papers). As we get deeper into this, I’d like to see you examine particular arguments of mine.

Historical evidence of the Resurrection? Apart for Christian presuppositions, one can never prove that Christ rose from the dead.

I agree. I’ve never claimed that one could prove such a thing. I think Reginald stated it well in the same combox:

In the first place, the Catholic wouldn’t try to prove that Christ rose from the dead, if by “prove” you mean “provide incontrovertible evidence”. Some things must be accepted by faith. We can only remove the obstacles to that acceptance by demonstrating that the the faith is a reasonable thing – and that there are good reasons for being Christian (and Catholic).

Even if you succeed in convincing the unbeliever, he doesn’t have to conclude that, therefore, Christ is God. There are other options.

That’s right, though I do think most such people would agree that if the resurrection were “proven”, that this would constitute significant evidence towards the proposition that Jesus might, in fact, be God. They use the supposed implausibility of the Resurrection, precisely as a means to discount Jesus’ claims.

More generally, the facts do not speak for themselves. Facts only make sense within an interpretive framework, a point made by Ludwig Wittgenstein, Thomas Kuhn, and Wilfrid Sellars, among others.

I couldn’t agree more.

The Kalam Cosmological Argument? It’s based on a fundamental misinterpretation of set theory. And even if the math made sense, it wouldn’t prove the Christian God or even a personal god as the first cause.

I agree. What I have said is that it shows that theism is at least as reasonable as atheism. I think it is a very strong argument, though.

Even worse, the argument presupposes a linear view of time. What about the unbeliever who has a cyclical view of time, like many pagan religions?

One’s view of time doesn’t eliminate their burden of dealing with causation. I think the argument can be made, at least, that time is linear back to the big Bang. Before that, we can’t say (and the Christian can simply posit by faith that this was “eternity past” — before divine creation. But in any event, unless one is anti-science, they cannot escape the fact that present-day cosmology and physics require a belief that the present universe began in that instant of the Big Bang.

The Argument from Design? While I respect the work done by William Dembski & Michael Behe, they are the first to admit that, even if their argument is correct, it only proves design. It does not identify the designer: Terrestrial life could have been designed by non-carboniferous aliens.

I agree again.

More generally, do you propose to argue from “the facts” to prove the existence of Our Lord?

No, because I don’t think “proof” of such things is possible. It is only possible to create what I would call a “plausibility structure” whereby, as a result of cumulative evidences of various sorts brought to the table, the Christian view, or at least theism, is shown to be far more worthy of allegiance and reasonable than any alternative. In the end, faith will always be required. We can’t connect the dots of faith with reason, because that would undermine the very basis and necessity of biblical faith. They are simply two different things.

Do you begin with sense perceptions & experience as you ultimate foundation of knowledge & try build, brick by brick, a tower to the heavens, finally proving the existence of God? This philosophical approach is called “empiricism,” and it is self-refuting. It cannot prove the existence of God because it cannot prove anything.

It requires prior belief in the validity of sensory perception. I’ve written for 25 years that science requires faith to even begin. So this is nothing new to me. I accept Polanyi’s critique of empiricism. But in any event, I don’t think you can absolutely prove that God exists. This has been my position for as long as I can remember. One can have a very strong assurance of faith that He exists, and is benevolent. But faith is not reason. It ought to be not contrary to reason, but it ultimately transcends it, as another category.

Armstrong also seems to misunderstand Bahnsen’s approach as mere proclamation of the Word. A quick review of the Bahnsen-Stein debate will end that illusion forever. In that debate, Bahnsen tears down the atheist world-view of Dr. Stein. Stein had built his argument on a house of sand (his atheist world-view). When Hurricane Greg tore through the auditorium that night, Stein was left without any basis to criticize or even doubt the Christian world-view, and most of the audience saw it.

I understand that presuppositionalism is about questioning the premises of opponents. I highly relate to that because my usual methodology is socratic. I do the same thing all the time (and become very unpopular in some circles for doing so, believe me!). So what I did to presuppositionalism (in my first major paper on it) was to subject it to the same treatment that it gives to others, by examining its presuppositions. And, of course, it turns out to be radically circular, which is unacceptable.

Bahnsen, by the way, recorded a sermon or lecture on the Paul’s Mars Hill presentation. He makes a good case that Paul was a presuppositionalist.

perhaps you can outline that argument as we proceed. I’d be interested in seeing it. I think all Christians should have much in common, epistemologically, and we often do far more than we imagine. Note above, for example, how many times I agreed with your own premises and major aspects of your approach to questions of proof and apologetics.

[sometimes below I will be replying to points John made in response to others]

I have two sets of questions…

1.) Are [you] claiming that there is no definitive proof for Christian theism?

If by that one means airtight rationalistic proofs that no sane man could possibly doubt, yes. That’s how I interpret the word “proof”: within the framework of rationalism and/or empiricism. But then I believe in the assurance of faith and the reasonableness of accepting God’s revelation in faith, based on a number of other supporting factors.

Are you claiming that your apologetic provides only probable proof for Christian theism? Or even some lower standard?

I think one can achieve a very high degree of certitude (Cardinal Newman’s word, I believe, in his Grammar of Assent) by revelation and reason together, as well as other things. I think there are many beliefs that are (in Plantinga’s terms) “properly basic” and perfectly plausible and permissible for rational people to believe. So, in sum, I think my evidentialist apologetic could provide an “exceedingly probable” basis for belief: as much as is humanly possible through reason alone (reason that men of all kinds can agree upon, based on the universality of logic, scientific method, etc.).

2.) Is this position the consensus at this website?

It’s my website, and my position, is as just described, so that is the position here! Commenters may show a spectrum on these matters. Catholics can have differing apologetics. I tend to combine aspects of different schools.

Please keep in mind that I never claimed that Catholics would use the historical argument. (I skimmed the index, and I didn’t see it presented on this site.)

I’ve written an entire book, Mere Christian Apologetics, that uses such arguments, in an attempt at a general Christian apologetic (not distinctively Catholic at all in that book). A second similar book, Christian Worldview vs. Postmodernism, tries the same approach, but geared towards atheists and agnostics.

I asked how a non-presuppositionalist proposes to vindicate the claims of Christianity, and summarized the inadequacies of three popular approaches, two of which do appear on this site, IIRC.

I have given a thumbnail sketch of how I do so.

Mr. Armstrong seemed to suggest that the presuppositional approach abandons argumentation for proclamation.

Sometimes it does do so, I think, either directly, or in effect or strong implication. In fact, one might argue that it must do this, insofar as it holds that believer and non-believer hold so little in common that they can scarcely communicate with each other (and incorporating the effect of Total Depravity or the unregenerate state).

That debate provides a clear counter-example to this misapprehension.

Perhaps. I’d rather stick to dialoguing with you at the moment.

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Presuppositions are inevitable. One cannot even ask questions without relying on presuppositions.

This is correct.

The difference is between non-Christian presuppositions that lead to irrationality & contradictions

I agree.

& Christian presuppositions which provide solid foundations for knowledge, for reason, for induction, for math, science, moral obligations, language and so on.

Our worldview is coherent and consistent in all aspects of life. It doesn’t follow, however, that overtly “Christian” presuppositions are required for things like math and language.

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“If you tried to doubt everything you would not get as far as doubting anything. The game of doubting itself presupposes certainty.”
~Ludwig Wittgenstein
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True.
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I cherish reason, logic, science, mathematics, & history. I wish to give them a firm foundation. How can I do that apart from Christian presuppositions?
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Take courses on those subjects in some school. One doesn’t have to start with Christian presuppositions to learn any of those things. But being a Christian helps one to become a relatively better historian or scientist because secularist and rationalist baggage brought to those tasks obscure the best science that could be done.

I agree that the presuppositionalist can & should use “evidentialist” arguments. For example, he can present the historical evidence for the Resurrection, based on number & date of manuscripts, internal consistency, external consistency & so forth. Of course, the hard-core unbeliever will deny that this evidence proves the Resurrection. [Or maybe not. An existentialist might acknowledge the fact of the Resurrection without attaching any significance to it. Os Guinness recounts one such incident.] The apologist is then in a position to force the unbeliever to defend his theory of historical knowledge.

I agree. That’s exactly what I would do. I’ve done similar things many times in my numerous debates with atheists.

Or, as the proverb says, “Argue with a fool according to his folly, lest he seem wise in his own eyes.”
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Indeed.

On the other hand, any argument that takes man as the ultimate source of knowledge is a rejection of divine authority. It is also dangerous to use bad arguments to defend the faith. It discredits the faith & leads to intellectual confusion.

Or, as the proverb has it, “Do not argue with a fool according to his folly, lest you become like him.”

[Proverbs 26:4-5]. I love this couplet of passages, with the one counseling the opposite of the other, so that the varied application depends on situation and prudence.

It is a pleasure to be welcomed into friendly disagreement.

Likewise; especially in light of certain criticisms from certain quarters that were not — shall we say — particularly gracious, to put it mildly . . .

As I pointed out in response to your analysis of an old article by the late Dr. Greg Bahnsen, “Bahnsen is not attacking the good intentions of classicists & evidentialists. He is instead pointing out the futile nature of trying to prove the truth of Christian theism from non-Christian presuppositions.”

That would have to be unpacked as to exactly what it means. I suspect that I could agree with it entirely or in large part, once it was elaborated upon in greater specificity.

Whatever other mistakes we may make, I hope we can all avoid attacking the good intentions of our brothers in Christ.

I don’t attack anyone’s good intentions or sincerity (and that applies to even my severest critics). It must be noted, however, that since Bahnsen was an anti-Catholic, he would not consider a fully observant, orthodox Catholic (such as myself) as his “brother in Christ” in the first place. And when that is done, it is very difficult for human beings to avoid being condescending, with such a huge category mistake in place.

I look forward to better understanding your apologetic outlook while helping you better understand my perspective & the outlook of my fellow presuppositionalists.

Yes; same here. How refreshing.

I think that the difference between us is, in some ways, probably much smaller than conventionally thought. In other ways, it is very large, but perhaps we can begin to bridge that gap.

I think so.

In my understanding, the key difference between the archetypal Presuppositionalist & the Evidentialist counterpart is not any particular argument. Evidentialists often use arguments that attack the presuppositions of the unbeliever.

I certainly do all the time, because that is what socratics do.

As noted above, C.S. Lewis used an Argument from Moral Law of that type in Mere Christianity & an Argument from Reason of that type in Miracles. (Whether or not Lewis deserves to be called an evidentialist, most evidentialists claim him as one of their own.) Likewise, I personally use a version of the Argument from the Resurrection, usually considered the sine qua non of evidentialist apologetics. Presuppositionalist Thom Notaro has even written a short book on the use of evidence in Van Tillian apologetics.

Duly noted.

What then is the difference? The real difference, I think, is the question of epistemological neutrality. When evidentialists like John Warwick Montgomery try to provide a defense of the faith on empiricist grounds — on the idea that the facts speak for themselves — they violate the old proverb, Even unbelievers like Wittgenstein, Quine, Sellars, & Kuhn can see the failure of empiricism to overcome basic problems in the theory of knowledge. Why build your argument upon the sand of unbelief?

One can do this on probabilistic and plausibility grounds. There is wisdom in using the opponents’ arguments and turning it against them. Paul urged us to do this and “become all things to all men.” It is ultimately only a methodological adoption of the opponents’ presuppositions (provisionally only), in order to show that they come to the end of thesmelves eventually, and that unbelieving views end in self-contradiction, utter incoherence, and despair.

The presuppositionalist rejects even the possibility of epistemological neutrality. Instead, he seeks to expose the necessary failure of all unbelieving philosophies & world-views.

I agree that they all fail. So I don’t see any great difference here. It seems to me that it is largely one of method.

This approach follows his understanding of another proverb, “Argue with a fool according to his folly.” By accepting arguendo the presuppositions of the unbeliever, he works to show that they lead to complete futility, undermining their own claims at the very outset of the conversation.

That’s exactly what I try to do with the atheist. But there are a lot of particulars to be dealt with in that overall endeavor. And to argue particulars there must be something held in common by both parties. Logic and widely-accepted scientific facts provide that common ground.

At the same time, the presuppositionalist offers the unbeliever the benefits which flow from acknowledging the fear of the Lord as the beginning of knowledge, wisdom, & understanding. He points to the riches of knowledge that are to be found in Jesus Christ. As Augustine put it, “Without belief there is no understanding.”

How does one have a discussion at all with someone, if one requires them to accept one’s own conclusion in the first place? That would mean that there is no rational discussion to be had at all, because in effect one is required to say, “you have to be a Christian [my position] before we can even begin this discussion”. So the situation reduces to blind faith from the outset, since the Christian cannot discuss anything with the atheist until the atheist first becomes a Christian (or, adopts Christian presuppositions, which amounts to the same thing, in terms of the discussion at hand).

When we look at Bahnsen’s debates, or those of some others, we can see from the example of very good presuppositionalist debaters that this interpretation of the Van Tillian approach is misguided. The approach is emphatically not to say, “You must accept my presuppositions before I will even talk to you.”

Rather, the approach is to show the unbeliever two things: (1) Unbelief leads to ignorance & irrationality.

I’ve been doing that for years, so we agree on that.

(2) The Christian world-view provides a foundation for knowledge. In other words: “Premise A leads to ignorance & logical contradiction. Premise B leads to logical coherence & empirical knowledge.” The actual work of demonstrating the cases is, of course, non-trivial.

Good.

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Presuppositionalism reduces to, therefore, literally “anti-apologetics.” It undermines from the outset the very goal of apologetics: convincing the unbeliever in terms that he can relate to in order to have the discussion at all. We have to defend our viewpoints with something outside of themselves (reason and fact and experience); otherwise, no discussion is possible, because no reason can be given for our belief; therefore it is blind faith, as far as the observing atheist is concerned. I’m not impressed by such a method in the slightest. It accomplishes nothing.

If there is no objection, I would like to present a few selections from a conversation with some atheist friends to illustrate the form that this kind of argument should take.

Sure.

1. In my haste, I misquoted part of the proverb. I should say that the presuppositionalist tries to follow the proverb, “Argue with a fool according to his folly, lest he be wise in his own eyes.

2. I’m still getting used to this format, so I missed the bulk of Dave’s very polite reply. But I am glad that we have as much common ground as we do.

3. Sometimes presuppositionalists do spend too much time proclaiming & too little time developing lines of argumentation. I have seen more examples than I care to admit: Such cases make me cringe. But bad examples of presuppositionalism should not blind us to good examples of that approach.

Fair enough. I would just add that if too many of these examples occur, I submit that perhaps it is because the premises of presuppositionalism inevitably lead to this sort of thing.

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In fact, one might argue that [presuppositionalism] must [abandon argumentation for mere proclamation], insofar as it holds that believer and non-believer hold so little in common that they can scarcely communicate with each other (and incorporating the effect of Total Depravity or the unregenerate state).

I cannot, of course, speak for all presuppositionalists, but the teachers who have influenced me have taken a different approach. They instead emphasize the common ground that the believer has with the unbeliever owing to the unbeliever’s pre-existing knowledge of God as spelled out in Romans 1.

That is valid; however, the trick there is that your average atheist will not accept this, as it is already presupposing the truth of revelation, so it can be tried, but I am very dubious as to how successful it will be in convincing any atheist.

True, unbelievers have suppressed the truth of God in their rebellion against God, as a result of which their foolish hearts are darkened, and (though thinking themselves wise) they have become fools. We are even told that their speculations — their theories & philosophies — have become futile. The unbeliever is thus unable to justify his knowledge-claims. Hence, the unbeliever’s world-view is ripe for destruction.

The text doesn’t require us to conclude that absolutely every unbeliever is in express rebellion against the truth. I have argued that the very next chapter (Romans 2) presents a picture that suggests a great deal of goodness (from God) in some nonbelievers. Romans 1 is typical proverbial-type language of “universality” that was not intended to be taken literally. So both forms of Hebrew / biblical expression and context mitigate against this use of Romans 1 as an ally for presuppositionalism.

But the unbeliever still has a knowledge of God: so much that he is “without excuse” in the face of God’s wrath.

I agree, but usually this knowledge is buried deep under many layers of rationalization and disinformation, by which the person is burdened. He is often not even consciously aware of it. Men have a high capacity for suppressing divine truths and knowledge.

The unbeliever secretly relies on the knowledge of God when using math, logic, science, language, moral claims, and so on. We have common ground, not neutral ground.

One can distinguish between these two propositions:

1) Whoever does math, logic, science, language, and makes moral claims is ultimately relying on the inherent knowledge and presuppositions that God gave them [ability to reason, senses, presupposing basic tenets of knowledge and existence of ourselves and the universe, assuming the general “uniformitarianism” and predictability of life and nature, etc.], whether aware of it or not.

2) Whoever does math, logic, science, language, and makes moral claims must deliberately, consciously adopt overtly Christian presuppositions before it is even possible to do these things.

I wholeheartedly accept #1 and with equal vigor reject #2. Perhaps this might explain some of the discrepancy between us and cast light on where some confusion might be present in understanding each other. I also accept the following notion:

3) Math, logic, science, and language can be done and made starting with “religiously neutral” premises. The truth of 2+2=4 or e=mc2 or “if a=b and b=c, then a=c” or linguistics and syntax do not require adopting Christian presuppositions in order to be understood or applied to real life analyses.

For morality, I would argue that it is a fundamentally different case (and we would likely agree much more here), and that morality without a God of some transcendent sort is difficult to achieve in theory or in practice.

Take courses on those subjects [logic, science, mathematics, & history] in some school. One doesn’t have to start with Christian presuppositions to learn any of those things.

And here is where we really disagree.

For the presuppositionalist, the fear of Lord is the beginning of wisdom, knowledge, & understanding. Unbelieving men are able to be very good scientists, logicians, mathematicians & historians only because they have an innate knowledge of God that they suppress & deny in self-deception.

I agree in the sense of #1 above, but not if by this you mean something akin to what I described in #2. I am most eager to hear your response to this.

Unbelieving world-views cannot justify knowledge claims: they are nothing more than “empty deception” & “futile speculations.”

Ultimately, but often not in their initial stages. I’d have to see more specific examples to really unpack this adequately. We can only argue in generalities for so long.

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The unbeliever unconsciously relies on his knowledge of God, but he has already engaged in self-deception to suppress that knowledge.

Oftentimes; not always. In fact, I would say this is self-evident, because some atheists do , in fact, become believers. Everyone is at a certain point on the spectrum between total atheism and committed Christianity. If an atheist is to convert to Christianity, say, 13 years from now, then God has moved him further towards the Christian end of the spectrum in six of those 13 years, moving toward the goal (in God’s Providence).

Therefore, such a person is relatively less hostile to Christianity and certain of its claims and assumptions after these six years, than he would have been before. God is moving him along, by His grace. Most conversions take place gradually, not suddenly. See, for example, C.S. Lewis’s accounts of his journey from atheism to theism and Christianity. Process; grey areas. It’s not a matter of his being totally wicked and then transformed into an angel of light when he talked to J.R.R. Tolkien and was convinced of the “true myth” of Christianity.

Now, if you accept this premise, then it means that many atheists (the ones who will eventually convert) are less hostile to Christianity than others, who are completely hostile and, indeed, examples of how you are applying Romans 1. Ergo: the passage cannot be applied with the absoluteness that you claim, by the fact of conversions alone.

By the same token, I have often made the same argument in reverse, against so-called Calvinist perseverance or Baptist eternal security. No one knows for certain who will fall away in the future, just as no one knows which atheists will convert to Christianity. We may claim that we know, but we really don’t. Only God does. When the supposed “solid, godly” Calvinist falls away and becomes an atheist, the Calvinist quickly asserts that he never was a Calvinist or justified at all. But they didn’t know that till it happened in practice. Their system then requires such a judgment because it doesn’t allow for apostasy of a person truly justified.

Likewise, you don’t know what atheist will convert. Until they do, you apply your absolutist reading of Romans 1 to them when it may not apply, if indeed the man or woman is on his way to conversion and has become less hostile to Christian assumptions and arguments, while not totally convinced. You could argue, I suppose, that all conversions are instantaneous (like St. Paul or someone like Ebeneezer Scrooge) and involve no process, but I would consider that extremely weak argumentation and difficult to establish on observational grounds.

He is like a man who lives in the penthouse of a 50 story building, while denying the first 49 floors. He could know an awful lot about the penthouse, and have a great view of the city, but could he explain how he came to have such a great view?

But the validity of many observations do not directly depend on presuppositions, except in the very basic sense of being able to reason and observe in the first place.

Since the fear of the Lord is the beginning of knowledge (Proverbs 1:7) and of wisdom (Proverbs 9:10; Psalm 111:10),

Of course this is proverbial literature. The statements are true, but I don’t believe they necessarily apply to atheists in the way presuppositionalists argue. This shows that:

“Christians are knowledgeable and wise because they are building on the solid foundation of belief in God and reverence towards Him.”

It doesn’t necessarily also mean:

“No atheist can be wise or knowledgeable in the slightest degree without belief in God.”

those who deny their knowledge of God cannot give an intelligible account for the basis of their knowledge, just as I could not give an intelligible account of my birth if I denied the existence of my mother.

Ultimately, this is the case, but that is on the deep, presuppositional level, not the “everyday” one of observation and application of the basic building-blocks of reason and knowledge.

Paul even equates philosophy with “empty deception” when that philosophy is “according to the tradition of men, according to the elementary principles of the world, rather than according to Christ.” (Col 2:8,9) Their speculations “futile” — that is, their theories & philosophies are pointless, useless, ineffectual. (Romans 1:21)

Oftentimes, yes. But not always; else why would Paul bother to cite two pagans in his Sermon on Mars Hill?

I would argue that Paul could quote pagan philosophers because those pagan philosophers had (unknowingly) relied on Christian presuppositions in order to attain those insights. Paul turns it back on them showing how their insights contradict their premises. For example, Paul highlights the altar to “the Unknown God,” with its inherent contradiction between ignorance of this unknown god & sufficient knowledge to properly honor him.

Very interesting . . .

The problem for the pagan is that, whatever insights he may have, he cannot justify them on pagan grounds. In that sense, his speculations are futile, unable to rationally justify his knowledge-claims.

Okay.

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Colossians 2:8-10 connects intellectual faithfulness to the deity & authority of Christ. Romans 1:18-23, in a dark reflection, connects the rejection of God’s authority with its replacement by idols and with hearts that are darkened, with futile speculations, and with men “professing to be wise” who become fools.

I responded to this above. It is a general truth, of course, but how to apply it to each individual non-believer is much more complex and tricky.

‘It is therefore important to discover whether there is any answer to Hume within a philosophy that is wholly or mainly empirical. If not, there is no intellectual difference between sanity and insanity. The lunatic who believes that he is a poached egg is to be condemned solely on the ground that he is in a minority…’ ~Bertrand Russell

Russell claimed that St. Thomas Aquinas was not a philosopher, on the grounds that no Christian who incorporates revelation into philosophy can be one, by definition. So, for him, there are no true Christian philosophers. He’s the opposite mirror image of the presuppositionalist, who thinks there can be no true atheist philosopher.

I wrote:

Bahnsen is not attacking the good intentions of classicists & evidentialists. He is instead pointing out the futile nature of trying to prove the truth of Christian theism from non-Christian presuppositions.

Dave replies:

This, of course, hinges on what one means by “prove.”

Oddly enough, no, I’m not sure it does. At any rate, I don’t think it is the real point of disagreement.

I have no idea what just happened there, but anyway, I continue . . .

I think there are relatively few things that one can absolutely prove. On the other hand, I believe in natural theology, which means that I think there are certain things that all men know intuitively or instinctively or with a properly formed intellect by virtue of logic, that Christians can then build upon in their apologetic.

For Bahnsen, Van Til, & Frame, the question is not whether we can prove anything with absolute certainty. For them, the question is whether unbelieving presuppositions permit one to rationally warrant any claim as even probably true. Their answer is, “No.”

This has to be unpacked and argued with reference to specific instances; otherwise we are just spinning our wheels and not moving the discussion along. I dealt with Bahnsen’s particular arguments in my critique and showed, I think, how they fail, according to both reason and the data of revelation.

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“Our knowledge forms an enormous system. And only within this system has a particular bit the value we give it.” ~Ludwig Wittgenstein

That’s right.

My atheist friends have commented that there is no evidence for the existence of God. The example of Russell’s Teapot implies as much by comparing our knowledge of God to our knowledge of an invisible teapot orbiting another planet.

This claim is, of course, untrue. There is an abundance of evidence for the existence of God. The debate is not about the quantity of evidence, but rather concerns how that evidence should be handled & interpreted. A few examples are in order…

First example:

A century ago, most cosmologists believed that the universe was infinite in scope & eternal in duration. The universe, they believed, had no beginning & would have no end. Later, a new theory displaced the old model. The universe, most cosmologists now believe, came into existence through a Big Bang. The universe has a beginning … and it came from nothing. Nothing material, at any rate.

(The fact that the scientific community can change its position on a question is a good reason not to base either theism or atheism on “science.” The dominant explanation may change in surprising ways.)

I disagree. Science, as it increased in knowledge (hence truth in an empirical sense), has confirmed Christian beliefs all the more, because all truth is God’s truth. We need not fear science. It bolsters Christian belief at every turn. The Big Bang is entirely consistent with creation, whereas an eternal universe would not be. Intelligent Design has made, I think, the traditional teleological argument stronger than ever. The inability of scientists to discover even the basic processes for the evolution of life, DNA, reproduction, consciousness, etc., only confirms that a Divine Hand must have been involved. It can’t be “proven” but it is highly plausible.

When Copernicus established heliocentism, some folks were very upset, as if this supposedly overthrew biblical cosmology. But it turned out that the earth simply wasn’t the center of the universe (i.e., in physical terms) and this was God’s plan. Nothing in Christianity was overthrown. Upon reflection, Christians figured out that the truth of Christianity does not rise or fall on whether the sun goes around the earth or vice versa.

The same applied to the change from Newtonian to Einsteinian and quantum physics. What is threatened in Christianity by relativity? To the contrary, Einstein demonstrated that time is not an absolute. Christians already knew that because we believed that God was outside of time, that time began, and that eternity is to be distinguished from time (St. Augustine had already discussed this 1600 years ago). We have nothing whatsoever to fear from science. Modern science arose in a Christian milieu and it has not ever “disproven” Christianity. It has confirmed it.

However, it is philosophically problematic to think that the universe really came from nothing. Ex nihilo nihil fit, according to the old dictum: Nothing comes from nothing. So, many have argued, the universe must have had a cause outside of itself, a Creator.

Does the origin of the universe count as evidence for God? From a Christian perspective, it obviously does. “Here,” says the Christian, “are facts that reflect what we have been saying all along.” And he is obviously correct — from his perspective.

But there are other perspectives, and those perspectives will interpret the evidence differently. The Muslim will see the Big Bang as evidence of the might of Allah. The atheist may very take the ex nihilo problem as evidence that the Big Bang Theory is wrong, or dismiss the question as an “unsolved problem,” — just one more research grant.

How do you resolve such a dilemma? “More evidence” is unlikely to resolve the matter, since the evidence is subject to different interpretations, each dependent on the presuppositions of the interpreter. Somehow, we must resolve the question of how to interpret the data.

I am not required to claim that science (and/or philosophy) is all the knowledge there is. Reason and revelation / faith have to be incorporated into an overall coherent epistemology or worldview. If the atheist relies on science alone, that is as foolish as a Christian relying on “faith alone” and refusing to incorporate reason into his overall belief-system.

Second example:

At the risk of letting this thread spin wildly out of control, let me raise another example: the question of design. Please, let’s not have an evolution-creation debate. I happen to believe in both — subject to definition of terms, of course — but I just want to provide a small example, not launch another flame war.

As it happens, I used to believe in the argument from design. During my college years, however, I realized there was a problem: Answering the question empirically was an exercise in circular reasoning — for both the atheist & the theist. If the universe is designed, then this is what a designed universe looks like. If the universe is not designed, then this is what a universe without design looks like.

If you believe the universe is designed, then the universe is full of evidence for design. If you do not believe the universe is designed, then the universe is full of evidence against design. Conclusions, once again, are a function of presuppositions. How to resolve the fundamental difference in presuppositions? How can we decide how to interpret the evidence?

I don’t argue it in this fashion. What I do is say that there are all these marvelous processes (more discovered all the time) that don’t seem to be able to be remotely explained (as to origin) by “random” or purely materialistic processes. If one believes that they can be explained by such natural processes, then presumably some explanation is (at least potentially or theoretically) to be had.

But failing that, one must admit that it is a view held with no direct empirical evidence. It is basically “blind faith” or materialistic presuppositionalism. Therefore, it is not a whit better than Christian (or otherwise theistic) metaphysical belief in a Designer. The Designer hypothesis is at least some internally coherent attempt to explain how we got from Point A to Point B. It is as reasonable (if not far more so) than materialism. The same process of reasoning can be used for the Big Bang and related cosmological arguments.

Bottom line: both views require faith. Materialism is at the most no better than a theistic worldview, to explain these mysterious processes. We also attack the ridiculous notion that science is the sum of all knowledge, and methodological naturalism. Scientists are not required to give up religious belief in order to be scientists. I’ve written at great length on this. We can show the ludicrous nature of materialism and then — quite rationally – suggest that some truths about nature and origins lie outside of science proper and far better explain the natural world than a ridiculous materialism that keeps firing epistemological and explanatory blanks.

Third example:

An even better example involves the Resurrection that we celebrate today. A scholar can point to literally thousands of manuscripts recounting the life, death & resurrection of Jesus. These ancient texts give strong evidence of multiple sources recounting first- and second-hand testimony of the miracles & resurrection of Jesus. Internal evidence suggests that these accounts were accurate. External evidence supports that conclusion.

In one sense then, the Resurrection has the best attestation of any event in ancient world. But is it true?

The atheist, of course, may answer that it is not true. Accounts of men rising from the dead are not to be believed. Why not? Well, because men do not rise from the dead. The argument is consistent. And circular.

Yes, of course at that point we have to argue that the miraculous is entirely possible and cannot be ruled out a priori.

Christians, on the other hand, have no problem believing that God would raise His Son from the dead. The argument is circular — and consistent.

It’s not circular if we can establish that miracles are possible, and that this one plausibly, very likely occurred, based on eyewitness testimony and behavior. And we believe it in faith, and have a certainty based on revelation, which is another form of knowledge.

How can atheists & Christians settle the debate when they have different presuppositions that lead to different conclusions? How do we decide how to interpret the data? How do we decide which epistemology is correct?

We have to go back to the prior argument for the supernatural and the miraculous. And epistemologically prior to that, we can easily demonstrate that science itself starts from metaphysical axioms that cannot themselves be proven, and that it is not the sum of all knowledge. Those fallacies are what cause the unbeliever (on a purely rational plane, which is not all the factors involved by any means) to deny it. They are slaves to their false presuppositions. But we can break those down by using reasoning and fact acknowledged by both parties.

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Dave distinguishes between two propositions:

1) Whoever does math, logic, science, language, and makes moral claims is ultimately relying on the inherent knowledge and presuppositions that God gave them [ability to reason, senses, presupposing basic tenets of knowledge and existence of ourselves and the universe, assuming the general “uniformitarianism” and predictability of life and nature, etc.], whether aware of it or not.

2) Whoever does math, logic, science, language, and makes moral claims must deliberately, consciously adopt overtly Christian presuppositions before it is even possible to do these things.

Agreed. That is exactly the distinction that Bahnsen, Frame & others make.

Excellent. Then we do agree on that, too.

The very idea of “presuppositional apologetics” is to force the unbeliever — through reason & example — to acknowledge that he implicitly relies on Christian presuppositions when using math, science, language, moral claims, and so on. This approach depends on showing the unbeliever the implications of his false world-view — logical contradiction & ignorance — in contrast to the implications of the Christian world-view.

If by that you mean something like the above, then I agree. Perhaps this particular dispute, then, turns on clarifying definitions and how terms and concepts are being used and applied. Doesn’t mean there are no differences, but it is good to see this commonality. But then again, I myself am not strictly an “evidentialist”. I draw from the insights of several different schools of thought in apologetics.

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If you tried to doubt everything you would not get as far as doubting anything. The game of doubting itself presupposes certainty. ~ Ludwig Wittgenstein

As the foregoing examples show, evidence does not speak for itself. It must be interpreted within a framework. This framework (or paradigm [Kuhn] or world-view [Kant] or language-game [Wittgenstein] or web of belief [Quine]) evaluates the evidence & gives it weight & meaning. Different frameworks reach different conclusions. How can we know which conclusion is correct? Obviously, we can only know which conclusion is correct if we know which framework is correct, but how can we make that determination?

Obviously, an atheist can criticize Asatru on atheistic grounds & find that it fails the epistemological criteria of his atheistic world-view. An Asatruar can evaluate Christianity & find it wanting on Odinistic grounds. A Christian can examine atheism & reject it as false, contradicting Christian truths. Such are arguments are both circular & pointless.

To say that atheism is true because it can reject theistic religions on the basis of atheistic criteria is not satisfactory in any way. Christianity is coherent on Christian grounds; does that fact in itself prove that Christianity is true? How then do we resolve a conflict of world-views?

First, let’s take a closer look at the evaluative frameworks that we use to judge evidence. Such a framework includes — indeed, it hinges on — ideas that are granted “revisionary immunity,” core beliefs that are held to be true under all circumstances, which will not be revised no matter what the evidence. Such beliefs are necessary, for all judgments depend on them. Judgments turn on these core beliefs — as it were like hinges on which those turn.

I agree, pretty much.

Ludwig Wittgenstein, the most important language philosopher of the 20th Century, called such beliefs “indubitables.” There are certain propositions in any language game or system of beliefs in order even to have an intelligible doubt. He made numerous observations of this sort:

One cannot make experiments if there are not some things that one does not doubt. That is to say, the questions that we raise and our doubts depend on the fact that some propositions are exempt from doubt, are as it were like hinges on which those turn. That is to say, it belongs to the logic of our scientific investigations that certain things are indeed not doubted.

Doubting and non-doubting behavior. There is the first only if there is the second. If I wanted to doubt whether this was my hand, how could I avoid doubting whether the word “hand” has any meaning? So that is something I seem to know after all. But more correctly: The fact that I use the word “hand” and all the other words in my sentence without a second thought, indeed that I should stand before the abyss if I wanted so much as to try doubting their meanings — shows that absence of doubt belongs to the essence of the language-game, that the question “How do I know” drags out the language-game, or else does away with it.

Knowledge is in the end based on acknowledgement. Our knowledge forms an enormous system. And only within this system has a particular bit the value we give it. Certain propositions seem to underlie all questions and all thinking. Doesn’t the whole language-game rest on this kind of certainty? Or: isn’t this “certainty” (already) presupposed in the language-game? Namely by virtue of the fact that one is not playing the game, or is playing it wrong, if one does not recognize objects with certainty.

Something must be taught us as a foundation. When a child learns language it learns at the same time what is to be investigated and what not. Doubt itself rests only on what is beyond doubt. A doubt without an end is not even a doubt. The child learns by believing the adult. Doubt comes after belief. If you are not certain of any fact, you cannot be certain of the meaning of your words either. If you tried to doubt everything you would not get as far as doubting anything. The game of doubting itself presupposes certainty.

These reflections make it clear that one must begin with a set of core beliefs in order to make judgments possible. If I say, “That is a red barn,” the statement presupposes that I know what “red” means & what a “barn” might be, among other things. To evaluate my claim, you must also know what the words mean — as well as the grammar of the sentence. Even to doubt my claim requires that you take something for granted. “A doubt without an end is not even a doubt.”

These insights, like those of Polanyi, Kuhn, Plantinga & others, revealed the failure of the Enlightenment project to establish human knowledge on neutral ground, on a blank slate. The Enlightenment presupposed that objective knowledge required neutral grounds — and failed as a result.

Reasoning, then, does not begin with a blank slate. “Knowledge is in the end based on acknowledgement.” We cannot begin reasoning, doubting & evaluating without a foundation taken to be true. We cannot argue without presupposing the truth of certain statements.

However, as we have seen, there is no agreement over which propositions should be regarded core beliefs or foundational truths. This turns out to be a problem for at least two reasons:

I think this is all great insight. I would also recommend Cardinal Newman’s Grammar of Assent, that takes the same general approach to epistemology.

All knowledge, all reasoning, all judgment takes place within some framework. (LW: “Our knowledge forms an enormous system. And only within this system has a particular bit the value we give it.”) And each system depends on certain core propositions. Some of these propositions may not be held explicitly — they may be what Michael Polanyi called “tacit rules” but they form the basis of all our judgments.

However, there is obviously no agreement over which propositions should be regarded core beliefs or foundational truths. This lack of agreement turns out to be a problem for at least two reasons.

First, differences in identifying these core beliefs can alter the arrow of falsification, even among people who seem to share the same beliefs. Suppose that Burz & Kugash both believe that Sauron is a god & that the gods are immortal. Following the War of the Ring, they encounter convincing evidence that Sauron is dead. (A giant red eyeball on a pike, perhaps.)

“Agggk,” says Burz, “Sauron is no god.”

“Blasphemer!” replies Kugash, “All this proves is that some gods die.”

So, even if we consider just two beliefs, it is unclear which proposition is falsified. (This problem undermines Popperian falsificationism.) In practice, people actually hold innumerable interconnected beliefs, and may reject or revise one of several beliefs in the face disconfirming evidence.

According to W.V.O. Quine, those beliefs that are less central to a “web of belief” are most subject to rejection or revision. Beliefs which are closer to the core in one’s web of belief have more connections to other beliefs. Altering or removing those beliefs would have a larger impact on the web of belief, implying a larger shock to one’s world-view. This tendency to revise beliefs that are less central to one’s world-view Quine summarized as his “maxim of minimum mutilation.”

One can see evidence of this tendency at work in areas relevant to our discussion. Over the last 50 or 60 years, theories of terrestrial, undirected abiogenesis have had a nasty habit of failing. (For example, I don’t think anyone has offered an adequate answer for the problem of AMP synthesis.) One reaction to these difficulties might to abandon the naturalistic assumptions of such a model & embrace some variety of theism. Another would be to posit aliens who seeded the rest of the universe with life. The latter position was actually adopted by Francis Crick (who won the Nobel Prize for discovering the double-helix structure of DNA) though he later recanted.

Second, the lack of agreement in core beliefs means that evidence is subject to evaluation by standards that vary from one world-view to the next. Differences in core beliefs include disagreements in epistemology (the theory of knowledge) as well as disagreements in metaphysics (the theory of reality) & ethics.

One may consider, for example, the differences between G.W.F. Hegel & David Hume. Hegel represents a strain of thought that emphasizes continuity & unity, in which statements are merely provisional. Logical analysis means interacting a thesis with an antithesis, an interaction that is resolved in a synthesis, moving us from one unstable equilibrium to a new & higher level of unstable equilibrium.

Hume, of course, is a more familiar figure, representing a strain of thought with a discreteness orientation that emphasizes contrast. Logical progress involves a once-for-all sorting of propositions in which claims are determined to be “consistent” or else “contradictory.”

But now imagine that we resurrect Hume & Hegel so that they can sort out their differences. How will they go about it? The problem, of course, is that they can’t even agree on how to resolve their dispute. Hume complains that Hegel doesn’t make clear distinctions (“I don’t even know what you’re saying”) while Hegel complains that Hume “falsifies the whole” by focusing on just a little piece of the truth.

The poor guys can’t even agree on which metaphors to use. Hegel is constantly comparing things to a bud which becomes a blossom which becomes a flower. Hume, on the other hand, pictures the universe as a billiards table, with discrete object interacting with another discrete object.

Other divisions are just as deep. A conversation between, for example, Immanuel Kant & Soren Kierkegaard would quickly bog down. Kant would complain that Kierkegaard was to involved & couldn’t be detached enough to answer the question. Kierkegaard would reply that Kant was a mere spectator & could not really understand the question because he didn’t experience it. Conceptually, neither would speak in a language the other could understand.

The conflicts between these different world-views cannot be settled in the same way that we settle questions about the price of eggs at the grocery store. The parties to the debate cannot even agree on the standards to use in answering simple questions. The debate between the Christian & the atheist threatens to devolve into that kind of stalemate.

Is there another way to answer the question?

I can’t find anything where we would disagree significantly enough to make a comment!

“We know more than we can tell.” ~Michael Polanyi

“Our knowledge forms an enormous system. And only within this system has a particular bit the value we give it.” ~Ludwig Wittgenstein

In Part One, I observed that, despite claims to the contrary, there is an abundance of evidence for the existence of God. However, theists & atheists disagree on how to evaluate the evidence. As an example, I argued that the Big Bang is evidence for the existence of God — but only within a more or less theistic world-view. The presuppositions of the committed atheist cause him to insist that non-theistic explanations should be preferred.

I disagree here. I think that both theist and atheist can utilize science as we know it to determine that the Big Bang makes it just as rational and plausible to believe in God as to not do so. It can’t absolutely prove there is a God, but it can bring one to a place to see that this belief is a better explanation for the universe than any other: and that based on science alone before one even gets to philosophy per se.

I further developed this theme with the examples of Intelligent Design. Life on Earth displays evidence of design or not based on one’s presuppositions. Atheists presuppose a world without design & interpret individual cases in light of that governing presupposition. Christians & believing Jews presuppose a world guided according to a larger purpose, and interpret individual cases accordingly.

I would say (because I love both these arguments and consider them powerful theistic evidences) that the atheist explanation of design is thoroughly incoherent and makes no sense. It is implausible in the extreme, and normally if we feel that way about an argument then we should be very cautious in our claims about it. Thus, the atheist, lacking any plausible alternative explanation of Design, ought to be honest with himself (from his own presuppositions of naturalistic science, etc.) and admit that the theistic explanation is at the very least no less rational or plausible than what he believes. This is how I apply these arguments in my own apologetic. And I have debated both scientists and professional philosophers in these areas.

Likewise, atheists reject historical accounts of the Resurrection of Jesus as inaccurate or unreliable or fanciful because they believe that no reliable account could record a clear evidence of a man rising from the dead. Given their presuppositions, men do not rise from the dead.

Exactly. Their premise is anti-supernaturalism (that being the case; obviously they would reject the Resurrection out of hand). They rule out the miraculous before they begin. And so one must attack their premise and show that it is untenable.

On Christian presuppositions, there is no reason that God should not raise men from the dead when it suits his purpose. The historical evidence thus confirms the divine role & power of Jesus of Nazareth — on Christian presuppositions.

Sure.

In Part Two, I tried to explain these differences of interpretation in terms of conflicting set of presuppositions. In particular, I highlighted the necessary nature of presuppositions. All reasoning, even all doubting, begins with presuppositions. The idea that we shouldn’t presuppose anything turns out to be a misguided presupposition.

I couldn’t agree more. Like I said, as a Socratic in method, I very much resonate with this emphasis, because the Socratic is constantly critiquing premises in opponents.

In Part Three, I argued that all world-views, atheist or not, are insulated against empirical falsification, since beliefs on the outer fringes of the web of belief can be sacrificed to preserve core presuppositions. Moreover, disagreements between world-views face the challenge arising from radically different standards of proof & knowledge.

Yep.

So, where exactly does that leave us? Presuppositions are necessary to thought, reason, doubt, & argumentation, manifesting themselves at the outset of our inquiries. They shape our interpretation of empirical data, & guide our choice of questions, analogies, & modes of proof. Conversation across radically different world-views is akin to two people speaking completely different languages.

Is there no possibility of discourse? I want to suggest that there is a rational way to resolve these differences…

As seen, I agree with most of this. I think our differences would come down to mostly disagreement on the place of natural theology and the traditional theistic arguments.

Thanks for the input. What you have presented is great food for thought for my readers.

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Photo credit: Photo of Cornelius Van Til from The Works of Cornelius Van Til, 1895-1987, CD-ROM (New York: Labels Army Co., 1997). The copyright holder of this work allows anyone to use it for any purpose including unrestricted redistribution, commercial use, and modification. [Wikimedia Commons]

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Summary: Excellent dialogue with a congenial Reformed Baptist man on apologetics method, and especially, presuppositionalism vs. evidentialism (and all things in-between).

2023-02-21T15:43:26-04:00

Lucas Banzoli is a very active Brazilian anti-Catholic polemicist, who holds to basically a Seventh-Day Adventist theology, whereby there is no such thing as a soul that consciously exists outside of a body, and no hell (soul sleep and annihilationism). This leads him to a Christology which is deficient and heterodox in terms of Christ’s human nature after His death. He has a Master’s degree in theology, a degree and postgraduate work in history, a license in letters, and is a history teacher, author of 25 books, as well as blogmaster (but now inactive) for six blogs. He’s active on YouTube.

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The words of Lucas Banzoli will be in blue. I used Google Translate to transfer his Portugese text into English.

*****

This is a reply to Lucas’ article, “A Sola Fide na Bíblia (Justificação somente pela fé)” [Sola Fide in the Bible (Justification by Faith Alone] (1-7-14). All Bible passages: RSV.

His article consists solely of Bible passages. It reminds me a lot of my many articles like that, as well as two of my books consisting of almost solely Scripture. So I’m more than happy to “play along” with this sort of methodology. “Two can play at this game!” and (surprise!) Catholics can play it as well (and even better!) than Protestants. Lucas provided 45 proofs of “justification by faith alone” from Scripture, which really aren’t proofs at all, as I will show. To counter his presentation, I produce 200 categorized Bible passages in favor of the Catholic view of infused justification or justification by faith as evidenced or manifested in works: without which faith is dead. I will categorize Lucas’ 45 passages below according to my replies to them from a Catholic perspective. I also categorize (for ease of access) my “response passages” below.

Justification by Faith / Belief Without Denying the Place of Good Works in the Overall Equation

John 5:24 Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears my word and believes him who sent me, has eternal life; he does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life.

John 6:40 For this is the will of my Father, that every one who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.”

John 6:47 Truly, truly, I say to you, he who believes has eternal life.

Romans 3:26 it was to prove at the present time that he himself is righteous and that he justifies him who has faith in Jesus.

Romans 3:30 [Lucas also separately and wrongly lists Romans 3:13 for this passage] since God is one; and he will justify the circumcised on the ground of their faith and the uncircumcised through their faith. 

Romans 4:16 That is why it depends on faith, in order that the promise may rest on grace and be guaranteed to all his descendants — not only to the adherents of the law but also to those who share the faith of Abraham, for he is the father of us all,

Romans 5:1-2 Therefore, since we are justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ. [2] Through him we have obtained access to this grace in which we stand, and we rejoice in our hope of sharing the glory of God.

Romans 5:9 Since, therefore, we are now justified by his blood, much more shall we be saved by him from the wrath of God.

Galatians 3:8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, “In you shall all the nations be blessed.”

2 Timothy 3:15 and how from childhood you have been acquainted with the sacred writings which are able to instruct you for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus.

Hebrew 4:3 [incorrectly listed as Heb 3:4] For we who have believed enter that rest, as he has said, “As I swore in my wrath, `They shall never enter my rest,'” although his works were finished from the foundation of the world.

Hebrews 10:38 but my righteous one shall live by faith, and if he shrinks back, my soul has no pleasure in him.”

Hebrews 10:39 But we are not of those who shrink back and are destroyed, but of those who have faith and keep their souls.

This is a matter of simple logic. The Protestant claim is “justification by faith alone”. But the phrases “justification by faith” or  “believe [in Christ]” are not the same as that (though they are possibly consistent with the claim). “Alone” is an additional clause modifying [justifying] “faith” or “belief”. It excludes any additional element alongside of the faith. To use an analogy, I could say:

“I am justified by reading my Bible.”

That’s different from:

“I am justified by reading my Bible at midnight.”

The second is far more particular, and excludes all times besides midnight.

None of the above passages exclude good works or merit or sanctification as part of justification and salvation. We have to examine passages along those lines in order to have the complete picture. And I will do that below. But the passages above considered by themselves do not prove justification by faith alone.

Initial Justification

Romans 4:3-4, 7 [Lucas listed “Romans 4:1-7”, but had already included Rom 4:2, 5-6] For what does the scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness.” [4] Now to one who works, his wages are not reckoned as a gift but as his due. . . . [7] “Blessed are those whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered;

Romans 4:5 And to one who does not work but trusts him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is reckoned as righteousness.

Romans 4:6 So also David pronounces a blessing upon the man to whom God reckons righteousness apart from works:

Romans 4:9 Is this blessing pronounced only upon the circumcised, or also upon the uncircumcised? We say that faith was reckoned to Abraham as righteousness.

Romans 4:11-12 [Lucas had this listed as Rom 4:11-13, but he listed Romans 4:13 already] He received circumcision as a sign or seal of the righteousness which he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. The purpose was to make him the father of all who believe without being circumcised and who thus have righteousness reckoned to them, [12] and likewise the father of the circumcised who are not merely circumcised but also follow the example of the faith which our father Abraham had before he was circumcised.

Romans 4:22-24 That is why his faith was “reckoned to him as righteousness.” [23] But the words, “it was reckoned to him,” were written not for his sake alone, [24] but for ours also. It will be reckoned to us who believe in him that raised from the dead Jesus our Lord,

Romans 10:9-10 because, if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. [10] For man believes with his heart and so is justified, and he confesses with his lips and so is saved.

Galatians 3:6 Thus Abraham “believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness.”

Galatians 3:22 Now it is evident that no man is justified before God by the law; for “He who through faith is righteous shall live”;

Hebrews 11:7 By faith Noah, being warned by God concerning events as yet unseen, took heed and constructed an ark for the saving of his household; by this he condemned the world and became an heir of the righteousness which comes by faith.

James 2:23 and the scripture was fulfilled which says, “Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness”; and he was called the friend of God.

Catholics and Protestants agree with regard to the earliest, initial stage of justification. It comes by grace through faith (for those above the age of reason, able to exercise faith with understanding), and not works. We can do nothing to earn it. When Catholics talk about works being included in the whole process of salvation, that is referring to the time subsequent to initial justification.

Chapters 5 and 8 of the Decree on Justification, from the Council of Trent (1547) state:

V. On the necessity, in adults, of preparation for Justification, and whence it proceeds.

The Synod furthermore declares, that in adults, the beginning of the said Justification is to be derived from the prevenient grace of God, through Jesus Christ, that is to say, from His vocation, whereby, without any merits existing on their parts, they are called; that so they, who by sins were alienated from God, may be disposed through His quickening and assisting grace, to convert themselves to their own justification, by freely assenting to and co-operating with that said grace: in such sort that, while God touches the heart of man by the illumination of the Holy Ghost, neither is man himself utterly without doing anything while he receives that inspiration, forasmuch as he is also able to reject it; yet is he not able, by his own free will, without the grace of God, to move himself unto justice in His sight. Whence, when it is said in the sacred writings: Turn ye to me, and I will turn to you, we are admonished of our liberty; and when we answer; Convert us, O Lord, to thee, and we shall be converted, we confess that we are prevented by the grace of God.

VIII. In what manner it is to be understood, that the impious is justified by faith, and gratuitously.

And whereas the Apostle saith, that man is justified by faith and freely, those words are to be understood in that sense which the perpetual consent of the Catholic Church hath held and expressed; to wit, that we are therefore said to be justified by faith, because faith is the beginning of human salvation, the foundation, and the root of all Justification; without which it is impossible to please God, and to come unto the fellowship of His sons: but we are therefore said to be justified freely, because that none of those things which precede justification-whether faith or works-merit the grace itself of justification. For, if it be a grace, it is not now by works, otherwise, as the same Apostle says, grace is no more grace.

Chapter 10 refers to “that justice which they have received through the grace of Christ”. See also:

CANON III.-If any one saith, that without the prevenient inspiration of the Holy Ghost, and without his help, man can believe, hope, love, or be penitent as he ought, so as that the grace of Justification may be bestowed upon him; let him be anathema.

Likewise, the Catholic Catechism (#1989) states:

The first work of the grace of the Holy Spirit is conversion, effecting justification in accordance with Jesus’ proclamation at the beginning of the Gospel: “Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.” Moved by grace, man turns toward God and away from sin, thus accepting forgiveness and righteousness from on high. . . .

See my related articles: Initial Justification & “Faith Alone”: Harmonious? [5-3-04] and Monergism in Initial Justification is Catholic Doctrine [1-7-10], and another hosted on my page: Trent Doesn’t Utterly Exclude Imputation (Kenneth Howell) [July 1996].

The above passages, understood in this light, do not contradict Catholic teaching at all, nor do they prove justification by faith alone.

Justification by Grace Alone / Rejection of Salvation by Works (Pelagianism)

Ephesians 2:8-9 For by grace you have been saved through faith; and this is not your own doing, it is the gift of God — [9] not because of works, lest any man should boast.

Romans 3:22-24 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction; [23] since all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, [24] they are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus,

Romans 11:6 But if it is by grace, it is no longer on the basis of works; otherwise grace would no longer be grace.

2 Corinthians 3:5 Not that we are competent of ourselves to claim anything as coming from us; our competence is from God,

Ephesians 1:7 In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of our trespasses, according to the riches of his grace

Ephesians 2:5 even when we were dead through our trespasses, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved),

2 Timothy 1:9 who saved us and called us with a holy calling, not in virtue of our works but in virtue of his own purpose and the grace which he gave us in Christ Jesus ages ago,

Titus 3:4-7 but when the goodness and loving kindness of God our Savior appeared, [5] he saved us, not because of deeds done by us in righteousness, but in virtue of his own mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewal in the Holy Spirit, [6] which he poured out upon us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior, [7] so that we might be justified by his grace and become heirs in hope of eternal life.

These are similar to the preceding set of passages, and neither refute Catholic soteriology nor prove “faith alone”. Catholics fully agree with Protestants that salvation is by grace alone: which is different from faith alone, since grace comes solely from God, while faith comes from man’s free will choice, preceded and ultimately caused by the grace of God. The Council of Trent (Decrees and Canons on Justification) confirms this, too:

CANON I.-If any one saith, that man may be justified before God by his own works, whether done through the teaching of human nature, or that of the law, without the grace of God through Jesus Christ; let him be anathema.

CANON II.-If any one saith, that the grace of God, through Jesus Christ, is given only for this, that man may be able more easily to live justly, and to merit eternal life, as if, by free will without grace, he were able to do both, though hardly indeed and with difficulty; let him be anathema.

The Catholic Catechism also states:

1996 Our justification comes from the grace of God. Grace is favor, the free and undeserved help that God gives us to respond to his call to become children of God, adoptive sons, partakers of the divine nature and of eternal life.

1998 This vocation to eternal life is supernatural. It depends entirely on God’s gratuitous initiative, for he alone can reveal and give himself. It surpasses the power of human intellect and will, as that of every other creature.

1999 The grace of Christ is the gratuitous gift that God makes to us of his own life, infused by the Holy Spirit into our soul to heal it of sin and to sanctify it. . . .

2001 The preparation of man for the reception of grace is already a work of grace. This latter is needed to arouse and sustain our collaboration in justification through faith, and in sanctification through charity. God brings to completion in us what he has begun, . . .

2008 The merit of man before God in the Christian life arises from the fact that God has freely chosen to associate man with the work of his grace. The fatherly action of God is first on his own initiative, and then follows man’s free acting through his collaboration, so that the merit of good works is to be attributed in the first place to the grace of God, then to the faithful. Man’s merit, moreover, itself is due to God, for his good actions proceed in Christ, from the predispositions and assistance given by the Holy Spirit.

2009 Filial adoption, in making us partakers by grace in the divine nature, can bestow true merit on us as a result of God’s gratuitous justice. . . .

2011 The charity of Christ is the source in us of all our merits before God. Grace, by uniting us to Christ in active love, ensures the supernatural quality of our acts and consequently their merit before God and before men. The saints have always had a lively awareness that their merits were pure grace. . . .

2017 The grace of the Holy Spirit confers upon us the righteousness of God. Uniting us by faith and Baptism to the Passion and Resurrection of Christ, the Spirit makes us sharers in his life.

2020 Justification has been merited for us by the Passion of Christ. It is granted us through Baptism. It conforms us to the righteousness of God, who justifies us. It has for its goal the glory of God and of Christ, and the gift of eternal life. It is the most excellent work of God’s mercy.

2022 The divine initiative in the work of grace precedes, prepares, and elicits the free response of man. Grace responds to the deepest yearnings of human freedom, calls freedom to cooperate with it, and perfects freedom.

2023 Sanctifying grace is the gratuitous gift of his life that God makes to us; it is infused by the Holy Spirit into the soul to heal it of sin and to sanctify it.

2027 No one can merit the initial grace which is at the origin of conversion. . . .

1266 The Most Holy Trinity gives the baptized sanctifying grace, the grace of justification:

– enabling them to believe in God, to hope in him, and to love him through the theological virtues; . . .

1250 . . . The sheer gratuitousness of the grace of salvation is particularly manifest in infant Baptism. . . .

1727 The beatitude of eternal life is a gratuitous gift of God. It is supernatural, as is the grace that leads us there.

Good works and merit proceed wholly from the grace of God (#2008 above) through the work of Jesus Christ on our behalf (not from ourselves). They are necessary but they do not earn salvation, which is by grace alone: Decree on Justification: chapter 16; Canons 18, 19, 20, 24, 26, 32, 33. Canon 32 refers to “the good works which he performs through the grace of God and the merit of Jesus Christ”.

See also my articles: Grace Alone: Perfectly Acceptable Catholic Teaching [2-3-09], Salvation: By Grace Alone, Not Faith Alone or Works [2013], Grace Alone: Biblical & Catholic Teaching [12-1-15]

Many Protestants can’t grasp this because they are in bondage to “either/or” unbiblical thinking. If man does anything, in the “either/or” mentality, God does nothing, and it is works-salvation. It’s all or nothing. God must do all. The problem is that the Bible says many times that we do do things: in and under God’s grace. It doesn’t dichotomize men’s actions and God’s grace, as men do, following the traditions of men. The Bible systematically supports Catholic positions.

Justification by Faith Rather than Law

Romans 3:11 Now it is evident that no man is justified before God by the law; for “He who through faith is righteous shall live”;

Romans 4:13 The promise to Abraham and his descendants, that they should inherit the world, did not come through the law but through the righteousness of faith.

Romans 9:30-32 What shall we say, then? That Gentiles who did not pursue righteousness have attained it, that is, righteousness through faith; [31] but that Israel who pursued the righteousness which is based on law did not succeed in fulfilling that law. [32] Why? Because they did not pursue it through faith, but as if it were based on works. They have stumbled over the stumbling stone,

Galatians 3:24 So that the law was our custodian until Christ came, that we might be justified by faith.

Philippians 3:9 [incorrectly listed as 2:9] and be found in him, not having a righteousness of my own, based on law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness from God that depends on faith;

These passages are a variation of the theme of the previous two sections. Catholics and Protestants agree that the Law in and of itself doesn’t save. It’s grace and a grace-enabled faith that saves. So far, there is total agreement, and these passages don’t prove faith alone, either. Man then cooperates with this grace to do meritorious good works leading to salvation (see the previous section).

Includes Works in the Passage

John 6:28-29 Then they said to him, “What must we do, to be doing the works of God?” [29] Jesus answered them, “This is the work of God, that you believe in him whom he has sent.”

Romans 1:17 For in it the righteousness of God is revealed through faith for faith; as it is written, “He who through faith is righteous shall live.”

Romans 4:2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God.

Hebrews 11:4 By faith Abel offered to God a more acceptable sacrifice than Cain, through which he received approval as righteous, God bearing witness by accepting his gifts; he died, but through his faith he is still speaking.

These express the Catholic view of faith necessarily including works and justification and sanctification working together (infused justification). Notice how in Romans 1:17 one must be “righteous” to live (attain salvation); not merely have faith. Abraham was “justified by works” but it was not works-salvation, which is why he had no grounds to “boast.” His salvation came by grace through faith, just as everyone else’s did. But it didn’t exclude works in the process. Abel’s faith was expressed by a good work: making “a more acceptable sacrifice than Cain”: bringing about God’s “approval”.

In John 6:28-29, working and belief in Christ are equated, much like obedience and belief in John 3:36. In the marvelous phrase “doing the works of God,” we see that our works and God’s are intertwined if indeed we are doing his will. This is the Catholic viewpoint: an organic connection of both faith with works, and God’s unmerited grace coupled with our cooperation and obedience. Our Lord constantly alludes to the related ideas of reward and merit, which are complementary: Matthew 5:11-12, 6:3, 18, 10:42, 12:36-37, 25:14-30; Luke 6:35, 38; 12:33. St. Paul, using the same word for “works” (ergon), speaks in Acts 26:20 of the process of repenting, turning to God, and doing deeds worthy of their repentance. In other words, they will thus prove their repentance by their deeds.

“Works of the Law”

Romans 3:27-28 [27] Then what becomes of our boasting? It is excluded. On what principle? On the principle of works? No, but on the principle of faith. [28] For we hold that a man is justified by faith apart from works of law.

Galatians 2:16 yet who know that a man is not justified by works of the law but through faith in Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, in order to be justified by faith in Christ, and not by works of the law, because by works of the law shall no one be justified.

Protestants habitually use these passages (and others that mention “works of the law”: Rom 3:20; Gal 3:2, 5, 10) to contend that works are antithetical to faith and grace. But “works of the law” has a particular meaning beyond simply “good works” or “all works”. This understanding has been affirmed by a Protestant movement of Pauline studies called the “New Perspective on Paul.” Anglican Bishop and professor of theology N. T. Wright (born 1948) is the most well-known proponent of it. The Wikipedia article explains:

Paul’s letters contain a substantial amount of criticism regarding the “works of the Law“. The radical difference in these two interpretations of what Paul meant by “works of the Law” is the most consistent distinguishing feature between the two perspectives. The historic Protestant perspectives interpret this phrase as referring to human effort to do good works in order to meet God’s standards (Works Righteousness). In this view, Paul is arguing against the idea that humans can merit salvation from God by their good works alone (note that the “new” perspective agrees that we cannot merit salvation; the issue is what exactly Paul is addressing).

By contrast, new-perspective scholars see Paul as talking about “badges of covenant membership” or criticizing Gentile believers who had begun to rely on the Torah to reckon Jewish kinship. It is argued that in Paul’s time, Israelites were being faced with a choice of whether to continue to follow their ancestral customs, the Torah, or to follow the Roman Empire’s trend to adopt Greek customs (Hellenization, see also AntinomianismHellenistic Judaism, and Circumcision controversy in early Christianity). The new-perspective view is that Paul’s writings discuss the comparative merits of following ancient Israelite or ancient Greek customs. Paul is interpreted as being critical of a common Jewish view that following traditional Israelite customs makes a person better off before God, pointing out that Abraham was righteous before the Torah was given. Paul identifies customs he is concerned about as circumcisiondietary laws, and observance of special days.

Due to their interpretation of the phrase “works of the law,” theologians of the historic Protestant perspectives see Paul’s rhetoric as being against human effort to earn righteousness. This is often cited by Protestant and Reformed theologians as a central feature of the Christian religion, and the concepts of grace alone and faith alone are of great importance within the creeds of these denominations.

“New-perspective” interpretations of Paul tend to result in Paul having nothing negative to say about the idea of human effort or good works, and saying many positive things about both. New-perspective scholars point to the many statements in Paul’s writings that specify the criteria of final judgment as being the works of the individual.

Viewed in this light, the passages above and related ones are not contrary at all to Catholic teaching, but are contrary to historic Protestant use of these passages to imply that the Apostle Paul was against all human works whatever. Many other passages (which I will soon cite) prove that he wasn’t against them at all, and indeed commanded them and attached them to sanctification, justification, and salvation alike.

Baptismal Regeneration

Mark 16:16 He who believes and is baptized will be saved; but he who does not believe will be condemned.

This is obviously not “faith alone” because it entails a “work” or ritual of baptism, leading to initial justification and salvation (which can be lost if a person doesn’t persevere in the faith by grace).

No Relation to Justification or Salvation

Matthew 9:22 Jesus turned, and seeing her he said, “Take heart, daughter; your faith has made you well.” And instantly the woman was made well.

I don’t know why Lucas includes this, since it has nothing to do with soteriology. It has to do with faith leading to healing: concerning which Catholics and Protestants agree: except for largely Reformed Protestant “cessationists” who think that God no longer performs miracles today.

***

I conclude from all this that Lucas’ 45 passages [really 40: closely examined] supposedly proving justification / salvation by “faith alone” do no such thing. They do not prove that false doctrine at all. And the many biblical passages I will produce now, contradict it and expressly support the Catholic position.

Final Judgment in Scripture is Always Associated with Works and Never with Faith Alone (50 Passages)

Protestant evangelicals, when evangelizing, typically ask the inquisitive and provocative question: “If you were to die tonight and God asked you why He should let you into heaven, what would you tell Him?” They assume the proper answer is that they exercised “faith in Christ alone.” First of all, I’ve never seen  in the Bible an example of God ever acting like this; so this is simply one of many Protestant catch-phrases or slogans or evangelistic techniques which cannot be found in the Bible (as far as that goes).

At the Final Judgment God doesn’t wrangle with people (and people don’t argue with God — just as with any earthly judge); He simply declares judgment, which is precisely what happens in Matthew 25. He doesn’t ask them questions about their eschatological fate in heaven or hell. As far as we know from revelation, God doesn’t talk in the manner that the familiar evangelical slogans and lingo would have Him talk (as if that were a likely or biblically supported scenario).

I find it extremely interesting that in the passages that Protestants typically cite concerning judgment (Matthew 25:31, 41-46 and Rev elation 20:11-15), we hear not a single word about the “faith alone” which is all that they seem to ever talk about in the context of judgment. Why is this, if in fact, faith alone were the sole criterion of salvation or damnation? Wouldn’t that seem to be, prima facie, a bit strange and unexpected from an evangelical viewpoint?

Instead, all we find in the Bible is this useless talk about works having something to do with salvation! Doesn’t Jesus know that works have no connection to faith whatsoever, and that sanctification and justification are entirely separated in good, orthodox evangelical or Calvinist theology? Jesus would clearly have failed the soteriology (salvation theology) class in any of their seminaries.

Maybe our Lord Jesus attended a liberal synagogue, influenced by heretical Romish ideas. Why does Jesus keep talking about feeding the hungry, giving water to the thirsty, inviting in strangers, clothing the naked, visiting prisoners, and being judged “according to their deeds”? What in the world do all these “works” have to do with salvation? Why doesn’t Jesus talk about faith alone??!! Something is seriously wrong here. Jesus — and Paul — just don’t get it.

Here are 50 biblical passages about judgment where works are mentioned as the criterion of salvation but not faith alone. One of them at least mentions faith in the context of judgment (but alas, not faith alone): Revelation 21:8 includes the “faithless” among those who will be damned for eternity. Even there it is surrounded by many bad works that characterize the reprobate person.

1 Samuel 28:16, 18 And Samuel said, “. . . the LORD has turned from you and become your enemy . . . [18] [b]ecause you did not obey the voice of the LORD, and did not carry out his fierce wrath against Am’alek . . .

2 Kings 22:13 (cf. 2 Chr 34:21) “. . . the wrath of the LORD that is kindled against us, because our fathers have not obeyed the words of this book, to do according to all that is written concerning us.”

Psalm 7:8-10 The LORD judges the peoples; judge me, O LORD, according to my righteousness and according to the integrity that is in me. O let the evil of the wicked come to an end, but establish thou the righteous, thou who triest the minds and hearts, thou righteous God. My shield is with God, who saves the upright in heart.

Psalm 58:11 Men will say, “Surely there is a reward for the righteous; surely there is a God who judges on earth.”

Ecclesiastes 12:14 For God will bring every deed into judgment, with every secret thing, whether good or evil.

Isaiah 59:18 According to their deeds, so will he repay, wrath to his adversaries, requital to his enemies; . . .

Jeremiah 4:4 (cf. 21:12) Circumcise yourselves to the LORD, remove the foreskin of your hearts, O men of Judah and inhabitants of Jerusalem; lest my wrath go forth like fire, and burn with none to quench it, because of the evil of your doings.”

Ezekiel 7:3 (cf. 7:8; 33:20) Now the end is upon you, and I will let loose my anger upon you, and will judge you according to your ways; and I will punish you for all your abominations.

Ezekiel 36:19 I scattered them among the nations, and they were dispersed through the countries; in accordance with their conduct and their deeds I judged them.

Micah 5:15 And in anger and wrath I will execute vengeance upon the nations that did not obey.

Zephaniah 2:3 Seek the LORD, all you humble of the land, who do his commands; seek righteousness, seek humility; perhaps you may be hidden on the day of the wrath of the LORD.

Matthew 5:22 But I say to you that every one who is angry with his brother shall be liable to judgment; whoever insults his brother shall be liable to the council, and whoever says, `You fool!’ shall be liable to the hell of fire.

Matthew 7:16-27 You will know them by their fruits. Are grapes gathered from thorns, or figs from thistles? So every sound tree bears good fruit; but the bad tree bears evil fruit. A sound tree cannot bear evil fruit, nor can a bad tree bear good fruit. Every tree that does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire. Thus you will know them by their fruits. Not every one who says to me, “Lord, Lord,” shall enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. On that day many will say to me, “Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and do many mighty works in your name?” And then will I declare to them, “I never knew you; depart from me, you evildoers.” Every one then who hears these words of mine, and does them will be like a wise man who built his house upon the rock; and the rain fell, and the floods came, and the winds blew and beat upon that house, but it did not fall, because it had been founded on the rock. And every one who hears these words of mine, and does not do them will be like a foolish man who built his house upon the sand; and the rain fell, and the floods came, and the winds blew and beat against that house, and it fell; and great was the fall of it.

Matthew 10:22 (cf. Mt 24:13; Mk 13:13) . . . But he who endures to the end will be saved.

Matthew 16:27 For the Son of man is to come with his angels in the glory of his Father, and then he will repay every man for what he has done.

Matthew 18:8-9 (cf. Mk 9:43; 9:47) And if your hand or your foot causes you to sin, cut it off and throw it away; it is better for you to enter life maimed or lame than with two hands or two feet to be thrown into the eternal fire. And if your eye causes you to sin, pluck it out and throw it away; it is better for you to enter life with one eye than with two eyes to be thrown into the hell of fire.

Matthew 25:14-30 “For it will be as when a man going on a journey called his servants and entrusted to them his property; to one he gave five talents, to another two, to another one, to each according to his ability. Then he went away. He who had received the five talents went at once and traded with them; and he made five talents more. So also, he who had the two talents made two talents more. But he who had received the one talent went and dug in the ground and hid his master’s money. Now after a long time the master of those servants came and settled accounts with them. And he who had received the five talents came forward, bringing five talents more, saying, ‘Master, you delivered to me five talents; here I have made five talents more.’ His master said to him, `Well done, good and faithful servant; you have been faithful over a little, I will set you over much; enter into the joy of your master.’ And he also who had the two talents came forward, saying, `Master, you delivered to me two talents; here I have made two talents more.’ His master said to him, `Well done, good and faithful servant; you have been faithful over a little, I will set you over much; enter into the joy of your master.’ He also who had received the one talent came forward, saying, `Master, I knew you to be a hard man, reaping where you did not sow, and gathering where you did not winnow; so I was afraid, and I went and hid your talent in the ground. Here you have what is yours.’ But his master answered him, `You wicked and slothful servant! You knew that I reap where I have not sowed, and gather where I have not winnowed? Then you ought to have invested my money with the bankers, and at my coming I should have received what was my own with interest. So take the talent from him, and give it to him who has the ten talents. For to every one who has will more be given, and he will have abundance; but from him who has not, even what he has will be taken away. And cast the worthless servant into the outer darkness; there men will weep and gnash their teeth.’

Matthew 25:31-46 “When the Son of man comes in his glory, and all the angels with him, then he will sit on his glorious throne. Before him will be gathered all the nations, and he will separate them one from another as a shepherd separates the sheep from the goats, and he will place the sheep at his right hand, but the goats at the left. Then the King will say to those at his right hand, `Come, O blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world; for I was hungry and you gave me food, I was thirsty and you gave me drink, I was a stranger and you welcomed me, I was naked and you clothed me, I was sick and you visited me, I was in prison and you came to me.’ Then the righteous will answer him, `Lord, when did we see thee hungry and feed thee, or thirsty and give thee drink? And when did we see thee a stranger and welcome thee, or naked and clothe thee? And when did we see thee sick or in prison and visit thee?’ And the King will answer them, `Truly, I say to you, as you did it to one of the least of these my brethren, you did it to me.’ Then he will say to those at his left hand, `Depart from me, you cursed, into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels; for I was hungry and you gave me no food, I was thirsty and you gave me no drink, I was a stranger and you did not welcome me, naked and you did not clothe me, sick and in prison and you did not visit me.’ Then they also will answer, `Lord, when did we see thee hungry or thirsty or a stranger or naked or sick or in prison, and did not minister to thee?’ Then he will answer them, `Truly, I say to you, as you did it not to one of the least of these, you did it not to me.’ And they will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.”

Luke 3:9 (+ Mt 3:10; 7:19) Even now the axe is laid to the root of the trees; every tree therefore that does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire.

Luke 14:13-14 But when you give a feast, invite the poor, the maimed, the lame, the blind, and you will be blessed, because they cannot repay you. You will be repaid at the resurrection of the just.

Luke 21:34-36 “But take heed to yourselves lest your hearts be weighed down with dissipation and drunkenness and cares of this life, and that day come upon you suddenly like a snare; for it will come upon all who dwell upon the face of the whole earth. But watch at all times, praying that you may have strength to escape all these things that will take place, and to stand before the Son of man.

John 5:26-29 For as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted the Son also to have life in himself, and has given him authority to execute judgment, because he is the Son of man. Do not marvel at this; for the hour is coming when all who are in the tombs will hear his voice and come forth, those who have done good, to the resurrection of life, and those who have done evil, to the resurrection of judgment.

Romans 1:18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and wickedness of men who by their wickedness suppress the truth.

Romans 2:5-13 But by your hard and impenitent heart you are storing up wrath for yourself on the day of wrath when God’s righteous judgment will be revealed. For he will render to every man according to his works: To those who by patience in well-doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, he will give eternal life; but for those who are factious and do not obey the truth, but obey wickedness, there will be wrath and fury. There will be tribulation and distress for every human being who does evil, the Jew first and also the Greek, but glory and honour and peace for every one who does good, the Jew first and also the Greek. For God shows no partiality. All who have sinned without the law will also perish without the law, and all who have sinned under the law will be judged by the law. For it is not the hearers of the law who are righteous before God, but the doers of the law who will be justified.

1 Corinthians 3:8-9 He who plants and he who waters are equal, and each shall receive his wages according to his labor. For we are God’s fellow workers; you are God’s field, God’s building.

2 Corinthians 5:10 For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, so that each one may receive good or evil, according to what he has done in the body.

1 Thessalonians 3:12-13 . . . may the Lord make you increase and abound in love to one another and to all men, as we do to you, so that he may establish your hearts unblamable in holiness before our God and Father, at the coming of our Lord Jesus with all his saints.

1 Thessalonians 5:23 May the God of peace himself sanctify you wholly; and may your spirit and soul and body be kept sound and blameless at the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.

2 Thessalonians 1:7-12 . . . when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven with his mighty angels in flaming fire, inflicting vengeance upon those who do not know God and upon those who do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus. They shall suffer the punishment of eternal destruction and exclusion from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of his might, when he comes on that day to be glorified in his saints, and to be marveled at in all who have believed, because our testimony to you was believed. To this end we always pray for you, that our God may make you worthy of his call, and may fulfil every good resolve and work of faith by his power, so that the name of our Lord Jesus may be glorified in you, and you in him, according to the grace of our God and the Lord Jesus Christ.

Hebrews 6:7-8 For land which has drunk the rain that often falls upon it, and brings forth vegetation useful to those for whose sake it is cultivated, receives a blessing from God. But if it bears thorns and thistles, it is worthless and near to being cursed; its end is to be burned.

1 Peter 1:17 . . . who judges each one impartially according to his deeds . . .

1 Peter 4:13 (cf. Rom 8:17) But rejoice in so far as you share Christ’s sufferings, that you may also rejoice and be glad when his glory is revealed.

2 Peter 3:10-14 But the day of the Lord will come like a thief, and then the heavens will pass away with a loud noise, and the elements will be dissolved with fire, and the earth and the works that are upon it will be burned up. Since all these things are thus to be dissolved, what sort of persons ought you to be in lives of holiness and godliness, waiting for and hastening the coming of the day of God, because of which the heavens will be kindled and dissolved, and the elements will melt with fire! But according to his promise we wait for new heavens and a new earth in which righteousness dwells. Therefore, beloved, since you wait for these, be zealous to be found by him without spot or blemish, and at peace.

Jude 6-16 And the angels that did not keep their own position but left their proper dwelling have been kept by him in eternal chains in the nether gloom until the judgment of the great day; just as Sodom and Gomor’rah and the surrounding cities, which likewise acted immorally and indulged in unnatural lust, serve as an example by undergoing a punishment of eternal fire. Yet in like manner these men in their dreamings defile the flesh, reject authority, and revile the glorious ones. But when the archangel Michael, contending with the devil, disputed about the body of Moses, he did not presume to pronounce a reviling judgment upon him, but said, “The Lord rebuke you.” But these men revile whatever they do not understand, and by those things that they know by instinct as irrational animals do, they are destroyed. Woe to them! For they walk in the way of Cain, and abandon themselves for the sake of gain to Balaam’s error, and perish in Korah’s rebellion. These are blemishes on your love feasts, as they boldly carouse together, looking after themselves; waterless clouds, carried along by winds; fruitless trees in late autumn, twice dead, uprooted; wild waves of the sea, casting up the foam of their own shame; wandering stars for whom the nether gloom of darkness has been reserved for ever. It was of these also that Enoch in the seventh generation from Adam prophesied, saying, “Behold, the Lord came with his holy myriads, to execute judgment on all, and to convict all the ungodly of all their deeds of ungodliness which they have committed in such an ungodly way, and of all the harsh things which ungodly sinners have spoken against him.” These are grumblers, malcontents, following their own passions, loud-mouthed boasters, flattering people to gain advantage.

Jude 20-21 But you, beloved, build yourselves up on your most holy faith; pray in the Holy Spirit; keep yourselves in the love of God; wait for the mercy of our Lord Jesus Christ unto eternal life.

Revelation 2:5 Remember then from what you have fallen, repent and do the works you did at first. If not, I will come to you and remove your lampstand from its place, unless you repent.

Revelation 2:23 . . . I am he who searches mind and heart, and I will give to each of you as your works deserve.

Revelation 20:11-13 Then I saw a great white throne and him who sat upon it; from his presence earth and sky fled away, and no place was found for them. And I saw the dead, great and small, standing before the throne, and books were opened. Also another book was opened, which is the book of life. And the dead were judged by what was written in the books, by what they had done. And the sea gave up the dead in it, Death and Hades gave up the dead in them, and all were judged by what they had done.

Revelation 21:8 But as for the cowardly, the faithless, the polluted, as for murderers, fornicators, sorcerers, idolaters, and all liars, their lot shall be in the lake that burns with fire and sulphur, which is the second death.

Revelation 22:12 Behold, I am coming soon, bringing my recompense, to repay every one for what he has done.

Therefore, in light of this survey of biblical statements on the topic, how would we properly, biblically answer the unbiblical, sloganistic question of certain evangelical Protestants?: “If you were to die tonight and God asked you why He should let you into heaven, what would you tell Him?” Our answer to his question could incorporate any one or all of the following 50 responses: all drawn from the Bible, all about works and righteousness, with only one that mentions faith at all, but not faith alone (#42):

1) I am characterized by righteousness.

2) I have integrity.

3) I’m not wicked.

4) I’m upright in heart.

5) I’ve done good deeds.

6) I have good ways.

7) I’m not committing abominations.

8) I have good conduct.

9) I’m not angry with my brother.

10) I’m not insulting my brother.

11) I’m not calling someone a fool.

12) I have good fruits.

13) I do the will of God.

14) I hear Jesus’ words and do them.

15) I endured to the end.

16) I fed the hungry.

17) I provided drink to the thirsty.

18) I clothed the naked.

19) I welcomed strangers.

20) I visited the sick.

21) I visited prisoners.

22) I invited the poor and the maimed to my feast.

23) I’m not weighed down with dissipation.

24) I’m not weighed down with drunkenness.

25) I’m not weighed down with the cares of this life.

26) I’m not ungodly.

27) I don’t suppress the truth.

28) I’ve done good works.

29) I obeyed the truth.

30) I’m not doing evil.

31) I have been a “doer of the law.”

32) I’ve been a good laborer and fellow worker with God.

33) I’m unblamable in holiness.

34) I’ve been wholly sanctified.

35) My spirit and soul and body aresound and blameless.

36) I know God.

37) I’ve obeyed the gospel.

38) I’ve shared Christ’s sufferings.

39) I’m without spot or blemish.

40) I’ve repented.

41) I’m not a coward.

42) I’m not faithless.

43) I’m not polluted.

44) I’m not a murderer.

45) I’m not a fornicator.

46) I’m not a sorcerer.

47) I’m not an idolater.

48) I’m not a liar.

49) I invited the lame to my feast.

50) I invited the blind to my feast.

Further Biblical Passages That Refute “Faith Alone” and Assert Catholic Infused Justification in Conjunction with Sanctification, and the Proper Understanding of the Necessary Relationship Between Faith and Works

“Faith Alone” Directly Contradicted

Matthew 19:16-24 And behold, one came up to him, saying, “Teacher, what good deed must I do, to have eternal life?” [17] And he said to him, “Why do you ask me about what is good? One there is who is good. If you would enter life, keep the commandments.” [18] He said to him, “Which?” And Jesus said, “You shall not kill, You shall not commit adultery, You shall not steal, You shall not bear false witness, [19] Honor your father and mother, and, You shall love your neighbor as yourself.” [20] The young man said to him, “All these I have observed; what do I still lack?” [21] Jesus said to him, “If you would be perfect, go, sell what you possess and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven; and come, follow me.” [22] When the young man heard this he went away sorrowful; for he had great possessions. [23] And Jesus said to his disciples, “Truly, I say to you, it will be hard for a rich man to enter the kingdom of heaven. [24] Again I tell you, it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for a rich man to enter the kingdom of God.”

This is probably the most compelling, unarguable sustained refutation of “faith alone” in the New Testament (though the James 2 passages come very close), because the rich young ruler asks Jesus the very question that is at the heart of the Catholic-Protestant dispute on faith and works: “what good deed must I do, to have eternal life?” If “faith alone” were a true biblical doctrine, and good deeds have nothing directly to do with salvation, then this was the golden opportunity for Jesus to clear that up, knowing it would be in the Bible for hundreds of millions to read and learn from (and knowing in His omniscience the sustained disputes Christians would have about these issues). But He never mentions belief in him or faith (even in a sense that isn’t “alone”). All He does is talk about works: asking if he kept the Ten Commandments, and then telling him to sell all he had and to give it to the poor.

Mark 10:17, 19, 21 . . . “Good Teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?” . . . [19] You know the commandments: . . . [21] And Jesus looking upon him loved him, and said to him, “You lack one thing; go, sell what you have, and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven; and come, follow me.”

Luke 6:35 But love your enemies, and do good, and lend, expecting nothing in return; and your reward will be great, and you will be sons of the Most High . . .

Luke 18:18, 20, 22 And a ruler asked him, “Good Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?” . . . [20] You know the commandments: . . .  [22] And when Jesus heard it, he said to him, “One thing you still lack. Sell all that you have and distribute to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven; and come, follow me.”

John 3:36 He who believes in the Son has eternal life; he who does not obey the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God rests upon him.

The Greek word for “believes” is pistuo, and the Greek for “does not obey” is apitheo. There is a parallelism in this verse, whereby belief and obedience are essentially identical. When all is said and done, believing in Christ is obeying him. This ought to be kept in mind by Protestant evangelists and pastors who urge penitents to “believe in Christ,” “accept Christ,” etc. To disobey Christ is to be subject to the wrath of God. Thus, again, we are faced with the inescapable necessity of good works — wrought by God’s grace, and done in the spirit of charity — for the purpose and end of ultimate salvation, holiness, and communion with God. Disobedience (not mere lack of faith or belief in Christ) is said to be the basis of the loss of eternal life

To speculate further, if it be granted that pistuo (“believe”) is roughly identical to “obeying,” as it indisputably is in John 3:36, by simple deduction, then its use elsewhere is also much more commensurate with the Catholic view of infused justification rather than the more abstract, extrinsic, and forensic Protestant view; for example, the “classic” Protestant evangelistic verse John 3:16, Jesus’ constant demand to believe in him in John 5 through 10, and St. Paul’s oft-cited salvific exhortations in Romans 1:16, 4:24, 9:33, and 10:9, generally thought to be irrefutable proofs of the Protestant viewpoint on saving faith.

Galatians 6:7-9 Do not be deceived; God is not mocked, for whatever a man sows, that he will also reap. For he who sows to his own flesh will from the flesh reap corruption; but he who sows to the Spirit will from the Spirit reap eternal life. And let us not grow weary in well-doing, for in due season we shall reap, if we do not lose heart.

Colossians 3:23-25 Whatever your task, work heartily, as serving the Lord and not men, knowing that from the Lord you will receive the inheritance as your reward; you are serving the Lord Christ. For the wrongdoer will be paid back for the wrong he has done, and there is no partiality.

1 Timothy 6:18-19 They are to do good, to be rich in good deeds, liberal and generous, thus laying up for themselves a good foundation for the future, so that they may take hold of the life which is life indeed.

Hebrews 5:9 and being made perfect he became the source of eternal salvation to all who obey him,

Hebrews 12:14 . . . Strive . . . for the holiness without which no one will see the Lord.

James 2:24 You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone.

The phrase “faith alone” appears exactly once in the RSV: in this verse. “Faith alone” is denied! This is one of three times (along with James 2:21 and 2:25 further below) that the Bible also expresses the notion of “justified by works.” Four other passages in James directly, expressly contradict “faith alone” but with different words:

James 2:14 What does it profit, my brethren, if a man says he has faith but has not works? Can his faith save him?

James 2:17 So faith by itself, if it has no works, is dead.

James 2:20 Do you want to be shown, you shallow man, that faith apart from works is barren?

James 2:26 For as the body apart from the spirit is dead, so faith apart from works is dead.

From these five passages in James 2, we learn that:

1) Faith alone doesn’t justify.

2) Faith alone is “dead”.

3) Faith alone is “barren”.

4) Faith alone cannot save.

1 Peter 4:17-18 For the time has come for judgment to begin with the household of God; and if it begins with us, what will be the end of those who do not obey the gospel of God? [18] And “If the righteous man is scarcely saved, where will the impious and sinner appear?”

See also my paper, Justification: Not by Faith Alone, & Ongoing (Romans 4, James 2, and Abraham’s Multiple Justifications) [10-15-11].

Sanctification as a Direct Contributor to Salvation (as Opposed to Being an Optional “Add-On”) / Sanctification Organically Connected to Justification / Infused Justification / Theosis

Psalm 51:2, 7, 10 Wash me thoroughly from my iniquity, and cleanse me from my sin! . . . [7] Purge me with hyssop, and I shall be clean; wash me, and I shall be whiter than snow. . . . [10] Create in me a clean heart, O God, and put a new and right spirit within me.

Ezekiel 36:26-27 A new heart I will give you, and a new spirit I will put within you; and I will take out of your flesh the heart of stone and give you a heart of flesh. [27] And I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes and be careful to observe my ordinances.

Matthew 5:20 For I tell you, unless your righteousness exceeds that of the scribes and Pharisees, you will never enter the kingdom of Heaven.

Acts 15:8-9 And God who knows the heart bore witness to them, giving them the Holy Spirit just as he did to us; and he made no distinction between us and them, but cleansed their hearts by faith.

Acts 20:32 And now I commend you to God and to the word of his grace, which is able to build you up and to give you the inheritance among all those who are sanctified.

Acts 22:16 “And now, why do you wait? Rise and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on his name.”

Acts 26:18 to open their eyes, that they may turn from darkness to light and from the power of Satan to God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins and a place among those who are sanctified by faith in me. [Phillips: “made holy by their faith in me”]

Romans 3:22 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction;

Romans 6:22 But now that you have been set free from sin and have become slaves of God, the return you get is sanctification and its end, eternal life.

1 Corinthians 1:2 To the church of God which is at Corinth, to those sanctified in Christ Jesus, . . .

1 Corinthians 1:30 . . . our righteousness and sanctification and redemption;

1 Corinthians 6:11 And such were some of you. But you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God.

2 Corinthians 3:18 And we all, with unveiled face, beholding the glory of the Lord, are being changed into his likeness from one degree of glory to another; for this comes from the Lord who is the Spirit.

2 Corinthians 5:17 If anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation; the old has passed away; behold, the new has come.

Ephesians 3:16-19 that according to the riches of his glory he may grant you to be strengthened with might through his Spirit in the inner man, [17] and that Christ may dwell in your hearts through faith; that you, being rooted and grounded in love, [18] may have power to comprehend with all the saints what is the breadth and length and height and depth, [19] and to know the love of Christ which surpasses knowledge, that you may be filled with all the fulness of God.

Ephesians 4:15 . . . we are to grow up in every way into him who is the head, into Christ,

Ephesians 4:24 and put on the new nature, created after the likeness of God in true righteousness and holiness.

Philippians 2:15 that you may be blameless and innocent, children of God without blemish in the midst of a crooked and perverse generation, among whom you shine as lights in the world,

Philippians 3:9-10 and be found in him, not having a righteousness of my own, based on law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness from God that depends on faith; [10] that I may know him and the power of his resurrection, and may share his sufferings, becoming like him in his death,

Colossians 3:9-10 Do not lie to one another, seeing that you have put off the old nature with its practices [10] and have put on the new nature, which is being renewed in knowledge after the image of its creator.

2 Thessalonians 2:13 . . . God chose you from the beginning to be saved, through sanctification by the Spirit and belief in the truth.

This is perhaps the clearest verse in the New Testament that directly connects sanctification to salvation itself (contrary to Protestant teaching).

2 Timothy 2:20-21 In a great house there are not only vessels of gold and silver but also of wood and earthenware, and some for noble use, some for ignoble. [21] If any one purifies himself from what is ignoble, then he will be a vessel for noble use, consecrated and useful to the master of the house, ready for any good work.

Hebrews 10:10 And by that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.

Hebrews 10:14 For by a single offering he has perfected for all time those who are sanctified.

Hebrews 13:12 So Jesus also suffered outside the gate in order to sanctify the people through his own blood.

James 1:4 And let steadfastness have its full effect, that you may be perfect and complete, lacking in nothing.

James 4:8  Draw near to God and he will draw near to you. Cleanse your hands, you sinners, and purify your hearts, you men of double mind.

2 Peter 1:3-5 His divine power has granted to us all things that pertain to life and godliness, through the knowledge of him who called us to his own glory and excellence, [4] by which he has granted to us his precious and very great promises, that through these you may escape from the corruption that is in the world because of passion, and become partakers of the divine nature. [5] For this very reason make every effort to supplement your faith with virtue, and virtue with knowledge,

2 Peter 1:9 For whoever lacks these things [see 1:5-8] is blind and shortsighted and has forgotten that he was cleansed from his old sins.

1 John 1:7 The blood of Jesus, his son, cleanses us from all sin.

1 John 1:9 He is faithful and just, and will forgive our sins and cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

The word for “cleanse” in 1 John 1:7, 9 is katharizo, which is used to describe the cleansing of lepers throughout the Gospels (e.g., Matt. 8:3, 11:5; Mark 1:42; Luke 7:22). This is indisputably an “infused” cleansing, rather than an “imputed” one. Why should God settle for anything less when it comes to our sin and justification?

1 John 3:7 Little children, let no one deceive you. He who does right is righteous, as he is righteous.

1 John 3:9 No one born of God commits sin; for God’s nature abides in him, and he cannot sin because he is born of God.

1 John 5:18 We know that any one born of God does not sin, but He who was born of God keeps him, and the evil one does not touch him.

Working Together with God / Synergism 

Mark 16:20 . . .  the Lord worked with them . . .

Romans 8:28 We know that in everything God works for good with those who love him, who are called according to his purpose.

1 Corinthians 15:10 But by the grace of God I am what I am, and his grace toward me was not in vain. On the contrary, I worked harder than any of them, though it was not I, but the grace of God which is with me.

2 Corinthians 6:1 Working together with him, then, we entreat you not to accept the grace of God in vain.

Galatians 2:20 I have been crucified with Christ; it is no longer I who live, but Christ who lives in me; and the life I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me.

Ephesians 2:10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them.

Working to Save Ourselves 

Acts 2:40 And he testified with many other words and exhorted them, saying, “Save yourselves from this crooked generation.”

Romans 8:13 for if you live according to the flesh you will die, but if by the Spirit you put to death the deeds of the body you will live.

1 Corinthians 9:27 but I pommel my body and subdue it, lest after preaching to others I myself should be disqualified.

1 Corinthians 10:12 Therefore let any one who thinks that he stands take heed lest he fall.

1 Corinthians 16:13 Be watchful, stand firm in your faith, be courageous, be strong.

2 Corinthians 1:24 . . . you stand firm in your faith.

2 Corinthians 13:5 Examine yourselves, to see whether you are holding to your faith. Test yourselves. Do you not realize that Jesus Christ is in you? — unless indeed you fail to meet the test!

Galatians 5:1 . . . stand fast therefore, and do not submit again to a yoke of slavery . . .

Philippians 2:12-13 Therefore, my beloved, as you have always obeyed, so now, not only as in my presence but much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling; for God is at work in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure.

Philippians 3:8 Indeed I count everything as loss because of the surpassing worth of knowing Christ Jesus my Lord. For his sake I have suffered the loss of all things, and count them as refuse, in order that I may gain Christ

Philippians 3:11-14 that if possible I may attain the resurrection from the dead. [12] Not that I have already obtained this or am already perfect; but I press on to make it my own, because Christ Jesus has made me his own. [13] Brethren, I do not consider that I have made it my own; but one thing I do, forgetting what lies behind and straining forward to what lies ahead, [14] I press on toward the goal for the prize of the upward call of God in Christ Jesus.

Philippians 4:1 . . . stand firm thus in the Lord . . . 

Colossians 1:22-23 he has now reconciled in his body of flesh by his death, in order to present you holy and blameless and irreproachable before him, [23] provided that you continue in the faith, stable and steadfast, not shifting from the hope of the gospel which you heard, . . .

1 Timothy 4:16 Take heed to yourself and to your teaching: hold to that, for by so doing you will save . . .  yourself . . .

2 Timothy 4:7 I have fought the good fight, I have finished the race, I have kept the faith.

Hebrews 3:14 For we share in Christ, if only we hold our first confidence firm to the end.

Hebrews 6:11-12 And we desire each one of you to show the same earnestness in realizing the full assurance of hope until the end, [12] so that you may not be sluggish, but imitators of those who through faith and patience inherit the promises.

Hebrews 10:36 For you have need of endurance, so that you may do the will of God and receive what is promised. . . .

Hebrews 10:39 But we are . . . of those who have faith and keep their souls.

Hebrews 12:15 See to it that no one fail to obtain the grace of God; that no “root of bitterness” spring up and cause trouble, and by it the many become defiled;

1 John 3:3  And every one who thus hopes in him purifies himself as he is pure. . . .

2 Peter 1:10 Therefore, brethren, be the more zealous to confirm your call and election, for if you do this you will never fall;

Working to Save Others 

Romans 11:14 in order to make my fellow Jews jealous, and thus save some of them.

Romans 15:17-18 In Christ Jesus, then, I have reason to be proud of my work for God. For I will not venture to speak of anything except what Christ has wrought through me to win obedience from the Gentiles, by word and deed,

1 Corinthians 1:21 . . . it pleased God through the folly of what we preach to save those who believe.

1 Corinthians 3:5 What then is Apol’los? What is Paul? Servants through whom you believed, as the Lord assigned to each.

1 Corinthians 7:16 Wife, how do you know whether you will save your husband? Husband, how do you know whether you will save your wife?

1 Corinthians 9:22 I have become all things to all men, that I might by all means save some.

2 Corinthians 1:6 If we are afflicted, it is for your comfort and salvation; and if we are comforted, it is for your comfort, which you experience when you patiently endure the same sufferings that we suffer.

2 Corinthians 10:15 We do not boast beyond limit, in other men’s labors; but our hope is that as your faith increases, our field among you may be greatly enlarged,

1 Timothy 4:16 Take heed to yourself and to your teaching: hold to that, for by so doing you will save . . . your hearers.

2 Timothy 2:10 Therefore I endure everything for the sake of the elect, that they also may obtain salvation in Christ Jesus with its eternal glory.

James 5:19-20 My brethren, if any one among you wanders from the truth and some one brings him back, [20] let him know that whoever brings back a sinner from the error of his way will save his soul from death and will cover a multitude of sins.

1 Peter 3:1 Likewise you wives, be submissive to your husbands, so that some, though they do not obey the word, may be won without a word by the behavior of their wives

Faith and Works / “Obedience” of Faith / Keeping the Commandments

Matthew 23:23 Woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for you tithe mint and dill and cummin, and have neglected the weightier matters of the law, justice and mercy and faith; these you ought to have done, without neglecting the others.

Luke 1:6 And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless.

John 14:12 Truly, truly, I say to you, he who believes in me will also do the works that I do; and greater works than these will he do, because I go to the Father.

John 14:15 If you love me, you will keep my commandments.

John 14:21 He who has my commandments and keeps them, he it is who loves me; and he who loves me will be loved by my Father, and I will love him and manifest myself to him.

Acts 5:32 . . . the Holy Spirit whom God has given to those who obey him

Acts 6:7 . . . a great many of the priests were obedient to the faith.

Romans 1:5 through whom we have received grace and apostleship to bring about the obedience of faith for the sake of his name among all the nations,

Romans 3:31 Do we then overthrow the law by this faith? By no means! On the contrary, we uphold the law.

Romans 6:17 But thanks be to God, that you who were once slaves of sin have become obedient from the heart to the standard of teaching to which you were committed,

Romans 10:16 But they have not all obeyed the gospel; for Isaiah says, “Lord, who has believed what he has heard from us?”

Romans 14:23 But he who has doubts is condemned, if he eats, because he does not act from faith; for whatever does not proceed from faith is sin.

Romans 16:26 but is now disclosed and through the prophetic writings is made known to all nations, according to the command of the eternal God, to bring about the obedience of faith

1 Corinthians 7:19 For neither circumcision counts for anything nor uncircumcision, but keeping the commandments of God.

1 Corinthians 15:58 Therefore, my beloved brethren, be steadfast, immovable, always abounding in the work of the Lord, knowing that in the Lord your labor is not in vain.

2 Corinthians 8:3-7 For they gave according to their means, as I can testify, and beyond their means, of their own free will, begging us earnestly for the favor of taking part in the relief of the saints — and this, not as we expected, but first they gave themselves to the Lord and to us by the will of God. Accordingly we have urged Titus that as he had already made a beginning, he should also complete among you this gracious work. Now as you excel in everything — in faith, in utterance, in knowledge, in all earnestness, and in your love for us — see that you excel in this gracious work also.

2 Corinthians 9:13 Under the test of this service, you will glorify God by your obedience in acknowledging the gospel of Christ, and by the generosity of your contribution for them and for all others;

2 Corinthians 11:23 Are they servants of Christ? I am a better one — I am talking like a madman — with far greater labors, far more imprisonments, with countless beatings, and often near death.

Galatians 5:6 For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision is of any avail, but faith working through love.

1 Thessalonians 1:3 remembering before our God and Father your work of faith and labor of love and steadfastness of hope in our Lord Jesus Christ.

2 Thessalonians 1:8 inflicting vengeance upon those who do not know God and upon those who do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus.

2 Thessalonians 1:11 To this end we always pray for you, that our God may make you worthy of his call, and may fulfil every good resolve and work of faith by his power,

Titus 1:16 They profess to know God, but they deny him by their deeds; they are detestable, disobedient, unfit for any good deed.

Titus 3:8 The saying is sure. I desire you to insist on these things, so that those who have believed in God may be careful to apply themselves to good deeds; these are excellent and profitable to men.

Titus 3:14 And let our people learn to apply themselves to good deeds, so as to help cases of urgent need, and not to be unfruitful.

Hebrews 11:8 By faith Abraham obeyed when he was called to go out to a place which he was to receive as an inheritance; and he went out, not knowing where he was to go.

James 2:18 But some one will say, “You have faith and I have works.” Show me your faith apart from your works, and I by my works will show you my faith.

James 2:21-22 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he offered his son Isaac upon the altar? [22] You see that faith was active along with his works, and faith was completed by works,

James 2:25 And in the same way was not also Rahab the harlot justified by works when she received the messengers and sent them out another way?

James ably explains the Catholic view of the relationship of works to faith. From these three passages in James 2, we learn that:

1) Faith is shown by works.

2) Faith is completed by works.

3) One is justified by works and faith together, not either one by itself.

1 Peter 1:22  Having purified your souls by your obedience to the truth for a sincere love of the brethren, love one another earnestly from the heart.

2 Peter 1:5-8 For this very reason make every effort to supplement your faith with virtue, and virtue with knowledge, [6] and knowledge with self-control, and self-control with steadfastness, and steadfastness with godliness, [7] and godliness with brotherly affection, and brotherly affection with love. [8] For if these things are yours and abound, they keep you from being ineffective or unfruitful in the knowledge of our Lord Jesus Christ.

Revelation 2:19 I know your works, your love and faith and service and patient endurance, and that your latter works exceed the first.

Revelation 12:17 Then the dragon was angry with the woman, and went off to make war on the rest of her offspring, on those who keep the commandments of God and bear testimony to Jesus.. . .

Revelation 14:12 Here is a call for the endurance of the saints, those who keep the commandments of God and the faith of Jesus.

Baptismal Regeneration / Baptism and Salvation / Baptism and the Indwelling of the Holy Spirit

John 3:5 Jesus answered, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God.”

Acts 2:38, 41 And Peter said to them, “Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. . . . [41] So those who received his word were baptized, and there were added that day about three thousand souls.

Acts 22:16 “And now, why do you wait? Rise and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on his name.”

Romans 6:3-4 Or don’t you know that all of us who were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death? We were therefore buried with him through baptism into death in order that, just as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, we too may live a new life.

Galatians 3:26-27 You are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus, for all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ.

Colossians 2:12-13 and you were buried with him in baptism, in which you were also raised with him through faith in the working of God, who raised him from the dead. [13] And you, who were dead in trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh, God made alive together with him, having forgiven us all our trespasses,

Titus 3:5 he saved us, not because of deeds done by us in righteousness, but in virtue of his own mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewal in the Holy Spirit,

1 Peter 3:20-21 . . . in the days of Noah, during the building of the ark, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were saved through water.
[21] Baptism, which corresponds to this, now saves you, not as a removal of dirt from the body but as an appeal to God for a clear conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,

Salvation and Eternal Life as a Result of Partaking of the Holy Eucharist

John 6:48-51I am the bread of life. [49] Your fathers ate the manna in the wilderness, and they died. [50] This is the bread which comes down from heaven, that a man may eat of it and not die. [51] I am the living bread which came down from heaven; if any one eats of this bread, he will live for ever; and the bread which I shall give for the life of the world is my flesh.”

John 6:53-54 So Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in you; [54] he who eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day.”

John 6:56-57 “He who eats my flesh and drinks my blood abides in me, and I in him. [57] As the living Father sent me, and I live because of the Father, so he who eats me will live because of me.”

John 6:58 “This is the bread which came down from heaven, not such as the fathers ate and died; he who eats this bread will live for ever.”

Apostasy / Falling Away from Salvation, the Faith, and Grace

Galatians 5:4 You are severed from Christ, you who would be justified by the law; you have fallen away from grace.

Galatians 5:7 You were running well; who hindered you from obeying the truth?

1 Timothy 4:1 Now the Spirit expressly says that in later times some will depart from the faith by giving heed to deceitful spirits and doctrines of demons.

1 Timothy 5:15 For some have already strayed after Satan.

Hebrews 3:12-13 Take care, brethren, lest there be in any of you an evil, unbelieving heart, leading you to fall away from the living God. [13] But exhort one another every day, as long as it is called “today,” that none of you may be hardened by the deceitfulness of sin.

Hebrews 6:4-6 For it is impossible to restore again to repentance those who have once been enlightened, who have tasted the heavenly gift, and have become partakers of the Holy Spirit, and have tasted the goodness of the word of God, and the powers of the age to come, if they then commit apostasy . . .

Hebrews 10:26-29 For if we sin deliberately after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, [27] but a fearful prospect of judgment, and a fury of fire which will consume the adversaries. [28] A man who has violated the law of Moses dies without mercy at the testimony of two or three witnesses. [29] How much worse punishment do you think will be deserved by the man who has spurned the Son of God, and profaned the blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified, and outraged the Spirit of grace?

Hebrews 10:39 But we are not of those who shrink back and are destroyed, . . .

2 Peter 2:15 Forsaking the right way they have gone astray; they have followed the way of Balaam, . . .

2 Peter 2:20-21 For if, after they have escaped the defilements of the world through the knowledge of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ, they are again entangled in them and overpowered, the last state has become worse for them than the first. For it would have been better for them never to have known the way of righteousness than after knowing it to turn back from the holy commandment delivered to them.

Revelation 2:4-5 But I have this against you, that you have abandoned the love you had at first. [5] Remember then from what you have fallen, repent and do the works you did at first. If not, I will come to you and remove your lampstand from its place, unless you repent.

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We must also add to the “Catholic” list the four passages included in Lucas’ list (under the title above: “Includes Works in the Passage”): which really confirm the Catholic view and not Protestantism (as explained), and his use of Mark 16:16, which teaches baptismal regeneration. That brings the total of my passages against “faith alone” and merely extrinsic justification to 200.

Someone wants the Bible on the issue of what justifies and saves? Lucas gave 45 passages that he mistakenly thought favored the Protestant “faith alone” view (they did not, as I have shown). Five of his passages didn’t even prove what he was contending, as I demnonstrated. So he really has produced 40 biblical proofs. I provided 200 passages for the Catholic soteriological view, or five times more than he did. Now he can proceed to ignore all those, as Protestants habitually do, once confronted with them.

Hey, don’t blame me! The Bible is what it is. I abide by all its teachings, not just carefully selected ones, with many more passages largely ignored or considered irrelevant.

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For much, much more on these issues and related ones, see the hundreds of articles on my Salvation, Justification, & “Faith Alone” web page.

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Photo credit: Lucas Banzoli, Facebook photo as of 5-3-22, dated 15 January 2018.

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Summary: Brazilian Protestant apologist Lucas Banzoli fails to establish “faith alone” with 45 biblical passages. I provide 200 passages that overwhelmingly refute this falsehood.

 

2023-02-21T15:41:39-04:00

Lucas Banzoli is a very active Brazilian anti-Catholic polemicist, who holds to basically a Seventh-Day Adventist theology, whereby there is no such thing as a soul that consciously exists outside of a body, and no hell (soul sleep and annihilationism). This leads him to a Christology which is deficient and heterodox in terms of Christ’s human nature after His death. He has a Master’s degree in theology, a degree and postgraduate work in history, a license in letters, and is a history teacher, author of 25 books, as well as blogmaster (but now inactive) for six blogs. He’s active on YouTube.

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The words of Lucas Banzoli will be in blue. I used Google Translate to transfer his Portugese text into English.

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This is a reply to Lucas’ article, “Quando a descrição vira prescrição e a exceção vira a regra, a heresia é certa” [When description becomes prescription and the exception becomes the rule, heresy is certain] (6-23-18).

I take this opportunity to address the only text in the entire Bible frequently used by Catholic apologists to base their doctrine around the cult of relics, which is the famous text on bones, from Elisha:

“Once, while some Israelites were burying a man, they suddenly saw one of these troops; so they threw the man’s body into Elisha’s tomb and fled. As soon as the corpse touched Elisha’s bones, the man came back to life and got up” (2 Kings 13:21)

It’s not the only biblical text used to defend relics, by any means (I will cite many more in this reply), but I agree it is the most frequently used.

Catholic apologists look at this text and say, “See? Man was resurrected because of Elisha’s bones. Then our doctrine of relics is proved!”

It’s more subtle and nuanced than that. What the story does is offer concrete evidence of the primary underlying premise of the doctrine of relics: “inanimate objects can be used by God to convey grace, or salvation, or healing, etc.” The story of Elisha’s bones undeniably supports that premise. It’s in the inspired revelation of the Bible for a reason. Does Lucas think that God wills material in the Bible that is purely extraneous and of no relevance to our instruction? Really? An omniscient God would do (or allow) that? I don’t think so.

If it seems to you at first that the argument is bad, congratulations, you are right: it is really bad. 

I don’t see how it is “bad” at all, once one understands the actual reasoning being employed (which Lucas seems not to grasp).

First, because the text does not say that Elisha performed the miracle.

That’s irrelevant to what we can learn from it, as I have already explained. It’s inanimate matter which is in play here, not Elisha’s intentions (he being dead at the time).

The Old Testament Jewish doctrine of death did not even contemplate a conscious world where the prophet could be alive and performing miracles in a world “beyond” (Ps 6:5; 94:17; 146:4; Eccl 9:5; 9: 10; Isa 38:18-19). “Abraham does not know us” (Is 63:16), Isaiah already said, and presumably Elisha did not either.

This is Lucas’ false and heretical doctrine of soul sleep, which is rejected by virtually all Protestants, as well as all Catholicism and Orthodoxy. I disposed of it in a 2007 article, and it included analysis of Lucas’ supposed “prooftexts” Ecclesiastes 9:5 and Psalm 146:4. The prophet Samuel was certainly still conscious, because he appeared to King Saul and correctly foretold his death the next day (1 San 28:12-19). As for Abraham, Jesus noted that he was quite alive, in His story about Sheol / Hades (Luke 16:19-31). The “mighty chiefs” in Sheol speak and thus are conscious:

Ezekiel 32:20-21 They shall fall amid those who are slain by the sword, and with her shall lie all her multitudes. [21] The mighty chiefs shall speak of them, with their helpers, out of the midst of Sheol: ‘They have come down, they lie still, the uncircumcised, slain by the sword.’

Isaiah 63: 16 in context has nothing whatsoever to do with Abraham being conscious or not (see Protestant commentaries on the passage). So, nice try but no cigar . . .

And nowhere in the text does it say that the prophet’s “spirit” or his intercession were responsible for the resurrection.

It doesn’t have to. That’s not the Catholic understanding of relics or how we understand this passage at all. It’s simply more Protestant misunderstanding.

“Oh, but if God wanted to heal through Elisha’s bones on that occasion, then that’s a doctrine and period!” This is the main point of this article. We must not confuse description with prescription , which is the most primary error in hermeneutics. I’ve already talked about this a lot in my book “Exegesis of Difficult Texts of the Bible” (available on the books page ), but it’s worth repeating a bit here. A description is something that the biblical writer is just describing, not imposing as a rule or doctrine on everyone else.

The biggest alleged prooftext for sola Scriptura, inevitably trotted out by Protestants, is this one:

2 Timothy 3:16-17 (RSV) All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, [17] that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work.

This doesn’t prove sola Scriptura in the slightest, but it does absolutely prove that 2 Kings 13:21, as part of inspired Scripture, is “profitable for teaching.” “All” means “all”. If “All scripture is . . . profitable for teaching” then it inexorably follows from logic that 2 Kings 13:21 (and other similar evidences for a theology of relics) is “profitable for teaching”. I didn’t make either the Bible or logic what they are. I’m just reporting the facts and using my brain to think.

Whether this passage is descriptive or prescriptive (a distinction itself not spelled out in the Bible, as far as I know, and we don’t see Lucas attempting to prove that) it still reports the fact that a man came to life after coming into contact with a dead holy man’s bones. That is an occurrence worth pondering. God was communicating something to us through this, which is why it is included in Holy Scripture, by His providence and will. Nothing God does is meaningless. Therefore, His inspiring 2 Kings 3:21 has a reason. Does Lucas wish to argue the contrary?

As Hebrews 4:12 states: “the word of God is living and active, sharper than any two-edged sword . . .” The writer of Psalms 119 understood this some 3,000 years ago: “Thy word is a lamp to my feet and a light to my path” (119:5); “The sum of thy word is truth” (119:60). Jesus Himself said, as recorded in John 17:17: “thy word is truth.”

Who is the one exhibiting more reverence and respect towards all of Scripture here: myself (and Catholics en masse, in this instance) or Lucas?

For example, when the Bible insinuates that Jephthah sacrificed his daughter as a burnt offering ( see here), she is not imposing this as a doctrine. She is not saying that all fathers must sacrifice their daughters, nor that it pleases the Lord. She is just narrating an event, in the same way that she narrates David’s sins and Peter’s denials, without setting it as an example or a rule.

If the Bible / particular Bible writer regards something as immoral, it is certainly noted as such. I wrote about this incident in 2009. There is no hint of the approval of God in this passage. Just because a man does something, it’s not a given that God wanted him to do it. According to orthodox Jewish religion, under the Mosaic Law, human sacrifice was strictly forbidden (Dt 12:31; Lev 18:21; 20:2-3; many other passages implying the same: see my article).

It’s simply a matter of a man sinning and not knowing what was right and wrong in this instance. Jephthah was half-Canaanite (Jud 11:1), and so he was influenced by some tenets of the false Canaanite religion (cf. Ps 106:36-39), as was often the case among the Jews (and one reason why God judged the heathen nations so harshly). He had been living among the heathen, who regularly offered human sacrifice (cf. 2 Kings 3:27), and the law of Moses was fairly unknown and not much practiced. He wrongly assumed that God would be propitiated in the same way as was believed about the Canaanite false gods. The non-approval of the author of Judges shows that he may have regarded this as an instance of what he expressed later in the book:

Judges 17:6 In those days there was no king in Israel; every man did what was right in his own eyes. (cf. 21:25: identical language)

On the other hand, a prescription is more than just the narration of an event, rather it consists of a rule or principle that applies and imposes itself on readers in a timeless way. For example, when Christ says, “Love your neighbor as yourself” (Mt 22:39), he is imposing a principle, demanding a standard. The text is not just describing a person who loved someone else, but wants us to love our neighbors ourselves. It is an imperative, like the “go” of Mark 16:15.

That’s fine, but it’s not the only way to teach or direct Christians. For example, Hebrews chapter 11 is the great chapter on the “heroes of the faith.” Their heroic and holy deeds are recounted, but it never says “imitate them” or that they are our examples. There is no command. Nevertheless, the clear intention of the passage is to show us models to imitate. St. Paul does say many times that we ought to imitate him and his companions as a Christian example of conduct. Certainly many other similar examples could be found in the Bible.

The point is that the text of Elisha’s bones, like that of Jephthah’s sacrifice, is clearly a description of an event, not a prescription of a commandment, rule, or ordinance from God to all of us. The text only says that on that particular occasion God wanted to raise the dead in that way, and not that in order to raise someone we must bring him to the bones of dead people. 

Technically, that may be correct, but Lucas has not proven to us how the example does not suggest and support the central principle behind relics (to repeat: inanimate objects can be used by God to convey grace, or salvation, or healing, etc.). I could just as easily argue (and will!) that if God didn’t want us lowly, ignorant Catholics to use this passage as a proof for our supposedly wicked, false belief in relics, that God could have either 1) not included it in Holy Scripture, or 2) not brought about the miracle of this man being raised from the dead after coming into contact with a holy man’s bones.

God can do anything! And He would have, I believe, done one of those things, if the doctrine of relics were false and dangerous. But since He didn’t do either, and the passage is in the Bible, it’s altogether reasonable to conclude that it has a purpose and a meaning, and that it is indeed as I and Catholics have described it.

In other words, the text is not establishing any doctrine, any standard, any rule. It is just the description of an isolated fact, which is not repeated anywhere else in the Bible, not even as another description.

Nonsense. Lucas exhibits his “biblical illiteracy.” It’s not isolated at all. There are several other similar passages. We have the mantle of Elijah: an incident described just eleven chapters earlier:

2 Kings 2:13-14 And he [Elisha] took up the mantle of Elijah that had fallen from him, and went back and stood on the bank of the Jordan. [14] Then he took the mantle of Elijah that had fallen from him, and struck the water, saying, ‘Where is the Lord, the God of Elijah?’ And when he had struck the water, the water was parted to the one side and to the other; and Elisha went over.

And we have St. Peter’s shadow:

Acts 5:15-16 . . . they even carried out the sick into the streets, and laid them on beds and pallets, that as Peter came by at least his shadow might fall on some of them. [16] The people also gathered from the towns around Jerusalem, bringing the sick and those afflicted with unclean spirits, and they were all healed.

And St. Paul’s “handkerchiefs” and “aprons”:

Acts 19:11-12 And God did extraordinary miracles by the hands of Paul, [12] so that handkerchiefs or aprons were carried away from his body to the sick, and diseases left them and the evil spirits came out of them.” (cf. Mt 9:20-22)

Elisha’s bones were a “first-class” relic: from the person himself or herself. These passages, on the other hand, offer examples of “second-class” relics: items that have power because they were connected with a holy person (Elijah’s mantle and even St. Peter’s shadow), and third-class relics: something that has merely touched a holy person or first-class relic (handkerchiefs that had touched St. Paul).

In the Pentateuch, we have a remarkable foreshadowing of relics and specifically of receiving holiness as a result of touching sacred objects:

Exodus 29:37 Seven days you shall make atonement for the altar, and consecrate it, and the altar shall be most holy; whatever touches the altar shall become holy.

Exodus 30:25-29  and you shall make of these a sacred anointing oil blended as by the perfumer; a holy anointing oil it shall be. [26] And you shall anoint with it the tent of meeting and the ark of the testimony, [27] and the table and all its utensils, and the lampstand and its utensils, and the altar of incense, [28] and the altar of burnt offering with all its utensils and the laver and its base; [29] you shall consecrate them, that they may be most holy; whatever touches them will become holy.

Note here that first there is a “holy anointing oil” which is applied to the ark, tabernacle, and related sacred religious items “that they may be most holy.” They in turn impart holiness to all who touch them. If this is not sacramentalism and the underlying principle of relics, nothing is.

God said to Moses about the body of a lamb offered at the temple: “Whatever touches its flesh shall be holy . . .” (Lev 6:27). So now we again have a dead thing (like Elisha’s bones) imparting holiness. How is that any different from Catholic relics? Likewise, the same was said even of the cereal offering (Lev 6:14-18).

Remember, the ark of the covenant had relics in it, too: “a golden urn holding the manna, and Aaron’s rod that budded, and the tables of the covenant [the two tablets of the Ten Commandments]” (Heb 9:4; cf. Ex 16:33-34; Num 17:10; 1 Ki 8:9; 2 Chr 5:10). The manna (a type of food produced by God to feed the wandering post-Exodus Jews) was biological, so presumably it had to be supernaturally preserved if it lasted very long. Again, the parallels to relics and the practices and principles connected to them is very clear.

God specifically said that He would “meet” people in conjunction with the ark (specifically, the mercy seat on top of it: see Ex 25:22; 30:6; Lev 16:2; cf. 1 Sam 4:4; 2 Sam 6:2; 2 Ki 19:15; 1 Chr 13:6; Ps 80:1; 99:1; Is 37:16; Ezek 10:4; Heb 9:5).

Accordingly, it was thought that holy things (the temple and the ark of the covenant) gave special power and efficacy to prayers. For this reason, the Jews worshiped “toward the temple” (Ps 5:7; cf. 99:9; 134:2; 138:2; Is 27:13). King Solomon prayed before the sacred altar: both standing and kneeling (1 Ki 8:22-23; cf. 8:54 [kneeling]; 2 Chr 6:12-14; the Jews swore oaths by the altar in the temple: 2 Chr 6:22). The prophet Daniel prayed to and thanked God in the direction of Jerusalem, three times a day, even from Babylon (Dan 6:10; cf. 1 Ki 8:44, 48; 2 Chr 6:20-21, 26-27, 29-30, 32-34, 38). The Israelites bowed down before the temple, while they worshiped and praised and thanked God (2 Chr 7:3; cf. Ps 138:2). Joshua did the same before the ark of the covenant (Josh 7:6). Levites talked to God before the ark as well (Dt 10:8; cf. 1 Ki 3:15; 8:5; 1 Chr 16:4; 2 Chr 5:6).

So how — in light of all of the above — can there possibly be an objection to praying in conjunction with relics? The principle is precisely the same as what we have in the Bible, as far as I can see.

And speaking of an isolated fact, it is important to emphasize this aspect, because those who “twist the Scriptures” (2Pe 3:16)

. . . like Lucas did above in defending his heretical notion of soul sleep with Bible texts eisegeted and butchered . . .

love to appeal to exceptions to vindicate a rule. They do this all the time. There are neo-Pentecostals who use a descriptive and isolated text where people were healed with Paul’s handkerchiefs and aprons (Acts 19:12) to substantiate as a doctrine that it is only necessary to bring handkerchiefs and aprons to the “bishop” x or the “apostle” and that people will always be healed. 

First of all, it’s there for a reason, as argued above. It validates the principle behind relics, and that is its purpose. It’s purpose is not to teach that every attempted healing must have a handkerchief or apron. The practice Lucas describes above is a twisting of the passage anyway. The point is not the handkerchief or aprons themselves but rather, who they were in contact with (a holy person and great saint). But that is a silly brand of Protestants doing this practice, not Catholics. And they do it because they fundamentally misunderstand both the passage and the principle, whereas educated Catholics do neither.

It’s also a false doctrine, of course, to say that God always heals everyone just for the asking, or if enough faith is shown. I refuted that error from the Bible, way back in 1982, a year after I started doing apologetics; when I was a charismatic Protestant.

There are neo-atheists who appropriate isolated and distorted texts from Leviticus talking about not cutting the ends of the beard (Leviticus 19:27) and about not wearing clothes of different fabrics (Leviticus 19:19) to demand such a thing as a rule for the current Christians or accuse us of being “hypocrites” for not following this.

That has nothing to do with our topic, but is a question of how the Mosaic Law applies to non-Jews today. That was settled at the Jerusalem Council (Acts 15) which made its decree in conjunction with the Holy Spirit. The decree was binding on Christians wherever they were (see Paul agreeing to that in Acts 16:4). So we have an infallible, Holy Spirit-guided council making binding decrees, which is expressly in contradiction to sola Scriptura, which denies that anything but Scripture is infallible.

And in the same way, there are Catholics who take the text of Elisha to support the doctrine of the cult of relics, even though the text does not even speak of worship.

That’s beside the point again. It upholds the principle involved, and we do not worship anyone but God. We venerate holy people, angels, and things.

In the article, Bruno gives us other biblical examples:

Jesus, for example, healed a blind man using clay. Naaman was healed by diving into the Jordan River. The fact that God used such means does not imply that the Jordan River or the mud is a special channel of grace to be regularly resorted to. The fact that God uses a specific medium for a miracle does not make that medium itself possess any supernatural power.

This is what Catholic apologists don’t understand, or pretend not to understand so they can go on inventing ridiculous pretexts to support their false doctrines. 

Bruno makes a correct point. What is wrong and wrongheaded is Lucas then claiming that Catholics (even we despised apologists!) don’t “understand” the point he made. All that these examples prove is the principle of relics. I’ll repeat it again for the third time, so that even Lucas can grasp it: “inanimate objects can be used by God to convey grace, or salvation, or healing, etc.”

The case of Elisha’s bones was as “doctrinal” as Christ’s spit to heal the blind, which no one uses to support doctrine these days (thankfully).

We would mention that as yet another example that God uses matter to convey grace (the incarnation itself and the crucifixion were examples of this). The question is: why did Jesus do that when all He had to do was declare a healing? He did so because it was one of many examples of the sacramental principle behind relics. Once again, we think all Scripture can and does teach, as 2 Timothy 3:16-17 (one of Protestants’ favorite Bible passages) expressly states. Lucas seems to think there are many accidental or meaningless or worthless Bible passages. I think that ultimately belittles God (though it’s surely not Lucas’ intention).

By no means does the method that God teaches in the Bible for people to be healed to be healed is by spitting on them (thank God), but only through prayer in faith (cf. Jas 5:13-15), despite the fact that in an isolated and descriptive case the miracle occurred after spitting or touching a bone.

It’s not isolated; it’s repeated over and over: the woman touches Jesus’ robe and is healed. Jesus touches people before healing them, etc. Also related is ordination and receiving the Holy Spirit through the laying on of hands, and indeed, all seven sacraments, which are physical means of receiving more of God’s grace.

Catholic apologists, desperate to provide justification for an unbiblical teaching, take an isolated, non-prescriptive text referring to a specific extraordinary case and twist it in such a way as to turn it into a model and make a doctrine out of it – and we are still we who interpret the Bible “anyway”. This is how we see the difference between an authentic and serious theology and one that is only concerned with arranging any infamous pretext to justify its unbiblical practices.

I have made my case above with plenty of biblical support. Lucas is welcome try to refute it: that is, if he ever decides to answer my critiques. It’s now up to twelve with no answer. I believe that a person who is confident of his position will be willing and able to defend it against critical scrutiny.

This is the fundamental difference between exegesis and eisegesis. While the exegete extracts from the text what is in it and follows the prescriptions that Scripture commands as a rule or norm, the eisegete is only concerned with justifying his previous beliefs, often in a desperate way, precisely because he knows that there is no serious justification for the exegete. deceit that preaches. Thus, his mission is no longer to extract its true meaning from the Bible, consisting solely of looking for as many isolated and out-of-context texts that he thinks can be useful to confirm what he believes, but that will be completely useless in an intelligent debate.

That is a true description of exegesis and eisegesis. Where we disagree is that I think Protestants are doing this when they battle against Catholic doctrines.

While the eisegete only uses the Bible to “find” his previous beliefs, even if he has to twist many texts in the process and do some Cirque du Soleil juggling, the honest exegete is willing to give up any previous conviction to follow. just what the Bible actually teaches. It is not for nothing that the Catholic interpretation is admittedly biased, as free examination is prohibited, leaving them only to accept the teaching interpretation, whether it is good or not. Whereas the Catholic interpreter already has the “truth” and seeks to use the Bible only to confirm his or her previous beliefs, the evangelical interpreter goes to the Bible to discover the truth.

Both sides do exactly the same thing: we seek to find validation of our views in the Bible. The biggest difference is the fact that most Protestants are wholly unaware that Catholics have hundreds of biblical proofs for our views (I did a whole 445-page book consisting of precisely that [just Bible passages] ). Once they learn of some of these (it has been our failure ands fault that so few are aware of them), then they are responsible for properly interpreting and accepting what they have learned, or to (conversely) show the Catholic why he or she is wrong.

In my experience, overwhelmingly when the Protestant learns of our complete (not caricatured or distorted) actual argument, the dialogue ends and there is no more discussion. Or they are never willing to talk about it at all, as in Lucas’ methodology so far.

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Photo credit: Lucas Banzoli, Facebook photo as of 5-3-22, dated 15 January 2018.

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Summary: Brazilian Protestant apologist Lucas Banzoli tries mightily to knock down the many biblical proofs for relics (or a caricature thereof), but fails miserably every time.

 

2022-06-14T11:41:45-04:00

[originally from 23 October 2004]

Words of Cornelius Van Til (1895-1987) will be in blue.

 I touched specifically upon this subject in an old paper: “Live” Dialogue on the Rationality of Christian Belief, Presuppositionalism, and Philosophical Arguments for God’s Existence. By a coincidence, this was written exactly four years ago from the time of this writing (23 October 2000). Here are some of my thoughts from that exchange, which will serve as an introductory section for my more extensive critique:

Romans 1 teaches us that we intuitively know there is a God, through His creation. But I think the logic is different; it is the argument from design in primitive form, in my opinion . . . Romans 1, which I accept primarily on faith, and secondarily on the evidence which truth always sets forth, by the nature of things.

I accept revelation and inspiration, but I think it is also verifiable by psychology and anthropology, independent of Christian presuppositions.

Truth is truth wherever it is found. Aristotle and Plato found much truth, and they didn’t have Christian presuppositions. One can do much science without Christian presuppositions, though I would argue that science itself is ultimately grounded in Christian metaphysics and even revelation at a very fundamental level.

The basis for rationality is the universe as God created it, and our minds as God created them, which are capable of perceiving reality and making order out of existence. I deny that there can be a world without logic, . . . [which] is eternal insofar as it is grounded in the character and “mind” of God, just as love is. The universe inherently “has” logic, just as it inherently has the God who created it.

I don’t think any of the theistic arguments are absolute, airtight proofs. I think their force comes from the power of cumulative evidence and converging conclusions, all pointing to God. But it always requires faith. God can’t be reduced to philosophy. I merely say that good philosophy is entirely consistent with a Christian outlook, and revelation, and the supernatural . . . in my apologetic, theism (philosophically speaking) is a super-probable and plausible hypothesis, based on the cumulative evidence of both philosophy and science, and also human experience and history. But it isn’t proven by those things. It is only “certain” by faith. I ultimately believe in faith, but when I go out to evangelize and “be all things to all people,” I must argue in terms they can understand, apart from faith propositions, which they don’t accept like we do. Just as Paul did, of course (Mars Hill).

Your point of view (insofar as I understand presuppositionalism) says that the Christian and the non-believer have little or nothing in common epistemologically. That I emphatically reject. So when you try to persuade a philosophically-minded person to be a Christian, how do you go about it?

TABLE OF CONTENTS

I. Preliminaries
 
II. The Distinction Between Being and Knowing (Ontology and Epistemology) and Reliance on Circular Reasoning
 
III. The Basis, Warrant, and Justification for Beliefs and Presuppositions
 
IV. Philosophy and Theology Converge, Yet Rationality and Logic Are Spurned?
 
V. Distortions of St. Thomas Aquinas’ True Positions on Natural Theology and Universals
 
VI. The Place of Scripture in Presuppositionalism and Catholicism
 
VII. Van Til’s Anti-Catholicism and Profound Misunderstanding of Catholic Theology
 
VIII. The Inevitable Internal Difficulties and Incoherence of Presuppositionalism
 
IX. Does Holy Scripture Teach Natural Theology in Romans 1?
X. “Self-Interpretation” and Miscellany
 
XI. Conclusion: “The Starting Point” of Christian Philosophy and Apologetics Sources
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I. Preliminaries
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As Cornelius Van Til wrote, the antithesis “is between those for whom the final center of reference in knowledge lies in man, and those for whom the final center of reference for knowledge lies in God, as this God speaks in Scripture.”
*
Indeed, this is the difference between Christianity and secularism or atheism, not between different models of apologetics, which all agree that God is the ultimate frame and ground of reference, as far as I can tell. Van Til casually accepts that his own system is circular (as we shall see later), but that doesn’t mean that all other systems are either logically circular or inconsistent.
*
It is self-evident, as far as it goes, that all Christians claim to submit to the Bible. But Van Til’s view is, however, too limited, in that it seems to preclude a philosophy or method of hermeneutics or exegesis from the outset. It is too simplistic (what does such submission mean and entail?; how do we know which writing is this “Word of God”?; indeed, why assume that such a Divine Word has to always be in writing?; who interprets this Word authoritatively?, who decides interpretational disputes?, etc.). Beyond that, it is also too narrow of a criterion because Christianity is far more than submission to written revelation.
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Van Til writes that “Christianity and theism are implied in one another….Christianity can never be separated from some theory about the existence and the nature of God.”
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I should think not: Christianity being a species of theism. But theism doesn’t imply Christianity. Islam and Judaism are both theistic but they do not imply Christianity.
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One doesn’t argue with someone of a different persuasion by merely stating one’s own, as if it were self-evident. That doesn’t require compromising one’s own position, but rather, arguing from a perspective of “granting hypothetically that a, b, and c are true . . . ” In the endeavor of trying to reveal the falsity of an opposing view, one has to attack that view from the inside and show internal inconsistencies, incoherence, and implausibility. That can’t be done by merely stating one’s own view (which is preaching, not apologetics). Besides, ontology and epistemology are two different things.
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II. The Distinction Between Being and Knowing (Ontology and Epistemology) and Reliance on Circular Reasoning

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Christian apologist Norman Geisler elaborates:

First of all, fideists confuse epistemology and ontology. That is, they fail to distinguish the order of knowing and the order of being. The Christian fideist may very well be right about the fact that there is a God, but this begs the question unless he can tell how he knows this is the case. God may indeed have revealed himself to us through the Bible, but how do we know that the Bible is the Word of God? Other books with contrary teachings also claim to be the Word of God (e.g., the Koran). Assuming the truth of Christianity, a Christian fideist is right in what he believes about God but wrong in the reason for that belief. Certainly if there is a God and all truth comes from him, it follows that even the very criteria of determining truth from error will be God-given. But God is what is to be proven, and we cannot begin by assuming his existence as a fact. If we do not have any tests for truth with which we can even begin, we can never make truth claims nor can we even know something is true. We can simply believe without justification what we want to believe. But in this case so can any idiotic, insane, or contrary view be simply believed. And how is one to say who if anyone has the truth? Without an epistemological way of knowing the truth, no ontological truth claims can be pressed. (Geisler, 61-62)

The central difficulty of Van Til’s apologetic system is that he claims that other views are meaningless and true knowledge impossible to attain. He arrives at this conclusion by reasoning. Yet when we ask by what reasoning does he conclude that his system is the only possible one to hold, we find (quite remarkably) that he consciously offers logical circularity (!). Reformed theologians and apologists R. C. Sproul and John Gerstner are rightly very critical of this absurd approach to the truth-claims of Christianity:

In all systems of thought except presuppositionalism circular reasoning is considered demonstrative evidence of error. In presuppositionalism, instead of being a vicious circle, it is a sign of intellectual virtue. While neo-orthodoxy could say that “contradiction is the hallmark of truth,” presuppositionalist orthodoxy makes circularity the hallmark of truth. This “glorious circle” distinguishes revealed truth presupposed from all other systems which are circular also but ingloriously so . . . a circle gets one nowhere and . . . those who travel in these circles either admit this, or are naked fideists. (Sproul et al, 318)

To admit one’s own presuppositions and to point out the presuppositions of others is therefore to maintain that all reasoning is, in the nature of the case, circular reasoning. The starting point, the method, and the conclusion are always involved in one another. (Van Til, 118 / Van Til [2], 101)

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This definition of circular reasoning involves Van Til in . . . the exercise of petitio principii — question begging. This fallacy of circular reasoning is defined by Irving Copi:

In attempting to establish the truth of a proposition, one often casts about for acceptable premises from which the proposition in question can be deduced as conclusion. If one assumes as a premise for his argument the very conclusion he intends to prove, the fallacy committed is that of petitio principii, or begging the question. (Copi, 83)

With respect to the existence of God and the authority of the Bible, presuppositionalists frankly admit to the use of circular reasoning in precisely this sense . . .

The only alternative to “circular reasoning” as engaged in by Christians, no matter on what point they speak, is that of reasoning on the basis of isolated facts and isolated minds, with the result that there is no possibility of reasoning at all. Unless as sinners we have an absolutely inspired Bible, we have no absolute God interpreting reality for us and unless we have an absolute God interpreting for us, there is no true interpretation at all. (Van Til [3], 142)

Here Van Til not only reasserts this principle of circular reasoning, but gives the reason for so doing. We say that circular reasoning is the end of all reasoning and Van Til mot only considers it the beginning of all reasoning but he gives a reason for the necessity of circular reasoning. This is a circle within a circle. If Van Til can prove that circular reasoning is necessary if there is to be any reasoning at all, he has proven circular reasoning by noncircular reasoning . . . one simply cannot live in circles and think as a rational human being. In order to justify abnormal, antitraditional, irrational patterns of thought (circles), he has to accept normal, traditional patterns of thought.

In the same context, Van Til makes this remarkable statement:

We cannot subject the authoritative pronouncements of scripture about reality to the scrutiny of reason because it is reason itself that learns of its proper function from Scripture. (Van Til, 125)

Reason “learns” of its proper function from Scripture. Reason, therefore, is represented as already existing and functioning. Now it reports to headquarters and gets orders as to how it is to function.

. . . the transcendental argument . . . though Van Til often infers it he never apparently explicitly defends it. If he did, that would be the end, of course, of his presuppositionalism. He insists on presupposing God without rational compulsion. Then he moves to the world which can be understood, he argues, if approached presuppositionally. But he cannot argue, because that would be proving the presupposition which cannot be proven by autonomous human reason. But the understanding of the world is assumed because the God who explains it is assumed. We cannot get off this theoretical merry-go-round. It cannot move up and down or even spirally, but only in dizzying circles. (Sproul et al, 322-326)

[I]nstead of being a “glorious circle” it [circular reasoning] leads inevitably to anti-intellectualism and ultimate fideism even in the most “rational” presuppositionalists. The Emperor of the Land of Presuppositionalism . . . has no clothes . . . Classical apologetics, with its horror of circularity, is the little child who embarrasses everybody by pointing out the obvious. (Sproul et al, 338)

One can’t begin with circular reasoning and somehow, inexplicably rise to a plane where the irrational suddenly becomes rational, while other systems “reduce to absurdity.” Presuppositionalism is already logically absurd by necessary recourse to circular argument; therefore it is in no position to judge the rationality or irrationality of other systems. First let it become a rational, logically coherent system itself before going on to judge other systems. Sproul et al state:

According to Van Til, the intellect is not functioning in its traditional role until the knowledge of the Creator is assumed. But if so, then it is a mystery how we can know the Creator-creature relationship except through the intellect . . . one cannot believe anything without first knowing it by the intellect. Van Til has cut off that bridge to knowledge. How then does he get any knowledge to accept or believe? . . .

Van Til has taken this position, not noticing — once again — the difference between priority in the order of being and priority in the order of knowing. . . .

Any meaningful statement by Van Til about intellectual priority pertains to the order of being and not to the order of knowing. God is indeed first and is indeed the Creator of the human intellect. If that is what Van Til wants to say, we heartily agree. But given the proposition that God is first in order of being and the human intellect is second, does it follow that in our thinking we are able to move in the same order? It does not at all follow. The exact opposite follows. If we are endowed with intellect, then our intellect has first to function in apprehending the nature of God who created the intellect for that purpose . . .

How do we explain Van Til’s apparent blindness to such an obvious matter? It is his overall thinking which controls him here and pulls him out of the rational order . . . one simply cannot know before he knows. . . .

In Van Til’s thought, as in . . . every other rational being’s thought, the intellect has to precede even his thought of God. This does not detract from God, since it is He who made us this way . . . (Sproul et al, 228-230)

III. The Basis, Warrant, and Justification for Beliefs and Presuppositions

Warfield says that apologetics as a theological discipline has to establish the presuppositions of systematic theology such as the existence of God, the religious nature of man, and the truth of the historical revelation of God given us in the Scriptures. In contrast to this, Kuyper says that apologetics must seek only to defend that which is given it in systematics. Warfield argues that if we were to follow Kuyper’s method we would first be explicating the Christian system and afterwards we would be asking ourselves whether perchance we have been dealing with facts or with fancies. Kuyper argues that if we allow apologetics to establish the presuppositions of theology [as Warfield urges] we have virtually attributed to the natural man the ability to understand the truth of Christianity and have thus denied the doctrine of total depravity.

Norman Geisler offers some countering arguments to this sort of thinking:

Fideists do not differentiate clearly the difference between the basis of belief in God and the support or warrant for that belief . . . Evidence may be used to support, confirm, or even accompany this belief; but it must never be the basis for believing. The fideists properly stress the basis for belief, namely, God or his revelation; but they seem to neglect entirely the warrant or support for exercising this belief. In short, evidence bears directly on belief that there is a God but not directly on belief in God. “Belief that” is an intellectual matter and there are rational arguments for it. But “belief in” is an existential concern that has no such objective tests for truth. Fideism is right on the latter but almost completely overlooks the need for criteria or test for the truth that there is a God, or that the Bible is the Word of God, and so on.

. . . Fideists fail to understand the implications of the difference between the unavoidability of and the justifiability of presuppositions. We may grant that presuppositions are unavoidable; men cannot think without epistemological and even ontological assumptions. However, the crucial question is not whether we can avoid using presuppositions but whether we can justify those we use . . . which presupposition should be chosen and with what warrant? . . . Can some beliefs be eliminated as false and others be established as true? If so, by what method or test for truth? Fideists do not face these questions squarely; or if they do, they tend to provide nonfideistic answers, such as to believe otherwise is contrary to one’s experience, to reason, to his hope for the future, or it brings undesired results. But to answer this way is to return to rationalism or to move on to experientialism or pragmatism as tests for truth. This is no longer methodological fideism. (Geisler, 62-63)

All Christians have faith in certain beliefs, doctrines, and realities (God’s existence, the possibility of revelation, and miracles, the incarnation, the atonement, various Protestant and Catholic distinctives, and so forth). That goes beyond philosophy. But it precludes some imagined “neutrality.”

IV. Philosophy and Theology Converge, Yet Rationality and Logic Are Spurned?

If theology is philosophy, of what school is it? It will do no good to simply call it “trinitarianism,” because that tells us nothing more than we already know: viz., that Christians are trinitarians. So what (it’s merely more circular reasoning)? That helps us not a whit to understand what “philosophy” true Christian theology is to be equated with. It will not do to continually excoriate Catholic philosophy as supposedly always “Platonist” and yet refuse to subject one’s own alternate point of view to a similar analysis, which categorizes it according to certain philosophical schools of thought.

If “theology is philosophy” and vice versa, and there is no distinction to be made, then why do so many presuppositionalists frown upon logic, proudly use circular reasoning, and even claim that God is somehow apart from logic itself? Sproul and Gerstner analyze this curious, odd inconsistency, citing Christian apologists Ronald Nash, Gordon Clark, and Alvin Plantinga (widely considered the most influential and important Protestant Christian philosopher today):

In evaluating the contemporary religious revolt against logic, Ronald Nash discusses a common strand of thought within both neo-orthodox theology and evangelical theology, citing examples in Emil Brunner, Karl Barth, T.F. Torrance, Donald Bloesch, Herman Dooyeweerd, Cornelius Van Til, and al Wolters: that human logic cannot be extended to a transcendent God. Human logic is restricted to this side of the ontological boundary between God and the created order {Nash, 95}. Nash cites Alvin Plantinga’s reaction to this kind of theological agnosticism:

This kind of thinking about God begins in a pious and commendable concern for God’s greatness and majesty and augustness; but it ends in agnosticism and in incoherence. For, if none of our concepts apply to God (or if none of our inferences extend to God), then there is nothing we can know or truly believe of him — not even what is affirmed in the creeds or revealed in the Scriptures. And if there is nothing we can know or truly believe of him, then, of course, we cannot know or truly believe that none of our concepts apply to him. The view . . . is fatally ensnarled in self-referential absurdity. (Nash, 99)

. . . how could this God reveal anything about Himself to us if He is utterly dissimilar from us and His categories of thought are as wholly other as His being? If God is totally ontologically dissimilar, then neither He nor we have any reference point for meaningful or intelligible discourse. Communication between totally dissimilar beings is manifestly impossible.

. . . in certain Christian circles there is a persistent allergy to rationality . . . The fear is that reason makes God subject to a law which is greater than Himself, making God answerable to Aristotle, rather than Aristotle to God. But Aristotle did not invent logic or reason. Aristotle was no more responsible for the invention or creation of logic than Columbus was for inventing or creating America.

. . . The Christian faith affirms logic not as a law above God but as an aspect built into Creation which flows from His own character. According to Gordon Clark, “The law of contradiction is not to be taken as an axiom prior to or independent of God. The law is God thinking.” (Nash [2], 67) (Sproul et al, 75-76)

V. Distortions of St. Thomas Aquinas’ True Positions on Natural Theology and Universals

[T]he assertions of philosophy and science can be self-consciously true only if they are made in the light of the Scripture. Scripture gives definite information of a most fundamental character about all the facts and principles with which philosophy and science deal. For philosophy or science to reject or even to ignore this information is to falsify the picture it gives of the field with which it deals.
This does not imply that philosophy and science must be exclusively dependent upon theology for their basic principles. It implies only that philosophy and science must, as well as theology, turn to Scripture for whatever light it has to offer on general principles and particular facts…the Christian philosopher and the Christian scientist will be first of all directly dependent upon Scripture itself. 

This is (as we have come to expect by now) a gross caricature of the Catholic position, and outright misinformation. St. Thomas Aquinas is usually the “whipping boy” of this particular mindset of a sub-group of Reformed Protestantism. But is the above an accurate description of Aquinas’ position on “natural reason” or “natural theology”? Hardly. The influential Reformed apologists Sproul and Gerstner defend the great Catholic philosopher and theologian from such calumny, citing his own words:

For the Christian, natural theology does not mean that humans, in their natural state, have the intrinsic ability to rise to a knowledge of God by the sheer force of intellect unaided by divine revelation. Such a view is repudiated by Protestants and Roman Catholics alike, including St. Thomas Aquinas:

It seems that a man cannot know any truth without grace . . . Now however pure it be, bodily sense cannot see any visible thing without the light of the sun. Hence however perfect be the human mind, it cannot be reasoning know any truth without the light of God, which belongs to the aid of grace . . . The natural light bestowed on the mind is God’s light, by which we are enlightened to know such things as belong to natural knowledge. (Fairweather, 11:137-139)

. . . To be sure, Aquinas does mention the biblical teaching of natural theology in passing, but he does not build his case for natural theology by a simple appeal to the New Testament:

The existence of God and similar things which can be known by natural reason as Romans, Chapter I affirms, are not articles of faith, but preambles to the articles. Faith presupposes natural knowledge as grace presupposes nature. (Fairweather, 53)

Aquinas and other advocates of natural theology were aware of what the Bible says about the matter. Special revelation confirms natural theology. This fact is important to the debate over natural theology for two reasons. The first is that the Bible makes a claim for the validity of natural theology which claim must be tested and seen to be valid or invalid. The second is that once the Bible is established as special revelation its teaching on the question of natural theology is normative. This is crucial to those scholars who affirm special revelation and general revelation but deny natural theology. For if the special revelation which they affirm teaches natural theology, then their position is exposed as inconsistent. . . .

[I]f the Bible is special revelation and if it teaches natural theology then, of course, by irresistible logic we must conclude that natural theology is valid. The authors of this volume do believe the Bible is special revelation and that it does teach natural theology. (Sproul et al, 25, 36-37)

Christian philosopher Ronald W. Ruegsegger examined the similar distortions of St. Thomas’ thought by another Reformed apologist, Francis Schaeffer (a great influence on my own Christian development, and often a profound and thought-provoking writer, but no philosopher by any stretch):

Schaeffer’s account of Aquinas’ influence on subsequent thought is governed by two assumptions. The first is the claim that “Aquinas brought [the] Aristotelian emphasis on individual things — the particulars — into the philosophy of the late Middle Ages, and this set the stage for the humanistic elements of the Renaissance and the basic problems they created.” (Schaeffer, 52)

The second assumption is the claim that Aquinas held that “the will of man is fallen, but the intellect was not.” (Schaeffer [2], 11). According to Schaeffer, this is equivalent to making the intellect autonomous, or independent, which in turn produced three bad results. First, Aquinas thought that one could develop natural theology independently from the Bible. Second, Aquinas made philosophy independent from Scripture. Third, Aquinas made it possible for the arts to develop apart from Scripture. . . .

According to Aquinas, although the senses naturally apprehend particulars, the object of cognition is the concept, or universal . . . Aquinas refers to these universals post rem, that is, universals as abstracted from objects.

In addition to universals post rem, Aquinas holds that there are universals ante rem (prior to things) and universals in re (in things). As for universals ante rem, Aquinas maintains that universals are prior to things on the ground that when God created the world, his universals ideas served as the exemplary patterns as he created the particulars that make up our world. Finally, universals in re are universals in particular objects serving as their essences.

This sketch of Aquinas’ epistemology necessarily has left out many details, but it shows that universals play an important role in Thomistic philosophy . . . It is true that in following Aristotle, Aquinas placed more importance on particulars than Plato did. However, Plato had a difficult time finding any role for particulars in his system. By contrast, Aquinas’ incorporation of particulars as well as universals seems to be a step in the right direction, rather than a mistake as Schaeffer sees it. . . .

[T]he following passage from Aquinas’ Summa Theologiae shows that Aquinas does not hold that natural theology is totally independent from Scripture:

Even as regards those truths about God which human reason can investigate, it was necessary that man be taught by a divine revelation. For the truth about God, such as reason can know it, would only be known by a few, and that after a long time, and with the admixture of many errors; whereas man’s whole salvation, which is in God, depends upon the knowledge of this truth. Therefore, in order that the salvation of men might be brought about more fitly and more surely, it was necessary that they be taught divine truths by divine revelation. It was therefore necessary that, besides the philosophical disciplines investigated by reason, there should be a sacred doctrine by way of revelation. (Aquinas, I, q. 1, a. 1)

. . . Bonaventure had excluded Aristotle from the ranks of metaphysicians on the ground that he lacked the light of faith. Aquinas replied that unless we wish to condemn reason as such we must say that it is at least theoretically possible for a secular philosopher to develop a satisfactory metaphysics. Nevertheless, Aquinas acknowledged that it is not practically possible for a secular philosopher to do so, because on the one hand God is the first principle of true philosophy, and on the other hand the intellect is weak. (Ruegsegger, 112-115)

VI. The Place of Scripture in Presuppositionalism and Catholicism
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Catholics accept the material sufficiency of Scripture (all Christian doctrines can be found in it, either explicitly, implicitly, or deduced from other clear indications). We also accept Sacred Tradition as a source of Christian truth, but not in the sense that it is somehow distinct from Scripture, as if it contains something different (in terms of overall theology and viewpoint) from the Bible. The much-misunderstood and distorted Catholic position on the relationship of Bible and Tradition is best described in the Dogmatic Constitution on Divine Revelation (Dei Verbum), from Vatican II:

Sacred Tradition and sacred Scripture, then, are bound closely together, and communicate one with the other. For both of them, flowing out from the same divine well-spring, come together in some fashion to form one thing, and move towards the same goal. Sacred Scripture is the speech of God as it is put down in writing under the breath of the Holy Spirit. And Tradition transmits in its entirety the Word of God which has been entrusted to the apostles by Christ the Lord and the Holy Spirit . . . hence, both scripture and Tradition must be accepted and honored with equal feelings of devotion and reverence. (II, 9)

Of course, this view on authority (far from being some post-Tridentine innovations) is precisely that of the Church Fathers, according to three prominent Protestant Church historians:

As regards the pre-Augustinian Church, there is in our time a striking convergence of scholarly opinion that Scripture and Tradition are for the early Church in no sense mutually exclusive: kerygma, Scripture and Tradition coincide entirely. The Church preaches the kerygma which is to be found in toto in written form in the canonical books.

The Tradition is not understood as an addition to the kerygma contained in Scripture but as the handing down of that same kerygma in living form: in other words everything is to be found in Scripture and at the same time everything is in the living Tradition.

It is in the living, visible Body of Christ, inspired and vivified by the operation of the Holy Spirit, that Scripture and Tradition coinhere . . . Both Scripture and Tradition issue from the same source: the Word of God, Revelation . . . Only within the Church can this kerygma be handed down undefiled . . . (Oberman, 366-367)

Clearly it is an anachronism to superimpose upon the discussions of the second and third centuries categories derived from the controversies over the relation of Scripture and tradition in the 16th century, for ‘in the ante-Nicene Church . . . there was no notion of sola Scriptura, but neither was there a doctrine of traditio sola.’. . . (1)

The apostolic tradition was a public tradition . . . So palpable was this apostolic tradition that even if the apostles had not left behind the Scriptures to serve as normative evidence of their doctrine, the church would still be in a position to follow ‘the structure of the tradition which they handed on to those to whom they committed the churches (2).’ This was, in fact, what the church was doing in those barbarian territories where believers did not have access to the written deposit, but still carefully guarded the ancient tradition of the apostles, summarized in the creed . . .

The term ‘rule of faith’ or ‘rule of truth’ . . . seems sometimes to have meant the ‘tradition,’ sometimes the Scriptures, sometimes the message of the gospel . . .

In the . . . Reformation . . . the supporters of the sole authority of Scripture . . . overlooked the function of tradition in securing what they regarded as the correct exegesis of Scripture against heretical alternatives. (Pelikan, 115-117, 119; citations: 1. In Cushman, Robert E. & Egil Grislis, eds., The Heritage of Christian Thought: Essays in Honor of Robert Lowry Calhoun, New York: 1965, quote from Albert Outler, “The Sense of Tradition in the Ante-Nicene Church,” p. 29. 2. St. Irenaeus, Against Heresies, 3:4:1)

It should be unnecessary to accumulate further evidence. Throughout the whole period Scripture and tradition ranked as complementary authorities, media different in form but coincident in content. To inquire which counted as superior or more ultimate is to pose the question in misleading terms. If Scripture was abundantly sufficient in principle, tradition was recognized as the surest clue to its interpretation, for in tradition the Church retained, as a legacy from the apostles which was embedded in all the organs of her institutional life, an unerring grasp of the real purport and meaning of the revelation to which Scripture and tradition alike bore witness. (Kelly, 47-48)

VII. Van Til’s Anti-Catholicism and Profound Misunderstanding of Catholic Theology
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This pervasive Protestant tendency towards false dichotomies — wrongly pitting this against that, when it is by no means necessary to do so — is found throughout Van Til’s silly, hackneyed, inaccurate (frankly, ignorant) depictions of supposed Catholic views. For example:

Roman Catholicism takes a position half way between that of Christianity and that of paganism . . .

[with regard to the philosophy of knowledge]

All in all then it is clear that Romanism cannot ask its adherents to submit their moral consciousness to scripture in any thorough way. And accordingly Rome cannot challenge the non-Christian position in any thorough way. (Van Til [2], 56-57)

Romanism should be regarded as a deformation of Christianity, in fact as its lowest deformation. And this deformation expresses itself not merely at some but at every point of doctrine.

. . . the natural man does not need the light of Christianity to enable him to understand the world and himself aright. He does not need the revelation of Scripture or the illumination of the Holy Spirit . . .

[directly contrary to St. Thomas, as cited above: “however perfect be the human mind, it cannot be reasoning know any truth without the light of God, which belongs to the aid of grace . . . The natural light bestowed on the mind is God’s light, by which we are enlightened to know such things as belong to natural knowledge.”]

. . . the self-contained ontological trinity of Scripture. The Roman Catholic apologete does not want to prove the existence of this sort of God. He wants to prove the existence of such a God as will leave intact the autonomy of man to at least some extent. Rome’s theology does not want a God whose counsel controls whatsoever comes to pass.

. . . There is no place anywhere in the whole of Roman Catholic thought for the idea that any human being should be wholly subject to God. On the contrary, the position of Rome requires the rejection of the counsel of God as all-determinative. (Van Til [2], 71, 73, 77-78, 138)

Now Catholic theology denies God’s Providence, and Catholic apologists care little about defense of the Holy Trinity?!!! The former assertion (as well as the latter) would be great news indeed to St. Thomas Aquinas (the “bad boy” of Catholic theology, according to Van Til), who wrote:

Now, because God not only gave existence to things at their origin but causes their existence by preserving it as long as they exist . . . so he not only gave them active forces when he first created them but constantly causes those forces in them. Hence with the withdrawal of the divine influence, all action would cease. So every action of anything is traced to him as its cause.

Every movement of the will by which some powers are put into action also comes from God as the primary object of tendency as well as the first willer. Every action should therefore be attributed to God as its primary and principal agent. (cited in Clark, 333-334, from Summa of Christian Teaching, III, 67)

But Van Til, undaunted, and apparently unfamiliar with Aquinas’ thought, quixotically proceeds, exclaiming:

According to Roman Catholic theology . . . God has to await man’s decisions on many points. Thus God does not really control whatsoever comes to pass. And this means that man’s ultimate environment is only partly under God’s direction . . . It is no wonder, then that, holding this doctrine of the ultimacy of the mind and will of man in its theology, Romish theology should recognize the legitimacy of the idea of autonomy in the field of philosophy. (Van Til [2], 136-137)

On a Romanist basis . . . the Christ could not and did not accomplish one finished act of world salvation. (Van Til [2], 155)

St. Thomas must be turning over in his grave again at such a ridiculous caricature of Catholic soteriology, for he wrote:

Christ by suffering out of love and obedience gave to God more than was required to compensate for the offense of the whole human race . . . Christ’s passion was not merely a sufficient but a superabundant atonement for the sins of the human race: according to “He is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world” (1 Jn. 2:2). (in Clark, 469, from Summa Theologiae, III, q. 48, a. 2, c)

Christ’s passion achieves man’s salvation effectively. (in Clark, 470, from Summa Theologiae, III, q. 48, a. 6, c)

It’s in Reformed theology where the true conflict with Scripture and the all-sufficient work of Christ is seen, since it holds to Limited Atonement, or the notion that Jesus Christ died only for the elect, and not for all mankind — as Catholics, Orthodox, and Arminian Protestants hold. Further examination of Van Til’s manifold errors and appalling misrepresentations of Catholic teaching would be too depressing and embarrassing . . .

The Protestant doctrine of God requires that it be made foundational to everything else as a principle of explanation. If God is self-sufficient, he alone is self-explanatory. And if he alone is self-explanatory, then he must be the final reference point in all human predication. He is then like the sun from which all lights on earth derive their power of illumination. You do not use a candle in order to search for the sun. The idea of a candle is derived from the sun. So the very idea of any fact in the universe is that it is derivative. God has created it. It cannot have come into existence by itself, or by chance. God himself is the source of all possibility, and, therefore, of all space-time factuality.

. . . the Catholic method of apologetics “is a compromise between the Christian and the non-Christian view on the matter of the final reference point of human experience.”
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This is another false dichotomy, and poor comprehension of the Catholic view. Above, we saw how St. Thomas Aquinas did not have to deny either side of the equation; he stressed both universals and particulars (contrary to the Schaefferian and Van Tillian distortions and caricatures of his thought). Catholics don’t create all these dichotomies; it is Protestantism which does that.
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“…only those who hold to the doctrine of God as self-sufficient will naturally also hold to the doctrine of Scripture as self-interpretative.”
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This amazing assertion is far from true at all, let alone self-evidently true. First of all, what intrinsic connection exists between the ontological self-sufficiency of God (which, again, all Christians readily accept) and the authority question of the place of Scripture in Christianity, as related to Church and Tradition? None, that I can see.
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Secondly, how is it evident that self-interpretation of Scripture is part and parcel of “self-sufficiency”? One can believe that Scripture is self-sufficient for doctrine (Catholics accept its material sufficiency) yet not believe that it can either interpret itself or be isolated from an authoritative, binding Church and tradition. Van Til has to demonstrate why all these axiomatic assertions should be accapted. Otherwise, they are no better than the axioms of Mormons or Jehovah’s Witnesses.

God’s revelation in nature, together with God’s revelation in Scripture, form God’s one grand scheme of covenant revelation of himself to man. The two forms of revelation must therefore be seen as presupposing and supplementing one another….Revelation in nature and revelation in Scripture are mutually meaningless without one another and mutually fruitful when taken together.

Again, we observed above that Aquinas would not disagree with this at all. But of course Van Til mistakenly thinks that he does.
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VIII. The Inevitable Internal Difficulties and Incoherence of Presuppositionalism
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Van Til seems to be only opposed to non-circular evidences . . . but we reply: what good is a logically circular “evidence” in the first place — especially for a non-believer whom one is trying to persuade and evangelize? I question whether it is either an “evidence” or apologetics at all, in many cases, because of its very circularity. It is merely an assertion, not a defense. The former is clearly not the latter. Norman Geisler examines the results of one aspect of this circularity:

Fideism faces a final dilemma. Either it makes a truth-claim or it does not. If fideism is not making a claim to be true, then it is not a position in philosophy, but simply a study in psychology . . . On the other hand, if fideism makes a truth-claim then it must have a truth-test. For not all truth-claims can be true, at least not contrary ones . . . If he does not, then as an unjustified belief it has no rightful claim to knowledge . . . if the fideist offers a justification for his belief — as indeed the whole argument for fideism would seem to be — then he is no longer a fideist, since he has an argument or justification for holding his belief in fideism. In short, either fideism is not a rightful claimant to truth or else it is self-defeating. But in neither case can it be established to be true. (Geisler, 63-64)

Sproul and Gerstner concur:

If the presuppositionalist offers any reason, he ceases to be a presuppositionalist. Bahnsen is too consistent to do that. But a faith in Scripture, or in anything for that matter, that does not rest on reasons, is fideism. Thus, if Van Til or Bahnsen deny that their faith in Scripture is fideistic they will be denying their presuppositionalism. If they admit it, they admit fideism. In short, presuppositionalism is a form of fideism, and this charge cannot be denied without denying presuppositionalism. (Sproul et al, 309)

The Catholic Encyclopedia (1909) puts it yet another way:

Fideism owes its origin to distrust in human reason, and the logical sequence of such an attitude is scepticism . . . It is also a fideistic attitude which is the occasion of agnosticism, of positivism, of pragmatism and other modern forms of anti-intellectualism. As against these views, it must be noted that authority, even the authority of God, cannot be the supreme criterion of certitude, and an act of faith cannot be the primary form of human knowledge. This authority, indeed, in order to be a motive of assent, must be previously acknowledged as being certainly valid; before we believe in a proposition as revealed by God, we must first know with certitude that God exists, that He reveals such and such a proposition, and that His teaching is worthy of assent, all of which questions can and must be ultimately decided only by an act of intellectual assent based on objective evidence. Thus, fideism not only denies intellectual knowledge, but logically ruins faith itself. . . .

Revelation, indeed, is the supreme motive of faith in supernatural truths, yet, the existence of this motive and its validity has to be established by reason. No one will deny the importance of authority and tradition or common consent in human society for our knowledge of natural truths. It is quite evident that to despise the teaching of the sages, the scientific discoveries of the past, and the voice of common consent would be to condemn ourselves to a perpetual infancy in knowledge, to render impossible any progress in science, to ignore the social character of man, and to make human life intolerable: but, on the other hand, it is an error to make these elements the supreme criteria of truth, since they are only particular rules of certitude, the validity of which is grounded upon a more fundamental rule. It is indeed true that moral certitude differs from mathematical, but the difference lies not in the firmness or validity of the certainty afforded, but in the process employed and the dispositions required by the nature of the truths with which they respectively deal. The Catholic doctrine on this question is in accord with history and philosophy. Rejecting both rationalism and fideism, it teaches that human reason is capable (physical ability) of knowing the moral and religious truths of the natural order; that it can prove with certainty the existence of God, the immortality of the soul, and can acknowledge most certainly the teaching of God; that, however, in the present conditions of life, it needs (of moral necessity) the help of revelation to acquire a sufficient knowledge of all the natural truths necessary to direct human life according to the precepts of natural religion. (“Fideism,” Vol. VI, 68-69)

IX. Does Holy Scripture Teach Natural Theology in Romans 1?
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The time has come to cut to the quick and determine whether Scripture teaches natural theology or not. I agree with Sproul and Gerstner that it certainly does, and that Romans 1 is the clearest expression of this. They write:

Verse 19 makes it clear that it is truth or knowledge about God which is being repressed or held down. “For what can be known about God is plain to them, because God has shown it to them” (Rom. 1:19 RSV).

Here the apostle asserts that knowledge of God is not shrouded in obscurity, detectable only by an elite gnostic group or by a skilled master of esoteric mysteries. That which can be known about God is plain. . . . not hidden or concealed, but manifest, being clear and transparent for anyone to see . . . God Himself shows this revelation to man. “Ever since the creation of the world his invisible nature, namely, his eternal power and deity, has been clearly perceived in the things that have been made. So they are without excuse” (Rom. 1:20 RSV). Here is the text of texts to establish the biblical basis for general revelation and natural theology. . . .

It is important to note that Paul does not deny the ability of natural man to reason or even to reason correctly if free of prejudice. The problem is not in the capacity for thought per se, but in the thought process that begins and is maintained by prejudice to the facts. The intellectual problem is produced by the moral problem, not the moral problem by an intellectual one.

Professing to be wise, they became fools, and exchanged the glory of the incorruptible God for an image in the form of corruptible man and of birds and four-footed animals and crawling creatures. (Rom. 1:22-23 NASB)

This severe indictment by the apostle could easily be misconstrued as an assault upon the intelligence of natural man. A close look at this passage, however, will indicate that the passage attacks not intellectual ability but morality. . . .

We conclude that the apostle Paul teaches clearly and unambiguously that humans possess a natural knowledge of God which rests upon the foundation of general revelation . . . In rejecting certain forms of natural theology, we must not discard natural theology altogether if we want to maintain a position which is consistent with the New Testament . . . If people do in fact have a knowledge of God from nature, then a natural theology is possible . . .

If the apostle Paul is correct, then Kant was in error and the Christian apologist must work to establish once again a sound natural theology. (Sproul et al, 43, 52-53, 62-63)

X. “Self-Interpretation” and Miscellany
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The Catholic Church offers the only non-arbitrary, historically- and biblically-defensible ecclesiology. God can guide His Church and protect it from error (infallibility). That Church can then guide mankind to true doctrine and a proper overall hermeneutic of Scripture. This may not be easy for folks to accept as a faith proposition, but at least it is not circular, and has much biblical warrant.

*

Catholicism has reason and faith in a proper balance, and does not deny the constant necessity of the faith aspect in the slightest. It is presuppositionalism that has demoted reason to a place where I believe God never intended it to be.

How is it “human autonomy” to believe that one person is given a special charism by God to guide and head the Church? If one wishes to deny all ecclesiastical or pastoral offices by the same reasoning, that would be consistent, but to deny and caricature the papacy in particular on these grounds, is curious and an insubstantial piece of reasoning. It seems more like mere prejudice or at least religious hostility. Catholics can give many biblical evidences for the papacy — and that is where the argument over its propriety and utility and very existence properly should take place.

XI. Conclusion: “The Starting Point” of Christian Philosophy and Apologetics
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I shall again cite the wonderful analyses of Sproul and Gerstner, in conclusion:

The issue of starting point is crucial to the debate. The presuppositionalist maintains that you cannot get to God by starting with the self . . . , and the traditionalist argues that the self is the only possible starting place. . . .

The inevitability of beginning with the human self is admitted occasionally even by presuppositionalists. For example, Van Til acknowledges that

all agree that the immediate starting point must be that of our everyday experience and the “facts” that are most close at hand. But the exact charge we are making against so many Idealists as well as Pragmatists is that they are taking for granted certain temporal “facts” not only as temporary but as an ultimate starting point. (Van Til [4], 120)

This is a very significant point not often made by Van Til. As a matter of fact, it is never made consistently as a part of his system. If it were, much of his criticism would collapse. . . .

We contend that the “‘facts’ . . . most close at hand” are merely a starting point just because they are the only place at which anyone can start. If we do start at that point, we learn from the evidence that surrounds us that there is a God who alone can explain the ultimate meaning of everything.

If Van Til were willing to begin with us at that starting point and then argue from the observation of the world around that God alone explains everything, we could not agree more. C.S. Lewis makes a good deal of the fact that one could not confidently think without ultimately assuming a rational being at the head of the universe; but he does not begin with this rational being. By contrast, Van Til insists that a person must begin at that point. We find it difficult, therefore, to understand his casually saying that. of course, everybody begins at the common-sense, proximate starting point. We wish Van Til would acknowledge this all the time, instead of almost always supposing that anybody who starts there makes a fatal error because he necessarily ends there.

No, the traditional theist does not end there. And yes, the presuppositionalist too must always begin there. Van Til’s exception in the above case shows him to be inconsistent. This is apparent when any line of Vantillian thinking is pursued. He vacillates from one position to another — without being aware of it, for he certainly does not defend vacillation, though he does defend circularity of reasoning. He glories in circles. But we do not find even Van Til glorying in vacillation. Van Til consistently confuses God as the ontological starting point with God as the epistemological starting point; from this confusion arises his vacillation. (Sproul et al, 212, 214-216)

Sources
 
Aquinas, St. Thomas, Summa Theologiae, in Basic Writings of Saint Thomas Aquinas, edited by Anton Pegis, revision of the English Dominican Fathers’ translation, New York: Random House, 1945.
Clark, Mary T., editor, An Aquinas Reader, London: Hodder and Stoughton, 1972.
Copi, Irving M., Introduction to Logic, 4th edition, New York: Macmillan, 1972.
Fairweather, A.M., editor, Nature and Grace: Selections from the Summa Theologica of Thomas Aquinas, Library of Christian Classics, Philadelphia: Westminster, 1954.
Geisler, Norman L., Christian Apologetics, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Book House, 1976.
Kelly, J.N.D., Early Christian Doctrines, San Francisco: Harper & Row, 1978.
Nash, Ronald H., The Word of God and the Mind of Man, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Zondervan, 1982.
Nash, Ronald H. [2], editor, The Philosophy of Gordon H. Clark, Philadelphia: Presbyterian and Reformed, 1968.
Oberman, Heiko, The Harvest of Medieval Theology, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, revised, 1967.
Pelikan, Jaroslav, The Christian Tradition: A History of the Development of Doctrine: Vol. 1 of 5: The Emergence of the Catholic Tradition (100-600), Chicago: Univ. of Chicago Press, 1971.
Ruegsegger, Ronald W., editor, Reflections on Francis Schaeffer, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Zondervan Publishing House / Academie Books, 1986.
Schaeffer, Francis, How Should We Then Live?, Old Tappan, New Jersey: Fleming H. Revell, 1976.
Schaeffer, Francis [2], Escape From Reason, Downers Grove, Illinois: InterVarsity, 1968.
Sproul, R.C., John Gerstner, and Arthur Lindsley, Classical Apologetics: A Rational Defense of the Christian Faith and a Critique of Presuppositional Apologetics, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Zondervan Publishing House / Academie Books, 1984.
Van Til, Cornelius, The Defense of the Faith, Philadelphia: Presbyterian and Reformed, 1955.
Van Til, Cornelius [2], The Defense of the Faith, Phillipsburg, New Jersey: Presbyterian and Reformed Pub. Co. 3rd revised edition, 1967.
Van Til, Cornelius [3], Systematic Theology, Classroom Syllabus, 1949.
Van Til, Cornelius [4], A Survey of Christian Epistemology, Den Dulk Foundation, 1969.

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Summary: I “dialogue” with Corelius Van Til (1895-1987) and critique his presuppositionalist views, as well as argue in favor of evidentialist apologetics.

2023-02-21T15:30:09-04:00

Lucas Banzoli is a very active Brazilian anti-Catholic polemicist, who holds to basically a Seventh-Day Adventist theology, whereby there is no such thing as a soul that consciously exists outside of a body, and no hell (soul sleep and annihilationism). This leads him to a Christology which is deficient and heterodox in terms of Christ’s human nature after His death. He has a Master’s degree in theology, a degree and postgraduate work in history, a license in letters, and is a history teacher, author of 25 books, as well as blogmaster (but now inactive) for six blogs. He’s active on YouTube.

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The words of Lucas Banzoli will be in blue. I used Google Translate to transfer his Portugese text into English.

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This is a reply to Lucas’ article, “A Igreja é a coluna e sustentáculo da verdade!” [The Church is the pillar and support of the truth!] (7-1-15).

1 Timothy 3:15 (RSV). . . the household of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and bulwark of the truth.

Papists love (pardon my redundancy) to quote a text in Paul’s first epistle to Timothy, when he said that the Church is the “pillar and support of the truth” (1 Tim. 3:15). At least ten thousand times I had to read the repeated jargon that “the Church is the pillar of truth, not the Bible.”

I can beat that. At least ten trillion times have I heard the supposed “prooftext” that in fact proves nothing regarding sola Scriptura: “All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness” (2 Tim 3:16). Folks do indeed often repeat what they think are strong arguments. Whether in fact the argument is strong is another question, and it has to be argued through and demonstrated. I’ve done that with 1 Timothy 3:15 and will again today. I thank Lucas and I’m very grateful for the opportunity to strengthen a rock-solid biblical argument about the infallibility of the Church.

The later addition that makes a point of saying that “it is not the Bible” is there only to accentuate the value they place on Scripture. A complete contempt.

Sheer nonsense. I’ve been a Catholic for 31 years and a Catholic apologist almost as long. I’ve never heard any orthodox Catholic ever say that the Bible is not also a support of the truth, or not completely true. Catholics revere Holy Scripture as God’s infallible and uniquely inspired revelation. It’s an infallible pillar of the truth; so is the Church and sacred apostolic tradition. We canonized Holy Scripture, preserved it (painstaking work by thousands of monks, transcribing), translated it for 1500 years, before the Protestant Revolution arose. Protestants don’t have a “monopoly” on the Bible.

The problem here is that whenever Catholics acknowledge infallible authority of anything besides the Bible (to the Church or sacred tradition or apostolic succession or ecumenical councils or the pope), Protestants automatically assume that we are running down the Bible (because this contradicts their false and unbiblical doctrine of sola Scriptura). That doesn’t follow at all, of course.

This comes from their “dichotomous / “either/or” mindset, as if it were a zero-sum game (belief in the authority of the Church must mean less belief in the Bible, etc.). This is kindergarten thinking. The Bible itself gives councils and the Church authority; therefore, Catholics believing in and following the same biblical teachings is pro-Bible, not anti-Bible. But this is the drivel we Catholic apologists must constantly encounter and refute: “A complete contempt.” Blatantly misrepresenting other Christians’ beliefs is a serious sin, and is against the Ten Commandments (bearing false witness).

In response to this argument, we must point out in conjunction with what has been written in the book:

1) Paul was not talking about the Roman Church. The “Roman” addition in the text does not exist. In fact: it exists, but only in the head of those who need to find “Roman” there to make sense of their argument.

Yes and no. He was talking about the Church established by Jesus Christ (with Peter as its head). This Church is historically the same as what later became known as the Catholic Church, headed by the popes (Peter’s successors) in Rome. “Rome” or “Roman” isn’t present in this text, but it’s beside the point. Paul is referring to the one true Church: an actual historical, concrete institution that can be identified (it’s not a mere abstraction or “mystical” only).

2) Paul was not talking about the Church as an institution. In chapter 2 of this book we check out numerous biblical proofs that the real and true concept of ekklesia is not that of a religious institution, much less a Roman one, but refers to Christians themselves, as the Body of Christ.

This is also false, and reflects Lucas’ very “low” and unbiblical ecclesiology. In the Bible, ekklesia refers to both local churches (as in Paul’s epistles and in the first three chapters of Revelation: the “seven churches”). It also refers to the one true institutional, universal, Catholic Church that can be pointed to and identified.  The Council of Jerusalem (Acts 15) is a prime example of this institutional authority. A council there decreed certain things regarding what laws Christians are bound to obey. It did so by invoking the infallible protection of the Holy Spirit (“it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay upon you . . “: 15:28).

The instruction was initially sent to “the Gentiles in Antioch and Syria and Cili’cia” (15:23). These are areas not in Israel; therefore, this can’t possibly be merely a local church in play. It’s the universal Church: a council of elders and apostles including St. Peter and St. Paul, and James, the bishop of Jerusalem. Paul himself delivered its decrees to many more cities in Asia Minor (Turkey): see Acts 16:1-8.  This is one unified Church and an exercise of authority “from the top” which applied to all Christians henceforth. Christian men have not been required to be circumcised as an “entrance rite” into Christianity ever since that decision.

Other instances of “Church” as the universal, institutional Church (not merely the local congregation):

Matthew 16:18 . . . on this rock I will build my church . . .

Acts 5:11 And great fear came upon the whole , and upon all who heard of these things.

Acts 9:31 So the church throughout all Judea and Galilee and Sama’ria had peace and was built up . . .

Acts 20:28  . . . the church of God which he obtained with the blood of his own Son

1 Corinthians 10:32 . . . the church of God

1 Corinthians 11:32 . . . the church of God . . .

1 Corinthians 12:28 And God has appointed in the church first apostles, second prophets, third teachers, then workers of miracles, then healers, helpers, administrators, speakers in various kinds of tongues.

1 Corinthians 15:9 . . . I persecuted the church of God. (cf. Gal 1:13; Phil 3:6)

Ephesians 1:22 and he has put all things under his feet and has made him the head over all things for the church, (cf. 3:10, 21; 5:23-25, 27, 29, 32)

Colossians 1:18 He is the head of the body, the church . . .

Colossians 1:24 . . . for the sake of his body, that is, the church,

3) Column is a completely different thing from foundation. The papist who argues that the truth is subject to the Church shows that he understands nothing of the meaning of “Church” and still less of “pillar.” The column is not a foundation, but is built on the foundation! Here Paul used two Greek words, one called hedraioma, which means: “support, support, support” [De acordo com a Concordância de Strong, 1477]. The other was stulos, which means “pillar or column” [De acordo com a Concordância de Strong, 4769]. As we can see, none of them has the sense of “foundation” (as some adulterated Catholic translations render it), but of something that is on the foundation.

However these two words are particularly defined, it remains true that they support the truth, which is on “top” of them (“pillar and bulwark of the truth” in RSV). I agree about the meaning of stulos (“pillar”). But hedraióma (Strong’s word #1477, as Lucas cited) is a stronger term. Strong defines it as “a foundation, stay, support” (Lucas conveniently omitted the definition of “foundation”). HELPS Word-studies on the same web page for hedraióma noted: Cognate: 1477 hedraíōma – the base, which ultimately supports the foundation itself (used only in 1 Tim 3:15). See also 1476 (hedraíos). [my bolding and italics].

But Lucas falsely claimed that “none of them has the sense of “foundation” (as some adulterated Catholic translations render it)”. I regret to inform him (but happy to inform readers) that this is a glaring falsehood, and it is proven not just by Catholic translations (in English), but by (mostly) Protestant Bibles, which translate hedraíōma as follows (Catholic Bibles in green) — including 24 of them which have foundation or foundation-stone:

foundation (NIV, NLT, Amplified, CSB, Holman, CEV, ISV, LSV, NAB, Young’s Literal, Berean Study, Lamsa, EHV, EXB, GW, Phillips, MEV, NOG, NTE, TLV, Goodspeed, Knox, Williams)

foundation-stone (Weymouth)

buttress (ESV, Mounce, Barclay)

ground (KJV, NKJV, ASV, Douay-Rheims, WEB, AKJV, ERV, Webster, Geneva, Bishop’s Bible, Coverdale, Tyndale, BRG, Good News, NMB, RGT)

bulwark (NET, NRSV, NCB, RSV, NEB, REB, Moffatt, Kleist & Lilly)

base (Darby, Smith’s Literal, Literal Emphasis, JUB)

[see web pages with most of these translations written out: one / two]

So much for Lucas’ groundless argument (no pun intended) . . .

Therefore, the meaning of the text is not that the truth is subject or dependent on the Church, but the opposite. As the pillar is dependent on the foundation, the Church is dependent on the truth. The foundation (truth) comes first, and the pillar (Church) comes later. The Church, therefore, has the role of announcing this truth, not manipulating that truth, as if whatever the Church said was true for the sole reason that the Church said it.

The text says the exact opposite of what Lucas argues, as shown. Far from the Church being “dependent on the truth”, The Bible says it is the foundation or ground or base of the truth: exactly what we Catholics are saying. It doesn’t follow that the Bible is not that (either/or reasoning). But the Church is, along with or alongside the Bible: precisely as in the Catholic rule of faith. This doesn’t make the Church inspired; only infallible. And that is quite enough to destroy sola Scriptura as a supposed biblical principle and rule of faith.

4) To clarify the issue, let us quote the text where Paul uses the same Greek word stulos (column) when saying:

“Recognizing the grace that had been given to me, James, Peter and John, regarded as pillars [stulos], stretched out their right hands to me and Barnabas as a sign of fellowship” (Galatians 2:9)

James, Peter and John were obviously not “above the truth,” much less the Church as a whole. This also does not mean that the Church would not exist without them. They were just “columns” that stood out from the rest. If Peter had been above the truth because he was a pillar, he could not have been rebuked by Paul (Gal.2:11-14), or denied Jesus (Jn.18:27). Being a column does not guarantee always preaching the truth, much less being above the truth.

The apostles, as well as Christians today (Church), had the function of preaching this truth, as they are pillars of it. If Christians do not preach the truth, the world will not hear it, and consequently will not believe the gospel. This is why, and in this sense, the Church is the pillar of truth, for she has the obligation to proclaim the truth of the Scriptures and keep the truth as it is.

The heart of the Catholic argument is not the word stulos, but the word hedraíōma, as shown. First Lucas defines it wrongly, and then ignores it as if it isn’t there. But the meaning is crystal-clear; couldn’t be more clear than it is!

[skipping over his section stating that the Bible is truth, which no one denies . . . also skipping over his one-sided, slanted presentation of the biblical data on tradition. The topic is 1 Timothy 3:15 and what it means]

. . . the Church, which is not a “foundation” of the truth, but a pillar, . . . The Bible is not really the pillar of truth, because it is much more than a pillar. It is not like a pillar (which depends on something), but the foundation, the truth itself.

The Church also is the foundation (or ground or base or bulwark) of “the truth”: as shown above. Lucas is foolishly denying what ought to be right in front of his face. I know it’s difficult to have one’s cherished (but false) belief crushed. But we all have to be strong enough to endure correction from the Bible. We can’t fight against it. That won’t do us any good at all.

Readers have now seen the utter weakness and blatantly Bible-opposing nature of Lucas’ argument. Now I will make my own concluding statement, to nail down the case beyond all argument. Here is the related portion of my book, 100 Biblical Arguments Against Sola Scriptura (2012, pp. 104-107, #82):

Pillars and foundations support things and prevent them from collapsing. To be a “bulwark” of the truth, means to be a “safety net” against truth turning into falsity. If the Church could err, it could not be what Scripture says it is. God’s truth would be the house built on a foundation of sand in Jesus’ parable. For this passage of Scripture to be true, the Church could not err — it must be infallible. A similar passage may cast further light on 1 Timothy 3:15:

Ephesians 2:19-21 . . . you are fellow citizens with the saints and members of the household of God, [20] built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Christ Jesus himself being the cornerstone, [21] in whom the whole structure is joined together and grows into a holy temple in the Lord;

1 Timothy 3:15 defines “household of God” as “the church of the living God.” Therefore, we know that Ephesians 2:19-21 is also referring to the Church, even though that word is not present. Here the Church’s own “foundation” is “the apostles and prophets, Christ Jesus himself being the cornerstone.” The foundation of the Church itself is Jesus and apostles and prophets.

Prophets spoke “in the name of the Lord” (1 Chron 21:19; 2 Chron 33:18; Jer 26:9), and commonly introduced their utterances with “thus says the Lord” (Is 10:24; Jer 4:3; 26:4; Ezek 13:8; Amos 3:11-12; and many more). They spoke the “word of the Lord” (Is 1:10; 38:4; Jer 1:2; 13:3, 8; 14:1; Ezek 13:1-2; Hos 1:1; Joel 1:1; Jon 1:1; Mic 1:1, et cetera). These communications cannot contain any untruths insofar as they truly originate from God, with the prophet serving as a spokesman or intermediary of God (Jer 2:2; 26:8; Ezek 11:5; Zech 1:6; and many more). Likewise, apostles proclaimed truth unmixed with error (1 Cor 2:7-13; 1 Tim 2:7; 2 Tim 1:11-14; 2 Pet 1:12-21).

Does this foundation have any faults or cracks? Since Jesus is the cornerstone, he can hardly be a faulty foundation. Neither can the apostles or prophets err when teaching the inspired gospel message or proclaiming God’s word. In the way that apostles and prophets are infallible, so is the Church set up by our Lord Jesus Christ. We ourselves (all Christians) are incorporated into the Church (following the metaphor), on top of the foundation.

1 Peter 2:4-9 Come to him, to that living stone, rejected by men but in God’s sight chosen and precious; [5] and like living stones be yourselves built into a spiritual house, to be a holy priesthood, to offer spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ. [6] For it stands in scripture: “Behold, I am laying in Zion a stone, a cornerstone chosen and precious, and he who believes in him will not be put to shame.” [7] To you therefore who believe, he is precious, but for those who do not believe, “The very stone which the builders rejected has become the head of the corner,” [8] and “A stone that will make men stumble, a rock that will make them fall”; for they stumble because they disobey the word, as they were destined to do. [9] But you are a chosen race, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, God’s own people, that you may declare the wonderful deeds of him who called you out of darkness into his marvelous light. (cf. Isa 28:16)

Jesus is without fault or untruth, and he is the cornerstone of the Church. The Church is also more than once even identified with Jesus himself, by being called his “Body” (Acts 9:5 cf. with 22:4 and 26:11; 1 Cor 12:27; Eph 1:22-23; 4:12; 5:23, 30; Col 1:24). That the Church is so intimately connected with Jesus, who is infallible, is itself a strong argument that the Church is also infallible and without error.

Therefore, the Church is built on the foundation of Jesus (perfect in all knowledge), and the prophets and apostles (who spoke infallible truth, often recorded in inspired, infallible Scripture). Moreover, it is the very “Body of Christ.” It stands to reason that the Church herself is infallible, by the same token. In the Bible, nowhere is truth presented as anything less than pure truth, unmixed with error. That was certainly how Paul conceived his own “tradition” that he received and passed down.

Knowing what truth is, how can its own foundation or pillar be something less than total truth (since truth itself contains no falsehoods, untruths, lies, or errors)? It cannot. It is impossible. It is a straightforward matter of logic and plain observation. A stream cannot rise above its source. What is built upon a foundation cannot be greater than the foundation. If it were, the whole structure would collapse.

If an elephant stood on the shoulders of a man as its foundation, that foundation would collapse. The base of a skyscraper has to hold the weight above it. The foundations of a suspension bridge over a river have to be strong enough to support that bridge.

Therefore, we must conclude that if the Church is the foundation of truth, the Church must be infallible, since truth is infallible, and the foundation cannot be lesser than that which is built upon it. And since there is another infallible authority apart from Scripture, sola scriptura must be false.

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Summary: Brazilian Protestant apologist Lucas Banzoli presents a very weak argument against the plain meaning of 1 Timothy 3:15 (which is that the Church is infallible).

2023-02-21T15:29:18-04:00

Lucas Banzoli is a very active Brazilian anti-Catholic polemicist, who holds to basically a Seventh-Day Adventist theology, whereby there is no such thing as a soul that consciously exists outside of a body, and no hell (soul sleep and annihilationism). This leads him to a Christology which is deficient and heterodox in terms of Christ’s human nature after His death. He has a Master’s degree in theology, a degree and postgraduate work in history, a license in letters, and is a history teacher, author of 25 books, as well as blogmaster (but now inactive) for six blogs. He’s active on YouTube.

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The words of Lucas Banzoli will be in blue. I used Google Translate to transfer his Portugese text into English.

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This is a reply to Lucas’ heretical and blasphemous articles, “Maria é mãe de Deus (Theotókos)?” [Is Mary the mother of God?] (9-20-12) and “Deus tem mãe?” [Does God have a mother?] (5-12-13). 

Let’s start with definitions and basic explanations, so readers will know with certainty exactly what the catholic claim is, and what UI am defending. Theotokos, the term in question, means literally, “God-bearer.” Mary is the mother of God the Son. If someone denies that Mary is the mother of God (the Son), then they deny that Jesus is God. If, on the other hand, someone denies that Mary is the mother of God (the Son), then they deny the virgin birth, and in effect, also the incarnation.

This resolves the problem altogether. But she is not only the mother of Jesus’ human nature (Christotokos) because motherhood is about giving birth to persons, not natures (or souls, as in our case, when mothers give birth).

Historic Catholics, Orthodox, and Protestants all believe that Jesus was God Incarnate: God in the flesh; the Second Person of the Holy Trinity. This title for Mary was specifically intended by the early Church to protect the deity or divinity of Jesus, since some were arguing that she was the mother of His human nature only. It would be odd to argue that human mothers give birth only to the bodies of their sons and daughters, rather than to a person who consists of body and soul. Human beings “co-create” in a sense the bodies of their children (implied by the word “procreate”), while they have nothing to do with their souls, which are directly created by God.

Likewise, Mary gave birth to Jesus as a human person, even though she had nothing to do with His divine nature (now merged with a human nature), which existed eternally. She gave birth to “the man Who was God,” so she is the mother of God (the Son). At no time have Catholics or Orthodox thought that Mary was “mother” of God the Father or the Holy Spirit. It’s impossible to find any official Catholic dogmatic document stating that Mary is the “mother of God the Father” or “mother of the Holy Spirit.” It is only from sheer misunderstanding that anything other than this was thought to be implied by “Mother of God.” Many notable Protestants have also used the title:

She became the Mother of God, in which work so many and such great good things are bestowed on her as pass man’s understanding. For on this there follows all honor, all blessedness, and her unique place in the whole of mankind, among which she has no equal, namely, that she had a child by the Father in heaven, and such a Child . . . Hence men have crowded all her glory into a single word, calling her the Mother of God . . . None can say of her nor announce to her greater things, even though he had as many tongues as the earth possesses flowers and blades of grass: the sky, stars; and the sea, grains of sand. It needs to be pondered in the heart what it means to be the Mother of God. (Martin Luther, Commentary on the Magnificat, 1521; in Luther’s Works, Pelikan et al, volume 21, 326)

On account of this personal union and communion of the natures, Mary, the most blessed virgin, did not conceive a mere, ordinary human being, but a human being who is truly the Son of the most high God, as the angel testifies. He demonstrated his divine majesty even in his mother’s womb in that he was born of a virgin without violating her virginity. Therefore she is truly the mother of God and yet remained a virgin. (Formula of Concord, from 1577: one of the Lutheran confessions, translated by Arthur C. Piepkorn: Solid Declaration, Article VIII: “The Person of Christ,” section 9)The description of Mary as the “Mother of God” was and is sensible, permissible and necessary as an auxiliary Christological proposition. (Karl Barth, Church Dogmatics, I, 2, Edinburgh: T. & T. Clark, 1963, 138) [see documentation of several other prominent early Protestants using the title “Mother of God”]

Scripture teaches that:

1) Jesus is God (many biblical proofs; Jn 1:1; Col 2:9).

2) Mary is His true mother (Is 7:14; Mt 1:16,18; 2:11, 13, 20; 12:46; Lk 1:31, 35, 43; Jn 1:15; 2:1; Gal 4:4).

Ergo, “Mary is the Mother of God” [the Son].

Another, less direct, but equally effective way of arguing the point is noting Elizabeth’s exclamation to the Blessed Virgin Mary: “And why is this granted me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?” (Luke 1:43, RSV). The Greek word for “Lord” here (as usually in the New Testament) is Kurios. It’s widely applied both to God the Father and to Jesus, since they are both “Lord” and God” and equal as the Father and Son in the Holy Trinity. In fact, in a single passage (Rom 10:9-13), both the Father and the Son are called “Lord” (Kurios).

John Calvin, the most influential early Protestant leader after Martin Luther, wrote about Luke 1:43:

She [Elizabeth] calls Mary the mother of her Lord This denotes a unity of person in the two natures of Christ; as if she had said, that he who was begotten a mortal man in the womb of Mary is, at the same time, the eternal God. (Harmony of the Synoptic Gospels)

Martin Luther also made many affirming statements about Theotokos. Here are two of the most striking ones:

We, too, know very well that Christ did not derive his deity from Mary; but it does not follow that it must, therefore, be false to say, “God was born of Mary” and “God is Mary’s Son” and “Mary is God’s mother.”

Mary is the true, natural mother of the child called Jesus Christ, and the true mother and bearer of God . . . Mary suckled God, rocked God, made broth and soup for God. For God and man are one Person, one Christ, one Son, one Jesus, not two persons . . . just as your son is not two sons . . . even though he has two natures, body and soul, — body from you, soul from God alone. (On the Councils and the Church, 1539)

James Cardinal Gibbons: a great apologist in the early 1900s, brilliantly explained the doctrine of Theotokos:

We affirm that the Second Person of the Blessed Trinity, the Word of God, who in His divine nature is from all eternity begotten of the Father, consubstantial with Him, was in the fullness of time again begotten, by being born of the Virgin, thus taking to Himself, from her maternal womb, a human nature of the same substance with hers.

But it may be said the Blessed Virgin is not the Mother of the Divinity. She had not, and she could not have, any part in the generation of the Word of God, for that generation is eternal; her maternity is temporal. He is her Creator; she is His creature. Style her, if you will, the Mother of the man Jesus or even of the human nature of the Son of God, but not the Mother of God.

I shall answer this objection by putting a question. Did the mother who bore us have any part in the production of our soul? Was not this nobler part of our being the work of God alone? And yet who would for a moment dream of saying “the mother of my body,” and not “my mother?” . . . . .

In like manner, . . . the Blessed Virgin, under the overshadowing of the Holy Ghost, by communicating to the Second Person of the Adorable Trinity, as mothers do, a true human nature of the same substance with her own, is thereby really and truly His Mother.

. . . in this sense, and in no other, has the Church called her by that title. (The Faith of Our Fathers, New York: P. J. Kenedy & Sons, revised edition, 1917, 137-138)

Nestorius was not a “heretic”. On the contrary, he tried to restore the biblical principle that Mary is “Christotokos” (mother of Christ), while there were people who taught that she was “Theotokos” (mother of God). For him, the issue was not as simple as saying that (1) Jesus is God; (2) Mary is the mother of Jesus; then (3) Mary is the mother of God.

Then he rejected clear biblical teaching, and inexorable logic. Mary was the mother of Jesus, Who was the Second Person of the Holy Trinity and God the Son.

Proof of this is that, using similar syllogisms, we could conclude that Jesus “sinned” because (1) all men sin; (2) Jesus was a man; then (3) Jesus sinned. It is obvious that the Scriptures affirm that Jesus was without sin, but a syllogism similar to the one used by Catholics could show us otherwise.

This syllogism is a false one, because it has a false premise (“all men sin”). It is not of the essence of man that he must sin. Human beings were created good, and before they rebelled and fell, they were sinless. Therefore, “all men sin” is false, because Adam and Eve did not sin, pre-fall. The unfallen angels are also creatures (though not human beings) who never sinned. Babies who are murdered in abortion have not ever sinned, yet they are human beings. Mary never sinned, because she was filled with grace, by a special miracle of God.

Furthermore, they use other similar syllogisms to prove the other Marian dogmas as well. For example: (1) The pure cannot be born of the impure; (2) Jesus was pure; therefore (3) Mary is immaculate.

This is not correct Catholic theology. Any Catholic who uses this argument — though he may be perfectly sincere and pious — doesn’t know what he is talking about. I explain why the above argument is incorrect in my article, Was Mary’s Immaculate Conception Absolutely Necessary? [1-5-05; published at National Catholic Register on 12-8-17]. Catholics say that Mary’s Immaculate Conception was “fitting” (i.e., appropriate and to be expected) but not absolutely necessary. And we say that Jesus, being God for all eternity, can’t possibly sin (impeccability). This would be the case whether Mary was a sinner or not. Nor could He possibly receive original sin from Mary because He is not among creatures who rebelled against God and fell (since He is God).

If we read Job 14:4, we see that premise #1 is correct.

This is proverbial-type language at a very early stage of Judaeo-Christian theology. It can’t be used to determine fine points of very highly developed Christian theology.

However, this does not mean that conclusion (3) is right, since, by the same logic, Mary (pure) could not be born from someone impure either;

This is untrue. Mary’s immaculate state has nothing whatsoever to do with her mother, since it came from a special supernatural act of grace: she was filled with grace from the time of her conception. That has nothing to do with 1) Mary’s free will choice, or 2) her mother.

therefore, by the same syllogism we arrive at the conclusion that Mary’s mother is also immaculate.

If so, then this would be an example of being right for the wrong reasons.

But it doesn’t stop here. If Mary’s mother is immaculate and the pure cannot be born from the impure, then Mary’s grandmother is also immaculate. And so on: great-grandmother, great-great-grandmother… until Eva… all without blemish! It is evident, therefore, that those who arrive at the “conclusion” that Mary is the mother of God by the simple syllogism demonstrated above, incur the same fallacy presented in the other points.

No one other than Mary has to be immaculate in order for her to be,. It has nothing to do with her ancestors. It’s all about God and what He chose to do.

In addition, syllogisms similar to those used by Catholics can also be used to turn against themselves. For example: (1) Mary is not the mother of the Father; (2) The Father is God; therefore (3) Mary is not the mother of God.

That means that Mary is not the mother of God the Father, which is true. “Mother of God” only refers to being the mother of God the Son. There are distinctions even in the Trinity. The Father and the Holy Spirit do not become incarnate and take on flesh. They are immaterial spirits.

Also: (1) Mary did not beget the Holy Spirit; (2) The Holy Spirit is God; therefore (3) Mary is not the mother of God.

It’s the same error again, based on not understanding what Theotokos means in the first place. This is carnal reasoning, that Paul talks about with regard to the Corinthians and their pagan Greek philosophical background.

Interestingly, the syllogisms used by Marian fanatics are turned against themselves when we analyze them carefully.

Not at all. The one confused here is Lucas, not Catholics (and the Orthodox and Martin Luther and many Protestants who agree with us), as shown.

And that was exactly the question that Nestorius addressed: to say that Mary is or is not the mother of God is not as simple as that syllogism, but we must go into deeper terms if we want to reach a more certain conclusion. For, apparently, there is no problem with the Catholic syllogism; however, when we look more closely, we find like Nestorius that:

(1) One is only the mother of that which generates.

(2) Mary did not generate Christ’s divinity, but humanity.

(3) Therefore, Mary is the mother of Jesus as a man, and not of God.

In other words, Mary is the mother only of Christ’s humanity, and not of his divinity, which existed long before Mary. Therefore, the conclusion we come to is that Mary is the mother of Christ (Christotokos), and not the mother of God (Theotokos), as Catholics say.

This is just silly. As some of my citations above note, our mothers are not the mothers of our souls, which are directly created by God. But we don’t say that they are mothers only of our bodies. They are our mothers, and we are composed of both body and soul.   Likewise, Mary is the mother of Jesus Christ the Person, Who has a Divine and Human Nature (neither of which Mary brought about through reproductive biological processes. What she did was participate in the ineffable joy of bearing the incarnate God: being a necessary and glorious part of the incarnation.

About Nestorius being accused of “heresy” by the Council of Ephesus (431 AD), we must, first of all, emphasize that infallibility does not come from the councils, but from the Bible.

That teaching is never in the Bible, while the Bible does teach that the first Christian council, at Jerusalem (Acts 15) was indeed infallible, since the decision was described as follows:

Acts 15:28-29 (RSV) For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things: [29] that you abstain from what has been sacrificed to idols and from blood and from what is strangled and from unchastity. If you keep yourselves from these, you will do well. Farewell.”

1 Timothy 3:15 also teaches that “the church of the living God, the pillar and bulwark of the truth” (not just Scripture) is infallible

If councils were infallible and inerrant, then there would be no argument as to which councils are valid, for they would all be valid equally. Proof of this is that Roman Catholics accept 21 councils, while the Orthodox adopt only seven.

People disagree because not all men arrive at truth in equal measure. Look at the multiple hundreds of Protestant denominations to see that. But because a lot of falsehood is floating around, it doesn’t follow that there is not one truth (and one divinely protected Church). Nestorius is heretical based on what the Bible teaches, before we ever get to what an ecumenical council (correctly) said about him.

Tertullian was considered a “heretic” by the Church of the time, he was excommunicated, joined the Montanists and then created his own religious segment, and Catholics and Evangelicals still cite abundantly the writings of the great theologian Tertullian in all his teachings.

This is nonsense through and through. Wikipedia (“Tertullian”) noted: “today most scholars reject the assertion that Tertullian left the mainstream church or was excommunicated” [citing source: Tertullian and Paul, by Todd D. Still & David E. Wilhite, A & C Black, 2012]. Co-author Wilhite observed:

The past half-century of scholarly investigation into the life of Tertullian has formed an overwhelming consensus that Tertullian was not a Montanist schismatic. (p. 46)

Wilhite noted (p. 47) that St. Jerome (De virg. vel. 53) was the first to claim that Tertullian had formally left the Catholic Church and committed schism. He was born (c. 343) about 113 years after Tertullian died (c. 225), so that obviously didn’t occur during Tertullian’s own lifetime, and they believe that there was “a complete lack of evidence that Tertullian was a schismatic” (p. 47).  Wilhite asserts:

Tertullian remained, and repeatedly referred to himself as, within the church. (p. 48)

I have contended that dismissing Tertullian’s views as “Montanist” is premature . . . (p. 49)

So (I’m extremely curious) what scholarly source does Lucas draw from, where he learned that Tertullian was 1) called a “heretic” by the Church in his lifetime, and 2) was excommunicated?

Therefore, condemning Nestorius as a heretic for the simple fact that part of the Church of the time and a council considered him to be so, is at least an act of immaturity, committed by novice and amateur “apologists”, who think that the Church in the 5th century (Nestorius’ time) preached all the harmonic doctrines as found in the Scriptures!

Yes, we believe in ecumenical councils, which are infallible in some of their proclamations, following the scriptural model of the council of Jerusalem. Nestorius was formally and rightly declared to be a heretic by the ecumenical Council of Ephesus in 431.

Furthermore, the fact that the Church did not have an “official” position on this is evident, and that opinions were divided, which we can evidence in the Council of Ephesus itself. Bishop Celestine of Rome joined the side of Cyril, who took charge of the Council, opening the discussions without waiting for the arrival of the long-delayed entourage of Eastern bishops from Antioch, who were in favor of Nestorius. Therefore, they condemned Nestorius without giving the defense due opportunity and to hear both sides.

However, as the Council progressed, John I of Antioch and the eastern bishops arrived and were furious to learn that Nestorius had already been condemned. They gathered in a synod of their own and deposed Cyril. Both sides appealed to the Emperor and he initially ordered both of them exiled. However, Cyril eventually returned after bribing several members of the imperial court! This story is not told by them, for they only tell half of the story, hiding fundamental truths that belie their ploy.

Lucas obviously wants to emphasize the disagreements, but in his selectivity, neglects to point out that ultimately John I of Antioch and Cyril were reconciled (against Nestorius). The Protestant McClintock and Strong Biblical Cyclopedia (1880: “Nestorius”) stated:

Nestorius saw himself deserted by many of the bishops of his party; and though John of Antioch and a number of the Eastern bishops stood firm for a time, John and Cyril were ultimately brought to an agreement, and both retained their sees.

So yes, there was significant agreement, which is why both Catholics and Orthodox agree that Nestorianism was heretical and that Theotokos is a good and proper title. Nestorianism barely exists today in a formal sense. Encyclopaedia Britannica (“Nestorianism”) noted:

The modern Nestorian church is not Nestorian in the strict sense, though it venerates Nestorius and refuses to accept the title Theotokos for the Blessed Virgin.

The article continues:

In 1551 a number of Nestorians reunited with Rome and were called Chaldeans, the original Nestorians having been termed Assyrians. The Nestorian Church in India, part of the group known as the Christians of St. Thomas, allied itself with Rome (1599) and then split, half of its membership transferring allegiance to the Syrian Jacobite (monophysite) patriarch of Antioch (1653).

On the second issue, Luke 1:43 says absolutely nothing about Mary being “the mother of God”. To affirm this is to go beyond what is written (1 Cor.4:6). The biblical text only says “mother of my Lord”, not mother of God. In Greek, the word used for “Lord” is “Kyrios” (kuriou). This term, applied to Jesus in Luke 1:43, is not used to refer to God alone. Let’s look at some references to “Lord” (kuriou) in the New Testament without being specifically to Jehovah:

1st Owners of property are called Lord (Mt. 20:8, kurios is “owner” – NIV).

2nd The owners of houses were called Lord (Mk. 13:35, owner = kurios).

3rd The owners of slaves were called Lord (Mt. 10:24, lord = kurios).

4th The husbands were called Lord (1 Pet. 3:6, lord = kurios).

5th A son called his father Lord (Mt. 21:30, lord = kurios).

6th The Roman Emperor was called Lord (Acts 25:26, His Majesty = kurios).

7th The Roman authorities were called Lord (Mt. 27:63, lord = kurios).

So if anyone claims that Luke 1:43 is some “proof” that Mary is “the mother of God,” he is at the very least a gross immaturity and a blatant lack of biblical knowledge.

Kurios can indeed be used in a wider, “non-God” sense. But we know that both God the Father (Mt 11:25; 21:42; Mk 13:20; Lk 4:18; 1 Tim 6:15) and Jesus (Lk 2:11; Acts 7:59; 10:36; 1 Cor 12:3; Phil 2:10-11; Heb 1:10; Rev 17:14; 19:16) are called Kurios in the sense of LORD (= God). The Father and the Son are both called “Lord” in one passage (Mt 22:41-45; Rom 10:9-13). God the Father is called “Lord” (Kurios) and “God” (Theos) in one passage many times (Mt 22:37-38; Mk 12:29-30; Lk 1:32, 46-47, 68; 20:37; Acts 3:22; Rev 18:18). Likewise, Jesus is called  “Lord” (Kurios) and “God” (Theos) in one passage (Jn 20:28-29; also true of Hebrews 1:8 and 1:10, if seen as one passage in the larger context; and God the Father uses both words for Jesus). See all of these passage and more fully written out in my paper, “Deity of Jesus: Called “Lord” (“Kurios”) and “God” (“Theos”)”.

“Mother of God” doesn’t rest scripturally only on Luke 1:43 anyway. It can easily be shown through straightforward deduction:

1) Mary is the mother of Jesus (Mt 1:18; 2:11, 13-14, 20-21; 12:46; 13:55; Mk 3:31-32; Lk 1:43; 2:33-34, 48, 51; 8:19-20; Jn 2:1, 3, 5, 12; 6:42; 19:25-26; Acts 1:14).

2) Jesus is “God” / Theos:

Matthew 1:23 “Behold, a virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and his name shall be called Emmanuel” (which means, God with us).

John 1:1, 14 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.. . . And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us . . . 

John 20:28-29 Thomas answered him, “My Lord and my God!” [29] Jesus said to him, “Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet believe.”

Titus 2:13 awaiting our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ,

Hebrews 1:8 But of the Son he says, “Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever, the righteous scepter is the scepter of thy kingdom. [God the Father calls God the Son, “God”; The larger passage cites Ps 102:25-27, which is applied to God]

2 Peter 1:1 . . . in the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ:

1 John 5:20 And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, to know him who is true; and we are in him who is true, in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and eternal life.

3) Therefore, Mary is the Mother of God [the Son: Jesus].

And finally, on the third question, there is no historical evidence (I repeat: no evidence!) that goes back to the apostles and that tells us explicitly that Mary was the mother of God.

I just provided biblical proof, which is from the apostles. There is quite a bit of corroborating evidence from Church fathers prior to 431 as well.

The first and largest historical source that refers to the apostles that we have today is the New Testament, which makes 39 mentions of Mary as being “mother of Jesus” (Christotokos), but absolutely none of her being “mother of God” (Theotókos).

It’s an inexorable deduction, as shown.

The first who preached Theotókos was Irenaeus of Lyon, at the end of the 2nd century AD. Opinion in the Church was not uniform in this regard, and we have no apostolic or 1st to early 2nd century AD evidence to show that Christians at the time believed in Theotokos.

It’s in the Bible itself, as shown, and that is apostolic, first-century, and inspired, infallible revelation.

I always ask Catholics: “Did God die on the cross”?

Yes He did, because Jesus was God. God the Son died on the cross. God the Son alone became man. God the Son alone atoned for the sins of mankind by His sacrificial death on the cross.

The answers are always divided, most of the time dubious and contradictory, and not infrequently confusing.

That’s because there are apologists with differing degrees of knowledge answering.

The truth is that they themselves resist saying that God died on the cross, because to say that God dies is the height of blasphemy, nor does the devil believe in such a thing.

The Bible says both that Jesus died on the cross and was raised “from the dead” (Mt 17:9; 27:50; 28:7; Mk 9:9-10; 15:37; Lk 23:46; 24:46; Jn 2:22; 19:30; 20:9; 21:14; Acts 3:15; 4:10; 10:41; 13:30, 34; Rom 5:6, 8; 6:8-10; 8:34; Rom 14:9, 15; 1 Cor 8:11; 15:3; 2 Cor 5:15; Gal 2:21; 1 Thess 4:14; 5:10; 1 Pet 3:18; Rev 1:18; 2:8; see many more) and that He was God / Theos (see seven Bible passages not far above). So now the Bible is blasphemous?

But if God does not die,

God the Father and God the Holy Spirit don’t die, because they don’t have bodies. God the Son dies.

that means that Jesus died on the cross as a man.

He died as the incarnate God-man. This is all carnal thinking. Lucas just doesn’t get it. And that’s sad. Most historic Protestants have understood this.

And if the Jesus who walked here on earth was a man like all of us, then Mary is the mother of the human Jesus, not of God.

No; she is His mother, period, and He is God and man both. Mothers give birth to people, not natures or souls.

Did God die on the cross?

Yes, God the Son did.

Can God have a mother?

God the Son can, yes. And that’s what Theotokos refers to. Only the willfully ignorant or consciously heretical person could fail to see that.

The answer to both questions is a resounding “No”!

The answer to both questions is a resounding “Yes”!

In this way, we see that the Catholic claims to support the Marian dogma that Mary is the mother of God are nothing more than deception, with only an “appearance of wisdom” (Col.2:23), but that, when analyzed more closely, we see that they are “ingeniously invented fables” (2Pe.1:16).

Then I eagerly await Lucas’ answers to this article. The real “fun” and challenge in theological debates comes in the second round and after, where people are subject to cross-examination and counter-reply. I’m here, waiting, and will defend all that I wrote, or retract if shown to be wrong.

Now onto Lucas’ second article on the topic: “Deus tem mãe?” [Does God have a mother?] (5-12-13).

Today, May 12, 2013, is Mother’s Day, and, as it could not be otherwise, an old discussion comes to the fore again: does God, the Eternal Creator and First Cause of everything, also have a mother?

No; God the Father obviously does not. No one with an IQ higher than a slug ever said otherwise.

Without wanting to delve too deeply into the subject, which I have also addressed here, here and here, I have elaborated the following ten points that clearly indicate that no, God does not have a mother:

1st Because, in the first place, to be considered a “mother of God” we must take into account the trinitarian concept of God. God is not limited to just the Father, just the Son or just the Holy Spirit, but the Father, Son and Holy Spirit is the one true God. Therefore, for Mary to be considered as “mother of God” she would also have to be mother of the Father and the Holy Spirit.

That’s not true at all. Each Person of the Holy Trinity is fully God, but there are a few differences between them (only the Son is incarnate and takes on flesh; the Spirit proceeds from the son: filioque). What is said of any of them is said of God. Again, Lucas is thinking in carnal terms, not spiritual, biblical terms. Theology and spirituality do not reduce merely to Greek logic. It’s not philosophy. It’s a religious faith. And biblical / Hebraic “both/and” thought is very different from Greek, secular “either/or” (and too often, Protestant) thinking. Lucas here and throughout these two papers reasons like an atheist, not a believing trinitarian Christian.

Otherwise, we could use exactly the same syllogism used by Catholics against themselves:

a) Mary is not the mother of the Father;
b) The Father is God;
c) Therefore, Mary is not the mother of God.

a) Mary is not the mother of the Holy Spirit;
b) The Holy Spirit is God;
c) Therefore, Mary is not the mother of God.

Once again, I reiterate that Theotokos, the word in question, means “God-bearer.” Only one Person of the Triune Godhead (God the Son) was born of and from a human mother. Mary can’t give birth to eternal spirits. If we had been present at Jesus’ birth, and got to hold baby Jesus, we would say, “this is Jesus: the Person that Mary gave birth to, and is the mother of, Who is Lord, Messiah [Christ] and Immanuel [“God with us”]”. No one in their right mind would say, “this is the human nature that Mary gave birth to.” Even saying or writing it sounds utterly ridiculous. But this is what the hyper-rationalistic Nestorianism entails.

Lucas again reasons like an atheist here, not a Christian. I would have opposed him just as vigorously on this point when I was an evangelical Protestant, because these things are plain in Scripture (i.e., to one who thinks spiritually, not carnally) and because one of my first great apologetics projects in the early 1980s was compiling the biblical evidences for the divinity / deity of Christ and the Holy Trinity.

2nd Furthermore, even in the case of Jesus Christ, we must consider that Mary was his mother during the 33 years he was here on earth, and not in eternity.

She will remain His mother then, just as my own mother or my wife’s mother will remain so for eternity, and I will remain my children’s father and my grandchildrens’ grandfather.

Mary cannot be considered as the mother of Jesus as he already existed from eternity

She became His mother when He came down from heaven and took on flesh (incarnation) and human nature in addition to His Divine Nature that He had always possessed.

and she was not even born yet, nor in the condition of Creator/creature. In order to claim that Mary remains the mother of Christ, it would be necessary to prove, first of all, that Jesus maintained the same earthly nature even after having already entered the heavens, so that Mary is biologically the mother of God.

It’s implied that He will still have His body (then glorified and able to go through walls) and wounds, because He did in His post-Resurrection appearances. It’s also implied in what St. John saw in heaven, after Jesus’ death, resurrection, and ascension:

Revelation 5:6 And between the throne and the four living creatures and among the elders, I saw a Lamb standing, as though it had been slain, . . .

And one passage states it outright:

Philippians 3:21 who will change our lowly body to be like his glorious body . . .

It happens, however, that God is spirit (Jn.4:24),

God the Father and God the Holy Spirit are spirits. Jesus is not, since His incarnation. The meaning of resurrection is a renewed, reborn physical body. This is true of Jesus, and it is true of us, who will be “like him” after we die. Denying this is blasphemous heresy.

and a spirit does not have flesh and bones (Lk.24:39).

That’s right. Jesus does have flesh and bones after His resurrection. He ate fish. He was embraced. Thomas put his hand in His wounds.

Jesus, in His heavenly condition, is no longer in the flesh (Heb.5:7),

Nonsense. “In the days of his flesh” in Hebrews 5:7 simply means “His earthly life.”

and therefore does not have human genetics, which is why Mary is no longer biologically linked to Him.

He has the same human genetics that He had from the day of His birth. He has DNA received from Mary.

3rd Furthermore, to say that God has a mother because Mary was the mother of Jesus on earth implies other even greater absurdities, such as, for example, that God has a father or stepfather who is Joseph, brothers (or “cousins”, as the Catholics prefer) and other relatives.

Paul referred to “brothers [literally, cousins] of the Lord” (1 Cor 9:5). And “Lord” (Kurios) is continuing the usage of “LORD” in the Old Testament which stood for “YHWH”: the name of God that God revealed to Moses at the burning bush.

And along the same lines, Mary’s mother is God’s grandmother, Mary’s grandmother is God’s great-grandmother, Mary’s great-grandmother is God’s great-grandmother, and so on in an endless succession until we get to Eve. So Eve would be related to God to a very distant degree! What is more rational: to think that God has a mother, has a brother in the flesh, has a father, has cousins, has a grandmother, great-grandmother and great-grandmother (and all this in a biological and genetic sense), or to believe that all these mentioned are just creatures of God, making the correct distinction already quoted between the heavenly and the earthly?

Only one person bore God: Mary. Every other “relation” is in a limited sense only. None of them were conceived by the Holy Spirit as Jesus was.

4th Taking into account that one is only the mother of what she generates, we must ask: did Mary generate the divinity of Christ? No!

Of course Mary didn’t “generate” Jesus’ Divine Nature, which is eternal. We fully agree. Our mothers didn’t generate our souls, either, which were direct creations of God at the time of our conceptions. But they are still “our mothers” not merely the mothers of our bodies: which no one ever says, because it’s silly and stupid. Analogously, Mary is Jesus’ mother, because He is one Man, with a Divine Nature and a Human Nature. He can’t be divided. Mothers also didn’t generate the fathers’ DNA that every child receives.

Mary generated only the human nature of Jesus, while he was “in the days of his flesh” (Heb.5:7).

That’s not at issue, so it’s a non sequitur in this discussion. But she helped generate His physical body, too. Jesus probably looked like Mary.

The divine nature of Christ has always existed, it is eternal, it comes from long before Mary even existed.

Indeed.

Claiming that Mary is the mother of God implies falling into two absurdities: that of claiming that she can be the mother of something that was not generated by her, or that Mary did generate the divinity of Christ.

It implies no such thing, correctly understood, and as explained above. Lucas simply doesn’t understand it, and he won’t until he stops thinking carnally and approaches it biblically and spiritually.

In the first case, Mary would be the mother only of the humanity of Jesus, not of the divinity (and, therefore, the mother of the man Jesus, not of the divinity of Christ), while in the second case Mary would have to be previous to the divine nature of Christ to have generated her, which is impossible, since Jesus is Creator and Mary is a creature.

Those are not the only two choices, as shown. She is the mother of a Person, the God-Man Jesus, Who has two natures.

5th Placing Mary on the level of “mother of God” (Theotokos)

She bore God the Son. Or does Luca dispute that, too?

is an abominable heresy that even amounts to blasphemy, on the same level as pagan peoples who always had a “mother-goddess” who was considered the “mother of God” for these people.

They are not using the term in the same sense and meaning that we hold.

Catholics reject the title of “mother goddess”, but accept that of “mother of God”,

That’s because Mary isn’t a goddess, as if she were a female member of the trinity or a “Quaternity.” She’s the Mother of God the Son.

in an attempt to camouflage their clear connection with pagan peoples, such as Isis, worshiped in Egypt as the “mother of God”.

Again, that is vastly different from what we believe. It’s a dumb, clueless comparison.

Interestingly, she also held the title of “Queen of Heaven” (Jer.7:18; 44:17-25), exactly the same title Catholics today ascribe to Mary, in addition to “Our Lady”. This clear syncretism with paganism shows that considering Mary as the mother of God is not merely an affirmation of the divinity of Christ, as Catholics claim, but the defense of a pagan religious syncretism in which Mary is worshiped with the same titles and attributions that the pagans offered to their mother goddess, the Queen of Heaven.

That’s a lie and Lucas can’t prove any sort of equation with paganism, which is why he doesn’t attempt it. He just repeats the same tired old anti-Catholic whoppers that (sadly) millions of theologically undereducated, gullible people have swallowed without thinking for 500 years now.

6th Although this question is delicate and may scandalize many, we should ask: Does God have a penis? Of course not.

Of course God the Father doesn’t, being a spirit.

But Jesus’ human nature had.

Natures don’t have a penis. Men do.

Failing to clearly differentiate as two distinct extremes the human nature of Christ on earth from the divine nature of Christ in Heaven would lead us to innumerable absurdities, going far beyond the aforementioned.

I haven’t seen any yet in Catholic, Orthodox, and mainstream Protestant thinking. But I’ve seen numerous ones in Lucas’ carnal thinking and the ridiculous conclusions he comes up with. It’s sad to observe.

If Mary is the mother of God because she was the mother of Jesus for 33 years while he was in the flesh here on earth, then God has all the physical characteristics of the Christ-man.

God the Son, Jesus does; only glorified now.

But if these characteristics are no longer part of Him, as God, then how can Mary be considered the mother of God?

Lucas wrongly assumes that He doesn’t have a body because he has adopted the heresy of denying that Jesus maintains His resurrected, glorious body forever. I would venture to guess that 95% of Protestants disagree with Him that Jesus is now supposedly a spirit again, rather than a gloriously resurrected body resembling what He looked like during His 33 years on earth. It’s blasphemous and heretical and has no biblical basis.

7th If Mary is the mother of God because she was the mother of Jesus on earth, then we should conclude that God died on the cross. Now, this is absurd, since the Bible teaches that God is immortal, He cannot die under any circumstances (1 Tim.6:16). So, if God is immortal and cannot die, it logically follows that God did not die on the cross. And, if God did not die on the cross, Mary cannot be called the mother of God, since she had been the mother of exactly that Jesus who was nailed and killed on a cross.

We’ve already been through all this. It’s just repeating carnal nonsense.

8th Another similar question is: Was God born after nine months?

Jesus, God the Son was born (as my patience quickly reaches it’s limits . . .).

If so, this would lead us to believe that God had a beginning, which totally goes against the universal theological belief that God is the First Cause, is the Eternal, the one who had no beginning and will have no end of days (Heb.7 :3). Therefore, God did not have a beginning, He was not born from the womb of Mary. And if God was not born after nine months, that means Mary can be considered the mother of the Son of God, or the mother of “the man Jesus Christ” (1 Tim.2:5), but not the mother of God if God was not born. in her belly. Mother of God is a wrong terminology, which may well be replaced by several others that may properly apply.

This is too silly and ridiculous to be worthy of any response. But I’ve already essentially addressed it above. Two more to go . . .

9th We must also remember that Jesus emptied himself when he became man, as Paul says: “but he emptied himself, becoming a servant” (Phil.2:7). He “did not count it as usurpation to be equal with God” (v.6).

He was humble. He never ceased to be God.

In the preserved record of the apostle Thaddeus, who lived with Christ, we confirm the interpretation that this emptying involved deposing his own divinity. This was recorded by Eusebius of Caesarea, . . .

This is the ahistorical material in Eusebius referred to as the Abgar Legend. The Wikipedia article on this summarizes:

The letters, while taken seriously in many Christian traditions for centuries, are generally classed as pseudepigrapha by modern Christians and scholars. . . . The letters were likely composed in the early 4th century.  . . .

[T]he origins of the story are far still from certain, although the stories as recorded seem to have been shaped by the controversies of the third century CE, especially as a response to Bardaisan.

This is not a serious argument, and I refuse to give it any attention beyond what I just gave it: to expose it’s true nature.

Mary was the mother of Jesus while he was emptied of his attributes of divinity, and not as God.

Sheer nonsense. This blasphemous falsehood is based on the spurious documentation of the Abgar Legend, not Holy Scripture or legitimate sacred tradition.

This explains why He did not know the day of His own return (Mk.13:32), for He had already emptied Himself of the attribute of omniscience,

Nonsense again. Jesus was always omniscient in His Divine Nature. My friend David Palm did a master’s thesis on this question: “The Signs of His Coming”: for Trinity Evangelical Divinity School, Deerfield, Illinois (1993). He wrote it as an evangelical Protestant, later became a Catholic, and recently noted that he would change nothing in it. I summarized his arguments in this paper:

Seidensticker Folly #58: Jesus Erred on Time of 2nd Coming? (with David Palm) [10-7-20]

See also:

“The Last Days”: Meaning in Hebrew, Biblical Thought [12-5-08]

Dr. David Madison vs. Jesus #3: Nature & Time of 2nd Coming [8-3-19]

and why He could not (rather than “will not”) perform miracles on one occasion because of the people’s unbelief (Mk.6:5), for he had already emptied himself of the attribute of omnipotence.

That’s a blasphemous and heretical lie as well. It was because of the unbelief, as the text actually says. It wasn’t because He was no longer omnipotent, which the relevant text does not say. Jesus remained omnipotent as an incarnate man:

John 2:19-21 Jesus answered them, “Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.” [20] The Jews then said, “It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and will you raise it up in three days?” [21] But he spoke of the temple of his body.

John 5:21 For as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, so also the Son gives life to whom he will. [implied: the Father’s unique characteristics are also possessed by the Son; cf. 3:35; 5:19-20; 6:40; 13:3]

John 10:17-18 “For this reason the Father loves me, because I lay down my life, that I may take it again. [18] No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again; this charge I have received from my Father.”

Philippians 3:21 who will change our lowly body to be like his glorious body, by the power which enables him even to subject all things to himself. (cf. Rev 1:18; 3:7)

Colossians 1:17 …in him all things hold together.

Hebrews 1:3 …upholding the universe by his word of power.…

Only by being fully human could Jesus be truly tempted in the wilderness (Mt.4:1), for James tells us that “God cannot be tempted” (Jas.1:13).

This is a misunderstanding, too. Jesus did not have concupiscence: the propensity to sin. The devil could attempt to tempt him, but it was doomed to failure as an impossibility. See:

Nestorian Heresy and the Tempting of Jesus [4-19-05]

Jesus & God the Father: Sinful Due to Being Tempted? [3-29-18]

It is precisely because he was fully human like us that today we can mirror the example of Christ who conquered the evil one as a man, so that, in the same position as humans and not that of a God-man, we can also conquer in the same way as He overcame (Heb.4:14-16). That’s why we can say that He was like us “in every respect” (Heb.2:17).

He is like us in many ways, but not all ways. We can always sin. Jesus could not, being impeccable. Nor could He be tempted.

10. Finally, we must emphasize that the belief that Mary was the mother of God is not found in the Bible, because nowhere is Mary reported as being “mother of God”, this title is completely omitted in relation to her.

Lots of terms we use are not in the Bible. The important thing is whether the concept is present. I showed that it is.

Instead, we see dozens of quotes in which Mary is reported to be the mother of Jesus, versus zero saying she was the mother of God.

It doesn’t have to say “Mother of God.” It need only say that 1) she is His mother, and 2) He is God, which it certainly does. God gave us the brains to put two and two together and come up with four.

This reveals that, at the very least, the apostles and evangelists were much more careful in this matter than today’s Catholics, who blatantly say throughout the four corners of the earth that Mary is the mother of God, something in which all biblical writers they were careful enough never to say that.

They expressed the concept. They simply didn’t use the particular term. But Revelation 12 is a pretty striking presentation of a glorified Mary in heaven.

So we can say, without fear of being wrong, that no, God does not have a mother.

Again, the Father and Holy Spirit do not; the Son does.

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Photo credit: The Virgin of the Angels (1881), by William-Adolphe Bouguereau (1825-1905) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

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Summary: Brazilian Protestant apologist Lucas Banzoli goes after the Catholic belief in Mary as the Mother of God (Theotokos). I refute his many serious and heretical errors.

2023-02-21T15:24:07-04:00

Lucas Banzoli is a very active Brazilian anti-Catholic polemicist, who holds to basically a Seventh-Day Adventist theology, whereby there is no such thing as a soul that consciously exists outside of a body, and no hell (soul sleep and annihilationism). This leads him to a Christology which is deficient and heterodox in terms of Christ’s human nature after His death. He has a Master’s degree in theology, a degree and postgraduate work in history, a license in letters, and is a history teacher, author of 25 books, as well as blogmaster (but now inactive) for six blogs. He’s active on YouTube.

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The words of Lucas Banzoli will be in blue. I used Google Translate to transfer his Portugese text into English.

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See other installments:

Part One: “Disproofs” #1-50

Part Two: “Disproofs” #51-100

Part Three: “Disproofs” #101-15o

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Continuing response to his article, “205 Provas Contra O Primado de Pedro” (no date) [205 Proofs Against the Primacy of Peter]. 

151. Paul continues to “glory” (2 Cor.12:1) in this, defending his authority as an apostle. He passes on the “visions and revelations of the Lord” (2Co.12:1), having been “caught up to the third heaven, and hearing unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for man to speak” (2Co.12:4). Paul was the only apostle who, in life, was caught up to the third heaven!

St. John (while still in this life) was caught up to the very throne of heaven:

Revelation 4:1-6 After this I looked, and lo, in heaven an open door! And the first voice, which I had heard speaking to me like a trumpet, said, “Come up hither, and I will show you what must take place after this.” [2] At once I was in the Spirit, and lo, a throne stood in heaven, with one seated on the throne! [3] And he who sat there appeared like jasper and carnelian, and round the throne was a rainbow that looked like an emerald. [4] Round the throne were twenty-four thrones, and seated on the thrones were twenty-four elders, clad in white garments, with golden crowns upon their heads. [5] From the throne issue flashes of lightning, and voices and peals of thunder, and before the throne burn seven torches of fire, which are the seven spirits of God; [6] and before the throne there is as it were a sea of glass, like crystal.

The prophets Daniel (ch. 7) and Isaiah (ch. 6) had also been ushered into the presence of God in what appears to be heaven, too: both before their deaths.

152. Paul asserts that he should be “praised by you” (2Co.12:11), since he was in no way inferior to the most excellent apostles (2Co.12:1).

Basically a repeat of #66, #125, and #149.

153. After defending the authority of his apostolate, comparing himself with even the most excellent apostles and not finding himself in an inferior position to them (on the contrary, he claims that he suffered and went through experiences that none of them did), he ends saying that he could be “strong in the use of the authority which the Lord has given me to build you up and not to tear you down” (2 Cor.13:10).

See my reply to #150 and #152. Again, he’s talking about the Corinthian congregation, as to his “authority.” This has no relation to whether Peter was the leader of the early Church.

154. Paul affirms that the gospel he preached “is not of human origin” (Gal.1:11), for “I received it from no one, nor was it taught to me; on the contrary, I received it from Jesus Christ by revelation” (Gal.1:11,12). This shows us that Paul was not indoctrinated in the doctrine of Peter, as in submission to him as “pope”, but only and directly from Jesus Christ, without dependence on the other apostles.

It does not at all. That’s how he first received it. When he visited Peter for fifteen days at the outset of his ministry (Gal 1:18: the verse that Lucas totally ignores throughout his entire article), they weren’t talking about the weather . . .

155. This explains why, when he was converted, he did not consult anyone (Gal.1:15-17), nor did he go up to Jerusalem to see those who were apostles before him, but went straight to Arabia. : “When it pleased him to reveal his Son in me so that I might proclaim him among the Gentiles, I consulted no one. Nor did I go up to Jerusalem to see those who were apostles before me, but immediately I departed for Arabia, and returned to Damascus” (Gal.1:15-17). Paul’s ministry was independent, not dependent on Peter or the authority of any “pope” or other apostles. If Peter were pope and leader of Christians, it would be Paul’s responsibility to consult him immediately, as the supreme and ecclesiastical authority that he would be.

It doesn’t necessarily have to be immediately, but it was early on. Again, Lucas ignores Galatians 1:18: the very next verse after the ones he brings up, and extremely relevant to the discussion.

156. It was through Paul that the Ephesians received the dispensation of God’s grace (Eph.3:2,3).

Being an evangelist . . . St. Peter did the same with the 3,000 on the Day of Pentecost (Acts 2) and Cornelius and his kin and friends (Acts 10). With St. John he converted 5,000 in Jerusalem, at the temple (Acts 4:1-4), and a bunch of other people soon after (4:31), and many in Samaria (8:14-17).

157. If anyone thinks he has reason to trust the flesh, Paul even more so (Phil.3:4).

And how is this related to our topic, pray tell?

158. Paul tells the Philippians to be imitators of him (Phil.3:17), following the example they have in him (Phil.3:17).

This repeats #137 from Part Three. Sloppy . . . Either Lucas has a bad memory or lousy organizing / editing skills. This is now maybe the tenth time (?) he has done this.

159. Paul could do everything in Him who strengthened him (Phil.4:13).

Of course; so can anyone if they will have faith and cooperate with God’s grace. That’s the whole point of Paul being a model to imitate (#137 and #158). He wrote these letters for our instruction as Christians.

160. The word which the Thessalonians received from Paul “was not the word of men, but as it truly is, the word of God” (1 Thess.2:13). In no other apostle do we see a statement like this!

Nonsense. John the Baptist wasn’t even an apostle, and the Bible says, “the word of God came to John the son of Zechari’ah in the wilderness” (Lk 3:2). A whole room full of people in Jerusalem “were all filled with the Holy Spirit and spoke the word of God with boldness” (Acts 4:31). Christian leaders spoke “the word of God” (Heb 13:7). Peter told believers in five different areas: “You have been born anew, not of perishable seed but of imperishable, through the living and abiding word of God” (1 Pet 1:23). St. John said “the word of God abides in” young Christian men (1 Jn 2:14).

But the real “fun” for Protestants comes in realizing that “word of God” in 1 Thessalonians 2:13 is not the Bible, but oral teaching. This is consistent with Paul’s teaching throughout. Even more “surprising” for Protestants is to understand that Paul thought that apostolic tradition was synonymous with the “word of God” and the Bible and the gospel and overall Christian message:

1 Corinthians 11:2  Maintain the traditions . .  . . even as I have delivered them to you.

2 Thessalonians 2:15  Hold to the traditions . . . .  taught . . . by word of mouth or by letter.

2 Thessalonians 3:6  . . . the tradition that you received from us.

1 Corinthians 15:1  . . . the gospel, which you received . . .

Galatians 1:9  . . . the gospel . . . which you received.

1 Thessalonians 2:9  We preached to you the gospel of God.

Acts 8:14 Samaria had received the word of God.

1 Thessalonians 2:13 You received the word of God, which you heard from us, . . .

2 Peter 2:21  . . . the holy commandment delivered to them. (cf. Jude 3: “the Faith which was once for all delivered to the saints”).

It is obvious from the above biblical data that the concepts of tradition, gospel, and word of God (as well as other terms) are essentially synonymous. All are predominantly oral, and all are referred to as being delivered and received. Tradition is right in there with them, without distinction. In St. Paul’s two letters to the Thessalonians alone we see that three of the above terms are used interchangeably.

In 2 Thessalonians “gospel” is mentioned twice (1:8 and 2:14), “tradition” twice (2:15 and 3:6), but neither “Scripture” nor “Scriptures” appears. “Word of the Lord” appears once (3:1), but it appears not to refer to the Bible. Likewise, in 1 Thessalonians “Scripture” or “Scriptures” never appear. “Word,” “word of the Lord,” or “word of God” appear five times (1:6,8, 2:13 [twice], 4:15), but in each instance it is clearly in the sense of oral proclamation, not Scripture.

Clearly then, tradition is not a dirty word in the Bible, particularly for St. Paul. If, on the other hand, one wants to maintain that it is, then gospel and word of God are also bad words! Thus, the commonly asserted dichotomy between the gospel and tradition, or between the Bible and tradition is unbiblical itself and must be discarded by the truly biblically minded person as (quite ironically) a corrupt tradition of men. Paul is elsewhere almost unanimously positive about tradition. In the one place where he wasn’t (Col 2:8), he made a contrast of good and bad tradition, just as Jesus did:

Philippians 4:9 What you have learned and received and heard and seen in me, do; and the God of peace will be with you.

Colossians 2:8 See to it that no one makes a prey of you by philosophy and empty deceit, according to human tradition, according to the elemental spirits of the universe, and not according to Christ.

2 Timothy 1:13-14 Follow the pattern of the sound words which you have heard from me . . . guard the truth which has been entrusted to you by the Holy Spirit who dwells within us.

2 Timothy 2:2 And what you have heard from me before many witnesses entrust to faithful men who will be able to teach others also.

161. Paul gave “commandments by the authority of the Lord Jesus” (1 Thess.4:2). There is no record – biblical or historical – of any other apostles giving commandments by the authority of Christ.

This ground was already covered in #138 and #145 in Part Three, so this is now the third time Lucas has made this argument in the same list. It’s embarrassing. He needs an editor if he can’t properly edit his own writings. I sure hope he has one for his books.

162. If anyone does not obey Paul’s letters, he is marked and no one associates with him, so that he will be ashamed (2 Thess.3:14).

That’s right. All Christians should obey their bishops or pastors / priests. Does Lucas obey his bishop? Oh wait: does he even have one?

163. The Sound Doctrine is seen in the gospel that God entrusted to Paul (1 Tim.1:11).

The gospel is entrusted to all Christians to share:

Matthew 5:14-16 You are the light of the world. A city set on a hill cannot be hid. [15] Nor do men light a lamp and put it under a bushel, but on a stand, and it gives light to all in the house. [16] Let your light so shine before men, that they may see your good works and give glory to your Father who is in heaven.

Luke 9:6 And they departed and went through the villages, preaching the gospel and healing everywhere.

Acts 15:7 And after there had been much debate, Peter rose and said to them, “Brethren, you know that in the early days God made choice among you, that by my mouth the Gentiles should hear the word of the gospel and believe.”

2 Timothy 4:2 preach the word, be urgent in season and out of season . . .

1 Peter 3:15  but in your hearts reverence Christ as Lord. Always be prepared to make a defense to any one who calls you to account for the hope that is in you, yet do it with gentleness and reverence;

Jude 3 . . . contend for the faith which was once for all delivered to the saints

164. Paul is the only apostle who had the authority to deliver two blasphemers – Hymenaeus and Alexander – to Satan, so that they would learn to blaspheme no more (1 Tim.1:20).

St. Peter delivered Ananias and Sapphira to death (Acts 5:1-10). And he acted essentially the same as St. Paul did, with Simon (simony):

Acts 8:17-23 Then they laid their hands on them and they received the Holy Spirit. [18] Now when Simon saw that the Spirit was given through the laying on of the apostles’ hands, he offered them money, [19] saying, “Give me also this power, that any one on whom I lay my hands may receive the Holy Spirit.” [20] But Peter said to him, “Your silver perish with you, because you thought you could obtain the gift of God with money! [21] You have neither part nor lot in this matter, for your heart is not right before God. [22] Repent therefore of this wickedness of yours, and pray to the Lord that, if possible, the intent of your heart may be forgiven you. [23] For I see that you are in the gall of bitterness and in the bond of iniquity.”

165. Paul recognizes Luke’s gospel as Scripture divinely inspired by the Holy Spirit (1 Tim.5:18).

Good for him. The Catholic Church did that with regard to the entire Bible.

166. The model of the Sound Doctrine that we must retain was found in what was taught by Paul (2 Tim.1:13).

Yes, it was the tradition and gospel and word of God and the faith and the truth that he received (1 Cor 11:23; 15:3) and was “entrusted” with (2 Tim 1:12), and was a “steward” of (1 Cor 4:1; Eph 3:2).

167. Paul wrote in such a way that even Peter himself considered certain things “hard to understand” (2Pe.3:16). In other words, the “infallible pope” did not have the full understanding and understanding of Paul’s writings, and yet Catholics insist that the pope is the only one who knows how to correctly and perfectly interpret the Bible!

Infallibility (applicable in very specific laid-out conditions) doesn’t entail knowing everything about everything. As for Bible interpretation, Lucas’ last statement above is equal parts asinine and purely ignorant. In fact, the Catholic Church at Trent taught that all of seven Bible passages must be interpreted one way. Beyond that, everyone is free to engage in exegesis and interpretation of the Bible.

168. God did extraordinary miracles and wonders through Paul’s hands (Acts 19:11).

St. Peter raised Tabitha from the dead and healed others.

Even handkerchiefs and aprons were taken from their bodies to the sick, and the diseases fled from them, and the evil spirits fled from them (Acts 19:12). Nowhere in the New Testament is there an apostle with such power and authority that the demons themselves are cast out through his handkerchiefs and aprons!

This is an argument for second-class Catholic relics (items that come into contact with a saint), by the way. I’m glad that Lucas is obviously enthralled with and excited about our theology of relics. Nowhere in the New Testament is there an apostle with such power and authority that people are healed by his shadow! (Acts 5:15)

169. When God wanted to bring his word to light, he did so through the preaching entrusted to Paul (Titus 1:3).

Lots of people preached the gospel. I went through that in my reply to #163. This has absolutely nothing to do with whether Peter was the first pope.

170. Luke, the Church historian and writer of the book of Acts, did not bother to record anything about the “prince of the apostles” in his episcopate in Rome, but returned exclusively to Paul’s ministry among the Gentiles.

He had a lot to write about, but he chose to have Peter be the main figure in the first part of the book and Paul in the second. Sounds about right to me. These were the most important things going on in the early Church, both instances.

Although Peter appears frequently in the first chapters of Acts (while Paul was not yet converted), from the moment Paul enters the scene and becomes converted on the road to Damascus (and until the end of the book) Luke is exclusively concerned in narrating the acts of the apostle Paul, and leaves Peter for second or third hand! The logic is really very simple: When Paul enters the scene, Peter leaves the scene!

So what? Luke covers the momentous events with Peter in the very earliest times of the Church, then goes to Paul because his ministry was important and exciting too. This proves nothing whatsoever as to our topic

Evidence against the primacy of Peter in Rome

171. Jesus does not single out Rome as the main or one of the main centers of early Christianity. On the contrary, it affirms that the gospel would be preached “in Jerusalem, in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth” (Acts 1:8). If Rome were the main seat of the Christian faith, it would certainly be included by name by Jesus (as Jerusalem, Judea and Samaria were), and not just by way of generalization (“ends of the earth”). Rome only became the matrix of Christianity centuries later, not by order of Christ, but by the Roman political domination.

Jesus didn’t have to mention it. Those things worked out naturally. Rome was the center of the empire, so Christians were soon going to become involved there. As it is, both Peter and Paul died in Rome, and surely this is significant. God’s plan was to transform the pagan (and often wicked) Roman Empire. It took about 280 years until it legalized Christianity.

172. The apostles were not scattered along with the others in the Acts 8:1 episode. Therefore, Peter did not go to Rome, but remained in Jerusalem.

173. When Peter and John were sent to Samaria (Acts 8:14), they returned preaching the gospel in “many Samaritan villages” (Acts 8:25), without passing through Rome.

174. Peter, acting as an itinerant missionary, went to Lydda, where he preached the gospel (Lat.9:32). Again Rome is far from Peter’s destiny!

175. Still on his missionary journeys, Peter went to visit Cornelius in Caesarea (Acts 10:1). Again very, very far from Rome!

176. Before arriving in Caesarea, Peter was in Joppa (Acts 10:5). That is, Peter was neither in Rome when he went there, nor was he in Rome when he left there.

177. As early as Acts 11, the Judean brothers criticized Peter when he returned to Jerusalem (Acts 11:1-3) after preaching the gospel in Lydda, Joppa, and Caesarea. Therefore, after his evangelistic missions, Peter again takes his place as an apostle in Jerusalem, not Rome.

So what? It was early on. He gets there in due course.

178. Peter did not occupy the “chair of Rome”, but, on the contrary, “traveled everywhere” (Acts 9:32)!

At that time, he was a traveling evangelist, yes. Man, these are silly items. Utterly ridiculous . . .

179. In the Acts of the Apostles we see the historian of the early Church, the physician Luke, writing in detail about the various places where Peter was. Among them are Jerusalem (Acts.8:1), Samaria (Acts.8:25), Lydda (Acts.9:32), Caesarea (Acts.10:1), Joppa (Acts.10:5), and also other places that we see through the Pauline epistles, such as Antioch, according to Galatians 2:11, where Paul rebuked Peter to the face. Now, why does the Bible show Peter in so many places, but about Rome, however, he insists on not saying anything?! Even more considering that Peter’s time and ministry in Rome would be – for Catholics – of much more importance and relevance than simple “apostolic journeys” here or there, it would be absolutely indispensable that Peter be mentioned at least in Pomegranate!

It doesn’t because Acts was written before the time that Peter went to Rome.

1 Peter 5:13 She who is at Babylon, who is likewise chosen, sends you greetings; and so does my son Mark.

Several Protestant commentaries think that this is a code word for “Rome”:

Ellicott’s Commentary for English Readers:

It may be called the established interpretation that the place meant is Rome. We never hear of St. Peter being in the East, and the thing in itself is improbable, whereas nothing but Protestant prejudice can stand against the historical evidence that St. Peter sojourned and died at Rome. Whatever theological consequences may flow from it, it is as certain that St. Peter was at Rome as that St. John was at Ephesus. Everything in the Letter also points to such a state of things as was to be found at Rome about the date when we believe the Letter to have been written. It is objected that St. Peter would not gravely speak of Rome under a fanciful name when dating a letter; but the symbolism in the name is quite in keeping with the context. St. Peter has just personified the church of the place from which he writes, which seems quite as unprosaic a use of language as to call Rome “Babylon.” And it seems pretty clear that the name was quite intelligible to Jewish readers, for whom it was intended. The Apocalypse (Revelation 17:18) is not the only place where Rome is found spoken of under this title. One of the first of living Hebraists (who will not allow his name to be mentioned) told the present writer that no Hebrew of St. Peter’s day would have had need to think twice what city was meant when “Babylon” was mentioned. . . . Finally, as M. Renan suggests, there were reasons of prudence for not speaking too plainly about the presence of a large Christian society in Rome. The police were still more vigilant now than when St. Paul wrote in guarded language about the Roman empire to the Thessalonians. (See Excursus on the Man of Sin, after 2 Thess.) It might provoke hostilities if the Epistle fell into the hands of a delator, with names and places too clearly given.

MacLaren’s Expositions:

[It is] my own opinion that ‘Babylon’ means Rome. We have here the same symbolical name as in the Book of Revelation, where, whatever further meanings are attached to the designation, it is intended primarily as an appellation for the imperial city, which has taken the place filled in the Old Testament by Babylon, as the concentration of antagonism to the Kingdom of God.

Meyer’s NT Commentary:

According to Eusebius (H. E. c. 15), Papias already was of opinion that the name Babylon is here used figuratively, and that by it Rome is to be understood. The same view is adopted by Clemens Alex., Hieronymus, Oecumenius, Beda, Luther, and by most of the Catholic interpreters; in more recent times by Thiersch, Ewald, Hofmann, Wiesinger, Schott, etc. The principal reasons brought forward in support of this view are—(1) The tradition of the primitive church, which speaks of the apostle’s stay in Rome, but makes no mention of his having lived in Babylon; (2) The designation of Rome as Babylon in Revelation, chap. Revelation 14:8, Revelation 18:2; Revelation 18:10; (3) The banishment of the Jews from Babylon in the time of the Emperor Claudius, according to Joseph. Ant. i. 18, c. 12.

180. It was the church in Jerusalem (not Rome) that sent missionaries such as Barnabas to Antioch (Acts 11:22). If Peter was pope in Rome, which was the seat of apostolic Christianity, one would expect that it was from there that missionaries were sent and the gospel was centralized.

Once again, he simply wasn’t there yet. He ended up there. Why is this so hard to grasp?

181. It was not in Rome that Christians were called by this name for the first time, but in Antioch (Acts 11:26).

This has absolutely nothing to do with our topic.

Ignatius of Antioch, a first-century bishop, adds that it was right there in Antioch – and not in Rome – where the apostles laid the foundations of the Church: “This was first fulfilled in Syria, for “the disciples were called Christians in Antioch” “, when Paul and Peter laid the foundations of the Church” (Ignatius to the Magnesians, Long Version, Cap.10).

Some very early things happened in Antioch. I don’t see how this affects the Catholic argument. Peter later went to Rome and began an unbroken succession of popes that has lasted until this day.

182. There are strong indications that Peter was only in Rome to die in martyrdom, arriving there at the end of his life. For example, Origen (2nd century) sheds a lot of light on this and states: “Peter, having finally gone to Rome, was there crucified upside down.” This “finally” makes it clear that Peter did not stay in Rome for 25 years, years as Catholics want, but only at the end of his life, FINALLY, and with the purpose clearly stated right there – to be crucified upside down (martyred).

The Catholic Encyclopedia (“St. Peter”), way back in 1910 or so, stated:

As to the duration of his Apostolic activity in the Roman capital, the continuity or otherwise of his residence there, the details and success of his labours, and the chronology of his arrival and death, all these questions are uncertain, and can be solved only on hypotheses more or less well-founded. . . .

Although the fact of St. Peter’s activity and death in Rome is so clearly established, we possess no precise information regarding the details of his Roman sojourn.

It provides early historical evidence for the belief that St. Peter died in Rome:

  • From Bishop Papias of Hierapolis and Clement of Alexandria , who both appeal to the testimony of the old presbyters (i.e., the disciples of the Apostles ), we learn that Mark wrote his Gospel in Rome at the request of the Roman Christians, who desired a written memorial of the doctrine preached to them by St. Peter and his disciples ( Eusebius, “Hist. Eccl.”, II, xv; III, xl; VI, xiv); this is confirmed by Irenaeus (Adv. haer., III, i). In connection with this information concerning the Gospel of St. Mark , Eusebius, relying perhaps on an earlier source, says that Peter described Rome figuratively as Babylon in his First Epistle .
  • Another testimony concerning the martyrdom of Peter and Paul is supplied by Clement of Rome in his Epistle to the Corinthians (written about A.D. 95-97), wherein he says (v): “Through zeal and cunning the greatest and most righteous supports [of the Church ] have suffered persecution and been warred to death. Let us place before our eyes the good Apostles — St. Peter, who in consequence of unjust zeal, suffered not one or two, but numerous miseries, and, having thus given testimony . . ., has entered the merited place of glory ” . . .
  • Bishop Dionysius of Corinth, in his letter to the Roman Church in the time of Pope Soter (165-74), says: “You have therefore by your urgent exhortation bound close together the sowing of Peter and Paul at Rome and Corinth. For both planted the seed of the Gospel also in Corinth, and together instructed us, just as they likewise taught in the same place in Italy and at the same time suffered martyrdom ” (in Eusebius, “Hist. Eccl.”, II, xxviii).
  • Irenaeus of Lyons, a native of Asia Minor and a disciple of Polycarp of Smyrna (a disciple of St. John), passed a considerable time in Rome shortly after the middle of the second century, and then proceeded to Lyons, where he became bishop in 177; he described the Roman Church as the most prominent and chief preserver of the Apostolic tradition , as “the greatest and most ancient church, known by all, founded and organized at Rome by the two most glorious Apostles, Peter and Paul ” (Adv. haer., III, iii; cf. III, i). He thus makes use of the universally known and recognized fact of the Apostolic activity of Peter and Paul in Rome, to find therein a proof from tradition against the heretics.
  • In his “Hypotyposes” ( Eusebius, “Hist. Eccl.”, IV, xiv), Clement of Alexandria , teacher in the catechetical school of that city from about 190, says on the strength of the tradition of the presbyters : “After Peter had announced the Word of God in Rome and preached the Gospel in the spirit of God , the multitude of hearers requested Mark, who had long accompanied Peter on all his journeys, to write down what the Apostles had preached to them” (see above).
  • Like Irenaeus, Tertullian appeals, in his writings against heretics, to the proof afforded by the Apostolic labours of Peter and Paul in Rome of the truth of ecclesiastical tradition. In De Prescriptione 36, he says: “If thou art near Italy, thou hast Rome where authority is ever within reach. How fortunate is this Church for which the Apostles have poured out their whole teaching with their blood, where Peter has emulated the Passion of the Lord, where Paul was crowned with the death of John”. In Scorpiace 15, he also speaks of Peter’s crucifixion. “The budding faith Nero first made bloody in Rome. There Peter was girded by another, since he was bound to the cross”. As an illustration that it was immaterial with what water baptism is administered, he states in his book (On Baptism 5) that there is “no difference between that with which John baptized in the Jordan and that with which Peter baptized in the Tiber”; and against Marcion he appeals to the testimony of the Roman Christians, “to whom Peter and Paul have bequeathed the Gospel sealed with their blood” (Against Marcion 4.5).

183. The ecclesiastical historian of the Church, Eusebius of Caesarea (3rd and 4th centuries), sheds even more light and states with the greatest possible clarity: “Peter, it seems, preached in Pontus, Galatia and Bithynia, in Cappadocia and in Asia, to the Jews of the Diaspora; at last he reached Rome and was crucified with his head down, as he himself asked to suffer” (HE, Book III, 1:2). Therefore, the places where Peter preached the gospel the most were in Pontus, Bithynia, Cappadocia and Asia.

So what? Eusebius obviously drew this from the First Epistle of Peter:

1 Peter 1:1 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, To the exiles of the Dispersion in Pontus, Galatia, Cappado’cia, Asia, and Bithyn’ia,

Eusebius verifies what Catholics believe. On what basis should he be doubted?

Paul states that he was an itinerant missionary (1 Cor.9:5). He did not exercise a primacy in Rome!

At that time he was, yes.

In the same way, he preached “to the Jews of the Diaspora”, not “to the Romans”!

At first, that’s what he primarily did.

Finally, Eusebius states the time when Peter arrived in Rome – “at last” – and with the purpose of dying in martyrdom, just as Origen said. It was only towards the end of his life that Peter came to Rome, not to exercise primacy or to act as “pope”, but with the clear purpose of being martyred. This completely eliminates the Romanist pretensions of placing Peter 25 years in Rome, and on top of that as pope!

Which Catholics say that Peter was in Rome for 25 years?

184. Paul writes to Philemon directly from Rome in AD 60, where Peter is supposed to have been (according to the Catholic gospel). However, Paul cites four companions with him in Rome. They are: (1) Epaphras, (2) Mark, (3) Aristarchus, (4) Demas, and (5) Luke. At no point does Paul quote Peter in Rome! This fact makes it clear that Peter was not there, or, if he was, his presence would be indispensable, along with the other five names that were with Paul (Phil.1:23-25). Paul would not ignore Peter’s authority. If Peter were there, the denial of his presence would be a clear sign of insubordination.

Epaphras was his “fellow prisoner” (1:23), and Mark, Aristarchus, Demas, and Luke, his “fellow workers” (1:24). As Lucas said, they were his “companions.” They all sent “greetings” (1:23). This has nothing to do one way or another with whether Peter was there.  This was standard practice for Paul at the end of his letters (it’s almost always the people who are “with” him):

“All who are with me send greetings to you” (Titus 3:15).

“Eubu’lus sends greetings to you, as do Pudens and Linus and Claudia and all the brethren” (2 Tim 4:21)

“The brethren who are with me greet you. All the saints greet you, especially those of Caesar’s household” (Phil 4:21-22)

“All the saints greet you” (2 Cor 13:13)

“The churches of Asia send greetings. Aq’uila and Prisca, together with the church in their house, send you hearty greetings in the Lord. All the brethren send greetings” (1 Cor 16:19-20)

Colossians 4:10-14 Aristar’chus my fellow prisoner greets you, and Mark the cousin of Barnabas (concerning whom you have received instructions — if he comes to you, receive him), [11] and Jesus who is called Justus. . . . [12] Ep’aphras, who is one of yourselves, a servant of Christ Jesus, greets you, always remembering you earnestly in his prayers, that you may stand mature and fully assured in all the will of God. [13] For I bear him witness that he has worked hard for you and for those in La-odice’a and in Hi-erap’olis. [14] Luke the beloved physician and Demas greet you.

Romans 16:21-23 Timothy, my fellow worker, greets you; so do Lucius and Jason and Sosip’ater, my kinsmen. [22] I Tertius, the writer of this letter, greet you in the Lord. [23] Ga’ius, who is host to me and to the whole church, greets you. Eras’tus, the city treasurer, and our brother Quartus, greet you.

185. To the Philippians, also in Rome, A.D. 61, Paul mentions special greetings from those in “Caesar’s palace” (Phil.4:21-23), but again he does not mention Peter or the papal see, which would be much more important if it really existed!

186. Writing to the Colossians, still in Rome (AD 60), Paul this time mentions several names. They are: (1) Tychicus, (2) Onesimus, (3) Aristarchus, (4) Mark, (5) Jesus, (6) Epaphras, (7) Luke, and (8) Demas. Again, the complete silence about Peter is embarrassing to papists. It’s incredible that Paul gave eight names, but he “forgot” exactly the most important of them: Peter!

187. To the Colossians, Paul writes that Mark and Jesus were “the only ones of the circumcision who are my co-workers for the Kingdom of God” (Col.4:11) in Rome. Interestingly, Peter was precisely “apostle of the circumcision” (Gal.2:8,9), as were Mark and Jesus the Just. But only these last two who collaborated with Paul in Rome, and he is accurate in saying that “these are the only ones who are my co-workers” (Col.4:11). By saying “unique”, he excludes the possibility of “someone else”. So either Peter didn’t really hold any “chair of Rome,” or he didn’t collaborate with Paul!

188. Writing his second epistle to Timothy in Rome (AD 67), Paul again cites several names as being with him in that city (2 Tim.4:9-12,21,22). These are: (1) Luke, (2) Eubulus, (3) Prudente, (4) Linus, (5) Claudia. Again, Paul does not quote Peter! We don’t know if Paul was “in a quarrel” with Peter and that’s why he always omitted his name, just to give the false impression that he was with him. In any case, the most likely alternative remains that Peter was actually not there!

189. In that same epistle, in chapter 4 and verses 9-12, there is a precious statement from Paul. He claims that Demas had left him, as well as Crescent and Titus. He again does not quote Peter. In other words, Peter had not left him, nor was he with him. Everything leads us to believe that he was not even in Rome, which needs no further comment and clarifies all things.

190. Still in this final greeting, Paul quotes that “only Luke is with me” (2 Tim.4:11), that is, closest to him in that city. By saying “only Luke”, he excludes the chances that Peter was also there, incognito, invisible, or on a secret mission. It was Luke – and only Luke – who was with him!

191. Finally, Paul states that “at my first defense, all forsook me” (2 Tim.4:16). Now, if there was any Christian leader for Catholics who could “save the skin” of Paul, it would certainly be the Pope, Peter. Yet again Peter doesn’t show up doing anything for Paul in Rome! Could it be that Peter was in Rome, always being so indifferent to the apostle Paul?

Mark Shea wrote:

[M]y basic response would be, “Who says Peter was there when Paul wrote the Romans?”  It seems to me he could have been anywhere.  Just as Paul founded Churches and moved on so Peter may have founded the Church at Rome and then gone on and been anywhere in the Empire when Paul wrote.  The apostles tended to get around.  As far as I know, the only thing solid we have from the Tradition is that Peter founded the Church at Rome and that both Peter and Paul were martyred there. I know of nothing in the Tradition which demands we believe Peter remained in Rome from the time he founded the Church until his death and can think of lots of reasons for presuming Peter was on the move like the other apostles till he returned to Rome to meet his destiny. The archeology that supports the fact that the tomb of Peter below the basilica of St. Peter is rather impressive. It is backed by the memoirs of apostolic Fathers who also remember Peter and Paul dying at Rome.  Against this, the argument that Paul doesn’t mention Peter in his letter is essentially an argument from silence—and a silence that can be accounted for in other ways than by supposing that the witness of the entire early Church and the bones of a crucified man (in a tomb bearing the inscription “Peter is within”) are somehow an elaborate fraud. (“Where Was Peter When Paul Wrote Romans?”, National Catholic Register, 4 March 2013)

I think the simpler explanation, though, is that Paul was simply mentioning his immediate companions. They had to be with him in order to convey to him the notion that they wanted to send greetings along in his epistle. It would obviously have been dangerous for Peter to visit Paul in prison. Or he may have also been “underground” and Paul didn’t want to reveal that he was there by mentioning him.

192. For a long time, the Christians who were scattered did not preach the gospel to anyone, but “only to the Jews” (Acts 11:19). As the Romans were not Jews, it is difficult to reconcile the idea that Peter quickly settled there, looking for a Jew to preach the gospel!

For the umpteenth time: one need only believe that Peter (for a sustained time), was only there later in his life.

193. The Roman Emperor Claudius had expelled all Jews from Rome in AD 41 to AD 54. This was the reason why Aquila and Priscilla had to leave there, “for Claudius had ordered all the Jews to leave Rome” (Acts 18:1,2). As Peter was a Jew, he would not be there alone. Claudius was not going to expel all the Jews but to leave precisely one of the “principals” there, alone. Therefore, at this time Peter could not have been in Rome at all.

Then that fits in with my repeatedly expressed scenario that Peter was only there later in his life.

194. In Galatians 1:13-18, Paul claims to have gone to Jerusalem and met Peter, having been with him for fifteen days. Therefore, since Peter was still in Jerusalem at this time, it is a fact that he was not holding any professorship in Rome.

That’s correct. Here’s a shocking revelation to Lucas: people move around a lot . . .

195. Peter was “an apostle to the circumcised” (Gal.2:8), not to the Gentiles. If Peter occupied the See of Rome, he would be an apostle to the Romans (Gentiles), consequently he would be an apostle to the uncircumcised, as well as Paul (Gal.2:9,10), for he acted among them. Paul was a Jew, but because he had a ministry among the Gentiles, he was considered an apostle to the uncircumcised (Gal.2:7,8). Peter, also being a Jew, was nevertheless considered “an apostle to the circumcised” (Gal.2:8), for his ministry was not among the Gentiles (as was Paul’s), but among the Jews themselves! Therefore, Peter was not predominantly active in Jerusalem (Jews) and not in Rome (Gentiles).

196. Paul affirms that “the gospel of the uncircumcision was entrusted from outside, as to Peter the gospel of the circumcision” (Gal.2:7). If Peter acted as bishop in Rome, he would be the chief apostle of the uncircumcision (Gentiles), not Paul! Therefore, one of two: Either Paul was greater than Peter, so that he was the chief apostle to the Gentiles, even though Peter was also turned to the Gentiles of Rome(!); or else Paul was one of the chief of the Gentiles because he was among them (Gentiles), while Peter was one of the chief of the circumcision because he was among them (Jews). Therefore, it is logical to say that Peter was predominantly in Jerusalem (even though he had missionary journeys like that of Acts 8:14), while Paul was predominantly among the Gentiles. Once again, “Peter, Bishop of Rome” is a much more invented myth.

197. In Galatians 2:9, Paul is in Jerusalem with James, Peter and John (Gal.2:9), which shows us that Peter (as well as James and John) were still in Jerusalem. Furthermore, we see that Paul would continue to address the Gentiles, while they would continue to address the circumcised: “They agreed that we should address the Gentiles, and they the circumcised” (Gal.2:9). 198. Already in Acts 23:11, we see the Lord Jesus telling Paul to have courage, for “as you testified about me in Jerusalem, so shall you testify also in Rome” (Acts 23:11). Now, where was Peter, the pope, who for so many years in that city did not make the name of Jesus known there?

I’ve been through this before and at this point I’m too lazy to look it up. Both men did both things.

199. In Acts 11:2, Peter returns to Jerusalem, and for this time Herod arrests him (Acts 12). Since this king died a short time later (Acts 12:23) and Josephus Flavius ​​claimed that such an event (of Herod Agrippa’s death) took place during the fourth year of Claudius’ reign (in 45 AD), it logically follows that at this time Peter was still in Jerusalem.

Yep.

200. In Galatians 2:11, Peter appears in Antioch, already in 45 AD, which is very, very far from Rome, in the middle of the East!

Indeed it is. No problem for our view.

201. The Council of Jerusalem (Acts 15), which was attended by Peter, took place in this city and not in Rome. If Peter had been pope in Rome, such a Council might well have taken place there, and if he was really in Jerusalem, it follows that in AD 49 Peter was still in Jerusalem, and therefore not in Rome.

Correct. This ain’t rocket science.

202. At the end of the Acts of the Apostles, around 60-61 AD, Paul arrives in prison in Rome (Acts 28:11), and Luke records that the brothers of faith went to him (Acts 28:15). Interestingly, Peter does not show up to receive his ministry colleague, nor does Luke bother to narrate Peter there, which would be of the utmost importance! Peter again keeps his mystery “hidden” in Rome!

203. When Paul arrived in Rome, around AD 60-61, a fact recorded in the last chapter of Acts, the Romans needed information about the Christians, as they had no further information about it. They needed to hear from Paul what he thought (Acts 28:22), having to gather on a certain day to hear the gospel message (Acts 28:23). If Rome were the seat of the Pope or the center of Christianity, this would not be necessary, since they would already know very well who Christians are!

Dealt with in my reply to #191 above.

204. Peter, in writing his first epistle, claims to be writing from “Babylon” (1Pe.5:13). There are several reasons to believe that this place is not Rome, as Catholics preach.

And there are several reasons to believe it does stand for Rome, as explained in my reply to #182 above.

A. First, because if Babylon is an enigmatic language for Rome, then Catholics will have to admit that Rome is Babylon, thus dismantling their belief that Jerusalem is the Babylon of the Apocalypse. Since almost all Catholics preach that Babylon is Jerusalem, it logically follows that if the passage here is cryptic or figurative, it must be Jerusalem, not Rome!

Rome was already called “Babylon” in the book of Revelation.

B. But there are several reasons to believe that Peter was not using mysterious or enigmatic language in 1 Peter 5:13. For example, the apostle Paul writes openly to the Romans, without riddles (Rom.1:7). He doesn’t need to say he was writing “to the Babylonians”, he simply says he was writing to the Romans! In the same way, Luke, writing Acts at about the same time as Peter’s epistle, spares no words to address Rome. . . (Acts.28:14; Acts.28:16; Acts. 19:21; Acts.23:11; Acts.18:2; etc.). He writes openly about this city several times. Therefore, there would be no reason for Peter to break the entire biblical rule and use such differentiated language, whose context itself does not support it, since the context is not at all “gimmicky” or “mysterious”!

There must have been danger involved or he wouldn’t have done it.

C. The reference, therefore, concerns the city of Babylon situated by the Euphrates. There was a considerable Jewish population in the vicinity of Babylon in the early centuries of the Christian Era. It remained a focus of Judaism for centuries and therefore a suitable place for Peter, who was “the apostle to the circumcised” (Gal.2:8), to preach the gospel. Reading 1 Peter 1:1 and 1 Peter 5:13, we see that Peter did not write either from Rome or to the Romans!

Since Rome was already called “Babylon” in the book of Revelation it seems plausible that Peter would have done the same thing.

205. Finally, there is nothing better than analyzing Paul’s own letter to the Romans. If there was a more than perfect opportunity to name the “Pope Peter” who was supposed to be there, this would be the perfect chance! However, Peter is not even mentioned throughout all sixteen chapters of Paul’s epistle to the Romans! And worse: It does not even appear in the list of extended greetings that the apostle passes on in the last chapter, where he nominally greets twenty-seven brothers from Rome, and does not quote Peter from beginning to end! Why, if Peter were the pope there, being one of the most important figures in all of Christianity, he should be the first to be greeted by Paul! But this one, from start to finish, writes perfectly as someone who has no idea that Peter was there. He doesn’t remember his name at the beginning of the letter, nor in the middle, nor in the final greetings. This, however, does not prevent his saluting another twenty-seven persons whom he remembered, nor does it prevent Catholics, even in the light of all this, from preferring to continue in the most vigorous ignorance, rather than confessing all the obvious and self-evident points. – evident throughout this study, and free themselves from their historical errors that are easily refuted.

If St. Peter simply wasn’t there yet at the time St. Paul wrote this letter, that would easily explain it.

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END OF ENTIRE REPLY

Go to Part One (#1-50)

Go to Part Two (#51-100)

Go to Part Three (#101-150)

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Summary: Brazilian Protestant apologist Lucas Banzoli takes on my “50 NT Proofs for Petrine Primacy”, with his 205 “Petrine Potshots”. This is Part IV of my replies (#151-205).

2022-05-12T16:49:52-04:00

Gavin Ortlund is an author, speaker, and apologist for the Christian faith, who serves as the senior pastor of First Baptist Church of Ojai in Ojai, California. Gavin has a Ph.D. from Fuller Theological Seminary in historical theology, and an M.Div from Covenant Theological Seminary. He is the author of seven books as well as numerous academic and popular articles. For a list of publications, see his CV. He runs the YouTube channel Truth Unites, which seeks to provide an “irenic” voice on theology, apologetics, and the Christian life.

I greatly admire and appreciate Gavin’s ecumenical methodology, and viewpoint. It’s extremely refreshing to hear in this hyper-polarized age. He is an exemplary Christian role model of this open-minded, charitable approach. We all learn and “win” when good, constructive dialogue takes place. It’s never a “loss” to arrive at more truth or to recognize one’s own error.

*****

This is a reply to his video, “Relics: A Protestant Critique” (8-28-21). His words will be in blue.

Gavin (as is his usual custom) makes many irenic, conciliatory comments at the beginning, as a way of establishing common ground and getting out of the way things that Catholics and Protestants shouldn’t have to wrangle about. I greatly appreciate this. Such a breath of fresh air . . .

But he certainly disagrees, too, and that’s what I’ll be responding to.

The Protestant concern is that as Church history develops, the use of relics develops and changes, and it gets to a point where it transgresses a boundary into the realm of — I’ll use the words — superstition and idolatry. [6:37-53]

One of the Protestant classical views is that if something isn’t in Scripture, it doesn’t mean you can’t do it, but you shouldn’t insist upon it. [7:25-35]

I will provide a ton of scriptural support (as is my wont) below. Not to worry!

Gavin distinguishes between historical excesses regarding relics and Catholic official teaching. Very good!

He says that Catholics in the past (prior to Protestantism) were “adoring” relics. No doubt some did (and do) — one can always find theological ignorance with little trouble — , but Gavin knows that Catholic teaching utterly condemns this. Only God can be adored and worshiped. He also mentions “kissing, embracing, and bowing to” relics.

Proper and crucial distinctions must be made here. I have often watched relatives of mine kiss a dead mother or son in a casket on the forehead. Does that mean they are worshiping them? No; it’s obviously affection. One can observe the grieving wife of a slain soldier lying on their casket or on their gravestone. Is that idolatry? Obviously not. We know what is going on there. I watched on TV Nancy Reagan lie weeping on the casket of her husband, President Ronald Reagan. I’ve been very moved at the Vietnam War Memorial in Washington, D.C. watching many people crying and touching the names of their friends or relatives who were tragically killed in that ultimately futile conflict. Clearly, many Protestants do these things without any slightest hint of idolatry or worship.

I’ve kissed relics. I was showing respect and honor to the saints involved. I’ve never worshiped anyone but God. And almost all Catholics know this. Bowing to creatures (albeit those who were alive) — including veneration — is explicitly (and massively) biblical.

Strong’s Hebrew Lexicon describes word #7812: shachah as “. . . prostrate (especially reflexive, in homage to royalty or God):–bow (self) down, crouch, fall down (flat), humbly beseech, do (make) obeisance, do reverence, make to stoop, worship.” [see all of the numerous OT instances of its use]
*
It’s translated in the following manner in the KJVworship (99x), bow (31x), bow down (18x), obeisance (9x), reverence (5x), fall down (3x), themselves (2x), stoop (1x), crouch (1x), miscellaneous (3x). It mostly means bowing down to God in worship (adoration), but also not infrequently means bowing down before superiors or angels in homage or veneration. There are many biblical examples of this:
1 Chronicles 29:20 (RSV) Then David said to all the assembly, “Bless the LORD your God.” And all the assembly blessed the LORD, the God of their fathers, and bowed their heads, and worshiped [shachah] the LORD, and did obeisance [shachah] to the king.
*
Joshua 5:13-15 When Joshua was by Jericho, he lifted up his eyes and looked, and behold, a man stood before him with his drawn sword in his hand; and Joshua went to him and said to him, “Are you for us, or for our adversaries?” [14] And he said, “No; but as commander of the army of the LORD I have now come.” And Joshua fell on his face to the earth, and worshiped [shachah], and said to him, “What does my lord bid his servant?” [15] And the commander of the LORD’s army said to Joshua, “Put off your shoes from your feet; for the place where you stand is holy.” And Joshua did so.
This is not God, because he twice identified himself as the “commander of the LORD’s army.” St. Augustine, (City of God xi. 13), St. Jerome (commentary on Galatians iii), and many interpreters hold that this impressive “man” was the archangel Michael.
Genesis 18:1-4, 22 And the LORD appeared to him [Abraham] by the oaks of Mamre, as he sat at the door of his tent in the heat of the day. [2] He lifted up his eyes and looked, and behold, three men stood in front of him. When he saw them, he ran from the tent door to meet them, and bowed [shachahhimself  to the earth, [3] and said, “My lord, if I have found favor in your sight, do not pass by your servant. [4] Let a little water be brought, and wash your feet, and rest yourselves under the tree, . . . [22] So the men turned from there, and went toward Sodom; but Abraham still stood before the LORD. (cf. Heb 13:2: “Do not neglect to show hospitality to strangers, for thereby some have entertained angels unawares.”)

The text in-between goes back and forth, referring to “men” or “they” or “them” (18:9, 16) and “The LORD” or first-person address from God (18:10, 13-14, 17-21) interchangeably, for the same phenomenon and personal / physical / verbal encounter. But there are three men here; they can’t all plausibly be God. Two of them were angels (indicated by 18:22 and 19:1). Thus, Abraham bowed down to and venerated them, too.

Genesis 27:29 Let peoples serve you, and nations bow down [shachah]  to you. Be lord over your brothers, and may your mother’s sons bow down [shachah] to you. . . .

This is Isaac’s blessing of Jacob.

Genesis 42:6 Now Joseph was governor over the land; he it was who sold to all the people of the land. And Joseph’s brothers came, and bowed themselves [shachah] before him with their faces to the ground.

Genesis 19:1 The two angels came to Sodom in the evening; and Lot was sitting in the gate of Sodom. When Lot saw them, he rose to meet them, and bowed [shachah] himself with his face to the earth,

Lot also clearly venerated two angels, who appear by the text (cf. 18:22 above) to be the same angels whom Abraham had talked to and venerated. They distinguish themselves from the LORD, by saying “the LORD has sent us to destroy [Sodom]” (Gen 19:3).

King Nebuchadnezzar “fell upon his face, and did homage to Daniel” (Dan 2:46; cf. 8:17). Mary Magdalene and Joanna and Mary the mother of James and “other women” (Lk 24:10) “bowed their faces to the ground” before two angels (Lk 24:5). Note that the angels did not tell them not to do so. The Philippian jailer “fell down before Paul and Silas” (Acts 16:29).

Men (apostles) are venerated in the New Testament. The Greek for “fell down before” in Acts 16:29 is prospipto (Strong’s word #4363). It is also used of worship towards Jesus in five passages (Mk 3:11; 5:33; 7:25; Lk 8:28, 47). So why didn’t Paul and Silas rebuke the jailer? I submit that it was because they perceived his act as one of veneration (which is permitted) as opposed to adoration or worship, which is not permitted to be directed towards creatures. Note that the word “worship” doesn’t appear in the above five passages, nor in Luke 24:5 or Acts 16:29. When “worship”  [proskuneodoes appear in connection with a man or angel, it isn’t permitted, as in Acts 10:25-26 (St. Peter and Cornelius).

Thus, we see the same in Revelation 19:10 and 22:8-9, because St. John mistakenly thought the angel was Jesus, and so tried to worship / adore the angel. The same thing happened when men thought that Paul and Barnabas were Zeus and Hermes and “wanted to offer sacrifice.” They were rebuked, as mistaken (Acts 14:11-18).

Is all that idolatry, according to the prohibitions of “bowing down” (Ex 20:5; Lev 26:1; Dt 5:8-9; and Mic 5:13). No. All of those passages are strictly about conscious “graven image” idols, meant to replace God. One mustn’t bow to them. But this is obviously not a prohibition of all bowing and veneration, or else the passages above would be presented in the Bible with disapproval (there is not the slightest hint of of that). Was the bronze serpent that Moses made and set up on a pole for men to gaze at  and be healed (Num 21:8-9), an “idol” or “graven image”? Obviously not.

Idolatry is a matter of disobedience in the heart towards the one true God. We don’t always need an image to have an idol. Most idols today are non-visual: money, sex, lust for power, convenience, our own pride or intellects; there are all sorts of idols. Anything that replaces God as the most important thing in our life and the universe, is an idol.

The approach of Martin Luther was balanced, sensible, and biblical:

And I say at the outset that according to the law of Moses no other images are forbidden than an image of God which one worships. A crucifix, on the other hand, or any other holy image is not forbidden. (Against the Heavenly Prophets, 1525; Luther’s Works, Vol. 40, 85-86)

Where however images or statues are made without idolatry, then such making of them is not forbidden. [M]y image breakers must also let me keep, wear, and look at a crucifix or a Madonna . . . as long as I do not worship them, but only have them as memorials. (Ibid., 86, 88)

But images for memorial and witness, such as crucifixes and images of saints, are to be tolerated . . . And they are not only to be tolerated, but for the sake of the memorial and the witness they are praiseworthy and honorable . . . (Ibid., 91)

. . . thinking that the power or grace of God inheres in relics, in such a way that if you draw near to the relic, or if you touch the relic, you can become a partaker of that grace or power. [9:22-36]

This is also fairly explicitly biblical:

2 Kings 13:20-21 So Elisha died, and they buried him. Now bands of Moabites used to invade the land in the spring of the year. 21 And as a man was being buried, lo, a marauding band was seen and the man was cast into the grave of Elisha; and as soon as the man touched the bones of Elisha, he revived, and stood on his feet.

Catholic apologist Bertrand Conway elaborates:

The Catholic Church does not teach that there is any magical virtue or any curative efficacy in the relic itself. The Church merely says, following the Scriptures, that they are often the occasion of God’s miracles. In the Old Law we read of the veneration of the Jews for the bones of Joseph (Exodus 13:19; Joshua 24:32), and of the prophet Eliseus which raised a dead man to life (2 Kings 13:21) . . . (The Question Box, 373)

Methodist Adam Clarke, in his Commentary on the above passage, admitted the validity of the principle involved here, even though his subsequent remarks reveal that he doesn’t personally care much for it:

This shows that the prophet did not perform his miracles by any powers of his own, but by the power of God; and he chose to honour his servant, by making even his bones the instrument of another miracle after his death.

Veneration is essentially different from worship or adoration (reserved for God alone); it is a high honor given to something or someone because of the grace revealed or demonstrated in them from God. The relic (and the saint from whom it is derived) reflects the greatness of God just as a masterpiece of art or music reflects the greatness of the artist or composer.

Therefore, in venerating it, God is being honored. The saint is being venerated only insofar as he or she is reflecting God’s grace and holiness. If such an item is worshiped, the person doing it is not following Catholic teaching, which fully agrees with Protestantism with regard to the evil of idolatry, or putting something besides God in the unique place of God.

In the passage above, matter clearly imparted the miraculous and grace from God. That is all that is needed for Catholics to reasonably and scripturally hold such items in the highest regard and honor (veneration).

There are other explicit biblical examples of relics:

2 Kings 2:11-14 “And as they still went on and talked, behold, a chariot of fire and horses of fire separated the two of them. And Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven. 12 And Elisha saw it and he cried, ‘My father, my father! the chariots of Israel and its horsemen!’ And he saw him no more. Then he took hold of his own clothes and rent them in two pieces. 13 And he took up the mantle of Elijah that had fallen from him, and went back and stood on the bank of the Jordan. 14 Then he took the mantle of Elijah that had fallen from him, and struck the water, saying, ‘Where is the Lord, the God of Elijah?’ And when he had struck the water, the water was parted to the one side and to the other; and Elisha went over.”

Acts 5:15-16 “. . . they even carried out the sick into the streets, and laid them on beds and pallets, that as Peter came by at least his shadow might fall on some of them. 16 The people also gathered from the towns around Jerusalem, bringing the sick and those afflicted with unclean spirits, and they were all healed.”

Acts 19:11-12 “And God did extraordinary miracles by the hands of Paul, 12 so that handkerchiefs or aprons were carried away from his body to the sick, and diseases left them and the evil spirits came out of them.” (cf. Mt 9:20-22)

Elisha’s bones were a “first-class” relic: from the person himself or herself. These passages, on the other hand, offer examples of “second-class” relics: items that have power because they were connected with a holy person (Elijah’s mantle and even St. Peter’s shadow), and third-class relics: something that has merely touched a holy person or first-class relic (handkerchiefs that had touched St. Paul).

In the Pentateuch, we have a remarkable foreshadowing of relics and specifically of receiving holiness as a result of touching sacred objects:

Exodus 29:37 Seven days you shall make atonement for the altar, and consecrate it, and the altar shall be most holy; whatever touches the altar shall become holy.

Exodus 30:25-29  and you shall make of these a sacred anointing oil blended as by the perfumer; a holy anointing oil it shall be. [26] And you shall anoint with it the tent of meeting and the ark of the testimony, [27] and the table and all its utensils, and the lampstand and its utensils, and the altar of incense, [28] and the altar of burnt offering with all its utensils and the laver and its base; [29] you shall consecrate them, that they may be most holy; whatever touches them will become holy.

Note here that first there is a “holy anointing oil” which is applied to the ark, tabernacle, and related sacred religious items “that they may be most holy.” They in turn impart holiness to all who touch them. If this is not sacramentalism and the underlying principle of relics, nothing is.

God said to Moses about the body of a lamb offered at the temple: “Whatever touches its flesh shall be holy . . .” (Lev 6:27). So now we again have a dead thing (like Elisha’s bones) imparting holiness. How is that any different from Catholic relics? Likewise, the same was said even of the cereal offering (Lev 6:14-18).

Hey, I didn’t write this. It’s the inspired, infallible revelation of God’s Word. Catholics didn’t make this stuff up. But we based our theology on clear biblical indications that mater can (if God wills it) convey grace, holiness, and power.

. . . thinking that prayer is more efficacious or more worthy, if it is made near or while touching a relic . . . [9:53-10:03]

It’s not an exact parallel, but there are similar instances in the Bible, in terms of holy objects. The Israelites bowed down before the temple, while they worshiped and praised and thanked God:

2 Chronicles 7:3 When all the children of Israel saw the fire come down and the glory of the LORD upon the temple, they bowed down with their faces to the earth on the pavement, and worshiped and gave thanks to the LORD, saying, “For he is good,
for his steadfast love endures for ever.”

Psalm 138:2 I bow down toward thy holy temple and give thanks to thy name for thy steadfast love and thy faithfulness; . . .

Joshua did the same before the ark of the covenant:

Joshua 7:6 Then Joshua rent his clothes, and fell to the earth upon his face before the ark of the LORD until the evening, he and the elders of Israel; and they put dust upon their heads. [7] And Joshua said, “Alas, O Lord GOD, why hast thou brought this people over the Jordan at all, to give us into the hands of the Amorites, to destroy us? Would that we had been content to dwell beyond the Jordan!”

Levites talked to God before the ark as well:

Deuteronomy 10:8 At that time the LORD set apart the tribe of Levi to carry the ark of the covenant of the LORD, to stand before the LORD to minister to him and to bless in his name, to this day. (cf. 1 Ki 3:15; 8:5; 1 Chr 16:4; 2 Chr 5:6)

Remember, the ark had relics in it, too: “a golden urn holding the manna, and Aaron’s rod that budded, and the tables of the covenant [the two tablets of the Ten Commandments]” (Heb 9:4; cf. Ex 16:33-34; Num 17:10; 1 Ki 8:9; 2 Chr 5:10). The manna (a type of food produced by God to feed the wandering post-Exodus Jews) was biological, so presumably it had to be supernaturally preserved if it lasted very long. Again, the parallels to relics and the practices and principles connected to them is very clear.

God specifically said that He would “meet” people in conjunction with the ark (specifically, the mercy seat on top of it: see Ex 25:22; 30:6; Lev 16:2; cf. 1 Sam 4:4; 2 Sam 6:2; 2 Ki 19:15; 1 Chr 13:6; Ps 80:1; 99:1; Is 37:16; Ezek 10:4; Heb 9:5).

Accordingly, it was thought that holy things (the temple and the ark of the covenant) gave special power and efficacy to prayers. For this reason, the Jews worshiped “toward the temple”:

Psalm 5:7 But I through the abundance of thy steadfast love will enter thy house, I will worship toward thy holy temple in the fear of thee. (cf. 99:9; 134:2; 138:2; Is 27:13)

King Solomon prayed before the sacred altar (both standing and kneeling):

1 Kings 8:22-23 Then Solomon stood before the altar of the LORD in the presence of all the assembly of Israel, and spread forth his hands toward heaven; [23] and said, “O LORD, God of Israel, there is no God like thee, in heaven above or on earth beneath, keeping covenant and showing steadfast love to thy servants who walk before thee with all their heart; (cf. 8:54 [kneeling]; 2 Chr 6:12-14; the Jews swore oaths by the altar in the temple: 2 Chr 6:22)

Daniel prayed to and thanked God in the direction of Jerusalem, three times a day, even from Babylon:

Daniel 6:10 . . . Daniel . . . went to his house where he had windows in his upper chamber open toward Jerusalem; and he got down upon his knees three times a day and prayed and gave thanks before his God, as he had done previously. (cf. 1 Ki 8:44, 48; 2 Chr 6:20-21, 26-27, 29-30, 32-34, 38)

Why? He obviously thought this helped his prayers succeed, or else he wouldn’t have done it.

So how — in light of all of the above — can there possibly be an objection to praying in conjunction with relics? The principle is precisely the same as what we have in the Bible, as far as I can see.

Gavin refers to pilgrimages to relics in order to have more meritorious and efficacious prayer. This is little different from all the Israelite pilgrimages to Jerusalem for the feast days and to offer sacrifice in the temple. There are holy places and holy things in the Bible, and they have power, and this power can transfer in some supernatural way to Christians. These include the bones of Elisha, handkerchiefs that had touched Paul, and the temple and ark of the covenant.

Later he implies that paying a lot of money to do so is improper. But I would also note that we shouldn’t object to a pious Catholic (now or in the Middle Ages) paying a lot of money to make a pilgrimage to a holy place, including seeing and venerating relics, when we have no objection whatsoever to folks going on expensive vacations on yachts, or flying all around the world, spending multiple thousands of dollars (not to mention a host of other arguably materialistic things). If we can go see the wonders of nature or man’s architectural masterpieces, why is it immediately thought to be a “problem” if someone pays money to go on a religious pilgrimage?

I think it’s just a case of “live and let live.” There’s nothing wrong with that, as long as relics are grounded in the Bible, as I have done. But people trying to make money selling fake relics is clearly wrong and the Church condemned that. Trent (posted below) stated: “every superstition shall be removed, all filthy lucre be abolished; finally, all lasciviousness be avoided . . .”

The Protestant movement started with these things [relics and their abuses] . . .  [10:50-10:55]

I think this is historically exaggerated, at best. Even Martin Luther (who started the Protestant movement, after all) advocated the goodness and propriety of relics after his 95 Theses (October 1517) and even after the Diet of Worms (January-May 1521):

[W]e ought to encase the bones of saints in silver; this is good and proper. (Sermons I, ed. and tr. John W. Doberstein; Sermon on the Man Born Blind, 17 March 1518; in Luther’s Works, vol. 51)

Many make pilgrimages to Rome and to other holy places to see the robe of Christ, the bones of the martyrs, and the places and remains of the saints, which we certainly do not condemn. (Explanations of the Ninety-Five Theses, Aug. 1518; tr. Carl W. Folkemer; in Luther’s Works, vol. 31)

These many years your Grace has been acquiring relics in every land; but God has now heard your Grace’s request and has sent your Grace, without cost or trouble, a whole cross, with nails, spears and scourges. I say again, grace and joy from God on the acquisition of the new relic! (To the Elector Frederic of Saxony, end of Feb. 1522; in Luther’s Correspondence and Other Contemporary Letters, Vol. II: 1521-1530; translated and edited by Preserved Smith and Charles M. Jacobs [Philadelphia: The Lutheran Publication Society: 1918] )

Luther’s 95 Theses never even mentioned relics, which makes sense, since he wrote all three of the above statements after the time of the 95 Theses.

Gavin wishes that Trent had done more with respect to curbing abuses having to do with relics. But in a pinned comment underneath, he wrote: “One thing I wish I had done better in this video is describe specifically how Trent did seek to curb abuses with respect to relics. While Trent did not address the Protestant concerns about idolatry and superstition sufficiently, in my view, it did condemn a number of other abuses, and I don’t want to be unfair in failing to mention that.” He then cites “the entirety of the second decree of Session 25 of Trent” [link]. Here are the highlights, where Trent specifically addressed abuses and corruptions and impieties:

Moreover, that the images of Christ, of the Virgin Mother of God, and of the other saints, are to be had and retained particularly in temples, and that due honour and veneration are to be given them; not that any divinity, or virtue, is believed to be in them, on account of which they are to be worshipped; or that anything is to be asked of them; or, that trust is to be reposed in images, as was of old done by the Gentiles who placed their hope in idols; but because the honour which is shown them is referred to the prototypes which those images represent; in such wise that by the images which we kiss, and before which we uncover the head, and prostrate ourselves, we adore Christ; and we venerate the saints, whose similitude they bear: as, by the decrees of Councils, and especially of the second Synod of Nicaea, has been defined against the opponents of images. . . .

And if any abuses have crept in amongst these holy and salutary observances, the holy Synod ardently desires that they be utterly abolished; in such wise that no images, (suggestive) of false doctrine, and furnishing occasion of dangerous error to the uneducated, be set up. And if at times, when expedient for the unlettered people; it happen that the facts and narratives of sacred Scripture are portrayed and represented; the people shall be taught, that not thereby is the Divinity represented, as though it could be seen by the eyes of the body, or be portrayed by colours or figures.

Moreover, in the invocation of saints, the veneration of relics, and the sacred use of images, every superstition shall be removed, all filthy lucre be abolished; finally, all lasciviousness be avoided; in such wise that figures shall not be painted or adorned with a beauty exciting to lust; nor the celebration of the saints, and the visitation of relics be by any perverted into revellings and drunkenness; as if festivals are celebrated to the honour of the saints by luxury and wantonness.

In fine, let so great care and diligence be used herein by bishops, as that there be nothing seen that is disorderly, or that is unbecomingly or confusedly arranged, nothing that is profane, nothing indecorous, seeing that holiness becometh the house of God.

Thanks to Gavin for posting these statements. Saved me the trouble! He does protest in the video that Trent said nothing about “veneration.” It didn’t need to, since such veneration of holy objects and holy persons is expressly biblical; so is bowing before them, as I have massively shown above. Gavin’s argument then needs to shift to showing how all these biblical indications are not as I have claimed. Best wishes in that endeavor! If you find yourself fighting against the Bible, it’s time to change your view. That’s not a good place to be.

He repeatedly asks where we should draw the line between a proper use of relics and a corrupt, idolatrous one. Well, he already said it (and we fully agree): if they become idols in place of God or are used for financial gain, or are thought to be magic charms (superstition), that’s wrong, and the line has been crossed. The understanding of them has to be sacramental and incarnational, and grounded in a proper biblical understanding of the veneration of saints.

Superstition and idolatry are — like lust or pride or greed — erroneous and wicked attitudes that reside in someone’s heart. We don’t usually know if this is what they are thinking simply by observing outward actions. Two people could be bowing before a relic. One is in fact (if we knew their inner attitude) viewing it as a charm or an idol, and is gravely sinning. The other is venerating it, which is perfectly biblical and Catholic. So the lines are difficult to determine, based on these inherently subjective factors. It’s not a simple matter.

For example, the whole distinction: first-class, second-class, third-class relics; that takes time to develop. You really don’t see second-class relics early on. That’s like more 4th or 5th century. Early on it’s just first-class relics. [16:20-34]

Why is this considered problematic, seeing that all doctrines took time to develop? The canon of the Bible was only finally determined at the end of the 4th century. The doctrines of Christology and trinitarianism kept developing several centuries after that. Educated Protestants (including Gavin ) know this. So why do they make exceptions to the general rule, simply because they disagree with a given doctrine? But I contend that this understanding was early in the sense that it was in the Bible. I showed that above. I’ll repeat it again, reworded a bit:

Elisha’s bones were a “first-class” relic: from the person himself or herself. “Second-class” relics are items that have power because they were connected with a holy person. Elijah’s mantle and St. Peter’s shadow are biblical examples of that. The third-class relic is something that has merely touched a holy person or first-class relic. Handkerchiefs that had touched St. Paul fit that bill. Just because the specific terminology isn’t there doesn’t mean that the concepts are not. The word “Trinity” is not a biblical one, either. So what? The concept and the truthfulness of that doctrine is taught in the Bible.

My wedding ring is massively a third-class relic, seeing that it touched a hundred holy things in the Holy Land in 2014.

Likewise, he says that bowing to relics didn’t happen in the second century. It didn’t have to, and we wouldn’t expect it to. It was already in effect contained in the Bible, as I have shown.

In Holy Scripture, there’s really nothing exactly like a contemporary Catholic practice of relics. [20:03-10]

I vigorously disagree, and I think I have made a very robust case from Scripture (seen above and in many other articles of mine): infinitely more in-depth than, for example, the typical Protestant desperate attempt to locate sola Scriptura in the Bible (where “the emperor is naked” was never more apt in description). I challenge Gavin or anyone else to grapple with what I have brought to the table. The discussion is not complete until that is done.

Gavin (with just seven minutes to go in his video) does finally mention some Catholic evidences for relics: Peter’s shadow, Paul’s handkerchiefs, the body of Elisha, but (disappointingly) immediately dismisses them and says (rather astonishingly to me) that they have little connection to Catholic beliefs and practices regarding relics. Dismissal is not an argument; it’s merely a declarative statement, sans argument. So I hope he will interact with this reply.

He says that in the Bible, people didn’t collect and venerate bones; they simply buried people. But of course, a proper burial is honoring a  person, and visiting gravesites (as every Protestant has done) is not wholly unlike giving homage to holy persons and saints and making pilgrimages to their gravesites or relics connected with them. This is nowhere more evident than in the extreme reverence that Jews to this day give to gravesites of their heroes of the faith. I observed this firsthand in Israel in 2014 at Rachel’s tomb and King David’s. These are very holy places, and they are acting just as their ancestors did.

He brings up Elisha’s bones and makes the point that it was a one-time occurrence and that it was not imitated, at least in the earlier centuries. Again, this is to be expected. A full understanding of many doctrines (and even of the canon of Scripture) habitually took several centuries. And it is also expected that there will be corruptions (as with everything else) when the more fully developed doctrine is in place many centuries later. The history of the human race is a record of continual flourishing, decay and corruption, and then revival. Christians do this just like everyone else does, because we are fallen sinners like everyone else.

The cogent point with Elisha is that the underlying principle is supported: items from the body of holy persons or connected with them in some fashion have power and convey grace. This was true in this instance, and with Elijah’s mantle, and Peter’s shadow and Paul’s handkerchiefs, and Gavin has not given us any reason to doubt this. It’s also indirectly supported in many ways by Jesus using saliva to heal people, touching them, having the hem of His garment touched, bringing about healing, etc. There was almost always physicality. He didn’t usually just proclaim the healing:

Matthew 9:25 . . . he went in and took her by the hand, and the girl arose [from the dead]. (cf. Mk 5:41)

Matthew 20:34 And Jesus in pity touched their eyes, and immediately they received their sight and followed him.

Mark 1:31 And he came and took her by the hand and lifted her up, and the fever left her; . . .

Luke 8:46 But Jesus said, “Some one touched me; for I perceive that power has gone forth from me.”

Luke 22:51 . . . And he touched his ear and healed him.

This is the other underlying premise: sacramentalism in conjunction with the incarnation. Matter can and does convey God’s grace. It does so in baptism, Holy Communion, and in many other ways. It was the same with the apostles:

Acts 5:12 Now many signs and wonders were done among the people by the hands of the apostles. . . .

Acts 19:6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Spirit came on them; and they spoke with tongues and prophesied.

Acts 19:11 And God did extraordinary miracles by the hands of Paul,

If relics (in their practice) are so unbiblical, why is it that God commanded manna (a second-class relic of God Himself, so to speak) to be kept?:

Exodus 16:32-34 And Moses said, “This is what the LORD has commanded: `Let an omer of it be kept throughout your generations, that they may see the bread with which I fed you in the wilderness, when I brought you out of the land of Egypt.'” [33] And Moses said to Aaron, “Take a jar, and put an omer of manna in it, and place it before the LORD, to be kept throughout your generations.” [34] As the LORD commanded Moses, so Aaron placed it before the testimony, to be kept.

Why? What was the purpose? Why wasn’t the written biblical record enough? Why did God also command Moses to keep Aaron’s staff (Num 17:10), to also be kept in the ark? That was a second-class relic of Aaron. Both, along with the tablets of the Ten Commandments (a second-class relic of Moses), were kept in the ark of the covenant, which we have seen was regarded as a great aid in prayer, praise, petitions to God, and the holiest item in the Jewish religion, just as the Wailing Wall is today, because it was connected with the temple; and they pray there as a result and believe that the prayers will be especially efficacious. I was honored and privileged to do the same.

He notes that human being tend to become idolaters. The solution to that is to reform hearts and transform souls by the power of God, prayer, grace, and conversion of heart. The answer is not to eliminate every practice that might produce idolatry in such people. Lots of people make the Bible an idol, or find doctrines in it that simply aren’t there. Does that mean we get rid of the Bible, which arguably “caused” all the false doctrines floating around? No, we correct and educate such people and push them in the right direction.

It’s no different in Protestantism. Sola fide (faith alone) is sadly all too often corrupted into antinomianism. Love of the Bible becomes bibliolatry or a radical Bible Alone position. Private judgment devolves into rampant sectarianism and denominationalism. The various denominations don’t teach these things, but they are rampant “on the ground”: just as Gavin repeatedly says about Catholicism and relics. How are they solved? By getting rid of justification by faith or the Bible or the Protestant principle of private judgment? No; that’s no solution to anything. It’s by proper understanding and teaching folks who have gone astray within a given worldview. We don’t throw the baby out with the bathwater. We reform the practice and foster a right understanding of the essential meaning underneath and behind it.

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Photo credit: Relic of St. Clare of Assisi; photograph by Judy Flores Partlow, 18 April 2012 [Flickr / CC BY 2.0 license]

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Summary: Baptist pastor Gavin Ortlund provides a critique of the Catholic practice of venerating relics, concentrating on agreed-with corruptions. I give a ton of Bible proofs.

2022-04-29T16:48:44-04:00

Gavin Ortlund is an author, speaker, and apologist for the Christian faith, who serves as the senior pastor of First Baptist Church of Ojai in Ojai, California. Gavin has a Ph.D. from Fuller Theological Seminary in historical theology, and an M.Div from Covenant Theological Seminary. He is the author of seven books as well as numerous academic and popular articles. For a list of publications, see his CV. He runs the YouTube channel Truth Unites, which seeks to provide an irenic voice on theology, apologetics, and the Christian life.

I greatly admire and appreciate what Gavin describes as his “irenic” (or what I often call an “ecumenical”) methodology, and viewpoint. It’s extremely refreshing to hear in this age which is so hyper-polarized. He is an exemplary Christian role model of this open-minded, charitable approach. We all learn and “win” when good, constructive dialogue takes place. It’s never a “loss” to arrive at more truth or to recognize one’s own error.

*****

This is a response to Gavin’s video, “Did Augustine Affirm Sola Scriptura?” (11-8-21). His words will be in blue and I will provide minute markers with his comments. St. Augustine’s words will be in green. I know that several Catholics have responded to this video in other videos and that Gavin has in turn responded to “critics” (11-14-21) and “Lofton and Little” (11-26-21). I haven’t viewed any of these other videos, so I don’t know how they made their cases, and my answers are completely my own.

I’m “late to the game” in replying to videos, since I am solely a writer (apart from some 25 radio interviews). I’ll take a look (in another reply) at Gavin’s replies to others after I am done with my own critique, to see if they have any bearing on my arguments, so that I will have then responded to all the arguments he brings to the table.

I can draw from the abundance of resources on the topic that have already been compiled as part of the book I edited in 2012: The Quotable Augustine: Distinctively Catholic Elements in His Theology. I think that will likely make my citation of St. Augustine a little more extensive than other Catholics who have responded. The hardest, most time-consuming work’s been done and I don’t have to go searching for relevant citations now.

Let’s revisit, as a preliminary, Gavin’s definition of sola Scriptura, from his video, “Sola Scriptura DEFENDED” (12-15-20), so that we are clear about what we are debating:

Sola Scriptura has always been maintained as the view that the Bible is the only infallible rule for theology. . . . There’s a big difference in saying that the Bible is the only source for theology, and  saying the Bible is the only infallible source for theology. . . . The Scripture is is the final court of appeal: the norming norm that norms all other norms but is not normed itself. [between 7:11 and 9:35, with my own bolding, to highlight his central point]

If the Bible is regarded as the only infallible rule, source, or norm for theology, and the final court of appeal, then it inexorably follows from logic that nothing else can function as that. Thus, if a Church father is said to espouse sola Scriptura, by definition, he cannot simultaneously believe in instances of infallibility or what might be called “binding, sublime authority” deriving from the Church, sacred tradition, ecumenical councils, individual bishops, the papacy, or apostolic succession. Gavin expresses this “negative” claim of sola Scriptura by saying, “there’s nothing infallible in tradition” [3:07-3:11]. Moreover, a Church father might be very explicit about Scriptural authority and virtually claim what Gavin has: all except for the exclusivist word “only”. He could state that Scripture is an infallible rule, source, standard, or norm for theology, and even the final court of appeal, and that it is inspired and God’s revelation.

Catholics agree with all of that (no Catholic denies that Scripture is uniquely inspired revelation), and so none of it is proof of an advocacy of sola Scriptura as the rule of faith (in the Protestant understanding), unless the same father expresses it in a way that excludes the infallible authority of the Church, sacred tradition, ecumenical councils, individual bishops, the papacy, or apostolic succession. If a father affirms that any of those non-scriptural things are infallible, then he doesn’t believe in sola Scriptura: period; full stop. He believes in the Catholic “three-legged stool” rule of faith. These are the factors that Protestant apologists almost always neglect to consider in their analyses of the Church fathers and what they believed about the rule of faith.

The previous two paragraphs are key and absolutely crucial for the reader to understand my methodology below. Anyone who is unclear as to my meaning should read them again. All I’m doing is accepting the common definition of sola Scriptura and noting what necessarily follows from it, which is perfectly proper and on-point. I don’t know how many other Catholics and/or Orthodox apologists have used this particular approach to this topic (surely some, if not most), but I have for at least twenty years now. Some of the others may have even derived it from my past writings.

I’m gonna argue that Augustine is very resonant with the idea of sola Scriptura. . . . Augustine couldn’t have been clearer in advocating principles that are basically synonymous with what we call sola Scriptura. [0:03-1:09]

He says he will produce three passages in order to prove his contentions, and stresses that he has not taken anything out of context. He again defines sola Scriptura:

Sola Scriptura is the claim that the Scriptures are the only infallible rule for Christian faith and practice. . . . There is a place for tradition. Creeds and councils can even be binding and authoritative, but all that comes subsequent to the Scripture is reformable in light of Scripture. So there’s nothing infallible in tradition. That is the point of contrast. [2:41-3:12; my bolding; italicized emphases are his own]

Gavin gently complains that with regard to the matter of sola Scriptura, Protestants are routinely caricatured, set up as a straw man”. I agree. I do my best to represent their views with minute accuracy. The definition he presents for sola Scriptura is one I have agreed with for over thirty years, and indeed, was the one I had as an evangelical Protestant and already an apologist (and passionate supporter of the principle at that time).

So I have not misrepresented Protestantism on this score. I know the view from my own experiences as a Protestant apologist and in the course of debating it for 26 years online. But I recognize that too many Catholics (including credentialed apologists) have done that, and that it’s wrong and should be corrected, with retractions and apologies where necessary. We mustn’t misrepresent anyone’s views. That is bearing false witness, and if we know better, it’s dishonest.

What people do is they define sola Scriptura based upon its street-level practice rather than based upon its official expressions. [3:41-3:51]

This is exactly right and a very important point. I had precisely this dispute a few years ago with a fellow Catholic apologist, whom I contended was doing this very thing. I agreed with this faulty tendency in a broader sense in my first reply to Gavin yesterday:

The massive ignorance of the populace in all Christian communions is the reason why we can — in doing apologetics and debates — only compare the “books” of one view with the books (confessions, creeds, catechisms) of another. We can always find bad examples on all sides, but we can’t base any sort of argument on that. We have to know and consult the “official teachings” of any given group.

He made a parallel of looking at examples of some Catholics worshiping Mary and concluding that official Catholic teaching is that Mary should or can be worshiped (which he agreed was not Catholic teaching). He conceded that sola Scriptura is “very routinely practiced poorly or misunderstood by Protestants themselves, but that doesn’t mean we’re not caricaturing when we stray from what the official Protestant teaching is about this.” Again, I couldn’t agree more. Kudos to Gavin for clearly articulating this common error that occurs on all sides, in analyzing other views. It’s a matter of basic fairness, charity, and honesty of presentation.

He then cites Augustine, On Baptism, Against the Donatists, Book II, chapter 3, section 4:

But who can fail to be aware that the sacred canon of Scripture, both of the Old and New Testament, is confined within its own limits, and that it stands so absolutely in a superior position to all later letters of the bishops, that about it we can hold no manner of doubt or disputation whether what is confessedly contained in it is right and true; but that all the letters of bishops which have been written, or are being written, since the closing of the canon, are liable to be refuted if there be anything contained in them which strays from the truth, either by the discourse of some one who happens to be wiser in the matter than themselves, or by the weightier authority and more learned experience of other bishops, by the authority of Councils; and further, that the Councils themselves, which are held in the several districts and provinces, must yield, beyond all possibility of doubt, to the authority of plenary Councils which are formed for the whole Christian world; and that even of the plenary Councils, the earlier are often corrected by those which follow them, when, by some actual experiment, things are brought to light which were before concealed, and that is known which previously lay hid, and this without any whirlwind of sacrilegious pride, . . . 

Respectfully, I don’t think this proves what Gavin thinks it proves at all. The first part is merely expressing the truism that everything in Scripture is true, since it is inspired revelation, and that this can’t be said about any other writing. Every observant traditional Christian agrees, so there is no dispute on that. But it’s beside the point of sola Scriptura, which is not about the higher level of inspiration, but about infallibility. Theoretically (and this is the relevant point of contention), non-scriptural entities may possibly be infallible, too, while not inspired.

Protestants say this isn’t the case; Catholics and Orthodox claim that it is. And that’s the dispute. The fact that anything is wrong if it is contrary to Holy Scripture is something we all agree with. It’s perfectly consistent with the Catholic rule of faith, which holds that all true doctrines are and must be in harmony with Scripture. But this view is itself not sola Scriptura and so, has no bearing on that discussion.

The latter half of the quotation actually — I humbly submit — strongly supports the Catholic view and refutes sola Scriptura, because he’s saying that if something is wrong in “letters” by bishops, it can be corrected not only by Scripture, but also “by the weightier authority and more learned experience of other bishops, by the authority of Councils.” Local councils “must yield, beyond all possibility of doubt, to the authority of plenary Councils which are formed for the whole Christian world.”

That’s Catholic authority, folks, not Protestant: which would say that Scripture is the sole infallible entity that corrects theological errors. Councils might rightly do so (if they are in line with Scripture), so says Protestantism, but the Protestant denies that they are infallible, so they could always be wrong, too, in the final analysis.

Sometimes later councils correct earlier ones when doctrines or aspects of them “previously lay hid.” This is St. Augustine asserting development of doctrine: which Protestants sometimes claim was invented out of whole cloth in the 19th century for the purpose of special pleading and rationalizing Church history, by St. John Henry Cardinal Newman. But this is not true at all, as I have massively documented. St. Vincent of Lerins, St. Augustine, St. Thomas Aquinas, and many others wrote about development long before Cardinal Newman ever did.

Conclusion: nothing in the above citation proves that Augustine held to sola Scriptura. To the contrary, I think it pretty much proves that he didn’t. Gavin notes that Augustine thought ecumenical councils could possibly err. But again, this is not controversial. No Catholic thinker or scholar denies that this can take place, not just in theory but in fact.

The issue is not that councils never err, or are never corrected by future councils, but rather, whether they are ever (i.e., sometimes) infallible under certain conditions. We don’t hold that all utterances of all ecumenical councils are infallible. The levels of authority is a very complex, nuanced aspect of Catholic ecclesiology, that I have written about. This being the case, what St. Augustine noted is a ho-hum for Catholics and no refutation of our view; nor is it proof that he believed in sola Scriptura.

Gavin then cites as his second example from St. Augustine, Reply to Faustus (Book XI, 5):

As regards our writings, which are not a rule of faith or practice, but only a help to edification, we may suppose that they contain some things falling short of the truth in obscure and recondite matters, and that these mistakes may or may not be corrected in subsequent treatises. For we are of those of whom the apostle says: “And if you be otherwise minded, God shall reveal even this unto you.” [Philippians 3:15] Such writings are read with the right of judgment, and without any obligation to believe. In order to leave room for such profitable discussions of difficult questions, there is a distinct boundary line separating all productions subsequent to apostolic times from the authoritative canonical books of the Old and New Testaments.

Gavin notes that Augustine stated that there can be errors in non-biblical writings (of course!), but that there is no errors in the Bible. I totally agree, which is why I have sent much of the last year refuting alleged biblical “contradictions” brought up by atheists, and hope to make a future book out of those replies. Again, Gavin neglects to see that infallibility of tradition or Church or ecumenical councils obtains only in carefully specified conditions, and is not applicable without such limitations or qualifications. This understood, Augustine’s statement is a non-controversial truism, and again not relevant to the dispute about sola Scriptura‘s truth or falsity.

Moreover, the meaning of the above also hinges upon what Augustine means by “our writings.” To whom is he referring? As best I can make out, he seems to be referring to bishops like himself, or perhaps clerics in general. But he may simply mean all non-biblical writings. Catholics don’t hold that individual bishops or Church fathers or saints possess infallibility: up to and including the most eminent Doctors of the Church, like St. Thomas Aquinas. Augustine may simply be expressing the same sentiment. We hold only that bishops in concert in an ecumenical council — as accepted by the pope — can be infallible under certain specified conditions, and that popes can unilaterally do so under very precise particular conditions and circumstances.

So again, the proper question is whether councils and tradition or popes can ever be infallible at any time. Gavin has denied that this could be the case, as to tradition (“there’s nothing infallible in tradition”), and surely he would make the same negative assertion about any other non-biblical authority. Protestants are also under an obligation to understand how Catholic authority and the Catholic rule of faith operate; just as we must not misrepresent their views as to the rule of faith.

His third example is Augustine’s Letter 82 to Jerome (from 405), chapter 1, section 3.

I have learned to yield this respect and honour only to the canonical books of Scripture: of these alone do I most firmly believe that the authors were completely free from error. And if in these writings I am perplexed by anything which appears to me opposed to truth, I do not hesitate to suppose that either the manuscript is faulty, or the translator has not caught the meaning of what was said, or I myself have failed to understand it. As to all other writings, in reading them, however great the superiority of the authors to myself in sanctity and learning, I do not accept their teaching as true on the mere ground of the opinion being held by them; but only because they have succeeded in convincing my judgment of its truth either by means of these canonical writings themselves, or by arguments addressed to my reason.

This is simply a variation of the argument Augustine made in the other two citations: only Scripture is completely free from error; always infallible. Nothing else is. And again, I say, Catholics agree. Nothing else is inspired or always infallible, but some things are sometimes infallible: contrary to Gavin’s view and sola Scriptura. (and I will show at length that Augustine believes that). What Augustine says right after this portion shows that what he means is in complete accord with the Catholic view:

I believe, my brother, that this is your own opinion as well as mine. I do not need to say that I do not suppose you to wish your books to be read like those of prophets or of apostles, concerning which it would be wrong to doubt that they are free from error. Far be such arrogance from that humble piety and just estimate of yourself which I know you to have, and without which assuredly you would not have said, Would that I could receive your embrace, and that by converse we might aid each other in learning!

Exactly! Neither Augustine, nor Jerome, great as they were, would ever claim that their writings were on the error-free level of “those of prophets or of apostles.” And that is Catholic teaching. We agree that their writings are not of that nature and that only bishops in an ecumenical council, in agreement with the pope, and under certain conditions, can claim infallibility as a collective, and that only a pope can do so by himself, at times (not all the time!). But again, this doesn’t touch upon the truth or falsity of sola Scriptura at all.

But note something else interesting here, that suggests Augustine does (at least possibly) in this larger passage grant infallibility to non-biblical persons. Prophets and apostles wrote a lot of Scripture, and so partook of its gift of inspiration and infallibility from God. But not all utterances of all prophets and apostles is contained in Scripture. The question then becomes, for example: “if someone heard a talk from Paul one night [none of which was recorded in the Bible] would it be an infallible talk?”

I would say that at least some of it would or could be. Augustine simply noted that prophets and apostles were “free from error.” He may have simply meant “biblical writings.” I don’t know. But I think my speculation is permissible and possible as an interpretation. We know that Augustine accepted extra-biblical traditions (e.g., infant baptism) that were passed down through apostolic succession.

“Prophets” are also a New Testament office that the Apostle Paul seems to intend were to continue in perpetuity in the Church. I commented on this at length in a reply to the late Dr. Greg Bahnsen. He had asked:

Now when contemporary Roman Catholic apologists look at II Thessalonians 2:15 and say, “We’re bound to follow the traditions, oral as well as written,” my response to that is not only are oral and written two different ways of saying the same thing; but my response to that is simply, I’m under obligation to listen to the oral teaching of the Apostles; you’re absolutely right, and they’re not around any more! And you know, catch up with what’s happening in the Church, friend — we don’t have Apostles today! Where do you get the idea — even on your misreading of this verse — where do you get the idea that the authority of the Apostles in oral instruction has passed on to other people?
And so I replied:
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The Bible actually teaches that the apostles didn’t cease. But Catholics interpret this as teaching that they continue in the person of the bishops (Acts 1:16-26). Paul shows no sense of the cessation of apostles in these passages:
1 Corinthians 12:28-29 (RSV) And God has appointed in the church first apostles, second prophets, third teachers, then workers of miracles, then healers, helpers, administrators, speakers in various kinds of tongues. [29] Are all apostles? Are all prophets? Are all teachers? Do all work miracles?
Ephesians 4:11-12 And his gifts were that some should be apostles, some prophets, some evangelists, some pastors and teachers, [12] to equip the saints for the work of ministry, for building up the body of Christ,
Note how “prophets” are also included in both passages, alongside “apostles” and in the same list with categories like teachers, administrators, tongues-speakers, helpers, evangelists, and pastors. If all those offices haven’t ceased, why would we think the office of apostles would? The New Testament continues to refer to existing prophets:
Acts 11:27-30 Now in these days prophets came down from Jerusalem to Antioch. [28] And one of them named Ag’abus stood up and foretold by the Spirit that there would be a great famine over all the world; and this took place in the days of Claudius. [29] And the disciples determined, every one according to his ability, to send relief to the brethren who lived in Judea; [30] and they did so, sending it to the elders by the hand of Barnabas and Saul.
Acts 21:10-11 While we were staying for some days, a prophet named Ag’abus came down from Judea. [11] And coming to us he took Paul’s girdle and bound his own feet and hands, and said, “Thus says the Holy Spirit, `So shall the Jews at Jerusalem bind the man who owns this girdle and deliver him into the hands of the Gentiles.'”
The authority of this prophet Agabus (backed up by “the Spirit”) was so acknowledged, that (in Acts 11) “the disciples” accepted it, as did Paul and Barnabas: through whom relief was sent, following the prophet’s prediction of famine. This was not Holy Scripture. It’s an oral proclamation from a prophet, led by the Holy Spirit, which was accepted and acted upon. And this is after the Church had begun at Pentecost. He then prophesied to St. Paul himself, saying, “Thus says the Holy Spirit” and Paul fully accepts it. This is, again, non-biblical and non-apostolic (and oral, not written) infallibility: utterly contrary to sola Scriptura.
Acts 13:1 Now in the church at Antioch there were prophets and teachers, Barnabas, Simeon who was called Niger, Lucius of Cyre’ne, Man’a-en a member of the court of Herod the tetrarch, and Saul.
Acts 15:32 And Judas and Silas, who were themselves prophets, exhorted the brethren with many words and strengthened them. (cf. Lk 2:36)
Paul matter-of-factly refers to the continuing existence of “prophetic powers” (1 Cor 13:2), and even “revelation” in the following passage (and related ones noted at the end), which has frequent reference to prophets, prophecies, and prophesying:
1 Corinthians 14:26, 29-32, 37, 39 What then, brethren? When you come together, each one has a hymn, a lesson, a revelation, a tongue, or an interpretation. Let all things be done for edification. . . . [29] Let two or three prophets speak, and let the others weigh what is said. [30] If a revelation is made to another sitting by, let the first be silent. [31] For you can all prophesy one by one, so that all may learn and all be encouraged; [32] and the spirits of prophets are subject to prophets. . . . [37] If any one thinks that he is a prophet, or spiritual, he should acknowledge that what I am writing to you is a command of the Lord. . . . [39] So, my brethren, earnestly desire to prophesy, and do not forbid speaking in tongues; (cf. 14:1, 3-5, 24; 1 Thess 5:20)
And there are several others as well:
Ephesians 3:4-5 When you read this you can perceive my insight into the mystery of Christ, [5] which was not made known to the sons of men in other generations as it has now been revealed to his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit;
1 Timothy 1:18 This charge I commit to you, Timothy, my son, in accordance with the prophetic utterances which pointed to you, that inspired by them you may wage the good warfare,
1 Timothy 4:14 Do not neglect the gift you have, which was given you by prophetic utterance when the council of elders laid their hands upon you.
Revelation 11:3, 6, 10 And I will grant my two witnesses power to prophesy for one thousand two hundred and sixty days, clothed in sackcloth.” . . . [6] They have power to shut the sky, that no rain may fall during the days of their prophesying, and they have power over the waters to turn them into blood, and to smite the earth with every plague, as often as they desire. . . . [10] . . . these two prophets had been a torment to those who dwell on the earth. (cf. 10:11)
Acts 19:6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Spirit came on them; and they spoke with tongues and prophesied.
Acts 21:9 And he had four unmarried daughters, who prophesied.
1 Corinthians 11:4-5 Any man who prays or prophesies with his head covered dishonors his head, [5] but any woman who prays or prophesies with her head unveiled dishonors her head — it is the same as if her head were shaven.
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That’s a lot of profound non-apostolic, compelling, infallible authority to completely overlook in Holy Scripture, isn’t it? And by an educated Bible scholar at that . . .
Gavin also cites St. John Chrysostom later in the video. Rather than address that in this context (I have written about his views on this, three times [one / two / three]), I’ll direct readers to another statement of his on the rule of faith:
“So then, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye were taught, whether by word, or by Epistle of ours.”Hence it is manifest, that they did not deliver all things by Epistle, but many things also unwritten, and in like manner both the one and the other are worthy of credit. Therefore let us think the tradition of the Church also worthy of credit. It is a tradition, seek no farther. (On Second Thessalonians, Homily IV)
This concludes my response to Gavin’s three arguments for why he thinks that Augustine held to sola Scriptura. I have shown why I don’t agree. Now I will provide citations from St. Augustine that suggest his belief in the infallibility (at times!) of other things besides Holy Scripture. The burden on the Protestant who cares to pursue the dialogue this far is to variously explain the following quotations, in the way I did with the three Gavin presented.
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The Catholic Church

*

This same is the holy Church, the one Church, the true Church, the catholic Church, fighting against all heresies: fight, it can: be fought down, it cannot. (Cat.Creed, 14)

For in the belly of the Church truth abides. Whosoever from this belly of the Church separated shall have been, must needs speak false things: . . . (E.Ps., 58:3 [58, 5] )

[S]ound doctrine, which alone is Catholic, . . . (C.Faust. xx, 23)

[T]hey introduced into their writings certain matters which are condemned at once by the catholic and apostolic rule of faith, and by sound doctrine. (Harm.G. i, 1, 2)

But if, on the other hand, he has fallen upon the productions of some heretic and in ignorance, it may be, has retained in his mind anything which the true faith condemns, and yet supposes it to be catholic doctrine, then we must set ourselves sedulously to teach him, bringing before him (in its rightful superiority) the authority of the Church universal, . . . (Cat.U., 8, 12)

But the right faith of the Catholic Church rejects such a fiction, and perceives it to be a devilish doctrine: . . . Let us therefore reject this kind of error, which the Holy Church has anathematized from the beginning. (L.John, 34, 2)

It is plain, the faith admits it, the Catholic Church approves it, it is truth. (Serm., 67, 6 [CXVII] )

[W]ith all earnestness, and with all prayers, and lastly with groans, or even, if so it may be, with tears, you entreat of God to set you free from the evil of error; if your heart be set on a happy life. And this will take place the more easily, if you obey with a willing mind His commands, which He has willed should be confirmed by so great authority of the Catholic Church. (Believ., 33)

But those reasons which I have here given, I have either gathered from the authority of the church, according to the tradition of our forefathers, or from the testimony of the divine Scriptures, . . . No sober person will decide against reason, no Christian against the Scriptures, no peaceable person against the church. (Trin. iv, 6, 10)

The latter class, indeed, by examining the Scriptures, and considering the authority of the whole Church as well as the form of the sacrament itself, have clearly seen that by baptism remission of sins accrues to infants . . . (Sin.I.Bapt. i, 64)

But this I say, that according to the Holy Scriptures original sin is so manifest, and that this is put away in infants by the laver of regeneration is confirmed by such antiquity and authority of the catholic faith, notorious by such a clear concurrent testimony of the Church, that what is argued by the inquiry or affirmation of anybody concerning the origin of the soul, if it is contrary to this, cannot be true. (C.Ep.Pel. iii, 26 [X] )

Sacred Tradition
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As to those other things which we hold on the authority, not of Scripture, but of tradition, and which are observed throughout the whole world, it may be understood that they are held as approved and instituted either by the apostles themselves, or by plenary Councils, whose authority in the Church is most useful, e.g. the annual commemoration, by special solemnities, of the Lord’s passion, resurrection, and ascension, and of the descent of the Holy Spirit from heaven, and whatever else is in like manner observed by the whole Church wherever it has been established. (Ep. 54 [1, 1]: to Januarius [400] )

[H]e cannot quote a decisive passage on the subject from the Book of God; nor can he prove his opinion to be right by the unanimous voice of the universal Church . . . (Ep. 54 [4, 5]: to Januarius [400] )

[T]he question which you propose is not decided either by Scripture or by universal practice. (Ep. 54 [5, 6]: to Januarius [400] )

. . . moved, not indeed by the authority of any plenary or even regionary Council, but by a mere epistolary correspondence, to think that they ought to adopt a custom which had no sanction from the ancient custom of the Church, and which was expressly forbidden by the most unanimous resolution of the Catholic world . . . (Bapt., iii, 2, 2)

And this is the firm tradition of the universal Church, in respect of the baptism of infants . . . (Bapt., iv, 23, 31)

[W]hat is held by the whole Church, . . . as a matter of invariable custom, is rightly held to have been handed down by authority, . . . (Bapt., iv, 24, 32)

Whence, however, was this derived, but from that primitive, as I suppose, and apostolic tradition, by which the Churches of Christ maintain it to be an inherent principle, that without baptism and partaking of the supper of the Lord it is impossible for any man to attain either to the kingdom of God or to salvation and everlasting life? So much also does Scripture testify, according to the words which we already quoted. (Sin.I.Bapt. i, 34 [XXIV] )

The very sacraments indeed of the Church, which she administers with due ceremony, according to the authority of very ancient tradition . . . (Grace.Orig. ii, 45)

And this custom, coming, I suppose, from tradition (like many other things which are held to have been handed down under their actual sanction, because they are preserved throughout the whole Church, though they are not found either in their letters, or in the Councils of their successors), . . . (Bapt., ii, 7, 12)

For if none have baptism who entertain false views about God, it has been proved sufficiently, in my opinion, that this may happen even within the Church. “The apostles,” indeed, “gave no injunctions on the point;” but the custom, which is opposed to Cyprian, may be supposed to have had its origin in apostolic tradition, just as there are many things which are observed by the whole Church, and therefore are fairly held to have been enjoined by the apostles, which yet are not mentioned in their writings. (Bapt., v, 23, 31)

Ecumenical Councils
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Nor should we ourselves venture to assert anything of the kind, were we not supported by the unanimous authority of the whole Church, to which he himself [St. Cyprian] would unquestionably have yielded, if at that time the truth of this question [rebaptism] had been placed beyond dispute by the investigation and decree of a plenary Council. (Bapt., ii, 4, 5)

*

[S]ubsequently that ancient custom was confirmed by the authority of a plenary Council . . . (Bapt., iv, 5, 8)

. . . sufficiently manifest to the pastors of the Catholic Church dispersed over the whole world, through whom the original custom was afterwards confirmed by the authority of a plenary Council . . . (Bapt., vi, 1, 1)

My opinion therefore is, that wherever it is possible, all those things should be abolished without hesitation, which neither have warrant in Holy Scripture, nor are found to have been appointed by councils of bishops, nor are confirmed by the practice of the universal Church, . . . (Ep. 55 [19, 35]: to Januarius [400] )

And let any one, who is led by the past custom of the Church, and by the subsequent authority of a plenary Council, and by so many powerful proofs from holy Scripture, and by much evidence from Cyprian himself, and by the clear reasoning of truth, to understand that the baptism of Christ, consecrated in the words of the gospel, cannot be perverted by the error of any man on earth . . . (Bapt., v, 4, 4)

The Papacy / Primacy of Peter and the Roman See

For if the lineal succession of bishops is to be taken into account, with how much more certainty and benefit to the Church do we reckon back till we reach Peter himself, to whom, as bearing in a figure the whole Church, the Lord said: “Upon this rock will I build my Church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it!” [Matthew 16:18] The successor of Peter was Linus, and his successors in unbroken continuity were these:— Clement, Anacletus, Evaristus, Alexander, Sixtus, Telesphorus, Iginus, Anicetus, Pius, Soter, Eleutherius, Victor, Zephirinus, Calixtus, Urbanus, Pontianus, Antherus, Fabianus, Cornelius, Lucius, Stephanus, Xystus, Dionysius, Felix, Eutychianus, Gaius, Marcellinus, Marcellus, Eusebius, Miltiades, Sylvester, Marcus, Julius, Liberius, Damasus, and Siricius, whose successor is the present Bishop Anastasius. In this order of succession no Donatist bishop is found. (Ep. 53 [1, 2]: from Augustine, Fortunatus, and Alypius to Generosus [400] )

Peter is the Church Herself. (E.Ps., 94:18 [94, 17] )

But that after this sin Peter should become a pastor of the Church was no more improper than that Moses, after smiting the Egyptian, should become the leader of the congregation. (C.Faust. xxii, 70)

I suppose that there is no slight to Cyprian in comparing him with Peter in respect to his crown of martyrdom; rather I ought to be afraid lest I am showing disrespect towards Peter. For who can be ignorant that the primacy of his apostleship is to be preferred to any episcopate whatever? (Bapt., ii, 1, 2)

. . . the Roman Church, in which the supremacy of an apostolic chair [apostolicae cathedrae principatus] has always flourished . . . (Ep. 43 [3, 7]: to Glorius, Eleusius, the Two Felixes, and Grammaticus [397] )

For already have two councils on this question been sent to the Apostolic see; and rescripts also have come from thence. The question has been brought to an issue; would that their error may sometime be brought to an issue too! (Serm., 81, 10 [CXXXI] )

I desire with the Lord’s help to use the necessary measures in our Council, and, if it be necessary, to write to the Apostolic See; that, by a unanimous authoritative decision of all, we may have the course which ought to be followed in these cases determined and established. (Ep. 250: to Classicianus [unknown date] )

Apostolic Succession
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[T]hey admit the necessity of baptizing infants—finding themselves unable to contravene that authority of the universal Church, which has been unquestionably handed down by the Lord and His apostles . . . (Sin.I.Bapt. i, 39 [XXVI] )

We, namely, the catholic faith, coming from the doctrine of the apostles planted in us, received by a line of succession, to be transmitted sound to posterity—the catholic faith, I say, has, between both those parties, that is, between both errors, held the truth. (L.John, 37, 6)

Now who is there that would not be afraid, from the voice of God through the Apostles, the voice of God through the Scriptures, through His clouds? (E.Ps., 104:7 [104, 7] )

The authority of our books, which is confirmed by the agreement of so many nations, supported by a succession of apostles, bishops, and councils, is against you. (C.Faust. xiii, 5)

[I]f you acknowledge the supreme authority of Scripture, you should recognise that authority which from the time of Christ Himself, through the ministry of His apostles, and through a regular succession of bishops in the seats of the apostles, has been preserved to our own day throughout the whole world, with a reputation known to all. There the Old Testament too has its difficulties solved, and its predictions fulfilled. (C.Faust. xxxiii, 9)

[T]his which we hold is the true and truly Christian and catholic faith, as it was delivered of old by the Holy Scriptures, and so retained and kept by our fathers and even to this time, in which these heretics have attempted to destroy it, and as it will hereafter by God’s good will be retained and kept. (C.Ep.Pel. iv, 32 [XII] )

Abbreviations and Links and Dates

400 / 401 Bapt. On Baptism, Against the Donatists (De baptismo) [tr. J. R. King; rev. Chester D. Hartranft; NPNF 1-4]

391 Believ. On the Usefulness of Believing (De utilitate credendi) [tr. C. L. Cornish; NPNF 1-3]

420 C.Ep.Pel. Against Two Letters of the Pelagians (Contra duas epistulas Pelagianorum) [tr. Peter Holmes and Robert E. Wallis, rev. Benjamin B. Warfield; NPNF 1-5]

397-398 C.Faust. Against Faustus the Manichee (Contra Faustum Manichaeum) [tr. Richard Stothert; NPNF 1-4]

393 Cat.Creed Sermon to Catechumens on the Creed [tr. by H. Browne; NPNF 1-3]

400 Cat.U. On Catechizing the Uninstructed (De catechizandis rudibus) [tr. S. D. F. Salmond; NPNF 1-3]

396-420 E.Ps. Explanations of the Psalms (Enarrationes in Psalmos) [tr. J. E. Tweed; NPNF 1-8]

386-429 Ep. [#] Letters (Epistulae) [tr. J. G. Cunningham; NPNF 1-1]

418 Grace.Orig. On the Grace of Christ and on Original Sin (De gratia Christi et de peccato originali) [tr. Peter Holmes and Robert E. Wallis, rev. Benjamin B. Warfield; NPNF 1-5]

400 Harm.G. Harmony of the Gospels(De consensu evangelistarum) [tr. S. D. F. Salmond; NPNF 1-6]

406-430 L.John Lectures on the Gospel of John(In euangelium Ioannis tractatus) [tr. John Gibb; NPNF 1-7]

393-430 Serm. Sermonson the New Testament (Sermones) [tr. R. G. MacMullen; NPNF 1-6]

412 Sin.I.Bapt. On Merit and the Forgiveness of Sins and on Infant Baptism (De peccatorum meritis et remissione et de baptismo parvulorum) [tr. Peter Holmes and Robert E. Wallis, rev. Benjamin B. Warfield; NPNF 1-5]

399-419 Trin. On the Trinity (De trinitate) [tr. Arthur West Haddan; NPNF 1-3]

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Gavin replied to a portion of my argument in his combox:

Dave, thanks for engaging my videos, and for the kind words. I’m reading this post now and I’ll just give a response to your interaction with the first quote.

The contrast here between Scripture and subsequent councils is not, as you say, that the former is merely inspired revelation, but that it alone is infallible. That is explicit in what he says: “that about it we can hold no manner of doubt or disputation whether what is confessedly contained in it is right and true.” He is not talking about biblical inspiration. He is talking about how you can know the bible is true, unlike everything subsequent, which can err. The Scripture is confined in its own limits in this specific sense, per Augustine’s words; not because it alone is inspired, but because it alone must be true.

That is why it is so significant that he includes the “plenary Councils which are formed for the whole Christian world” as those that can err, such that “the earlier are often corrected by those which follow them.” Every time the verb “corrected” appears in the context, it has to do with doctrinal error (e.g., in the next sentence dealing with Cyprian’s error). This is not doctrinal development; this is error needing a correction. Augustine is evidently thinking of the official declaration of the council (hence needing to be corrected by a subsequent, separate council), and Catholic teaching does hold that that is infallible, per Vatican 1. Trying to apply Augustine’s statement to something short of that happening at a council vitiates the whole point of his sentence and would then undermine his originating point at the climactic point (because then the Scripture would no longer be confined within its own limits such that about it alone do we know it’s true).

In terms of Augustine’s views on apostolic succession, tradition, etc. (regarding the quotes you provide at the end), I got into this in my response videos somewhat. The basic point would be these things are not inconsistent with sola Scriptura. E.g., believing in an authoritative council doesn’t mean believing in infallible councils. Or believing in apostolic succession is manifestly not at odds with sola Scriptura. And so forth. They don’t tell you whether the bible alone is infallible. My response to Lofton and Little especially stresses this point.

Anyway, let me know if you watch the later videos (if you have time) and have any further thoughts. Take care and thanks again!

Thanks for your reply (again very quick!).

You make your point vigorously, but I still don’t see it. It remains true that 1) only Scripture is completely error-free, and that 2) nothing else rises to that level. We all agree on that. One can quibble about whether he is referring to inspiration or infallibility, but I don’t think that changes my argument. Catholics don’t think that tradition or councils or papal encyclicals are always infallible everywhere. You seem to be assuming otherwise. If universal infallibility were what we believed about those other things, I’d agree with you, but since we don’t . . .

He’s certainly talking about doctrinal development in the final sentence. That’s what I was referring to. We know that he wrote about development elsewhere; e.g., City of God , Book XVI, ch. 2:

For while the hot restlessness of heretics stirs questions about many articles of the catholic faith, the necessity of defending them forces us both to investigate them more accurately, to understand them more clearly, and to proclaim them more earnestly; and the question mooted by an adversary becomes the occasion of instruction . . .

Likewise, Commentary on Psalm 55 (section 21; I rephrased some things and changed sentence order for syntactical improvement, due to the very awkward, almost unreadable literal translation):

[B]y heretics the Catholic Church has been vindicated, . . . For many things lay hidden in the Scriptures: and when heretics, who had been cut off, troubled the Church of God with questions, then those things which lay hidden were opened, and the will of God was understood . . . Many men that could understand and expound the Scriptures very excellently, were hidden among the people of God, and they did not declare the solution of difficult questions, until a reviler again urged them. For was the doctrine of the Trinity perfectly expounded upon before the Arians snarled at it? Was repentance perfectly treated before the opposition of the Novatians? Likewise, Baptism was not perfectly understood, before rebaptizers from the outside contradicted; nor even the very oneness of Christ . . .

Philip Schaff wrote, accordingly, about Augustine’s views:

Augustine . . . manifestly acknowledges a gradual advancement of the church doctrine, which reaches its corresponding expression from time to time through the general councils; but a progress within the truth, without positive error. (History of the Christian Church, vol. 3: Nicene and Post-Nicene Christianity, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, 1974 [orig. 1910], 344)

Schaff wrote elsewhere:

Within the limits of the Jewish theocracy and Catholic Christianity Augustin admits the idea of historical development or a gradual progress from a lower to higher grades of knowledge, yet always in harmony with Catholic truth. He would not allow revolutions and radical changes or different types of Christianity. “The best thinking” (says Dr. Flint, in his Philosophy of History in Europe, I. 40), “at once the most judicious and liberal, among those who are called the Christian fathers, on the subject of the progress of Christianity as an organization and system, is that of St. Augustin, as elaborated and applied by Vincent of Lerins in his ‘Commonitorium,’ where we find substantially the same conception of the development of the Church and Christian doctrine, which, within the present century, De Maistre has made celebrated in France, Mohler in Germany, and Newman in England. (Editor’s Preface to City of God, 38-volume set of the Church Fathers, December 10, 1886)

I suppose one could interpret all the quotes I compiled in that way, but I don’t find it plausible. And I don’t because it is evident (to me, anyway) that Augustine doesn’t think like a Protestant. He doesn’t “answer” the way a Protestant would. Thus, time and again, when he says an error must be corrected, he doesn’t appeal to Scripture alone, as I think you or most Protestants would, but he includes the church, universal tradition, councils, and apostolic succession. The habitual conclusion of those things proves to my satisfaction that he is indeed thinking in terms of the Catholic “three-legged stool” rule of faith. He doesn’t appear to be assuming that Scripture is the only “final court of appeal” as you put it.

If he is wrong concerning the rule of faith, it causes no harm to Catholicism. He could have been wrong, just as he was on some aspects of predestination, according to our dogma on that. But I don’t think he is wrong. I think it’s just as “clear” that he was thoroughly Catholic in this regard, as you think it couldn’t be clearer in your quotes that he thought more like a proto-Protestant.

My view of Augustine and the rule of faith is not just my own. Several reputable Protestant historians and scholars agree (and I am happy to defer to them as experts; I’m just a lay apologist): Historian Heiko Oberman notes concerning St. Augustine:

Augustine’s legacy to the middle ages on the question of Scripture and Tradition is a two-fold one. In the first place, he reflects the early Church principle of the coinherence of Scripture and Tradition. While repeatedly asserting the ultimate authority of Scripture, Augustine does not oppose this at all to the authority of the Church Catholic . . . The Church has a practical priority: her authority as expressed in the direction-giving meaning of commovere is an instrumental authority, the door that leads to the fullness of the Word itself.

But there is another aspect of Augustine’s thought . . . we find mention of an authoritative extrascriptural oral tradition. While on the one hand the Church “moves” the faithful to discover the authority of Scripture, Scripture on the other hand refers the faithful back to the authority of the Church with regard to a series of issues with which the Apostles did not deal in writing. Augustine refers here to the baptism of heretics . . . (The Harvest of Medieval Theology, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, revised, 1967, 370-371)

J. N. D. Kelly, the great Anglican patristic scholar, wrote:

The three letters [Epistles 175-177] relating to Pelagianism which the African church sent to Innocent I in 416, and of which Augustine was the draughtsman, suggested that he attributed to the Pope a pastoral and teaching authority extending over the whole Church, and found a basis for it in Scripture. (Early Christian Doctrines, San Francisco: Harper & Row, fifth revised edition, 1978, 419)

According to Augustine [De doct. christ. 3,2], its [Scripture’s] doubtful or ambiguous passages need to be cleared up by ‘the rule of faith’; it was, moreover, the authority of the Church alone which in his eyes [C. ep. Manich. 6: cf. De doct. christ. 2,12; c. Faust Manich, 22, 79] guaranteed its veracity.” (Ibid., 47)

Philip Schaff again:

[I]n a certain sense, as against heretics, he made the authority of Holy Scripture dependent on the authority of the catholic church, in his famous dictum against the Manichaean heretics: “I would not believe the gospel, did not the authority of the catholic church compel me.” . . . The Protestant church makes the authority of the general councils, and of all ecclesiastical tradition, depend on the degree of its conformity to the Holy Scriptures; while the Greek and Roman churches make Scripture and tradition coordinate. (History of the Christian Church, vol. 3: Chapter V, section 66, “The Synodical System. The Ecumenical Councils,” 344-345)

He adopted Cyprian’s doctrine of the church, and completed it in the conflict with Donatism by transferring the predicates of unity, holiness, universality, exclusiveness and maternity, directly to the actual church of the time, which, with a firm episcopal organization, an unbroken succession, and the Apostles’ Creed, triumphantly withstood the eighty or the hundred opposing sects in the heretical catalogue of the day, and had its visible centre in Rome. (Schaff, ibid., Chapter X, section 180, “The Influence of Augustine upon Posterity and his Relation to Catholicism and Protestantism,” 1019-1020)

Lutheran Church historian Jaroslav Pelikan concurs with this general assessment of St. Augustine’s views:

This authority of orthodox catholic Christendom . . . was so powerful as even to validate the very authority of the Bible . . . But between the authority of the Bible and the authority of the catholic church (which was present within, but was more than, the authority of its several bishops past and present) there could not in a real sense be any contradiction. Here one could find repose in “the resting place of authority,” [Bapt. 2.8.13] not in the unknown quantity of the company of the elect, but in the institution of salvation that could claim foundation by Christ and succession from the apostles. (The Christian Tradition: A History of the Development of Doctrine: Vol.1 of 5: The Emergence of the Catholic Tradition (100-600), Chicago: Univ. of Chicago Press, 1971, 303-304)

Augustine, writing against the Donatists, had coined the formula, ‘the judgment of the whole world is reliable [securus judicat orbis terrarum].’ [Parm. 3.4.24] Catholicity was a mark both of the true church and of the true doctrine, for these were inseparable.” (Ibid., 334)

So what can I say? If I look over relevant Augustine texts, and — taken cumulatively –, they seem to point to what I recognize as the Catholic rule of faith, and not only that, I find that these great Protestant scholars (Schaff, Kelly, Oberman, and Pelikan) — who can’t be accused of a natural Catholic bias, as I could be — agree with me in their interpretation of all the data, that seems to me compelling. Their job is to summarize what Church fathers held regarding any given doctrine, and this is their judgment. It fits with what I see, and I accept it on their authority and based on a congruence with my own amateur observations and speculations.

One more thing. You wrote: “believing in apostolic succession is manifestly not at odds with sola Scriptura. And so forth. They don’t tell you whether the Bible alone is infallible.” I would say it’s so at odds with sola Scriptura that the Calvinists and most of the Lutherans and certainly the Zwinglians and more radical Anabaptists, etc. all rejected it. I don’t see Protestants today appealing to that, except for perhaps some Anglo-Catholics. It’s simply not on their radar screen. You don’t appeal to it. You act consistently with sola Scriptura: the Bible is always the final norm and appeal.

Augustine and the fathers, generally, on the other hand, don’t approach the issue that way at all. For them, the appeal to apostolic succession and the (somewhat exaggerated language of) the Vincentian canon, “what was always believed everywhere by all . . .” was conclusive in and of itself and especially a “slam dunk” against heretics with no early history at all. It was very useful because the heretics could always come up with heretical interpretations of Scripture, but they couldn’t make up a history that didn’t happen. So for the fathers, appeal to unbroken apostolic succession was usually central to their defenses of orthodoxy.

Thanks for reading all this and interacting! I plan on taking a look at your other two videos tomorrow.

Thanks for the comment Dave! A few replies:

Whether Augustine is talking about inspiration or infallibility is not a quibble. If the scripture were confined to its own limits merely in the sense that it alone is inspired, then your argument would work and that would not be at odds with the Catholic position. But he is saying that the scripture is confined to its own limits in the sense that it alone is infallible. This is the explicit claim of the passage: he locates his contrast between the scripture and subsequent councils on the grounds that former is infallible and the latter are fallible. That is, The Bible must always be true, but in contrast even the plenary councils can err. The passage says nothing about inspiration.

I am not assuming that traditions and councils and papal encyclicals always are infallible, but rather, per Vatican 1, that the official and formal deliverances of ecumenical councils are considered infallible by the Roman Catholic Church. I’ve not had this point contested before by other Catholics. Vatican II has the same understanding. Later magisterial teaching can clarify but not contradict earlier magisterial teaching.

The fact that Augustine believes in some conception of doctrinal development does not mean that the verb “corrected” does not have reference to an error here. In the context, I think it’s obvious that it does. But it sounds like we’ll just have to disagree on that, and that is OK!

I fail to see the relevance of the quotes from Oberman and Schaff and others. They’re basically saying things that are consistent with sola Scruptura, such as the fact that the authority of the church and the authority of Scripture are not at odds with one another. There is no problem for that with sola Scriptura. A real contradiction with sola Scriptura would be if Augustine maintained that the church possessed infallibility in some sense. You were very clear and charitable to define sola Scriptura accurately early on in the post so I don’t really understand this aspect of your response. It sounds like you’re reverting to the claim that sola Scriptura is somehow at odds with authoritative councils. It is not. It is only at odds with infallible councils.

I’ll leave it there for now as I’m at the park watching the kids! Forgive if my comments seem blunt or forceful, I am typing this out by my voice automation so there may be typos as well. Thanks again for the engagement.

Thanks for this reply. At this point, I truly don’t know what else to add or say. We seem to be at a total impasse. Of course, as you know, that’s often what happens, in these discussions of deeply-held beliefs, but we have done it without acrimony and perhaps we have both learned something in the conversation, so that makes it worthwhile. One thing I’ve I’ve learned — though we disagree on this — is that you are a very good debater, and I always respect that because it challenges me (a person who loves debates and challenges both). It’s my honor and privilege to interact with you.

You said somewhere that you hope that at least Catholic viewers can see how someone might take a different view on these matters. I do see that. As I’ve always said, everything goes back to premises, and at some point, people disagree on some premise that they follow. These determine what is built upon them. I think that’s largely what we have in Protestant-Catholic disputes (when examined closely).

The premises split at some point (usually the 1500s) and that in turn caused the two parties to think differently about a lot of things. They may be internally consistent and perfectly honest but arrive at different conclusions because of these different premises. And both sides sincerely, honestly “see” the same things differently: whether in Scripture or patristic quotations. I think our present dialogue shows that quite clearly.

Your other two videos will offer fresh material for me to critique, but this particular discussion seems exhausted. Let readers judge . . .

Thanks Dave. Yes, I have observed that it is very common for discussions to reach an impasse, and I agree with you that having different starting points often is a factor for that. When that happens at any rate it is always pleasant and good to be able to recognize it and remain charitable in the process, so I truly appreciate your observations and remarks, which I will continue to think on as well! Take care.

See the follow-up discussion: Augustine & Sola Scriptura, Pt. 2 (vs. Gavin Ortlund) [4-29-22]

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Summary: Baptist Gavin Ortlund provides three proofs about Augustine & sola Scriptura. I offer counter-replies & additional counter-evidence from many Augustine citations.

2022-04-11T11:31:01-04:00

I will be resolving all of the alleged “contradictions” from the web page entitled “194 CONTRADICTIONS, New Testament.” It’s perpetually striking to observe how many of these are obviously not logical contradictions, and how very easy they are to refute (many being patently and evidently absurd). A few here and there do seem to be genuinely perplexing (at first glance) and require at least some thought and study and serious examination (they save my patience). But all are ultimately able to be (in my humble opinion) decisively resolved. Readers can decide whether I succeed in my task or not, in any given case. My biblical citations are from RSV. The words from the web page above will be in blue.

See further installments:

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#1-25) [4-5-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#26-50) [4-6-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#51-75) [4-7-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#76-100) [4-8-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#101-125) [4-8-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#151-175) [4-11-22]

Refutation of 194 Biblical “Contradictions” (#176-194) [4-11-22]

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126) At the time of the ascension, there were about 120 brethren. Acts 1:15.
At the time of the ascension, there were about 500 brethren. 1 Cor.15:6.

Acts doesn’t say that is the entire number of Christians in the world; only the amount in that place, who were living together. It’s sheer speculation to assert otherwise. Jesus appeared for forty days after He rose again (Acts 1:3), and so 500 Christians could have easily existed by the end of that period, seeing how wildly enthusiastic the early Christians were to spread the Good News of His resurrection. 500 doesn’t contradict 120, as long as the latter is not stated to be the sum total of all Christians. Paul doesn’t say 500 is the total, either, but we know there were at least that many before the Ascension took place.

127) The moneychangers incident occurred at the end of Jesus’ career. Mt.21:11,12.
The moneychangers incident occurred at the beginning of Jesus’ career. Jn.2:11-15.

Eric Lyons of Apologetics Press answers this:

There were two temple cleansings.

Why not? Who is to say that Jesus could not have cleansed the temple of money-hungry, hypocritical Jews on two separate occasions—once earlier in His ministry, and again near the end of His life as He entered Jerusalem for the last time? Are we so naïve as to think that the temple could not have been corrupted at two different times during the three years of Jesus’ ministry? Jesus likely visited the temple several times during the last few years of His life on Earth (especially when celebrating the Passover—cf. John 2:13,23; 6:4; 11:55), likely finding inappropriate things going on there more than once. . . .

[T]he different details recorded by John likely are due to the fact that we are dealing with two different temple cleansings. Only John mentioned (1) the oxen and sheep, (2) the whip of cords, (3) the scattering of the money, (4) Jesus’ command, “Take these things away,” and (5) the disciples’ remembrance of Psalm 69:9: “Zeal for Your house has eaten Me up” (2:17). Furthermore, John did not include Jesus’ quotation of Isaiah 56:7 [“my house shall be called a house of prayer”], which is found in all three of the other accounts, and stands as a prominent part of their accounts of the temple cleansing. (“Chronology and the Cleansing of the Temple”, 26 May 2004)

128) Zacharias was the son of Jehoida, the priest. 2 Chr.24:20.
Jesus said that Zacharias was the son of Barachias. Mt.23:35. (Note: The name Barachias or Barachiah does not appear in the OT.)

In the Bible, people often had multiple names, and people were also not infrequently called “son of so-and-so” when in fact they were a grandson. Those are two possible explanations of this. But I think the more plausible explanation is that Jesus was referring to the prophet Zechariah, in saying, “that upon you may come all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of innocent Abel to the blood of Zechari’ah the son of Barachi’ah, whom you murdered between the sanctuary and the altar.” It was a sort of “beginning and end / A to Z” saying, seeing as Zechariah was perhaps the last prophet of Old Testament times. How he was murdered is not in the OT, but that could have been a Jewish tradition, or simply known by Jesus in His omniscience (being God).

There are many Zechariahs mentioned in the Bible. So Jesus narrows in on the specific one He meant by giving his (presumed) father. Our beloved skeptic claims that the father’s name never appears in the Old Testament. This is untrue (sometimes spellings of names can slightly change, for various reasons):

Zechariah 1:1 . . . the word of the LORD came to Zechari’ah the son of Berechi’ah, son of Iddo, the prophet, . . .

Seems pretty clear, huh? Zechariah, son of Jehoiada lived some 400 years before Zechariah son of Berechiah. With an explanation this plain, I don’t think we need to probe this supposed “contradiction” any further.

129) The coming of the kingdom will be accompanied by signs and miracles. Mt.24:29-33; Mk.13:24-29.
It will not be accompanied by signs and miracles since it occurs from within. Lk.17:20,21.

Matthew and Mark are talking about the Last Days or Day of Judgment; the Second Coming. That’s one sense of the “kingdom” yes, but Jesus also uses it in the sense of referring to His first coming, and this is the case with Luke 17:20-21. There are many other indications of His use of the word with the same meaning. For example:

Matthew 12:28  But if it is by the Spirit of God that I cast out demons, then the kingdom of God has come upon you.

Mark 4:11 And he said to them, “To you has been given the secret of the kingdom of God, but for those outside everything is in parables;”

Luke 10:8-9 Whenever you enter a town and they receive you, eat what is set before you; [9] heal the sick in it and say to them, `The kingdom of God has come near to you.’

Luke 11:20 But if it is by the finger of God that I cast out demons, then the kingdom of God has come upon you.

“Apples and oranges”; hence, no contradiction. It must be frustrating for the skeptic who is systematically refuted by the Christian, but that’s how it goes.

130) The kingdom was prepared from the beginning. Mt.25:34.
Jesus said that he was going to go and prepare the kingdom. Jn.14:2,3.

It was “from the beginning” in the sense that God knew all about it: being out of time and knowing all things. To “prepare something” when it is about to be implemented is not the same thing as having known about the thing for a long time beforehand. So, for example, one of my two granddaughters is having her first birthday party tomorrow. Her parents are busy preparing for it. They have known that there would be such a party (for whatever children they had) from the time even before she was born (and we knew it, too). That’s not “contradictory” to preparing for it when the time arrives. This is one of the many “plain silly” charges in this relentlessly faulty and weak list.

131) Blasphemy of the Holy Spirit is an unforgivable sin. Mk.3:29.
All sins are forgivable. Acts 13:39; Col.2:13; 1 Jn.1:9.

Generally speaking, yes: all sins are forgivable. But as in most things, there is an exception. The blasphemy of the Holy Spirit is the rejection of God altogether, which in a sense is not “forgivable” because the person hasn’t repented and asked to be forgiven, by the definition of having rejected God. In that sense, it can’t be forgiven, because “it takes two.”

One could say, as an analogy, “all horses are able to drink from the stream. But I can’t force my horse to do so if it doesn’t want to or choose to do so. I can only bring it to the stream. There are things that are made impossible by the contrary will of the creature involved. God can offer the free gift of grace and salvation to all, but we have to accept it. He won’t violate our free will because He thought it was senseless to create robots who could only do wat He commanded. Once free will is present, rebellion is always possible and can’t be altogether avoided.

132) The ascension took place while the disciples were seated together at a table. Mk.16:14-19.
The ascension took place outdoors at Bethany. Lk.24:50,51.
The ascension took place outdoors at Mt. Olivet. Acts 1:9-12.

Mark is an example of what is called “compression” or “telescoping”: techniques which were common, especially in ancient literature, and sometimes appear in the Bible. The text simply “jumps to a future occurrence. It’s obvious that the disciples weren’t indoors watching the Ascension, for how could they see Jesus being “taken up into heaven” (Mk 16:19)?

Bethany is located on the Mount of Olives (I’ve been there). That takes care of all the alleged “difficulties” here!

133) The holy spirit was with John from before he was born. Lk.1:15,41.
The holy spirit was with Elizabeth before John’s birth. Lk.1:41.
The holy spirit was with Zechariah. Lk.1:67.
The holy spirit was with Simeon. Lk.2:25.
The holy spirit is obtained by asking. Lk.11:13.
The holy spirit did not come into the world until after Jesus had departed. Jn.7:39; Jn.16:7; Acts 1:3-8.

Nice try. So much effort there! The Bible has many passages about the Holy Spirit being especially present with holy and especially “chosen” people, in both Testaments. That explains the first four instances. Anyone can search “Holy Spirit” in the Bible and find many more. In Luke Jesus was referring to that and also anticipating what was to come: which was every Christian believer being indwelt with the Holy Spirit as a matter of course: from the time of baptism (John 3:5-6; Acts 2:38; 9:17-18; 1 Cor 12:13; Titus 3:5).

Acts 1 and 2 are about the Day of Pentecost: the beginning of the Christian Church and the ability of every Christians to be filled with the Holy Spirit. That’s the difference: not that no one ever had the Spirit before, but that all Christians could henceforth. This was what John 7:39 and 16:7 were referring to. This was “developing Christian theology” so to speak. Developments are not contradictory because they always build on what went before.

134) Sometimes God is responsible for unbelief. 2 Thes.2:11,12.
Sometimes Jesus is responsible for unbelief. Mk.4:11,12.
The devil causes unbelief. Lk.8:12.

God never causes unbelief. Note regarding the first passage above, in the verse before it, it was human rebellion that brought it about: “those who are to perish, because they refused to love the truth and so be saved” (2 Thess 2:10). Mark is an instance of sarcasm: very common in the Bible. Jesus was telling parables at first, because He knew they would be understood by those who want to understand (“If any man has ears to hear, let him hear”: Mk 4:23) and not by those who don’t (hence the sarcasm). It was a matter of the will and being open (Mt 7:7-8). Jesus always wants [any and all of] us to believe (Mt 23:37) and to be saved (Lk 19:10; Jn 12:47).

Yes, the devil will cause unbelief and try to tempt us and get us to fall, but only if we let him. The late great comic Flip Wilson had an ongoing joke based on that: “the devil made me do it.” People laughed at that. Why? Well, it’s because we instinctively know that that mentality is a cop-out: that the devil can only “make” us do what we choose to do by our free will. Ultimately, we are responsible for our actions. We stand before God in the end to give account for ourselves, and “the devil made me do it” won’t cut it when the game is up at that time.

135) Whoever hates his brother is a murderer. 1 Jn.3:15.
If anyone claims to love God but hates his brother, he is a liar. 1 Jn.4:20.
No one can be a disciple of Jesus unless he hates his brother. Lk.14:26.

1 John 3:15 expresses the principle (stressed in the Sermon on the Mount) that murder and every other sin have to start in our hearty first” in our thoughts and intentions. Law recognizes this based on degrees of guilt, based in turn on how premeditated and “voluntary” it was.

1 John 4:20 is about rank hypocrisy. One can’t love God and hate other people, because loving God includes in it obedience to His command to love all people, even our enemies.

Luke 14:26 is an instance of exaggeration or hyperbole: the typically Hebraic way of expressing contrast. Literally it means “if you love your brother more than Me [God] you can’t follow Me” [since that would be idolatry]. For more on this, see: Dr. David Madison vs. Jesus #1: Hating One’s Family? [8-1-19] / Madison vs. Jesus #5: Cultlike Forsaking of Family? [8-5-19].

As you can see, these “contradictions” [?????!!!!!] are “apples and oranges.” They have northing directly to do with each other.

136) Believers do not come into judgment. Jn.5:24.
All people come into judgment. Mt.12:36; 2 Cor.5:10; Heb.9:27; 1 Pet.1:17; Jude 14,15; Rev.20:12,13.

John 5:24 means that a believer will be saved (“has eternal life; he does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life”). “Judgment” there has the specific meaning of “judged as worthy of damnation” or more broadly, “conviction” in a legal sense. But everyone will be judged in the wider sense of having to give account before God, Who then declares if we are saved or not. John 5:24 doesn’t conflict with that, so this is much ado about nothing.

137) Jesus says that, if he bears witness to himself, his testimony is true. Jn.8:14.
Jesus says that, if he bears witness to himself, his testimony is not true. Jn.5:31.

Eric Lyons of Apologetics Press tackles this one:

When Jesus conceded to the Jews the fact that His witness was “not true,” He was not confessing to being a liar. Rather, Jesus was reacting to a well-known law of His day. In Greek, Roman, and Jewish law, the testimony of a witness could not be received in his own case (Robertson, 1997). “Witness to anyone must always be borne by someone else” (Morris, 1995, p. 287). The Law of Moses stated: “One witness shall not rise against a man concerning any iniquity or any sin that he commits; by the mouth of two or three witnesses the matter shall be established” (Deuteronomy 19:15; cf. Matthew 18:15-17). The Pharisees understood this law well, as is evident by their statement to Jesus: “You bear witness of Yourself; Your witness is not true” (John 8:13). . . .

But why is it that Jesus said to the Pharisees at a later time that His “witness is true” (John 8:14)? The difference is that, in this instance, Jesus was stressing the fact that His words were true. Even if in a court of law two witnesses are required for a fact to be established (a law Jesus enunciated in verse 17), that law does not take away the fact that Jesus was telling the truth, . . . (“Was Jesus’ Witness ‘True’ or ‘Not True’?”, 26 April 2009)

138) Men can choose whether or not to believe. Jn.5:38-47.
Only God chooses who will believe. Jn.6:44.

We have free will to accept God’s free offer of grace and salvation or reject it, as I have discussed in many previous replies. John 6:44 is expressing a truth that goes alongside what I just wrote: that only by grace is anyone saved at all. God’s grace draws all person who are eventually saved, but we have to cooperate with it. If we do so, there is a sense in which both things are true: 1) “we’re saved because we repented and accepted God’s free gift” and 2) “all who are saved are ultimately saved due to the enabling power of God’s grace.” The denial of this grace alone doctrine is the heresy of Pelagianism (being saved by works), which was condemned early on in Church history, along with the relatively better (but still heretical) view of Semi-Pelagianism. If we reject God’s grace, that’s all on us, not on God, who gives sufficient grace for anyone who wishes to be saved.

139) None of Jesus’ followers would be lost. Jn.10:27-29.
Some of Jesus’ followers would be lost. 1 Tim.4:1.

This is basically a rehash of the idea in #86. See my reply to that in the fourth installment.

140) Jesus is the ruling prince of this world. Rev.1:5.
The prince of this world will be cast out. Jn.12:31.

This is a strained, implausible interpretation in the desperate effort to find a contradiction. As with most words in the Bible, this one can and does have different meanings and applications. John 12:31 refers to the devil, who is the ruler of this world-system or kosmos in Greek. Jesus says (in the same sense): “My kingship is not of this world” (Jn 18:36). Yet in the next verse He uses the first sense: “You say that I am a king. For this I was born, and for this I have come into the world, to bear witness to the truth.”

141) Jesus says all men will be saved. Jn.3:17.
Only 144,000 virgin men will be saved. Rev. 14:1-4.

John 3:17 means universal atonement: that all who wish to be — who are willing to be disciples of Jesus with all that that entails — can be saved. This is biblical teaching. Revelation 14 doesn’t teach that this was the sum total of all who are saved. It specifically calls them the “first fruits” (14:4); in other words, there are many more to come and these are only the “first batch.”

142) God wants all men to be saved. 1 Tim.2:3,4; 2 Pet.3:9.
God does not want all men to be saved. Jn.12:40.

See #86 in the fourth installment and my article on universal atonement. John 12:40 refers to the phenomenon of hardening hearts, which is very poorly understood. See my article explaining that, too. In fact, it is no proof at all of God supposedly not wanting all men to be saved.

143) Peter asks Jesus where he is going. Jn.13:36.
Thomas asks Jesus where he is going. Jn.14:5.
Jesus said that no one asked where he was going. Jn.16:5.

Erik Manning explains this:

Peter had a bit of a bodyguard complex and didn’t want to hear about Jesus taking off by himself. So when he asks the question in John 13:36 about where Jesus is going, he doesn’t get it.

And in John 14:1-5, Jesus talks about going to his Father to prepare places for them. Thomas asks a question, but it’s because he’s not picking up what Jesus is laying down. He doesn’t ask what Jesus means by any of these things. And we know Thomas is a bit slow on the uptake, as we find out later in John’s Gospel. Thomas and Peter were both thinking naturally.

We see that Jesus is disrupted with another question in John 14 but isn’t asked another question in John 15. Jesus so far has mentioned his departure, but then in John 15:22-16:4, he talks about persecution headed their way. You know, some heavy stuff. Now their hearts are sorrowful. They fall silent with sadness after being so inquisitive earlier.

It’s at 16:5 that Jesus is saying, “guys…you still don’t get it. You went quiet on me with all these hard sayings of persecution and me leaving. But I’m not leaving you alone. I’m sending the Spirit in my place. Now is the time to be asking questions again, but this time let’s be a little sharper and ditch the gloomy pessimism.”

After this, they interrupt Jesus again twice more in John 16, showing they still don’t understand what he’s talking about. Read John 16:17-19: . . .

Jesus then answers their questions, and finishes by saying “I came from the Father and have come into the world, and now I am leaving the world and going to the Father.” 

The light bulb finally seems to turn on. They quit looking at earthly things and start to see the spiritual realities Jesus is talking about. In John 16:28-30 the disciples exclaim, his disciples said, “Ah, now you are speaking plainly and not using figurative speech!Now we know that you know all things and do not need anyone to question you; this is why we believe that you came from God.” Jesus answered them, “Do you now believe?

The metaphors are over in their minds. Jesus is now speaking clearly. They fell silent after some heavy sayings from Jesus, but now it’s dawning on them after Jesus prompts them to probe further. . . .

Only when we leave no room for conversational nuance would we have to conclude Jesus had a mental lapse or that something strange is going on with the writer of John. (“Busting One of Bart Ehrman’s Favorite Bible Contradictions”, Cross-Examined.Org, 8-12-20)

144) Jesus lost only one disciple. Jn.17:12.
Jesus lost no disciples. Jn.18:9.

This is yet another rehash of #86 in the fourth installment. I don’t need to re-answer what I’ve already answered.

145) Jesus came into the world to bear witness to the truth. Jn.18:37.
The truth has always been evident. Rom.1:18-20.

Yes, the second thing is true, but the same passage notes how men deliberately reject what they know to be true. So Jesus had to come to offer more evidence for the truth and to bear witness to the character of God. That goes beyond what Romans 1 was addressing: which was only “his eternal power and deity” as evident “in the things that have been made” (1:20). Jesus revealed much more than that. Some truth about God has always been evident in His creation; Jesus brought a much fuller revelation of spiritual truth.

146) During his first resurrection appearance, Jesus gave his disciples the holy spirit. Jn.20:22.
The holy spirit was given to the disciples after his ascension. Acts 1:3-8.

This is a variation of #133 above.

147) The world could not contain all that could be written of Jesus. Jn.21:25.
All was written. Acts.1:1.

Acts 1:1 is a general statement. Luke was saying that his Gospel dealt with “all that Jesus began to do and teach” in a broad sense. We do this all the time in how we use language today. We might say, for example, “I’ve been all over the world.” No doubt there are several dozen countries where we haven’t been. This is understood by the hearers, who know that it is a broad, generalized statement. Or a woman says, “I’ve been unhappy all of my life.” Are we to understand that literally for every second she was unhappy? No. It’s understood that it means, “unhappiness is a recurrent problem and dominant theme in my life that I can’t seem to shake off or resolve.”

Thus, analogously, Acts 1:1 is general and broad, whereas John 21:25 exaggerates to make the point that “there is a lot more material out there about Jesus than what I have recorded.” There is no conflict, once the different use of language is understood, just as we do all the time in life in interpreting people using literal or non-literal language. Usually context helps us understand which is being employed. It’s the same in the Bible.

148) Obey the laws of men for it is the will of God. 1 Pet.2:13-15.
The disciples disobey the council. Acts 5:40-42.

149) Obey God, not men. Acts 5:29.
Obey men. It is God’s will. Rom.13:1-4; 1 Pet.2:13-15.

There is always an exception to the rule. Peter gave the general good principle that — all in all — we obey laws and governments and rulers. But the Jewish council in Acts laid down an unjust law that no Christian could follow: “they . . .charged them not to speak in the name of Jesus.” Early Christians were murdered by the Roman government because they wouldn’t swear an oath to Caesar that violated their consciences. We mustn’t do the latter, and that sometimes means going against laws. Many laws have been unjust and wicked, such as those upholding slavery and legalizing childkilling and infanticide, along with a host of other immoral practices that laws sometimes protect and sanction.

150) God hated Esau and loved Jacob even before they were born. Rom.9:10-13.
God shows no partiality and treats all alike. Acts 10:34; Rom.2:11.

Romans 9 has to be properly understood. See my article on that.

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Photo credit: mohamed hassan (2-22-21) [public domain / Pxhere.com]

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Summary: A Bible skeptic has come up with 194 alleged biblical “contradictions” (usually recycled from old lists). I am systematically going through the list and refuting each one.

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