February 22, 2024

Dr. Gavin Ortlund is a Reformed Baptist author, speaker, pastor, scholar, and apologist for the Christian faith. He has a Ph.D. from Fuller Theological Seminary in historical theology, and an M.Div from Covenant Theological Seminary. Gavin is the author of seven books as well as numerous academic and popular articles. For a list of publications, see his CV. He runs the very popular YouTube channel Truth Unites, which seeks to provide an “irenic” voice on theology, apologetics, and the Christian life. See also his website, Truth Unites and his blog.

In my opinion, he is currently the best and most influential popular-level Protestant apologist, who (especially) interacts with and offers thoughtful critiques of Catholic positions, from a refreshing ecumenical (not anti-Catholic), but nevertheless solidly Protestant perspective. That’s what I want to interact with, so I have done many replies to Gavin and will continue to do so. His words will be in blue. I use RSV for all Bible passages unless otherwise specified.

All of my replies to Gavin are collected in one place on my Calvinism & General Protestantism web page, near the top in the section, “Replies to Reformed Baptist Gavin Ortlund.”

This is my 21st reply to his material.

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This is a response to Gavin’s video, Why Do Protestants Convert? With Brad Littlejohn and Chris Castaldo (1-22-24), devoted to discussing the book of the same title with its two co-authors. Brad’s words will be in green; Chris’s in purple.

Gavin endorsed the book written by his two guests, writing (in a screenshot in this video at 0:46), “They do not trivialize, oversimplify, or condescend to this phenomenon. On the contrary, they take it with the utmost seriousness and show it must not be dismissed.”

1:31 it’s not condescending; it doesn’t psychoanalyze people, but it gives some plausible reasons and then helps us respond, and a lot of that is going to be on us as Protestants to reform our own practice where we need to according to the Scripture. 

I deeply appreciate this approach, as a convert myself (1990). I have replied to many critiques of my own conversion or those of others (see my web page devoted to Catholic converts and conversion). Almost invariably, they were condescending, insulting, blatantly prejudiced, fact-challenged, unserious, etc., whereas I have written articles like, “Gratefulness for My Evangelical Protestant Background” [3-18-08] and “My Respect for Protestants / Catholic Ecumenical Principles” [2001; addendum: 1-8-03].

What was attacked the most, if memory serves, were the motives of converts like myself. I would say that the vast majority of those sorts of supposedly “mind-reading” attacks come from anti-Catholics: folks who don’t consider Catholics Christians at all. Therefore, for Protestants to become Catholics is the same to these folks as apostasy: leaving the faith altogether. And of course they can’t look favorably on that, and so anything goes when they analyze someone who made that change. We must be the scum of the earth.

Gavin is not an anti-Catholic, and it appears that his two guests are not, either (they’re all scholars), and they lack the ubiquitous hostility, inevitably leading to irrationality and unfruitful discussion. It becomes a conversation between brothers and sisters in Christ (and if Gavin responds to this, it will continue in the same manner. I’m delighted to have the opportunity to join that sort of discussion. Praise God that it exists. It’s been a long time coming online . . .

1:08 there’s a trend toward that right now [Protestants converting to Catholicism or Orthodoxy]. This is a phenomenon that needs to be interpreted . . . 

It’s fascinating to see such a statement from a Protestant, and it will be intensely interesting to me to see how they talk about the causes for this. From where I sit, I would say (predictably) that there is movement because we believe that we have the fullness of Christian truth. It’s not going from evil to good (the anti-Protestant mentality) or from light to darkness (the anti-Catholic mentality), but to what one feels is a fuller, more complete and history-based version of Christianity, without necessarily decrying what one has already learned and gained in Protestantism. Likewise, former Catholic Protestants say that they found things that they believed to be absent in Catholicism and that they chose the path that they felt had relatively more Christian truth in it.

I (like very many Catholic converts) saw my conversion as going from “very good” to “best.” I sincerely thank God every day for what I learned in evangelical Protestant circles. It was almost all very good. I have a deep respect and affection for my Protestant brothers and sisters. I simply discovered that there was more to Christianity, and I wanted that. I wanted all I could get. I viewed it as part of loving God with all of my heart, soul, strength, and mind. Both sides agree that we all have to follow our own consciences and best lights. We need to assume that “the other guy” is doing that, too.

3:47 I’ve just found that a lot of Protestants assume Protestantism and don’t necessarily have good reflection about why they are a Protestant.

This is the overwhelming tendency on both sides (though I would say that Catholics, sadly, tend to be far more ignorant in this regard than Protestants), and many depart one belief-system for another as a result of rejecting straw men or not being aware of the resources and thought available, whereby they may have reconsidered conversion. To put it more bluntly, ignorance is at a premium among Christians as a whole, and the apologist for Christianity in general or for a particular Christian belief-system, provide reasons for why we believe what we believe. That’s where there is a need for adequate education all-around, and apologists can offer some input and help.

10:20  one of the things I appreciated about your book is, you guys aren’t sort of psychoanalyzing people at an individual level, where you’re saying, “we know someone’s motives.” We don’t know people’s motives. We can’t read someone’s heart at an individual level. We’re going to leave those judgments to God. . . . you hear these silly things too of like, “oh they’re doing it for the money . . .” 

Amen and bravo! I make a great effort in my apologetics to try to never do that. If I disagree with someone, I’ll give the theological, historical, apologetic reasons why I do, with all due respect, and minus a sense of “you’re a moron because you believe so-and-so” or “you’re being deliberately dishonest,” etc. I sometimes can be very passionate, but it’s never personal; it’s not seeking to attack persons and motives; only their beliefs that I have honest disagreements with.

One person (a famous Protestant apologist who shall remain unnamed), was at first absolutely convinced that I converted out of stupefying ignorance of Protestant theology. I was dumber than a doornail, and dumb people do a lot of dumb things. Then I produced a list of Protestant books that I had read (most of which were or still are in my own personal library). Without missing a beat, he then stated that my case was one of “knowing deception.” If I wasn’t ignorant, than I just had to be an evil person and a deceiver. There couldn’t possibly be a praiseworthy or spiritual or truly Christian motive or reasoning: not when a Protestant goes Catholic. I can’t describe how refreshing it is to se an analysis that is not typified by that sort of disdainful slop. We can agree on a lot of non-theological things in this discussion.

14:18 we’re all interested in . . . explaining Protestant beliefs, defending Protestant beliefs, trying to remove caricatures from Protestant beliefs that are very common . . .

And I do the same on my end as a catholic apologist. Defeating misinformation and miscomprehensions or distortions is a net gain for everyone. My goal is not only to explain and defend authentic Catholicism, but also to explain authentic Protestantism, and to  oppose distortions and falsehoods about it, which do not help Catholics make their case. We must all do our best to be absolutely honest and accurate. There is an old adage in middle school debate teams, that one must know the view of one’s opponent even better than they know it themselves.

14:30 in your discussion of the theology of conversions you discuss the quest for certainty . . . I do suspect that this is commonly out there and I do see this a lot especially right now in our world, where there’s so much uncertainty and anxiety. I sometimes think people are looking to a church tradition to meet this particular need in the heart for certainty. 

This is a common “psychological / epistemological” sort of analysis often made of the Catholic convert. I think it is more correct to say that many of us simply thought that we were searching for more Christian truth and found it: a bit like the pearl of great price in the Bible. The Catholic contends that in the NT (especially Paul’s letters) “truth” is greatly emphasized. The phrase “the truth” appears in the NT 70 times. I have collected 295 Bible passages about notions like “the faith” and “the truth” and “the doctrine” and “teaching” and “the message”: all essentially synonymous.

We object to Protestantism relegating whole areas of theology (notably, baptism and the Eucharist or Lord’s Supper) and ecclesiology to the individual’s arbitrary choice, as if views that contradict each other are fine and dandy, leading inevitably to a sort of doctrinal relativism and institutional chaos, which is reflected in ever-proliferating Protestant denominations. This appears to us to run counter to what one might call “the spirit of certainty and truth” that seems to be presupposed in the NT. And perhaps this is what many Catholic converts sense and no longer agree with. The “quest for certainty” analysis of Catholic converts continues, but I submit that the table can be turned, and objections made to “the quest for uncertainty” or the “non-quest for certainty” that prevails in Protestantism as a whole. I have written about it several times:

The Protestant “Non-Quest” for Certainty [3-15-06; abridged and links added on 7-12-20]

Glorying in Uncertainty in Modern Protestantism (Dialogue with a Calvinist) [11-11-09]

Radically Unbiblical Protestant “Quest for Uncertainty” [2-12-14]

Gavin seems to agree with my pint to some extent when he states at 15:09: “I really do believe the Holy Spirit has a ministry of assurance to the human heart through faith in Christ, and He communicates a powerful sense of assurance to our heart . . .” He may be talking only about assurance of salvation; maybe not. But we would apply this to all Christian doctrines, according to Jesus’ teaching that the Holy Spirit “will teach you all things” (Jn 14:26) and “guide you into all the truth” (Jn 16:13). St. Paul referred to “words not taught by human wisdom but taught by the Spirit, interpreting spiritual truths to those who possess the Spirit” (1 Cor 2:13) and he also wrote: “guard the truth that has been entrusted to you by the Holy Spirit who dwells within us” (2 Tim 1:14).

16:50 you know I follow [Fr.] James Martin on Twitter X, whose feed is clad in rainbows, and I also follow Robbie George who is a champion for conservative conviction. Both of them insist on the magisterium who is right. In other words, it seems like there the magisterium itself needs to be interpreted and there you will have different understandings, different conclusions among Catholics.

This is easily answered. Everyone pretty much knows (i.e., both those who agree and disagree with it) that the Catholic Church teaches that homosexual sexual acts are “intrinsically disordered” and “contrary to the natural law.” Here is what the  Catechism states:

2357 Homosexuality refers to relations between men or between women who experience an exclusive or predominant sexual attraction toward persons of the same sex. It has taken a great variety of forms through the centuries and in different cultures. Its psychological genesis remains largely unexplained. Basing itself on Sacred Scripture, which presents homosexual acts as acts of grave depravity, tradition has always declared that “homosexual acts are intrinsically disordered.” They are contrary to the natural law. They close the sexual act to the gift of life. They do not proceed from a genuine affective and sexual complementarity. Under no circumstances can they be approved.

2358 The number of men and women who have deep-seated homosexual tendencies is not negligible. This inclination, which is objectively disordered, constitutes for most of them a trial. They must be accepted with respect, compassion, and sensitivity. Every sign of unjust discrimination in their regard should be avoided. These persons are called to fulfill God’s will in their lives and, if they are Christians, to unite to the sacrifice of the Lord’s Cross the difficulties they may encounter from their condition.

2359 Homosexual persons are called to chastity. By the virtues of self-mastery that teach them inner freedom, at times by the support of disinterested friendship, by prayer and sacramental grace, they can and should gradually and resolutely approach Christian perfection.

There is no dispute whatsoever about this. Fr. James Martin, like all theological liberals, simply wants to change Church teaching on it, but there is no sign whatsoever of that happening. To observe those sorts of compromising changes (and sanction of serious sin), we must look at hundreds of Protestant denominations who now see nothing wrong whatsoever with same-sex so-called “marriage”. Fr. Martin wants to change the Catholic view of marriage because he doesn’t agree with it. He picks and chooses what he will believe in Catholic teaching. And he questions the Bible itself. Hence he wrote on 23 October 2019 on his Twitter page: “Where the Bible mentions [same-sex sexual] behavior at all, it clearly condemns it. I freely grant that. The issue is precisely whether the biblical judgment is correct.”

This is the very quintessence of theological liberalism (with whom both Protestants and Catholics are “blessed”). They start by attacking the Bible. Then they will attack the Christian traditions that they claim to be part of. The problem, in other words, is not with the Catholic magisterium, which is quite clear and unequivocal on this issue. The problem is with the flawed methodologies of religiously dissident, heterodox theological liberals. Let’s place the blame where it squarely lies.

This is a variation of another common argument against Catholic authority, which has been called “the infallibility regress.” It, too, fails, as I think I demonstrate in several papers (the above example is a classic case of it failing):

Church Authority & Certainty (The “Infallibility Regress”) [July 2000; some revisions on 12-8-11]

Ecclesiological Certainty (?) & the “Infallibility Regress” [5-22-03 and 10-7-08]

Does Church Infallibility Require Infallible Catholics? [6-8-10]

“How Can we Find a List of Infallible Catholic Doctrines?” [12-15-18]

22:55 any spectrum of opinions that you can find within Protestantism, you can basically find the same spectrum of opinions within Roman Catholicism.

See my papers:

Have Heterodox Catholics Overthrown Official Doctrine? (vs. Eric Svendsen, James White, Phillip Johnson, & Andrew Webb) [6-3-96]
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The essential difference here is that Protestantism institutionalizes sin on a massive basis, whereas Catholic liberals are in opposition to their own Church’s teachings. Most of the Lutheran and Presbyterian denominations and the Anglicans and Episcopalians and Methodists now accept same-sex “marriage” and abortion as perfectly moral acts. They didn’t used to.  They changed and started calling good what they formerly regarded as evil. That’s not following the Bible and apostles and Church fathers. Catholicism, meanwhile, continues teaching that both are immoral, just as it always has, following the Bible and apostles and Church fathers.
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This was a major reason why I became a Catholic. It wasn’t a “quest for certainty” so much as it was a “quest for which Church body had continued adhering to — or at least came the closest to — biblical and apostolic teaching as always previously understood.” Orthodoxy came close, but it caved on divorce and contraception: both disallowed in the early Church (and I would say, the Bible also). All Christians thought contraception was gravely evil until 1930, when the Anglicans said it was okay in “hard cases” only. The essential difference here between Catholicism and everyone else is obvious. And this can adequately account for many Protestants deciding to become Catholics, on the basis of moral theology. I submit that it’s a perfectly legitimate and understandable reason.
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21:51  you can drive down Main Street and have a Presbyterian church and an Anglican church and a Bible church and a Methodist Church and inasmuch as they all maintain the gospel of scripture they enjoy true unity. . . . 
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But of course they don’t do that. Three of the four redefine marriage to include two of the same sex getting married, and sodomy as perfectly acceptable, moral sexual practice. The fourth doesn’t. In that respect, the Bible church has maintained tradition and the other three have not. They have caved into modern secularism and the sexual revolution. They have conformed to the world (whereas Paul said that we should not do that). Same thing with abortion. Redefining what a human being is and what marriage is, is not in harmony with the Christian gospel; sorry. So where he refers to supposed Protestant “unity”; in fact it is not unified.
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Nor do these denominations even agree on a thing even as basic as baptism. Three of the four practice infant baptism, the fourth, adult believer’s baptism. One of them thinks baptism regenerates a person; the other three disagree. They essentially disagree on the nature of the Lord’s Supper. One of them — or at least sub-groups of Anglicanism — holds that the real presence of Jesus’ body occurs in the Holy Eucharist. The other three deny it. And so forth and so on. But we are told that they have “unity” . . .
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45:43 I cannot name a single — not one — Church Father who said there are seven sacraments; not a single one you can find. Some will say there are more than two or use the word sacrament more broadly, but never seven to my awareness. And I’ve not found anybody who’s pushed

And why did John Calvin state in 1559 in his Institutes of the Christian Religion, that “laying on of hands” was “a sacrament in true and legitimate ordination” (Book IV, 19:31)? All of a sudden things aren’t so crystal clear, according to the two most important early Protestant leaders, and even the book of Lutheran confessions.
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Photo credit: cover of the book, Why Do Protestants Convert?, by Brad Littlejohn and Chris Castaldo, from its Amazon book page.

Summary: I discuss with Gavin Ortlund & two others several aspects of the process of conversion from Protestant to Catholic, agreeing in some ways & disagreeing in others.

February 9, 2024

+ How Early Protestants Widely Damned Other Protestants Who Held Different Theological Views

Dr. Gavin Ortlund is a Reformed Baptist author, speaker, pastor, scholar, and apologist for the Christian faith. He has a Ph.D. from Fuller Theological Seminary in historical theology, and an M.Div from Covenant Theological Seminary. Gavin is the author of seven books as well as numerous academic and popular articles. For a list of publications, see his CV. He runs the very popular YouTube channel Truth Unites, which seeks to provide an “irenic” voice on theology, apologetics, and the Christian life. See also his website, Truth Unites and his blog.

In my opinion, he is currently the best and most influential popular-level Protestant apologist, who (especially) interacts with and offers thoughtful critiques of Catholic positions, from a refreshing ecumenical (not anti-Catholic) but nevertheless solidly Protestant perspective. That’s what I want to interact with, so I have made many replies to Gavin and will continue to do so. His words will be in blue.

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This is a response to one erroneous statement in Gavin’s video, “The 5 Minute Case for Protestantism” (6-8-23).

0:39 Throughout the medieval era, pretty much all the Roman Catholics think that the non-Catholics are damned . . . and those views find their way into the highest levels of magisterial teaching.
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Gavin doesn’t delve further into why he thinks that this is the case. Obviously, he can’t get into much depth in a mere summary-type five-minute video. But almost certainly what he has in mind in asserting this, are three medieval Catholic magisterial statements: the Fourth Lateran Council (chapter 1: “The Catholic Faith”, 1215; Denzinger [DS] 802), the papal bull, Unam Sanctam (Pope Boniface VIII, 1302; DS 870, 875) and Cantate Domine: Decree for the Jacobites (Council of Florence, 1441; DS 1351). Here are the most relevant statements from them (I utilize the latest 2012 translation and edition of Denzinger’s Enchiridion symbolorum):
There is indeed one universal church of the faithful outside of which no one at all is saved, . . .
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The sacrament of baptism (which is celebrated in water at the invocation of God and of the undivided Trinity, that is, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit) conduces to the salvation of children as well as of adults when duly conferred by anyone according to the Church’s form. If someone falls into sin after having received baptism, he or she can always be restored through true penitence. For not only virgins and the continent but also married persons find favour with God by right faith and good actions and deserve to attain to eternal blessedness. (Fourth Lateran Council, chapter 1: “The Catholic Faith”; pp. 266-267)
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That there is only one, holy, catholic, and apostolic Church we are compelled by faith’s urging to believe and hold, and we firmly believe in her firmly and sincerely her outside of whom there is neither salvation nor remission of sins . . . and she represents the one mystical body. . . .
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[W]e declare, we proclaim, we define that it is absolutely necessary for salvation that every human creature be subject to the Roman Pontiff. (Unam Sanctam, pp. 286-287)
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She firmly believes, professes, and preaches that “none of those who are outside of the Catholic Church, not only pagans,” but also Jews, heretics, and schismatics, can become sharers in eternal life, but they will go into the eternal fire “that was prepared for the devil and his angels” [Mt 25:41] unless, before the end of their life, they are joined to her. And the unity of the Church’s body is of such great importance that the Church’s sacraments are beneficial toward salvation only for those who remain within her, and [only for them] do fasts, almsgiving, and other acts of piety and exercises of Christian discipline bring forth eternal rewards. “No one can be saved, no matter how many alms he has given, and even if he sheds his blood for the name of Christ, unless he remains in the bosom and unity of the Catholic Church.” (Council of Florence, Cantate Domino; the two non-scriptural citations come from Fulgentius of Ruspe [462 or 467 to 527 or 533]; pp. 348-349)
The difficulty entailed here is to understand exactly what these statements mean. Protestants very widely interpret them as teaching that no one who is formally a member of the Catholic Church can be saved. As we have seen above, Gavin thinks that the medieval Catholic Church taught that anyone who was not a card-carrying, Mass-attending Catholic was hellbound.
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These decrees do not teach that, and I will explain, with the aid of some great citations, exactly how and why they don’t, based on analysis of the texts themselves and also of the Catholic Church’s teaching about what the sacrament of baptism brings about and when and where it is valid. The latter teaching, especially, absolutely, undeniably refutes Gavin’s wrong interpretation of how medieval Catholics viewed this issue.
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Catholic apologist Joe Heschmeyer, in a superb trilogy of articles on this general question, lays out the rationale for the Catholic viewpoint, and proves that it’s not “hyper-exclusive”: as the caricature of it would hold:
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1) We believe that there are those who are members of His Body who don’t know it. We know, for example, that there were plenty of righteous folks saved before Christ came into the world. These people didn’t know who Jesus Christ was, by that name. . . .
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2) Some might even expressly deny being members of His Body, out of confusion and forgivable error, and still be part of the Body. St. Paul, in 1 Corinthians 12:15-16, says as much:

If the foot should say, “Because I am not a hand, I do not belong to the body,” it would not for that reason cease to be part of the body. And if the ear should say, “Because I am not an eye, I do not belong to the body,” it would not for that reason cease to be part of the body.

The other criticism is that this theory is some sort of clever ruse to get out of the seemingly plain language of Unam Sanctum. It’s not. At the same time things like the bull of Unam Sanctum were being promulgated, the papacy recognized the validity of the Eastern Orthodox sacraments (as it always has, even when the mutual excommunications were in place). Where there are valid sacraments, there is the Church. So even though the Eastern Orthodox weren’t, and aren’t, in full Communion, they’re in some sort of Communion sufficient enough to have valid sacraments, and to receive the Eucharist at Mass should they so desire. (“Is There Salvation Outside of the Church? And Other Questions.,” Shameless Popery, 6-4-10)
Already, then, we see that Gavin cannot possibly be correct in claiming that medieval Catholics thought all non-Catholics were damned, and that this was taught at the highest levels of Church authority. Valid sacraments give grace, and baptism in particular confers regeneration and the Holy Spirit, and regenerate, Spirit-indwelt persons cannot possibly be said to be outside of either salvation or the Church. Since the Catholic Church always acknowledged the validity of all seven Orthodox sacraments, no one can say that she regarded all of them (at any time) as damned and beyond the hope of salvation. The same applies to Protestants with regard to baptism, as we shall see. Heschmeyer continues, in a second article:
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The best example of the Church simultaneously acknowledging that She is a visible, structured society and that some outside Her physical bounds will be saved is at the Fourth Council of Lateran in 1215 A.D. Her focus there was very much on the Eastern Orthodox, . . .
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She is describing a visible and organized Church, with an earthly head, the Roman Pontiff (Canon 5), outside of which there is no salvation (Canon 1). Yet she is simultaneously acknowledging that the disobedient Eastern Orthodox are still validly priests, and still validly offer the Eucharist (Canon 4). . . .
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And, of course, they have valid Baptism. The sacrament of Baptism is even more expansive than the sacrament of the Eucharist, in that anyone can offer it, provided they do so faithfully and correctly (Canon 1). And this sacrament leads to salvation. So without question, the Eastern Orthodox may be saved. . . .
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The Fourth Lateran Council is important, because it expresses simultaneously that there is no salvation outside of the visible Church, and that some are saved who are not visibly within the Church. Most papal documents and Patristic writings address only one or the other, and thus look like contradictions. . . .
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There are two Church documents, both likely infallible, which are frequently misrepresented in the context of this discussion. The first is the papal bull Unam Sanctam (1302), which declares the same thing that the Fourth Lateran Council declared, but more forcefully: “Furthermore, we declare, we proclaim, we define that it is absolutely necessary for salvation that every human creature be subject to the Roman Pontiff. ” This statement is easily the most controversial on the subject, since Protestants and Orthodox don’t think they’re subject to the Roman Pontiff. But those who are saved are subject nonetheless. The most direct way of showing this is through logic:
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  1. Everyone who is saved, is saved through Christ and His Church, whether they know it or not.
  2. Everyone who is saved is saved during this lifetime – there are no second-chances in the afterlife.
  3. The head of the Church on Earth is the Roman Pontiff.
  4. Therefore, everyone saved is saved by spiritual membership in the Church Militant, in which they are subject to the Pope. . . .
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The pope isn’t saying that every saved person is knowingly subject to the Roman Pontiff, or even aware of who he is. . . .
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It isn’t necessary to salvation to be juridically connected to the Church. (“Salvation Outside of the Church,” Shameless Popery, 8-12-10)
And in his three third article, Heschmeyer writes:
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The Church has always held both: (1) that the Church is an indispensable part of salvation, such that you cannot be saved without Her (since Christ has but one Body and one Bride); and (2) that some will be saved without express membership in the Church. The teachings are in seeming tension (just as “One God,” and “Three Persons” are in seeming tension), but they don’t contradict. . . . This isn’t some new modern teaching: in the earlier, more exhaustive post, I quoted St. Justin Martyr, who spoke of how Socrates seemed an atheist to his peers, but was spiritually a follower of the Christ he didn’t know by Name. So this isn’t a “development” at all: it’s the clear teaching of Tradition. It’s only a contradiction if you claim that visible union is required, which . . . the Church doesn’t (and in fact, condemns as heresy). (“Why Mathison is Wrong on Salvation Outside the Church,” Shameless Popery, 8-17-10)

It may surprise some Protestants to learn that this notion of the Church as the mother of salvation; as necessary for salvation, by God’s design, is not confined to Catholic thinking. The Reformed Baptist evangelist Charles Spurgeon (1834-1892) was as Protestant as can be, and he stated in a sermon:
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The Church is a mother because it is her privilege to bring forth into the world the spiritual children of the Lord Jesus Christ. The Church is left in the world still that she may bring out the rest of God’s elect that are still hidden in the caverns and strongholds of sin. If God had willed it, he might have brought out all his children by the mere effort of his own power, without the use of any instrumentality. He might have sent his grace into each individual heart in some such miraculous manner as he did into the heart of Saul, when he was going toward Damascus; but he hath not chosen to do so. He, who hath taken the Church to be his spouse and his bride, has chosen to bring men to himself by means; and thus it is, through God’s using the Church, her ministers, her children, her works, her sufferings, her prayers, — through making these the means of the increase of his spiritual kingdom, she proves her right to take to herself the title of mother. (“The Church a Mother,” April 8, 1860, from Metropolitan Tabernacle Pulpit, Volume 48)
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Now, of course, as a Protestant, Spurgeon would define “the Church” differently, and certainly he denied that it subsisted in the Catholic Church; he takes shots at the Catholic Church in this very sermon, but the point is that he accepted the general notion, and he did so because it’s grounded in Holy Scripture. He based this sermon on Isaiah 49:20-21. Nor was he alone in thinking this. The founder of Protestantism, Martin Luther, stated:
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Outside this Christian Church there is no salvation or forgiveness of sins, but everlasting death and damnation. (Confession Concerning Christ’s Supper, Feb. 1528, Luther’s Works, Vol. 37, 368)
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[O]utside the Christian church there is no truth, no Christ, no salvation. (The Gospel for the Early Christmas Service, 1522, Luther’s Works, Vol. 52, 40)
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Likewise, John Calvin, the most important figure in early Protestantism after Luther, wrote:
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[B]eyond the pale of the Church no forgiveness of sins, no salvation, can be hoped for, as Isaiah and Joel testify (Isa. 37:32; Joel 2:32). . . . the abandonment of the Church is always fatal. (Institutes of the Christian Religion, IV, 1:4)
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[T]he Lord has not promised his mercy save in the communion of saints. (Ibid., IV, 1:20)
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Now I’d like to make a second argument that stands alongside the first. Catholics believe that anyone baptized in a trinitarian formula, by anyone who intends what the Catholic Church does in its sacrament of baptism is regenerated, receives a host of spiritual benefits, and is, therefore, a member of the Body of Christ, and will be saved, short of lapsing into unrepentant and unconfessed mortal sin. This, too, undeniable, and it utterly refutes Gavin’s false claim, seen at the top of this article. The best summary I have seen of the spiritual benefits of baptism is this piece from my mentor, Servant of God, Fr. John A. Hardon, S.J.:

BAPTISMAL GRACES

The supernatural effects of the sacrament of baptism. They are: 1. removal of all guilt of sin, original and personal; 2. removal of all punishment due to sin, temporal and eternal; 3. infusion of sanctifying grace along with the theological virtues of faith, hope, and charity, and the gifts of the Holy Spirit; 4. incorporation into Christ; and 5. entrance into the Mystical Body, which is the Catholic Church; 6. imprinting of the baptismal character, which enables a person to receive the other sacraments, to participate in the priesthood of Christ through the sacred liturgy, and to grow in the likeness of Christ through personal sanctification. Baptism does not remove two effects of original sin, namely concupiscence and bodily mortality. However, it does enable a Christian to be sanctified by his struggle with concupiscence and gives him the title to rising in a glorified body on the last day. (Modern Catholic Dictionary [Garden City, New York: Doubleday & Co., 1980], “Baptismal Graces,” 53)

All of this, leading to salvation itself, is what the Catholic Church claims is true of all validly baptized Protestants and Orthodox (just as it is of Catholics). And it did so in the Middle Ages at least as early as 1230 years before Trent, which again reiterated the teaching in its Decree on Sacraments; On Baptism; Canon IV: “If any one saith, that the baptism which is even given by heretics in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, with the intention of doing what the Church doth, is not true baptism; let him be anathema.” (7th Session, March 1547). But the general teaching was in place long before that. By this reasoning, St. Augustine opposed the “rebaptism” of schismatic Donatists who returned to the Catholic Church. In 256, 1261 years before the advent of Protestantism and 1289 years before the Council of Trent began, Pope Stephen I  wrote a letter to the bishops of Asia Minor (Bishop Firmilian of Caesarea / Cappadocia reported his words):

Stephen and those who agree with him contend that the forgiveness of sins and the second birth [regeneration] can also be obtained in the baptism of the heretics, . . . (DS 111, p. 46)
Likewise, the First Synod of Arles, in 314 declared in its Canon 9(8) concerning “Baptism of Heretics”:
[I]f anyone comes into the Church from  heresy, he should be questioned on the profession of faith, and if it be determined that he has been baptized in [the name of] the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit, only hands should be imposed on him, so that he may receive the Holy Spirit . . . (DS 123, p. 50)
Pope Anastasius II, in his letter Exordium pontificatus mei to Emperor Anastasius I, from 496, over a thousand years before Protestantism began, affirmed the validity of schismatic baptism:
According to the most sacred custom of the Catholic Church, no share in the injury from the name of Acacius [Patriarch of Constantinople, who initiated the Acacian schism of 484-519] should attach to any of those whom Acacius the schismatic bishop has baptized, . . . lest perchance the grace of the sacrament seem less powerful . . . For baptism . . . even if administered by an adulterer or by a thief accomplishes its purpose by undiminished reception . . . (DS 356, p. 127)
Thus, we know that by this time the Catholic Church acknowledged the validity of both schismatic and heretical trinitarian baptism. I have cited only the highest, “magisterial” Catholic sources, right from Denzinger. These people had been regenerated and received many other spiritual benefits, before they became Catholics. That really settles the argument in and of itself. Gavin is wrong in his assertion: dead wrong. The Catholic Church considered Protestants schismatics and heretics insofar as they disagreed with Church doctrines, but she knew that they baptized with a trinitarian formula, and so they were Christians.
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Luther and Calvin never got “rebaptized” when they no longer believed in the uniqueness and singularity of the Catholic Church, because they thought Catholic baptism was valid. Likewise, the Catholic Church accepted Protestant baptism in principle, as early as the year 256. Protestants could be Christians (so Catholics thought before Trent, and which was reiterated there in 1547, a year after Luther died and during Calvin’s and Melanchthon’s lifetime), and Christians in good standing were not regarded as automatically, inevitably damned. They are part of the Body of Christ. The whole thing is a bum rap.
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The Synod of Guastalla on October 22, 1106, made a similar pronouncement regarding the ordination (i.e., another sacrament) of bishops in the “Teutonic kingdom” that had been “separated for the unity of the Apostolic See.” Comparing the situation to “the Novationists, the Donatists, and other heretics” of the past, it decreed that “we receive in the episcopal office the bishops of the above-mentioned kingdom who were ordained in schism . . .” (DS 705, pp. 238-239; cf. DS 912 from 1318, p. 292).
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There is nothing left to prove in this respect. Gavin’s statement has been utterly refuted. It’s a falsehood. Nothing personal! I like Gavin, but he simply didn’t have enough knowledge to properly make the statement that he made. If he reads this article, however, he will, and he would then be duty-bound to retract it as a misrepresentation of medieval Catholic teaching. He has repeatedly stated in his videos that all Christians ought to do their best to accurately present the teachings of other Christians with whom they disagree. Heaven knows, there is more than enough of failing to do that on both sides. Here is his chance to follow his own worthy admonition.
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But there is also a flip side to this. Gavin implied that Catholics were the only ones who routinely damned entire classes of other Christians, and that Protestants were blissfully free of such shortcomings. I have shown that this is not true of the Catholic Church, but I shall now proceed to show that it was true of prominent early Protestants. In other words, the historical facts are the very opposite of the way that Gavin described them.
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Gavin himself showed in this same video that Luther and Calvin regarded Catholics as Christians. What he didn’t show is what the earliest Protestants thought about each other. If we’re looking for instances of one brand of Christian damning another and reading him or his sect out of the Christian faith, that’s where we look.
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Martin Luther’s utter disdain for the “sacramentarians”: people who denied the Real Presence in the Eucharist: folks like Zwingli and Oecolampadius and Karlstadt, is well known. He thought they were damned. What’s not as well known is that these Swiss “reformers” (along with comrade Martin Bucer) apparently had denied that Luther and his Lutheran comrades were Christians before Luther had made his negative judgment on them. I found this in footnotes in Luther’s Works (LW) to Luther’s treatise, That These Words of Christ, “This is My Body,” Etc., Still Stand Firm Against the Fanatics (published in English translation in Vol. 37, p. 13 ff.; dated March 1527). The editors documented these charges to substantiate and give background to Luther’s descriptions of their opinions of him, and of Lutherans, in the text. For example:

Since they regard us as “un-Christians” whom the Spirit of God has forsaken . . . (LW, 37, 21)

Besides, we godless and unforbearing “un-Christians” must put up with having these holy and moderate teachers revile us as idolaters and having our God called the baked God, the edible and potable God, the bread-God, the wine-God, and ourselves called God-forsaken Christians and such names. This altogether venomous, devilish abuse exceeds all bounds. Now a person would rather be upbraided for being full of devils than have a “baked God.” (37, 22)

Since we “un-Christians” and unforbearing heathen, I say, must suffer such horrible slander and shameful vilification from them, they, as the holy Christians . . . they regard me as full of devils. (37, 23)

The footnotes document these charges:

19 Oecolampadius: “If the real, true Spirit of God has not forsaken you now . . .” Reasonable Answer. St. L. 20, 599. He frequently applied Gal. 4:9 to his adversaries: “They turn back from Christ to the [weak and beggarly] elements.” Apologetics, 1526 M 7 f. Zwingli wrote on April 5, 1525, that his adversaries in the Lord’s supper controversy “are not led by the same Spirit.” C.R. 95, 317. Bucer: “Let Luther acknowledge that he is being led by a spirit far different from that of Christ.” Preface, 1527. St. L. 17, 1601. Luther and his party are frequently admonished to pray for God’s Spirit (cf. Bucer, ibid.), which the Swiss and Strassburgers claim has been revealed to them. Oecolampadius, Apologetics, H 4; Bucer, Apology, 1526, 35). See Luther’s Letter to Spalatin, March 27, 1526, . . . (37, 21)

24 Zwingli compared “worshiping the consecrated bread” with the worship of the golden calf at Dan (I Kings 12:28 f.). Letter to Matthew Alber, published 1525. C.R. 90, 342; St. L. 17, 1520. He ridiculed the Lutherans’ “edible, impanated, baked, roasted, ground-up God.” Reply to Urban Rhegius. C.R. 91, 934. Oecolampadius defended the epithet, “eaters of God’s flesh and drinkers of God’s blood,” in Reasonable AnswerSt. L. 20, 588. Cf. Luther’s Letter to Gregory Casel, November 1525. (37, 22)

So here we have the surreal spectacle of these so-called “reformers” Zwingli, Bucer, and Oecolampadius, classifying Luther, the founder of Protestantism, and Lutherans, within four years of the Diet of Worms, as non-Christians. And this is the unifying force of Christianity, over against Catholicism? Luther returned the favor (Catholics admire and applaud his efforts to defend the Real Presence in the Eucharist in this treatise):

Our adversary says that mere bread and wine are present, not the body and blood of the Lord. If they believe and teach wrongly here, then they blaspheme God and are giving the lie to the Holy Spirit, betray Christ, and seduce the world. One side must be of the devil, and God’s enemy. There is no middle ground. . . . These fanatics demonstrate forthrightly that they regard the words and works of Christ as nothing but human prattle . . . (LW, vol. 37, 36)

[W]e intend to shun, condemn, and censure them, as idolaters, corrupters of God’s Word, blasphemers, and liars . . . (37, 27)

[W]hat shall I say of the outrageous audacity of this hellish Satan [Oecolampadius]? (37, 127)

[H]e who deliberately denies, blasphemes, and desecrates Christ in one subject or article cannot correctly teach or honor him at any other point; it is sheer hypocrisy and deception, . . . one either loses Christ completely, or has him completely. (37, 131)

In his work, Brief Confession Concerning the Holy Sacrament, written in September 1544, Luther calls Zwingli, Karlstadt, Oecolampadius, and Caspar Schwenkfeld (on whose name Luther does a play on words throughout his tract, making it mean “Stinkfield”) -– and by implication those who believe as they do — an “accursed faction of fanatics, Zwinglians and the like” (LW, 38, 287), who adhere to a “blasphemous  and deceitful heresy” (38, 288), “murderers of souls” (38, 296), who “possess a bedeviled, thoroughly bedeviled, hyper-bedeviled heart and lying tongue” (38, 296), and who “have incurred their penalty and are committing ‘sin which is mortal’,” (38, 296), “blasphemers and enemies of Christ” (38, 302), and “God’s and our condemned enemies” (38, 316). He described Zwingli as a “full-blown heathen” (38, 290), and wrote: “I am certain that Zwingli, as his last book testifies, died in a great many sins and in blasphemy of God” (38, 302-303).

Luther felt that he was duty-bound to separate himself from them: “I must leave them to their devices and avoid them as the ‘self-condemned’ [auto-katakritos, Titus 3:11] who knowingly and intentionally want to be condemned. I must not have any kind of fellowship with any of them . . .” (38, 304);  “I would have to condemn myself into the abyss of hell together with them if I should make common cause with them or have fellowship with them . . .” (38, 305).

But John Calvin, in his Letter to the Pastors of  Zurich, Berne, Basle, etc. (28 November 1554), thought that Zwingli and Oecolampadius were “two excellent doctors, . . . who were known to be faithful servants of Jesus Christ.”

I’ve written recently again about how both Lutherans and Calvinists persecuted their fellow Protestant Anabaptists to the death, for holding to adult believer’s baptism and other doctrines that they disagreed with.

One might think that the John Calvin and his Calvinists only went after the Catholic Mass as rank idolatry. One would be wrong if so. They also attacked Lutherans as idolaters. Hence, John Calvin (1509-1564) wrote to Bucer:

In their madness they even drew idolatry after them. For what else is the adorable sacrament of Luther but an idol set up in the temple of God? (Letter to Martin Bucer, June 1549; in Jules Bonnet, editor, John Calvin: Selected Works of John Calvin: Tracts and Letters: Letters, Part 2, 1545-1553, volume 5 of 7; translated by David Constable; Grand Rapids: Baker Book House, 1983; reproduction of Letters of John Calvin, volume II [Philadelphia: Presbyterian Board of Publication, 1858], p. 234)

Calvin wrote to Philipp Melanchthon (1497-1560): Luther’s right-hand man and successor on 28  November 1552, summing up the scandalous Protestant chaos:

But it greatly concerns us to cherish faithfully and constantly to the end the friendship which God has sanctified by the authority of his own name, seeing that herein is involved either great advantage or great loss even to the whole Church. For you see how the eyes of many are turned upon us, so that the wicked take occasion from our dissensions to speak evil, and the weak are only perplexed by our unintelligible disputations. Nor in truth, is it of little importance to prevent the suspicion of any difference having arisen between us from being handed down in any way to posterity; for it is worse than absurd that parties should be found disagreeing on the very principles, after we have been compelled to make our departure from the world.  . . .

And surely it is indicative of a marvellous and monstrous insensibility, that we so readily set at nought that sacred unanimity, by which we ought to be bringing back into the world the angels of heaven. Meanwhile, Satan is busy scattering here and there the seeds of discord, and our folly is made to supply much material. At length he has discovered fans of his own, for fanning into a flame the fires of discord. I shall refer to what happened to us in this Church, causing extreme pain to all the godly; and now a whole year has elapsed since we were engaged in these conflicts. . . (Selected Works of John Calvin: Tracts and Letters: Letters, Part 2, 1545-1553, vol. 5 of 7; edited by Jules Bonnet, translated by David Constable; Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Book House [Protestant publisher], 1983, 454 pages; reproduction of Letters of John Calvin, vol. 2 (Philadelphia: Presbyterian Board of Publication, 1858; the letter in question is numbered as CCCV [305] and is found on pp. 375-381; the portion above is from pp. 376-377).

Melanchthon wrote (educated guess) in the next month:

If my eyes were a fountain of tears, as rich as the waters of the river Elbe, I could not sufficiently express my sorrow over the divisions and distractions of Christendom. (from: The New American Cyclopaedia, edited by George Ripley and Charles Anderson Dana, New York: D. Appleton and Co., 1861, Vol. 11, “Melanchthon,” p. 361; primary source: Epistles, Book 4, epistle 100 [Dec. 1552?]; see the same exact quote in The Unitarian Review of 1874, pp. 450-451 and American Presbyterian Review, Vol. 1, 1869, pp. 248-249)

In a letter to William Farel in August, 1557, Calvin opines:

With regard to [Joachim] Westphal [a Lutheran] and the rest, it was difficult to follow your advice and be calm. You call those “brothers,” who, if that name be offered to them by us, do not only reject, but execrate it. And how ridiculous should we appear in bandying the name of brother with those who look upon us as the worst of heretics!

And in another to Bullinger about the same time we find:

You shall judge how dexterously I have treated the Saxons. . . . I know that I shall excite the hatred of them all . . . I have, indeed, not hesitated cheerfully and fearlessly to provoke the fury of those beasts against me, because I am confident that it will be pleasing to God! (this letter and the above from Thomas Henry Dyer, The Life of John Calvin, New York: Harper & Brothers, 1850, pp. 336-337)

In the year before he died, Calvin described Lutheranism as an “evil”:

I am carefully on the watch that Lutheranism gain no ground, nor be introduced into France. The best means, believe me, for checking the evil would be that confession written by me . . . (Letter to Heinrich Bullinger, 2 July 1563, in John Dillenberger, editor, John Calvin: Selections From His Writings, Garden City, New York: Doubleday & Co. [Anchor Books], 1971, 76)

Then of course, there were the never-ending battles in Protestantism between Calvinists and Arminians, which continue to this day. This was not — and is not — just a friendly gentleman’s agreement. In the Synod of Dort in the Netherlands in 1618-1619, the Arminians were declared to be heretics because they disagreed with the specifically Calvinist doctrines, such as “TULIP”: the Five Points of Calvinism. Lest someone think that this was not an accusation of heresy (with the implication that Arminians were not Christians at all), here is how the Center for Reformed Theology and Apologetics website summed up the verdict of the synod:

Dordt stated that in reaction to the Arminian and Remonstrant Articles and Opinions, that Arminius and the Remonstrants, “summon back from hell the Pelagian error.”[1] They said that Arminianism “deceive(s) the simple,”[2] “is an invention of the human brain,”[3] is a “pernicious error,”[4] “smacks of Pelagius,”[5] “runs counter to the entire Scripture,”[6] is “gross error,”[7] “militate(s) against the experience of the saints and is contrary to Scripture,”[8] “contradict(s) Scripture,”[9] “attempt(s) to give the people the deadly poison of Pelagianism,”[10] “contradict(s) the apostle” and “contradict(s) the Savior,”[11] “is an insult to the wisdom of God,”[12] “is opposed to the plain testimonies of Scripture,”[13] “is a teaching that is entirely Pelagian and contrary to the whole of Scripture.”[14] Christians should know that “the early church already condemned this doctrine long ago in the Pelagians,”[15] “is obviously Pelagian,”[16] and “nullifies the very grace of justification and regeneration.”[17]

The orthodox professors, theologians, and ministers of Holland and England sought incessantly to suppress the teaching of the Arminians and to prohibit the exercise of that faith which they were firm in condemning as heretical. This they were able to do quite effectively by the convening of the Synod of Dort. Arminianism, for these reasons, has always been viewed as not only error, but heresy.

[1] Canon 2 Article 3

[2] Canon 1 Article 1

[3] Canon 1 Article 2

[4] Canon 1 Article 3

[5] Canon 1 Article 4

[6] Canon 1 Article 5 and Canon 3 Article 4

[7] Canon 1 Article 6

[8] Canon 2 Article 1

[9] Canon 2 Article 4

[10] Canon 2 Article 6

[11] Canon 2 Article 7

[12] Canon 3 Article 1

[13] Canon 4 Article 4

[14] Canon 3 Article 7

[15] Canon 3 Article 9

[16] Canon 5 Article 2

[17] Canon 5 Article 3 (from: “The Synod of Dordt Condemned Arminianism as Heresy,” C. Matthew McMahon, May 8, 2020)

Since the great majority of even Protestantism today is not Calvinist, and Protestantism is a minority among all Christians, in effect these decrees define the vast majority of Christians today and all through history as Pelagian heretics.

If all of this division, rancor, and chaos (that caused Luther, Melanchthon, and Calvin no end of personal anguish and agony, by their own frequent reports) is supposedly blessed Christian unity, and the highest, most spiritual expression of the catholicity of Christianity, and evidence of the sublimity of the Protestant “reform” as morally and biblically superior to what came before, I’ll most gladly remain a Catholic, thank you.

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Related Reading
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Is There Salvation Outside the Catholic Church? (1893 book by Catholic theologian Jean Vincent Bainvel, S.J. [1858-1937], professor of fundamental theology at the Institut Catholique de Paris). Read online for free.

Is There Salvation Outside the Church? (Fr. William G. Most) [Catholic Culture, 1988]

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Anathemas of Trent & Excommunication: An Explanation [5-20-03, incorporating portions from 1996 and 1998; abridged on 7-30-18]
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ADDENDUM
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See Gavin’s brief comments on this article and my replies, at the cross-posting on my Facebook page.
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Gavin then made basically the same argument in response that he made on my Facebook page, in a portion of his video, “Does Eastern Orthodoxy Have the ‘Fullness of the Faith?'” (2-10-24). The relevant portion is from 16:35 to 21:00, where he brings up my reply. It can be selected in the combox “index.”
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ADDENDUM 2
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Gavin claimed, “Throughout the medieval era, pretty much all the Roman Catholics think that the non-Catholics are damned . . . and those views find their way into the highest levels of magisterial teaching.”
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The following information, if correct, directly contradicts this assertion, with regard to most of Orthodoxy:

Rome excommunicated [in 1054] Patriarch Michael Cerularius of Constantinople and all of his immediate clergy. It did not excommunicate the emperor, or the patriarchs of Alexandria, Antioch, or Jerusalem, or the bishops of any of the other Eastern churches (especially not in the Slavonic north or Russia). Nor did the Slavs or any of the other patriarchs ever excommunicate Rome. So, strictly speaking, Romans are still technically in communion with most of the Eastern Orthodox Church. And this is especially true because we formally healed the schism at Lyon II in 1274 and at Ferrara-Florence in 1439. Our present schism dates from 1472, when the Greeks renounced the union of Ferrara-Florence — something the Slavic Churches never formally did. Also, in 1965, Patriarch Athenagoras of Constantinople and Pope Paul VI nullified the excommunications from 1472, which means that Romans are now technically in communion with Constantinople itself though most Greeks do not recognize this. But, technically, there is no reason why we should not be in full communion today. (Mark Bonocore, “The split of 1054 between the Orthodox and Catholics,” Catholic Bridge, no date)

Among the obstacles along the road of the development of these fraternal relations of confidence and esteem, there is the memory of the decisions, actions and painful incidents which in 1054 resulted in the sentence of excommunication leveled against the Patriarch Michael Cerularius and two other persons by the legate of the Roman See under the leadership of Cardinal Humbertus, legates who then became the object of a similar sentence pronounced by the patriarch and the Synod of Constantinople.

Thus it is important to recognize the excesses which accompanied them and later led to consequences which, insofar as we can judge, went much further than their authors had intended and foreseen. They had directed their censures against the persons concerned and not the Churches. These censures were not intended to break ecclesiastical communion between the Sees of Rome and Constantinople.

It follows that there was no formal schism between Rome and most of Eastern Orthodoxy (excepting perhaps Constantinople) from 1054 until 1472, when the Greeks only (not the Slavic Orthodox, including Russia) renounced the ecumenical union of the Council of Ferrara-Florence. So for those 418 years, most self-described Orthodox Christians were actually / canonically / technically part of the Catholic Church (at least in our eyes), and hence, not regarded as damned en masse, as Gavin claimed. That’s the medieval era. Many individual Orthodox may have denied the validity of our sacraments and denied that we are part of the One True Church (that they think is the 17 or so Orthodox churches), as many continue to do today, but we don’t return that favor. And Gavin’s critique was directed at Catholicism.
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ADDENDUM 3
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The seemingly “exclusive” words of Council of Ferrara-Florence, Cantate Domino (1441) have to be interpreted in light of the Bull of Union with the Armenians, from Session 8 (22 November 1439). It refers to “those signed with the seal of Christ” and “the whole Christian people” who ought to “rest and rejoice together in mutual peace and brotherly love.” It refers to the negotiation of a formal union with the Armenians:
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. . . closely inquiring of them about their faith in respect of the unity of the divine essence and the Trinity of divine persons, also about the humanity of our lord Jesus Christ, the seven sacraments of the church and other points concerning the orthodox faith and the rites of the universal church.
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This was done “so that in future there could be no doubt about the truth of the faith of the Armenians . . .” The document then goes into a description of the seven sacraments. First, baptism:
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Holy baptism holds the first place among all the sacraments, for it is the gate of the spiritual life; through it we become members of Christ and of the body of the church. . . . The minister of this sacrament is a priest, who is empowered to baptize in virtue of his office. But in case of necessity not only a priest or a deacon, but even a lay man or a woman, even a pagan and a heretic, can baptize provided he or she uses the form of the church and intends to do what the church does. The effect of this sacrament is the remission of all original and actual guilt, also of all penalty that is owed for that guilt. Hence no satisfaction for past sins is to be imposed on the baptized, but those who die before they incur any guilt go straight to the kingdom of heaven and the vision of God. [my italics and bolding]
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Note the language of universality and valid sacraments outside formal membership in the Catholic Church, in its treatment of the Holy Eucharist:

Since, therefore, both the holy Roman church taught by the most blessed apostles Peter and Paul and the other churches of Latins and Greeks, in which the lights of all sanctity and doctrine have shone brightly, have behaved in this way from the very beginning of the growing church and still do so, it seems very unfitting that any other region should differ from this universal and reasonable observance. We decree, therefore, that the Armenians should conform themselves with the whole Christian world and that their priests shall mix a little water with the wine in the oblation of the chalice, as has been said. The form of this sacrament are the words of the Saviour with which he effected this sacrament. A priest speaking in the person of Christ effects this sacrament. For, in virtue of those words, the substance of bread is changed into the body of Christ and the substance of wine into his blood. . . . The effect of this sacrament, which is produced in the soul of one who receives it worthily, is the union of him or her with Christ. Since by grace a person is incorporated in Christ and is united with his members, the consequence is that grace is increased by this sacrament in those who receive it worthily, and that every effect that material food and drink produce for corporal life — sustaining, increasing, repairing and delighting — this sacrament works for spiritual life. For in it, as Pope Urban said, we recall the gracious memory of our Saviour, we are withdrawn from evil, we are strengthened in good and we receive an increase of virtues and graces. [my italics and bolding]
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In discussing feast days, the document again refers to “all other churches among Latins and Greeks” which celebrate “the rites of Christians.” It was obvious that the Catholic Church presupposed that these Eastern churches not in formal communion with her, were Christians, who possessed seven sacraments, including valid priests, baptism, and the Holy Eucharist. They already were implicitly part of the true Church and the Body of Christ, by virtue of baptism and the Eucharist. This was true even if they didn’t formally join with the Roman See, which is proven by the very language employed. Here’s how the logic works:

1) Eastern non-Latin or non-Catholic Christians possessed seven valid sacraments, including ordination.

2) These were Christian churches “in which the lights of all sanctity and doctrine have shone brightly.” This is hardly language of those thought to be automatically damned en masse, simply because they aren’t formally Catholics in communion with and obedient to Rome.

3) Baptism performed by them (and indeed, even performed by “a pagan and a heretic”) causes the recipients to “become members of Christ and of the body of the church.” For this reason, the Catholic Church didn’t “rebaptize” Donatists who returned to the Church (way back in Augustine’s time) or Orthodox who became Catholic.

4) The effect of receiving the Holy Eucharist, consecrated through the hands of a validly ordained Eastern priest, is “the union of him or her with Christ” and causes them to be “incorporated in Christ” and “united with his members.” The “sacrament works for spiritual life.”

The above propositions can easily be harmonized with the phrase “remains in the bosom and unity of the Catholic Church” from Cantate Domino, two years later. There is a sacramental, mystical, spiritual sense of being “Catholic” or being part of the “Body of Christ” that goes beyond merely formal membership, according to the clear words of this ecumenical council. Catholics, therefore, can’t be accused of anachronistically “projecting back” onto Cantate Domino the thoughts of Vatican II or even those of Trent, because the above conciliar language is from the same council, two years earlier. This means that Cantate Domino can and may be interpreted within the larger context of these earlier — equally magisterial — statements, and harmonized with them, just as we interpret less clear passages of Holy Scripture with the aid of clearer related passages.

Now, it turns out that the Armenians rejected this ostensibly achieved union in their Armenian Synod of 1441, as someone noted, with great detail, in The Byzantine Forum. He stated that “the Armenians were never in communion with Rome” nor with “anyone” else. The only other time they even negotiated for it was with Constantinople (only to be rejected in a synod in 1179). The post was written in 2001. Perhaps some ecumenical developments have occurred since. But in any event, none of that has any bearing whatever on either my present argument or the Catholic position. We regarded them as Christians, with valid sacraments and true grace imparted by them, whether formally in union with Rome or not.

And this runs contrary to Gavin’s statement that I was contesting in this article: “Throughout the medieval era, pretty much all the Roman Catholics think that the non-Catholics are damned . . . and those views find their way into the highest levels of magisterial teaching.”

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Summary: Gavin Ortlund claimed that medieval magisterial Catholicism thought all non-Catholics were hellbound. I refute that & show how early Protestants damned each other.

February 6, 2024

Dr. Gavin Ortlund is a Reformed Baptist author, speaker, pastor, scholar, and apologist for the Christian faith. He has a Ph.D. from Fuller Theological Seminary in historical theology, and an M.Div from Covenant Theological Seminary. Gavin is the author of seven books as well as numerous academic and popular articles. For a list of publications, see his CV. He runs the very popular YouTube channel Truth Unites, which seeks to provide an “irenic” voice on theology, apologetics, and the Christian life. See also his website, Truth Unites and his blog.

In my opinion, he is currently the best and most influential popular-level Protestant apologist, who (especially) interacts with and offers thoughtful critiques of Catholic positions, from a refreshing ecumenical (not anti-Catholic) but nevertheless solidly Protestant perspective. That’s what I want to interact with, so I have done many replies to Gavin and will continue to do so. His words will be in blue.

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This is a response to one topic — and specifically, one sub-topic of it — in Gavin’s video, “Why Reformation Was Needed” (10-30-23). He introduces it as follows: “This video shows two areas reformation was needed in the late medieval Western church: (1) indulgences, and (2) persecution.” Since these are two completely different topics, I will concentrate on #2 in this reply, and then specifically, the medieval persecution of the radical Albigensian sect. In other replies, I’ll tackle further examples Gavin gives of Catholic persecution, and write about whether they were uniquely evil, or whether Protestants did similar things (in which case, I would ask why only Catholic sins and crimes are discussed, and not analogous Protestant ones?).

1:02 There were certain errors in the Church that had accrued and they needed to be corrected. That’s it. It’s as simple as that.

Except that Protestantism did not bring anything new in terms of religious freedom or tolerance. They didn’t correct that error of behavior. They persecuted just as fiercely, if not more so, than Catholics had. It was a general error of the age, which is why virtually everyone participated in it. There are many testimonies to this from non-Catholic writers. For example:

If any one still harbors the traditional prejudice that the early Protestants were more liberal, he must be undeceived. Save for a few splendid sayings of Luther, confined to the early years when he was powerless, there is hardly anything to be found among the leading reformers in favor of freedom of conscience. As soon as they had the power to persecute they did. (Preserved Smith, The Social Background of the Reformation, New York: Collier Books, 1962 [2nd part of author’s The Age of the Reformation, New York: 1920], 177)

The Reformers themselves . . . e.g., Luther, Beza, and especially Calvin, were as intolerant to dissentients as the Roman Catholic Church. (F. L. Cross  & E. A. Livingstone, editors, The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church, Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2nd edition, 1983, 1383)

The principle which the Reformation had upheld in the youth of its rebellion — the right of private judgment — was as completely rejected by the Protestant leaders as by the Catholics . . . Toleration was now definitely less after the Reformation than before it. (Will Durant, The Reformation [volume 6 of 10-volume The Story of Civilization, 1967], New York: Simon & Schuster, 1957, 456; referring to the year 1555)

In time — especially after about 130 years of Catholic vs. Protestant religious wars (1518-1648), all sides figured out that religious persecution was wrong and a non-starter; so that virtually no one believes in it anymore. I argue that the entire issue is a wash (no one’s “hands are clean” in this) and ought not even be brought up. What I find objectionable is when Protestants try to imagine a fictitious, idealized, “scrubbed clean” past and argue that the early Protestants were  — by nature — more tolerant of other viewpoints than Catholics were; that they were basically proponents of religious freedom over against Catholics.

In this video, Gavin makes this issue a central one in the Protestant Reformation. I am duty-bound as an apologist to provide “ther other side of the story” in order to counter the usual one-sided or greatly biased presentation of the topic. I have written a ton about these issues and I will try to bring some of the main points I have found, to bear.

This was actually one of the three major issues that persuaded me to become a Catholic (along with development of doctrine and contraception). Though I was never an anti-Catholic (I always thought Catholics were fellow Christians, as Gavin also does), I was a 100% gung-ho proponent of Protestantism and vigorous critic of the Inquisition (and infallibility), in possession of all the usual stereotypes of medieval Catholics, until in 1990 I started reading about the 16th century events and disputes from a Catholic perspective.

Yes, there actually is more than one point of view! This is the problem. Too often, both sides read only their own partisan viewpoints without reading the other side, too. It’s absolutely essential to let each side tell their own story and then to decide where the truth lies in particulars. When I did that, I saw that Catholics and Catholic history were very often — almost systematically — misrepresented and distorted, with corresponding and morally equivalent errors of historical Protestant teaching and behavior either ignored or greatly minimized.

I hasten to add that it works the other way, too. Underinformed or misinformed Catholics too often distort the nature of Protestant belief and behavior in the early days of that movement (as Gavin notes at the beginning of this video).

But given such a stacked deck, a Protestant will never even consider that Catholicism has been misrepresented, let alone being able to conceive of the possibility of becoming a Catholic. I couldn’t, myself, until I started to exercise the principle of fair play and read both sides. Because we live in an historically Protestant and now increasingly secular society in America (and secularism despises Catholicism much more than Protestantism), the tendency of anti-Catholicism tends to be far more prevalent than vice versa (whereas in traditionally Catholic countries the opposite sin would be the case, and I have often observed this).

2:11 It’s just as wrong to minimize scandals as it is to exaggerate them. And so we need to be historically accurate . . . 

I completely agree. My point, again, is that both sides do this, but that the Protestant tendency to ignore the “skeletons” in its own closet is relatively much stronger in traditionally Protestant and secularizing cultures.

Gavin claims that he will be utilizing scholarly works without an overt Protestant bias, in detailing his claims of Catholic persecution. I know he will seek to do that, and that he is perfectly sincere, because I’ve observed his methodology (having replied to him about a dozen times). He’s blessedly free of any hint of the usual garden variety bigoted anti-Catholicism. But what I’ll be watching closely for, is to see if he also tackles Protestant intolerance. If not, then it’s too one-sided of a presentation, and needs a corrective such as I am providing now. A half-truth is not much better than a falsehood.

17:43 One of the objections . . . that I want to address right up front, is, “Protestants persecuted people too! That’s just how things were back in the medieval world.” . . .  I . . . without any hesitation fault Protestants when they have sinned against those values [tolerance] as well. . . . Absolutely . . . I fault Protestants as well for historical persecutions and violence

This is very good and I greatly appreciate it. But we have to see how Gavin presents the history of religious persecutions and if he ignores how greatly Protestants were at fault. This will be examined in future replies of mine, because I only covered one big topic here. It seems to me that if there was little difference, that the notion that this was a major component of the Protestant Reformation is fundamentally in error. In other words, if both sides were doing the same thing, then it can hardly be said that Protestants corrected this error and made it a big plank of their intended reform of the larger Church. But Gavin indeed argues for Catholics supposedly being much much worse in this regard:

19:11 There is nothing comparable to the scale of late medieval violence. Some of the medieval Crusades classify as genocide. People don’t know this. [my italics and bolding]

He cited an historian (Mark Pegg), writing about the Albigensian crusade of the 13th century, who actually used the word “genocide” to describe it. The Albigensians and the related group, the Cathari, were extremely radical groups that were Manichaean or gnostic in belief: regarding matter as evil. See my article on the topic, from 1998. I cite five scholarly sources; four of them non-Catholics.

Dr. Pegg, however, takes the novel position that the Cathari and Albigensians didn’t exist. Okay, sure! Gavin mentioned his book, A Most Holy War: The Albigensian Crusade and the Battle for Christendom (Oxford University Press, 2009), as his source of information for calling this crusade an instance of “genocide.” In its Preface, which can be read in the “sample” on the Amazon page, Pegg opined:

[E]verything about the Cathars is utter fantasy, even down to their name. . . . more than a century of scholarship on both the Albigensian Crusade and heresy hasn’t been merely vaguely mistaken, or somewhat misguided, it has been breathtakingly wrong. (p. x)

It gets even worse. Pegg, as I suspected, after reading the above, seems to be an agnostic or atheist, and an anti-theist or anti-Christian, based on the following mocking, dismissive comments he made about the origins of these supposedly erroneous notions about a group of gnostic extremists that he thinks never existed at all. The error was largely caused, so he pontificates, by

equally mistaken notions about religion, which is narrowly defined by abiding doctrines, perennial philosophies, and timeless ideals. Scriptural consistency and theological cogency are what supposedly make religions . . . The fallacy behind it all is that pure principles form the core of every religion and that no matter how many civilizations rise and fall through the millennia, how many prophets come and go, the principles enduringly persist. Weightless, immaterial, untouched by historical contingency, they waft over centuries and societies like loose hot-air balloons. By combining these untethered beliefs, almost any history (secret or otherwise) can be strung together. (p. xi)

According to Pegg, the Cathari and Albigensians (or what we all pretend them to be) were “a very distinct Christian culture” which was falsely “accused of being heretical by the Catholic Church” (p. iv). Some strains of Protestant thought — most notably the “Landmark” Baptists — seek to incorporate the Albigensians and Cathari into a sort of non-Catholic “Protestant succession” through the centuries. They are gravely mistaken.

These groups believed that Jesus was a mere creature, who didn’t take on a body because all matter is evil. He wasn’t really born and He didn’t suffer the passion and crucifixion, and He didn’t rise again. Suicide was commendable, and the Cathari routinely starved themselves to death. Marriage and marital intercourse were unlawful, since they had to do with evil matter and reproduction. Satan, not God, created the visible world. They believed that every soul would be saved. All who died before the (illusory) passion of Jesus were damned.

Really great Christians, huh? Their supposed non-existence would come as a great shock to folks like M. D. Costen, author of The Cathars and the Albigensian Crusade (Manchester University Press, 1997). At Google Books, the page for this volume allows one to click on chapter 3, “The Cathars” and read some twenty pages about the historical origins of the group, which is thought to have historically derived from an earlier Manichean / dualist-type sect, the Bogomils of Bulgaria, which began in the mid-tenth century and “spread to many parts of the Byzantine Empire . . . Their doctrines sprang from a strain of Christian [?] thought which, although not orthodox, had very ancient roots in the early centuries of Christian belief and which had existed in the Balkans for many years” (p. 58).

Or we could mention The Albigensian Crusade (Faber & Faber, 2011), by renowned professor of history at Oxford, Jonathan Sumption. According to Dr. Pegg, this book, too, would essentially be a book of fiction, since he thinks the Cathari were “utter fantasy.” I need not cite any more of the many books on the topic.

Dr. Rebecca Rist, Associate Professor in Religious History at the University of Reading, critiqued this absurd questioning of the very existence of these groups, in her article, “Did the Cathars Exist?” (3-6-15):

In response to such interpretations which have provoked much debate – some of it very heated – many historians of heresy began to question if such revisionists had swung the pendulum too far back from the traditional reading of medieval polemical texts. . . .

In Heresy and Heretics in the Thirteenth Century: The Textual Representations (2013)Lucy Sackville provided a detailed history of the ‘revisionist’ historiography, and used the term ‘deconstruction’ to explain their methods, but also argued against the ‘revisionist’ idea that there was no cohesive intellectual Cathar theology. She pointed to the faulty logic of claiming that, although ‘revisionists’ rightly point to the Cathars’ opaque origins and their branding as ‘Manichaeans’ this means that we should disregard all evidence supporting their existence. Rather, she argued that, however the Cathars came into existence, there is plentiful evidence that by the thirteenth century their heresy had an organised, systematic and intellectually-based theology.

I would agree with these historians that, although medieval scholars, clergymen and theologians may have over emphasised their unity and coherence, and exaggerated the threat they posed to the Catholic Church, there is undoubted evidence for Cathars. I would also argue that there are serious flaws in the ‘revisionist’ or ‘de-constructionist’ argument. To claim that an organisation invented or constructed a heresy – in this instance that the Catholic Church ‘invented’ or ‘constructed’ the Cathar heresy – may arise if historians fail to take into account a procedure which medieval clergy widely used: namely to attack what the attacker (the Church) saw as the logical conclusion of the position attacked (a neatly packaged Cathar heresy) rather than necessarily what the attacked (the Cathars) actually said. Yet this does not mean that Cathars – those who espoused beliefs fundamentally at odds with Catholic Christianity – never existed. . . .

What shall we draw from such debates? I am inclined to the view that the ultimate origins of ‘Catharism’ do lie with the Manichaeans. Mani’s religion was the last and most successful of the great ancient semi-Christian dualisms. When one surveys the scholarship on Manichaeanism one realizes just what an enormous amount of the ancient known world, was – however briefly – Manichaean. Furthermore, the religion of Mani extended well beyond the ancient world as we know it – there were lots of Manichaeans as far as China – and for quite a long time. The detailed food prescriptions and the ‘perfecti’-‘credentes’ distinction also appear just too close to Manichaean practices to be coincidental: for Mani the ‘credentes’ were called ‘audientes’ – among whom St Augustine of Hippo counted himself when he belonged to the sect. So it does seem quite possible that the dualism in ‘Catharism’ derived ultimately from this source, though how it reached the Cathars – or rather in the first instance the Bogomils – remains uncertain. Even more scholarship is needed in this area.

One estimate of the number of deaths involved is from Colin Martin Tatz and Winton Higgins, in their book, The Magnitude of Genocide (ABC-CLIO, 2016) They think it was at least 200,000 (p. 214). Of course I don’t agree at all with wiping these gnostic sectarians out, as was done in many cities or areas (not even a single one; I am opposed to capital punishment). But this was the belief at the time: heresy was more dangerous than even murder, because it could cause people to be damned and go to hell; therefore, it ought to be persecuted at least as much as murderers are.

That was the reasoning behind much — if not most — persecution, from all sides. It was actually a concern for the well-being of society and for souls (a thing few seem to even consider when condemning it). It usually — wrong as I think it was — had a good motivation, at least in theory, and a spiritual rationale beyond merely bloodthirstiness or power plays, even though virtually all Christians reject the thinking today and oppose coercion.

The Catholic Encyclopedia (1913) stated (“Albigensees”): “Albigensianism was not a Christian heresy but an extra-Christian religion . . . What the Church combated was principles that led directly not only to the ruin of Christianity, but to the very extinction of the human race.” It stated about early attempts by the Church to deal with this belief-system:

Its condemnation by the Council of Toulouse (1119) did not prevent the evil from spreading. Pope Eugene III (1145-53) sent a legate, Cardinal Alberic of Ostia, to Languedoc (1145), and St. Bernard seconded the legate’s efforts. But their preaching produced no lasting effect. The Council of Reims (1148) excommunicated the protectors “of the heretics of Gascony and Provence.” That of Tours (1163) decreed that the Albigenses should be imprisoned and their property confiscated. A religious disputation was held (1165) at Lombez, with the usual unsatisfactory result of such conferences. Two years later, the Albigenses held a general council at Toulouse, their chief centre of activity. The Cardinal-Legate Peter made another attempt at peaceful settlement (1178), but he was received with derision.

Note that almost sixty years of attempted talks and reasonable discussion took place. That’s a long time! Eventually, all of that broke down and the recourse was to force. The article above describes the historically complex progression. Once again, I do not condone any of that (I’m as much a proponent of religious freedom as Gavin), but in context it can be understood at least to some extent, if not ever justified. However the Church reacted, this was truly a threat to the entire society and Christianity itself. By 1207 it had infected over 1000 cities or towns. And so the Christians felt that they had to act.

Was it terrible? Yes. I totally agree with Gavin. Is is defensible? No; and I don’t defend it. But I try to understand it in its historical context. And is this sort of thing only Catholic? No; assuredly not! Gavin talks about the “scale” being much greater than (implied) anything similar in Protestantism. I’m not sure about that, myself, at all. I have written three in-depth articles (one [17,800 words] / two / three) about the Peasants’ Revolt in Germany in 1524-1525.

Like all such events, it’s very complex and not at all given to quick summary. A convincing argument can be made, however, that Martin Luther was a large contributing cause — perhaps the largest one — to stirring up the peasants (and also a big factor in calling for their later suppression). I wrote in my long paper about this in 2003 (that had tons of citations from historians of all sides):

Historians on both sides are in agreement that Luther never supported the Peasants’ Revolt (or insurrection in general). Many, however (including Roland Bainton, the famous Protestant author of the biography Here I Stand), believe that he used highly intemperate language that couldn’t help but be misinterpreted in the worst possible sense by the peasants. I agree with these Protestant scholars, . . .

No Catholic (or Protestant) historian I have found — not even Janssen — asserts that Luther deliberately wanted to cause the Peasants’ Revolt, or that he was the primary cause of it. Quite the contrary . . .

The relationship between this divine wrath and judgment and those whom God uses to execute it, however, remains somewhat obscure, unclear, and ambiguous in Luther’s writings. Perhaps the key to this conundrum is found in a remarkable statement he made in a private letter, dated 4 May 1525: “If God permits the peasants to extirpate the princes to fulfil his wrath, he will give them hell fire for it as a reward.”

So, while Luther opposed insurrection on principle, there is a tension in his seemingly contradictory utterances between opposition to the populace taking up arms against spiritual and political tyranny, and a deluded confidence and at times almost gleeful wish that apocalyptic judgment was soon to occur, regardless of the means God used to bring it about (one recalls the ancient Babylonians, whom God used to judge the Hebrews). This produces an odd combination of sincere disclaimers against advocating violence, accompanied by (often in the same piece of writing) thinly-veiled quasi-threats and quasi-prophetic judgments upon the powers of the time, sternly warning of the impending Apocalypse and destruction of the “Romish Sodom” and all its pomps, pretenses, corruptions, and vices.

Luther wrote, for example, to the German princes in early May 1525:

For you ought to know, dear lords, that God is doing this because this raging of yours cannot and will not and ought not be endured for long. You must become different men and yield to God’s Word. If you do not do this amicably and willingly, then you will be compelled to it by force and destruction. If these peasants do not do it for you, others will . . . It is not the peasants, dear lords, who are resisting you; it is God Himself . . . (An Admonition to Peace: A Reply to the Twelve Articles of the Peasants in Swabia, Philadelphia edition of Luther’s works [“PE”], 1930, IV, 219-244, translated by C.M. Jacobs; citations from 220-227, 230-233, 240-244; WA, XVIII, 292 ff.; EA, XXIV, 259 ff.)

But then when the whole thing got way out of hand, Luther famously advocated the slaughter of the very civilians whom he arguably had emboldened to make the uprising. Within only about two weeks after he had written the above, he wrote:

[I]if a man is an open rebel every man is his judge and executioner, just as when a fire starts, the first to put it out is the best man. For rebellion is not simple murder, but is like a great fire, which attacks and lays waste a whole land. Thus rebellion brings with it a land full of murder and bloodshed, makes widows and orphans, and turns everything upside down, like the greatest disaster. Therefore let everyone who can, smite, slay, and stab, secretly or openly, remembering that nothing can be more poisonous, hurtful, or devilish than a rebel. It is just as when one must kill a mad dog; if you do not strike him, he will strike you, and a whole land with you. (Against the Robbing and Murdering Hordes of Peasants, PE, IV, 248-254, translated by C.M. Jacobs; citations from 248-251, 254; WA, XVIII, 357-361; EA, XXIV, 288-294)

How is that all that different (in terms of wrongness) from the suppression of the Albigensians? I don’t see much difference, excepting perhaps that the peasants were more violent and were committing acts of insurrection. But if one is at the edge of a sword, about to be killed (and most victims were inadequately armed farmers), such differences matter very little. Note that he was advocating that “everyone who can” should kill these rebels, not just the appropriate civil or military authorities.

The usual figure given for deaths in the Peasants’ Revolt is 100,000. Peter Blickle, in his 1981 book, The Revolution of 1525: The German Peasants War from a New Perspective (Baltimore: Johns Hopkins University Press, 1981, p. 165), confirms this figure.

Secondly, Luther and Melanchthon advocated the execution of Anabaptists — even the completely peaceful ones — according to exactly the same rationale: intolerable sedition and consequences for society if nothing is done (which is similar to why the Albigensians were killed). I’ve written about this, too. Protestant church historian Roland Bainton, author of the most famous and influential biography of Luther in English, Here I Stand (1950), which I read in 1984 when Luther was a big hero of mine, wrote in his book, Studies on the Reformation (Boston: Beacon Press, 1963):

The reformers can be ranged on the side of liberty only if the younger Luther be pitted against the older or the left wing of the Reformation against the right . . .

By the beginning of March 1530 Luther gave his consent to the death penalty for Anabaptists, but on the ground that they were not only blasphemers, but highly seditious. . . .

Any doors which Luther might have left open in the second period from 1525 to 1530 were closed by Melanchthon in the memorandum of 1531. Rejection of the ministerial office was described as insufferable blasphemy, and destruction of the Church was considered sedition against the ecclesiastical order, punishable like other sedition. Luther added his assent,

for though it seems cruel to punish them with the sword, it is more cruel that they damn the ministry of the Word, have no certain teaching, and suppress the true, and thus upset society. [CR, IV, 739-740 (1531). Wappler, Inquisition, 61-62; Paulus, 41-43]

The second memorandum composed by Melanchthon and signed by Luther in 1536 is of extreme importance in making clear what was involved. The circumstance was that Philip of Hesse who steadfastly refused to go beyond banishment and imprisonment in matters of faith, invited the theologians in a number of localities to give him advice. One of the most severe among the replies was that which came from Wittenberg. In this document the Anabaptists were declared to be seditious and blasphemous, but in what did their sedition consist? The answer was: not by reason of armed revolution, but on the contrary, by reason of pacifism.

They teach that a Christian should not use a sword, should not serve as a magistrate, should not swear or hold property, may desert an unbelieving wife. These articles are seditions and the holders of them may be punished with the sword. We must pay no attention to their avowal ‘we did no one any harm’, because if they persuaded everybody there would be no government. If it be objected that the magistrate should not compel anyone to the faith the answer is that he punishes no one for his opinions in his heart, but only on account of the outward word and teaching. [Melanchthon]

The memorandum goes on to say that there were other tenets of the Anabaptists touching upon spiritual matters such as their teaching about infant baptism, original sin and illumination apart from God’s Word.

What now would happen if children were not baptized, if not that our whole society would become openly heathen? If then one holds only the articles in spiritual matters on infant baptism and original sin and unnecessary separation, because these articles are important, because it is a serious matter to cast children out of Christendom and to have two sets of people, the one baptized and the other unbaptized, because then the Anabaptists have some dreadful articles, we judge that in this case also the obstinate are to be put to death. [WA, L, 12] [Melanchthon]

Luther signed.

This document makes it perfectly plain that the Anabaptists were revolutionary, not in the sense of physical violence, but in the sense that their program entailed a complete reorientation of Church, state and society. For this they were to be put to death.

See also: Luther’s Attitudes on Religious Liberty [Roland H. Bainton] [2-16-06])

John Calvin got in on the act, too (he didn’t just go after Michael Servetus), on the same basis:

Moses . . . now subjoins the punishment of such as should creep in under the name of a prophet to draw away the people into rebellion. For he does not condemn to capital punishment those who may have spread false doctrine, only on account of some particular or trifling error, but those who are the authors of apostasy, and so who pluck up religion by the roots. . . .

[I]n a well constituted polity, profane men are by no means to be tolerated, by whom religion is subverted. . . . God commands the false prophets to be put to death, who pluck up the foundations of religion, and are the authors and leaders of rebellion. . . .

God might, indeed, do without the assistance of the sword in defending religion; but such is not His will. And what wonder if God should command magistrates to be the avengers of His glory, when He neither wills nor suffers that thefts, fornications, and drunkenness should be exempt from punishment. In minor offenses it shall not be lawful for the judge to hesitate; and when the worship of God and the whole of religion is violated, shall so great a crime be fostered by his dissimulation? Capital punishment shall be decreed against adulterers; but shall the despisers of God be permitted with impunity to adulterate the doctrines of salvation, and to draw away wretched souls from the faith? . . .

Christ, indeed as He is meek, would also, I confess, have us to be imitators of His gentleness, but that does not prevent pious magistrates from providing for the tranquillity and safety of the Church by their defense of godliness; since to neglect this part of their duty, would be the greatest perfidy and cruelty. And assuredly nothing can be more base than, when we see wretched souls drawn away to eternal destruction by reason of the impunity conceded to impious, wicked, and perverse impostors, to count the salvation of those souls for nothing. (Harmony of the Law, Vol. 2, Commentary on Deuteronomy 13:5; written in 1563)

I bring this up mainly to illustrate the chilling principle or rationale involved (accusations of sedition, treason, and unacceptable subversion of society), which was less justified in their case than it was for the Albigensians, who were not Christians at all. Gavin (or myself in my Protestant days, when I came to believe in adult believer’s baptism, and got “baptized” in 1982 at age 24) could have been  executed for believing in adult baptism, according to Luther and his friend and successor Melanchthon. That was considered subversive of good German Lutheran Christian society and seditious. At one point Melanchthon even advocated execution for disbelief in the real presence in the Eucharist, before he himself stopped believing in it.

Catholics were in on this persecution, too. But remember, Gavin is claiming that the Protestant Reformation was all about stopping religious persecution and intolerance. Protestants were supposedly so much better than Catholics on this score. It simply isn’t true. How many Anabaptists were executed for their beliefs? It’s hard to say. But the Global Anabaptist Mennonite Encyclopedia Online takes a shot (“Martyrs” / “The Number of Anabaptist Martyrs”):

Documentary evidence has been preserved only in part, some of it probably intentionally destroyed. In the “Anabaptist hunts” in the territory of the Swabian League and in the Netherlands as well as in other regions where regular trials were dispensed with, there was most likely no record of even the names or number of victims. Nevertheless an attempt has been made to determine the number from oral and written sources. For the NetherlandsSamuel Cramer has conservatively set the number at 1,500 (DB 1902, 150 ff.). He based this figure on the fairly complete records of Antwerp and Ghent, estimating the number in the other provinces on this basis, which should yield a sufficiently reliable result. W. J. Kühler also surmised that the number of martyrs was at least 1,500 (Geschiedenis I, 270) ; N. van der Zijpp (Geschiedenis, 77) is of the opinion that the number of martyrs in Belgium and in the Netherlands should be estimated as at least 2,500, on the basis of his studies on Mennonite martyrdom in the Netherlands. The best collection of data on the fate and testimonies of the martyrs is found in the Martyrs’ Mirror by Tieleman J. van Braght, who lists about 800 Anabaptist martyrs by name. A larger number is given in summary form, because data and names were lacking.

For South Germany the list in the Hutterite Geschicht-Buch is of particular importance. According to the list given in Beck (pp. 278 ff.) the number of martyrs up to the year 1581 was 2,169. But the numbers given for the individual districts do not agree with this figure, totaling only 1,396. It is not clear how this difference is to be explained. (For Tyrol the list of 1581 gives the number as 338, whereas a government declaration of Nov. 11, 1539, set the number of Anabaptists executed at over 600. —Hege.) Wolkan presents a list that deviates in some instances from the above, and gives a total of 1,580 martyrs by 1542. Beck has on page 310 an additional list that was found on Julius Lober in 1531, listing 390 martyrs.

None of these lists can claim to be exhaustive; in Beck all the executions recorded in the court records in Switzerland, and in Wolkan some of them, are lacking, nor can they offer absolute reliability, since they are sometimes based on oral information, as in the case of the 350 in Alzey (see Palatinate) and the 600 who were said by Sebastian Franck to have been executed at Ensisheim. Nevertheless the total must not be underestimated, and would probably exceed rather than fall below 4,000. (cf. entries for Martin Luther, Philipp Melanchthon, and Saxony; the latter details many specific examples of persecution and execution of Anabaptists, right in Luther’s territory)

Zwingli, another major early Protestant leader, seems to have concurred as well. The above encyclopedia in its article on him, stated:

Zwingli’s personal attitude toward the increasingly repressive police measures taken by the authorities (prison February 1525; money fines and torture late 1525; death penalty and banishment decreed in 1526 and applied in 1527) has not been adequately studied. On the one hand he seems to have urged moderation and to have intervened personally in favor of some prisoners, yet at the same time he is reported to have preached that repression is the duty of a legitimate government; and in view of his dominant role in Zürich’s public life one can hardly conceive of these measures being taken against his will or without his approval.

As a third example, I would submit the massive mania of the witch hunts, which was also a joint Catholic-Protestant phenomenon. The Catholic Inquisition itself, it should be noted, was not — by and large — concerned with the question of witches per se. English historian Dominic Selwood, wrote in his article, “How Protestantism fuelled Europe’s deadly witch craze” (The Telegraph, 16 March 2016):

The Gregorian Inquisition had been established to deal with the religious matter of heresy, not the secular issue of witchcraft. Pope Alexander IV spelled this out clearly in a 1258 canon which forbade inquisitions into sorcery unless there was also manifest heresy. And this view was even confirmed and acknowledged by the infamous inquisitor Bernard Gui (immortalised by Umberto Eco in The Name of the Rose), who wrote in his influential inquisitors’ manual that, by itself, sorcery did not come within the Inquisition’s jurisdiction. In sum, the Church did not want the Inquisition sucked into witch trials, which were for the secular courts. . . .

The period of the European witch trials with the most active phase and the largest number of fatalities seems to have been between 1560 and 1630, according to Robert W. Thurston, Witch, Wicce, Mother Goose: The Rise and Fall of the Witch Hunts in Europe and North America (Edinburgh: Longman, 2001, p. 79). The period between 1560 and 1670 saw more than 40,000 deaths, according to James Carroll’s book, Jerusalem, Jerusalem: How the Ancient City Ignited Our Modern World (Boston and New York: Houghton Mifflin Harcourt, 2011, p. 166). Other historians estimate that as many as 60,000 reputed “witches” were executed.

See heavily documented Wikipedia articles about witch hunts in various Protestant countries: Denmark (> 500), England (> 500), Finland (> 277), Iceland, Latvia, Estonia, Netherlands (~ 200), Norway (277-350), Scotland (> 1500), and Sweden. By contrast, Catholic Spain had “few [executions for witchcraft] in comparison with most of Europe.” And the witch trials in Portugal were “perhaps the fewest in all of Europe.” Some Catholic countries were much worse, and some Protestant countries were really bad. Others of both faiths did a lot better. This is another reason why a “Catholic vs. Protestant” approach isn’t the relevant or correct way to analyze the phenomenon, and it shows once again that these sorts of travesties occurred on both sides.

A fourth obvious example is the abominable persecution of Catholics in England. Catholics had no power at all, except during the reign of Mary Tudor, aka “Bloody Mary”, from 1553-1558. She executed 283 Protestants from 1555-1558, mostly by burning, according to Eamon Duffy, Fires of Faith: Catholic England Under Mary Tudor (New Haven: Yale University Press, 2009, p. 79).

But apart from those five years, Catholicism essentially became illegal, and being a Catholic priest or harboring one was a capital offense, from the time of Butcher Henry VIII all the way till 1829 (in terms of the abolition of all anti-Catholic penal laws). It was the same rationale, again, that Luther had used just a few years earlier: not acknowledging Henry VIII as the head of the English church, rather than the pope, was not only “heresy” but also supposedly the worst sort of treason and sedition; thus worthy of death.

And so there were many executions, in which people were hanged (but not till death), disemboweled, had their hearts removed while they were alive, and then their legs and arms and heads cut off. Very civilized stuff! And remember, this was all done to those whom Gavin considers fellow Christians: for the “crime” of being Catholics, whereas Catholics in earlier times killed Albigensians, who were not Christians at all. I documented the bloodthirsty Anglican persecution of Catholics in several papers:

444 Irish Catholic Martyrs and Heroic Confessors: 1565-1713 [2-27-08]

[at least 1375 documented Catholic martyrs in the British Isles]

In conclusion, mass killings, or “genocide” (?) based on heretical beliefs or harmfully “seditious / treasonous” (including peaceful) ones were not solely a Catholic phenomenon, and neither side can claim a triumphant moral superiority. That being the case, why bring this up at all in the context of comparative dialogues regarding Catholicism and Protestantism and “Reformation Day”?

Both sides used to do it, and both eventually stopped doing it, recognizing that it is wrong and goes too far. It’s a wash, and in my opinion, it ought not be discussed in these contexts. I only do because of the consistently one-sided presentation of these matters. I’m responding to that. Otherwise, I wouldn’t write about any of this (except if an atheist brought it up as a reason to reject Catholicism or larger Christianity. I have to balance the score, for the sake of historical fairness and objectivity. As an educator I can do no less in good conscience. My approach in those instances is “let folks read both sides of disputed issues and make up their own minds.”

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See my follow-up article: Reply To Gavin Ortlund: Catholic Inquisitions; Hus [2-7-24]

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Photo credit: St. Dominic de Guzman and the Albigensians (1493-1499), by Pedro Berruguete (1450–1504). This portrays the story of a dispute between Saint Dominic and the Cathars in which the books of both were thrown on a fire and St. Dominic’s books were miraculously preserved from the flames. [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

Summary: Gavin Ortlund argued in a video that one of two big reasons for the Protestant Reformation was Catholic persecution. But the latter was no better among Protestants.

February 1, 2024

+ St. Polycarp and St. Clement of Rome On Early Church Ecclesiology

Gavin Ortlund is a Reformed Baptist author, speaker, pastor, and apologist for the Christian faith. He has a Ph.D. from Fuller Theological Seminary in historical theology, and an M.Div from Covenant Theological Seminary. Gavin is the author of seven books as well as numerous academic and popular articles. For a list of publications, see his CV. He runs the YouTube channel Truth Unites, which seeks to provide an “irenic” voice on theology, apologetics, and the Christian life. See also his website, Truth Unites and his blog. His words will be in blue.

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For background reading, see my articles:

Ignatius Of Antioch On Monarchical Bishops [1-25-24]

St. Ignatius, Bishops, & the Rule of Faith (vs. T.F. Kauffman) [7-14-23]

Ignatius of Antioch (d. c. 117) vs. Sola Scriptura [12-21-21]

Monarchical Bishops (Early Fathers & Eusebius) [1-29-24]

Jerusalem Council & James, Bishop Of Jerusalem: The Ambivalence and Inconsistencies of Protestant Thought on the Earliest “Monarchical” Bishops [1-30-24]

St. Jerome, Papacy, & Succession (Vs. Gavin Ortlund) [1-20-24]

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I’m responding to Gavin’s video, “A Protestant Take on Ignatius” (2-19-21).

0:20 I’ve known many people who, because of the letters of Ignatius: that’s like the thing, or one of the key things that either unsettles someone, in being a Protestant, or even propels them towards becoming Catholic or Orthodox.

One can see why. He is extremely “Catholic” already, for one who lived so early in Church history (50 – c. 110), and who was discipled by St. John. That’s not supposed to be, in Protestant thinking, since they typically view Catholicism as a corrupted accretion or addition to the true primal Christian faith, handed on by the apostles. Ignatius doesn’t “fit in” with that schema.

Gavin mentions that people see in Ignatius a very “high” view of the episcopate (single bishops as heads of local churches) and of the Real Presence in the Holy Eucharist, and how it was “really surprising” and not what they were “expecting.

1:55 Whatever you conclude about whether Ignatius is right or wrong, it’s not a reason to become Catholic or Orthodox. 

We’ll have to see how he unpacks this claims. It seems to me that if Protestants are taught by their pastors and Bible study teachers their usual stunted, highly selective, semi-mythical caricature of Church history (insofar as they learn about it at all), and then they see what Ignatius — one of the earliest Church fathers — actually teaches, that it would be sufficiently jolting to perhaps make them curious about other Church fathers and possibly in time, even Protestantism itself. The novelty of a disciple of the apostle John being so thoroughly Catholic would indeed be jarring.

Something similar was the key factor in my own conversion, back in 1990. It was reading St. John Henry Newman’s Essay on the Development of Christian Doctrine, which discussed many Church fathers and explained how what we see today in Catholic dogma, makes perfect sense as having developed from the initial kernel of the apostolic deposit.

Gavin says he is “dismayed” in seeing many Protestants move “rapidly” into a “higher” view of Church government, due to Ignatius, without considering “other Protestant traditions.” Anglicans and Lutherans are two groups that he cites, that might be superior alternatives.

He claims that the nature of the Eucharist was a live issue in the early Church and “were debated for many many centuries.” This was not the case. See my papers:

St. Ignatius & Eucharistic Real Presence (vs. Lucas Banzoli) [9-12-22]

Justin Martyr, Real Presence, & Eucharistic Sacrifice (vs. Lucas Banzoli) [9-13-22]

St. Augustine’s Belief in the Substantial Real Presence [1996]

Patristic Eucharistic Doctrine: Nine Protestant Scholars [12-1-96]

John Calvin and St. Cyril of Jerusalem: Comparative Eucharistic Theology [6-14-04]

Eucharistic Sacrifice: The Witness of the Church Fathers [9-12-05]

Sacrifice of the Mass / Cyprian’s Ecclesiology (vs. Calvin #11) [5-19-09]

Transubstantiation: Bible & the Fathers (vs. Calvin #42) [24-25 November 2009]

Bizarre “Eucharistic Christology” vs. Tertullian (vs. Calvin #45) [12-1-09]

Church Fathers and the Sacrifice of the Mass (Thoroughly Catholic!) [12-11-09]

St. Augustine’s Eucharistic Doctrine and Protestant “Co-Opting” [9-25-10]

St. Augustine’s Eucharistic Doctrine: Simultaneous Assertion of Realism and Symbolism [2-17-11]

“Re-Presentation” vs. “Re-Sacrifice” in the Mass: Doctrinal History [4-4-18]

Lucas Banzoli Misrepresents Chrysostom’s Eucharistic Theology (+ An Overview of St. John Chrysostom’s Catholic View of the Eucharistic Sacrifice) [9-14-22]

Tertullian’s Eucharistic Theology: Lucas Banzoli vs. J.N.D. Kelly [9-15-22]

Then he returns to the issue of Church government and bishops.

4:46 We should read Ignatius along with all the other apostolic Church fathers. . . . When you read all of the apostolic fathers, what you get is a very complicated picture. . . . Pretty universally among other apostolic fathers, . . . you get a two-office view. Some examples of that would be Polycarp’s epistle to the Philippians, where in chapters 5 and 6 . . . it’s very similar to 1st Timothy 3 . . . there’s no mention of a third office [bishop].

As I wrote in my first book in 1996, the offices in the Church were a bit fluid at first, and in the Bible itself. And so there is some interchangeability. That said, it could be that Polycarp had a notion of a bishop (which is an office in the NT, after all: mentioned five times, including twice in 1 Timothy 3, and in Acts 20:28 (“overseers”), as a sort of “super-elder,” or “super-presbyter,” just as we see in Protestant churches today, the senior pastor and associate pastors. In that set-up, they are all of the same office, yet one is senior, above the others. In some sectors of the early Church, this is what we see, since the notion was still very early in its development (just as, also, were doctrines like the Holy Trinity or the canon of the Bible).

Protestants, for example, widely hold that James was the first bishop of Jerusalem, and was so during the Jerusalem Council (Acts 15). Yet the Bible never expressly states that he was. In its description of the council, the term, “apostles and elders” is used (15:2, 4, 6, 22-23). James in this instance was both an apostle and an elder, and in fact he was the bishop of Jerusalem, and presided over the council (though I contend that it was Peter who laid down the fundamental principle and conclusion, that was followed by James and the council). So he was functioning as a bishop, and is even acknowledged as such by many many Protestants (as I just wrote about yesterday), but was not called one in Acts 15.

Likewise, I submit, in Polycarp’s epistle. He simply didn’t use the word “bishop.” But he knew there was such an office because it was already detailed in the NT. Peter does the same thing in his first epistle. He functions very much like a bishop in how he approaches things and in terms of those who received his letter: “To the exiles of the Dispersion in Pontus, Galatia, Cappado’cia, Asia, and Bithyn’ia,” (1 Pet 1:1). I wrote in August 2022 about this:

Pontus was in the north of Turkey and largely surrounding the Black Sea north of it. Galatia was in the center of Asia Minor (Turkey),  Cappadocia in its southeast, and Bithynia in its northwest. “Asia” in the NT refers to Asia Minor.

So Peter was writing to Christians in a vast area. The size of Turkey is about a thousand miles from west to east, and 300-400 miles from north to south. This is the area, and also east and north of the Black Sea, that was the recipient of Peter’s first epistle. The letter is filled with decidedly “papal” commands: and Peter assumes sublime authority throughout his epistle:

“gird up your minds” (1:13 [RSV]); “be holy yourselves in all your conduct” (1:15); “love one another earnestly from the heart” (1:22); “So put away all malice and all guile and insincerity and envy and all slander” (2:1); “long for the pure spiritual milk” (2:2); “abstain from the passions of the flesh” (2:11); “Maintain good conduct among the Gentiles” (2:12); “Be subject for the Lord’s sake to every human institution” (2:13); “Honor all men. Love the brotherhood. Fear God. Honor the emperor.” (2:17); ” wives, be submissive to your husbands” (3:1); “Likewise you husbands, live considerately with your wives, bestowing honor on the woman” (3:7); “have unity of spirit, sympathy, love of the brethren, a tender heart and a humble mind.” (3:8); “Do not return evil for evil or reviling for reviling” (3:9); “in your hearts reverence Christ as Lord. Always be prepared to make a defense” (3:15: apologetics!); ” keep your conscience clear” (3:16); “keep sane and sober for your prayers” (4:7); “hold unfailing your love for one another” (4:8); “Practice hospitality ungrudgingly to one another” (4:9); “As each has received a gift, employ it for one another” (4:10); “Tend the flock of God that is your charge” (5:2: addressed specifically to other bishops); “you that are younger be subject to the elders” (5:5); “Humble yourselves therefore under the mighty hand of God” (5:6); “Be sober, be watchful” (5:8); and “Resist him, firm in your faith” (5:9).

This is altogether the scope and nature of a bishop’s teaching, with authority, and to Christians over an area a thousand miles wide and 400 miles from bottom to top. That’s not “local church” stuff! Yet what does Peter call himself?: “I exhort the elders among you, as a fellow elder” (1 Pet 5:1). Once again, then, he acts exactly as a bishop does, while calling himself an “elder” and not using the word “bishop” (episkopos), just as in the scores of biblical proofs for the Holy Trinity, the word “trinity” never appears, while at the same time, the doctrine and the idea does. In other words, the mere lack of one particular term doesn’t necessarily mean that the ideas involved are also absent. The pope remains the bishop of Rome, while also being the supreme leader of the universal Catholic Church.

Polycarp was himself a bishop. After all, witnesses to his martyrdom (somewhere between 156 and 167) described him as that:

Polycarp . . . having in our own times been an apostolic and prophetic teacher, and bishop of the Catholic Church which is in Smyrna. (Martyrdom of Polycarp, 16)

So how could he not believe in bishops and episcopal hierarchy when he himself was one? Gavin’s reference to him doesn’t take into account the Martyrdom of Polycarp, which is as authentic as his letter to the Philippians. Polycarp starts his own letter with the words, “Polycarp, and the presbyters with him . . .” But that no more proves that he is not a bishop than the President of the United States writing a letter, saying, “President X, with the Senators and Congressmen . . .” “proves” he isn’t the President. He writes like a bishop in his letter, just as Peter did in his epistle, that made it into the NT. He uses the phrases, “I exhort you” twice (9, 11) and “stand fast” (10) and states, “Let us then continually persevere in our hope, and the earnest of our righteousness, which is Jesus Christ” (8). It’s authoritative.

St. Irenaeus, in his Against Heresies (Bk III, 3,  3, 4), written around 180, stated that “Polycarp also was not only instructed by apostles, and conversed with many who had seen Christ, but was also, by apostles in Asia, appointed bishop of the Church in Smyrna” and referred to “men who have succeeded Polycarp down to the present time.” Tertullian, writing about bishops around 200 AD, wrote about “the church of Smyrna, which records that Polycarp was placed therein by John; . . .” (Prescription against Heretics, 32).

Now, if no one had classified Polycarp as a bishop, and everyone called him merely one presbyter among many in his own congregation, Gavin might have a good argument. But as it is, appealing to Polycarp against episcopacy won’t work at all. Let’s see what else Gavin can come up with.

5:38 Another example would be the first epistle of Clement . . . [where he referred to, in ch. 42] bishops and deacons.

Clement also refers to “presbyters” no less than five times in the same letter (1, 44, 47, 54, 57), which means that he holds to a threefold ministry after all. “Bishops” appears three times (42),”deacons” three times (also in 42), but “episcopate” — same root as “bishop” (episkopos) — twice in chapter 44. So there is nothing unCatholic here at all. It confirms our view, as does the nature of the letter, which is very “papal” (since Clement was an early pope / bishop of Rome). See:

Pope St. Clement of Rome & Papal Authority [7-28-21]

Explicit Papal Infallibility in 96 AD (Pope St. Clement) [originally from 7-30-21; posted at Catholic365 on 11-20-23]

Is First Clement Non-Papal? (vs. Jason Engwer) [4-19-22]

And of course there is significant historical indication that Clement was a bishop of Rome.  St. Irenaeus wrote:

The blessed apostles, then, having founded and built up the Church, committed into the hands of Linus the office of the episcopate. Of this Linus [start of reign: 64-68], Paul makes mention in the Epistles to Timothy [2 Tim 4:21]. To him succeeded Anacletus [r. c. 79 – c. 92]; and after him, in the third place from the apostles, Clement [r. 88-99] was allotted the bishopric. . . . To this Clement there succeeded Evaristus [r. c. 99- c. 107]. Alexander [r. c. 107- c. 115] followed Evaristus; then, sixth from the apostles, Sixtus [r. c. 115- c. 124] was appointed; after him, . . . (Against Heresies, Bk III, 3, 3; cited in Eusebius, Ecclesiastical HistoryBk V, 6, 1-5)

Tertullian, around 200, referred to “the church of Rome, which makes Clement to have been ordained in like manner by Peter” (Prescription against Heretics, 32). The first Church historian, Eusebius, wrote around 300: “Clement also, who was appointed third bishop of the church at Rome, was, as Paul testifies, his co-laborer [Phil 4:3] . . .  (EHBk III, 4, 10) and: “In the twelfth year of the same reign [92/93] Clement succeeded Anencletus after the latter had been bishop of the church of Rome for twelve years.” (EHBk III, 15, 1; cf. Bk III, 21, 1-3 and 34, 1).

Gavin makes an argument that near the end of the letter, Clement refers only to presbyters, as the rulers of the church in Corinth, and not to a specific bishop. But Clement also made the following general statement: “For our sin will not be small, if we eject from the episcopate those who have blamelessly and holily fulfilled its duties. Blessed are those presbyters who, having finished their course before now, have obtained a fruitful and perfect departure [from this world] . . .” (44). He could and probably would argue that bishops and presbyters are equated here, but that poses no necessary problem, per the several arguments I provided above, from the analogous examples of Peter, James, and Polycarp.

Even if Corinth was ruled by a group of presbyters in c. 100, so what? Ecclesiology develops like all other doctrines. We would fully expect to see these divergences. As to the subsequent governance of the Corinthian church, Eusebius cites the chronicler Hegesippus, who says he was in Corinth in the time of Pope Anicetus, and that Primus was bishop of Corinth around 150–155 or so:

Hegesippus in the five books of Memoirs which have come down to us has left a most complete record of his own views. In them he states that on a journey to Rome he met a great many bishops, and that he received the same doctrine from all. It is fitting to hear what he says after making some remarks about the epistle of Clement to the Corinthians. His words are as follows: “And the church of Corinth continued in the true faith until Primus was bishop in Corinth. I conversed with them on my way to Rome, and abode with the Corinthians many days, during which we were mutually refreshed in the true doctrine. And when I had come to Rome I remained there until Anicetus, whose deacon was Eleutherus. (EH, IV, 22, 1-4)

Eusebius makes mention of “Dionysius, who was appointed bishop of the church in Corinth” (EHBk IV, 23, 1). We know that this was the case in the year 171 because Eusebius wrote in Bk IV, 23, 9 that “There is extant also another epistle written by Dionysius to the Romans, and addressed to Soter, who was bishop at that time.” So episcopacy eventually arrived in Corinth. It didn’t take long. It would, after all, take almost 250 more years for the canon of the Bible to be fully established and another fifty years after that for a full understanding of the Holy Trinity to develop (crystallized at the Council of Chalcedon in 451).

So, 90-100 years were needed for the Corinthians to figure out that episcopacy was the proper form of government? No problem at all! What was already present from the 40s in Jerusalem would soon spread all around. None of this poses the slightest problem for either the Catholic conception of Church history or for our ecclesiology. But it’s sure very unlike most forms of Protestantism.

6:42 This [presbyterian polity] is what you see everywhere other than with Ignatius.

The falsehood of this statement — with all due respect to Gavin — has been amply documented above. Ignatius was not the exception. He was the rule. Neither Polycarp nor Clement (themselves both bishops) don’t disprove it. Corinth was simply an exception and it took longer for episcopacy to develop there.  It was already present by 100 in Jerusalem, Rome, Smyrna, Antioch, and many other places. Eusebius writes, for example, about Alexandria:

When Nero was in the eighth year of his reign [62 AD], Annianus succeeded Mark the evangelist in the administration of the parish of Alexandria. (Bk II, 24, 1; according to Bk III, ch. 14, he held his office for twenty-two years [84])

There are always slow learners. Corinth was one of those. Gavin claims that the Shepherd of Hermas taught presbyterian ecclesiology. But it states:

Hear now with regard to the stones which are in the building. Those square white stones which fitted exactly into each other, are apostles, bishops, teachers, and deacons, who have lived in godly purity, and have acted as bishops and teachers and deacons chastely and reverently to the elect of God. (Shepherd of Hermas, Vision 3, 5)

The Muratorian Canon [c. 180-200], the oldest list of New Testament writings, stated, “The Pastor, moreover, did Hermas write very recently in our times in the city of Rome, while his brother bishop Pius sat in the chair of the Church of Rome.”  Pius reigned as pope and bishop of Rome from c. 140 to c. 154. He mentions the Didache (c. 100) and how it references “bishops and deacons” in ch. 15. I would make the same sort of reply that I made about the epistle of Clement above.

And again, it should be noted that the offices were sometimes fluid in the early Church, because they were in the Bible itself. The Didache was written at a time when the apostolic age was coming to a close. The apostles passed on their authority to bishops. But in 100 AD, a document like this one was still focused on prophets and apostles, rather than pastors or priests, as it was in chapters 11 and 13. It’s still significant too, that the reference is to bishops and deacons, rather than presbyters and deacons. The bishop was a higher office.

Gavin notes that St. Ignatius in his letter to the Romans doesn’t address or even mention a sole bishop in Rome. This is a good and fair point. Catholic writer Allan Ruhl offered a possible reason for this in his article, “Why Didn’t St. Ignatius Mention the Bishop of Rome?” (8-19-20):

If I had to guess, it would be because of the grand history of Christian persecution in Rome.  There was massive persecution under Nero and Domitian and that was in very recent memory.  Maybe it was to protect the identity of the bishop and other members of the Church of Rome.  If this fell into the hands of Roman governors who wanted to persecute Christians, they’d have a list of the names they needed to hunt down.  This would make torturing easier as they knew who they needed.  Keep in mind that the epistle to Rome doesn’t mention any Presbyters or Deacons as well.  In several of the other letters, St. Ignatius mentions presbyters and deacons by name.  For example, in his epistle to the Magnesians he writes:

Since, then, I have had the privilege of seeing you, through Damas your most worthy bishop, and through your worthy presbyters Bassus and Apollonius, and throughout my fellow-servant the deacon Sotio, whose friendship may I ever enjoy, inasmuch as he is subject to the bishop as to the grace of God and to the presbytery as to the law of Jesus Christ. – St. Ignatius, Epistle to the Ephesians, Chapter 2

He’s fully willing to mention the names and positions of several people in the Magnesian Church.  Maybe it was safer to be a Christian in Magnesia than it was to be in Rome at the time?  This would make sense as in Rome you’d be under the thumb of a pagan emperor as opposed to being in a far Eastern province of the Roman Empire.

Now, as I mentioned earlier, this is simply a guess.  I would say it’s an educated guess but at the end of the day it’s just a guess.  However, my guess actually fits in with the evidence from the early Church.

Catholic apologist Trent Horn argues similarly:

Ignatius doesn’t mention any Christian by name in the church of Rome. . . . It makes sense that he’s not going to mention the names of these people. In the letter to the Romans, Ignatius only mentions Croccus, someone who is traveling with him, who was there in Asia Minor. If this letter is intercepted, he’s not going to give the Romans the names of the prominent Christians in the city of Rome. So yeah, I think these arguments from silence, we’re on the wrong burden of proof here. (“Was There a First Century Bishop of Rome?,” Catholic Answers, 2-16-22)

Catholic apologist Joe Heschmeyer adds:

[U]nlike his other letters (which are encouraging the churches to obey their leaders), the letter of Rome is to thank them for their support on his way to martyrdom.  It reads almost nothing like the other letters, because the theme and tone are totally different. (“Ignatius of Antioch on the Structure of the Early Church,” Shameless Popery, 10-20-10)

It sounds plausible enough to me. But I don’t claim any more for these arguments than that. If it’s considered to be a difficulty for the Catholic position, then I retort that there are many many difficulties in the non-episcopal position. At least I have posited some sort of reply for this alleged difficulty and argument from silence. Every position has to grapple with certain anomalies that don’t or don’t seem to fit into its theory

9:25 If you go back to the New Testament, you don’t have any basis for a distinction between the office of bishop and elder. . . . It’s very clear that the words are used interchangeably.

I’ve addressed this in my past article, St. Jerome, Papacy, & Succession (Vs. Gavin Ortlund). Readers can follow the link if they want to read the lengthy excerpt there from my bestselling apologetics book, A Biblical Defense of Catholicism. I wrote, for example:

As is often the case in theology and practice among the earliest Christians, there is some fluidity and overlapping of these three vocations (for example, compare Acts 20:17 with 20:28; 1 Timothy 3:1-7 with Titus 1:5-9). But this does not prove that three offices of ministry did not exist. For instance, St. Paul often referred to himself as a deacon or minister (1 Cor. 3:5; 4:1, 2 Cor. 3:6; 6:4; 11:23; Eph. 3:7; Col. 1:23-25), yet no one would assert that he was merely a deacon, and nothing else.

I’ll cite just one more portion of it which shows how the NT does single out some duties of the bishop over against the elders:

Bishops (episkopos) possess all the powers, duties, and jurisdiction of priests, with the following important additional responsibilities:

  • Jurisdiction over priests and local churches, and the power to ordain priests: Acts 14:22; 1 Timothy 5:22; 2 Timothy 1:6; Titus 1:5.
  • Special responsibility to defend the Faith: Acts 20:28-31; 2 Timothy 4:1-5; Titus 1:9-10; 2 Peter 3:15-16.
  • Power to rebuke false doctrine and to excommunicate: Acts 8:14-24; 1 Corinthians 16:22; 1 Timothy 5:20; 2 Timothy 4:2; Titus 1:10-11.
  • Power to bestow Confirmation (the receiving of the indwelling Holy Spirit): Acts 8:14-17; 19:5-6.
  • Management of Church finances: 1 Timothy 3:3-4; 1 Peter 5:2.

In the Septuagint, episkopos is used for “overseer” in various senses, for example: officers (Judg. 9:28; Isa. 60:17), supervisors of funds (2 Chron. 34:12, 17), overseers of priests and Levites (Neh. 11:9; 2 Kings 11:18), and of temple and tabernacle functions (Num. 4:16).

Plenty of distinctions there, and how they actually act in real life (e.g., Peter and James and later, Polycarp and Clement of Rome and Ignatius, as elaborated upon above) illustrates the differences in action.

Moreover, some have argued that Jesus Himself in the book of Revelation, taught monepiscopacy. In Revelation 1:16, St. John states that he saw “seven stars” in Jesus’ right hand. Then Jesus explains in 1:20 that “the seven stars are the angels of the seven churches.” Then Jesus tells John seven times in Revelation 2 and 3: “to the angel of the church in [so-and-so] write . . .“

This is highly unusual, but the most fascinating thing is what many classic Protestant commentators think this is describing. For example, Ellicott’s Commentary states that the “generally adopted view is that the angel is the chief pastor or bishop of the Church.” Jamieson, Fausset, and Brown Bible Commentary concurs that it is “the bishop, or superintendent pastor.” Pulpit Commentary, while noting that the interpretation is “very much disputed” comments that “the common explanation that they are the bishops of the Churches is attractive on account of its simplicity.”

Henry Alford, in his Greek Testament Critical Exegetical Commentary wrote about Revelation 2:8: “in accordance with the idea of the angel representing the bishop, many of the ancient Commentators have inferred that Polycarp must have been here addressed.” Adam Clarke’s Commentary states that the “stars” are “the seven angels, messengers, or bishops of the seven Churches.” W. E. Vine’s Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words states that the Greek word angelos “is also used of a [human] guardian or representative in Rev. 1:20.” Likewise, Ralph Earle’s Word Meanings of the New Testament opines that angelos “is used for human messengers in Luke 7:24; 9:52; and James 2:25 . . . we feel that here it may possibly mean the pastors of the 7 churches.”

Vincent’s Word Studies opines that one of two possible takes is that “The angels are Bishops.” Philip Schaff, the renowned church historian draws the remarkable conclusion that “This phraseology of the Apocalypse already looks towards the idea of episcopacy in its primitive form, that is, to a monarchical concentration of governmental form in one person, bearing a patriarchal relation to the congregation.” John Wesley, in his Explanatory Notes, stated that “In each church there was one pastor or ruling minister, to whom all the rest were subordinate. This pastor, bishop, or overseer, had the peculiar care over that flock . . .” St. Augustine in his Letter 43 commented on this:

[I]f He wished this to be understood as addressed to a celestial angel, and not to those invested with authority in the Church, He would not go on to say: “Nevertheless I have somewhat against you, because you have left your first love. Remember therefore from whence you are fallen, and repent, . . .” [Augustine cites Revelation 2:4-5] This could not be said to the heavenly angels, who retain their love unchanged, as the only beings of their order that have departed and fallen from their love are the devil and his angels.

St. Epiphanius believed the same, commenting on Revelation 2:6 in his Panarion (2:25): “John writes in the Lord’s name to one of the churches — that is, to the bishop appointed there . . .” So this shows that at least two of the Church fathers took this view. If this interpretation is followed (and I just cited ten major Protestant commentators who hold it or note that it is a common or respectable exegetical opinion), then it would follow that the question of monepiscopacy was already settled in the inspired revelation of the New Testament, describing the ecclesial scene around 100 AD, and by the words of our Lord Jesus.

Related Reading

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Photo credit: This tile in Constantinople (10th century) depicts St. Ignatius. bishop of Antioch [public domain / Wikipedia]

Summary: Reformed Baptist Gavin Ortlund argues that St. Ignatius of Antioch’s view of monarchical bishops is an isolated one; contradicted by other apostolic Church fathers.

 

December 21, 2023

François Turretin (1623-1687) was a Genevan-Italian Reformed scholastic theologian and renowned defender of the Calvinistic (Reformed) orthodoxy represented by the Synod of Dort, and was one of the authors of the Helvetic Consensus (1675). He is generally considered to be the best Calvinist apologist besides John Calvin himself. His Institutes of Elenctic Theology (three volumes, Geneva, 1679–1685) used the scholastic method. “Elenctic” means “refuting an argument by proving the falsehood of its conclusion.” Turretin contended against the conflicting Christian  perspectives of Catholicism and Arminianism. It was a popular textbook; notably at Princeton Theological Seminary, until it was replaced by Charles Hodge‘s Systematic Theology in the late 19th century. Turretin also greatly influenced the Puritans.

This is a reply to a portion of Institutes of Elenctic Theology (Vol. 2, Eleventh Topic: The Law of God, Seventh Question: The First Commandment), in which he addresses the communion of saints, including the invocation and veneration of saints. I utilize the edition translated by George Musgrave Giger and edited by James T. Dennison, Jr. (Presbyterian and Reformed Publishing Company, Phillipsburg, New Jersey: 1992 / 1994 / 1997; 2320 pages). It uses the KJV for Bible verses. I will use RSV unless otherwise indicated.  All installments of this series of replies can be found on my Calvinism & General Protestantism web page, under the category, “Replies to Francois Turretin (1632-1687).” Turretin’s words will be in blue.

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Is God alone to be worshipped and invoked? Or is it lawful to invoke and religiously worship deceased saints? We affirm the former and deny the latter against the papists.

As Turretin was well aware, Catholics distinguish between adoration, reserved for God, and veneration, which is more or less honoring the saints. “Worship” has a range of meaning in English. So, for example, in the ceremony of matrimony in the 1552 Book of Common Prayer (Anglican), are the words, “With this ring I thee wed: with my body I thee worship . . .”

I. By the first precept “thou shalt have no other gods before me,” the true object of religious worship is sanctioned.

Yes, of course. Christians are to be monotheists and adore God alone and accept or believe in no other (nonexistent) gods. Since there is no disagreement here, Turretin, in the final analysis, presupposes that any veneration collapses into (or at best “interferes” with) adoration meant for God alone. But this is untrue and is the fundamental error in play. It’s part and parcel of one of the most basic and repeated errors of Protestantism (especially Calvinism): its relentless “either/or” false dichotomies. In this instance, the mentality is seen in the belief that “if we worship God we can’t even honor or venerate anyone else, lest they become an idol. And we can’t invoke anyone but God.” I’ll be more than happy, as we proceed, to explain, with support from the Bible, why these premises are untrue.

Turretin shortly after brings up Galatians 4:8 (“. . . you were in bondage to beings that by nature are no gods”). Again, this is rank idolatry: making that which is not God in effect function as or replace God in ones religious practice, or as Turretin describes it: “what is not God is esteemed and served as God.” But the Catholic communion of saints is not the same thing as this blasphemous idolatry, because we simply aren’t replacing God with anyone or anything else. He mentions the “faith, adoration, and invocation due to God alone.” We agree that the first two are for God alone, but we deny that He is the only one who can be invoked, because the Bible teaches otherwise. Turretin assumes that this is the case, but what is his biblical proof for it? Perhaps later he attempts to produce that. I am answering as I read.

The papists sin in many ways about this: by the religious worship of creatures, angels, saints, relics, the host of the Mass, and of the pope himself. Thus they are guilty of not one kind of idolatry.

Where to start?! We don’t worship (in the sense he means: adoration) any of these persons or things, except for the consecrated host, which we believe to be Jesus Christ Himself. Jesus being God (as both sides agree), that’s not idolatry — it can’t possibly be idolatry — , because it’s directed at God Himself. So the argument there comes down to whether Jesus is truly, substantially present in the consecrated host and thus properly worshiped via the host as an image to focus attention on.

Even if the truth of the matter (assuming for the sake of argument) is that Jesus is not present in the consecrated host, it’s still not idolatry, because that sin has to do with the interior intentions of a person. He or she must be intending to place someone or something in the place of the true God. The Mass is not doing that at all. We’re not worshiping bread and wine. The whole point for us is that they miraculously transform into the Body and Blood of Jesus Christ. No Catholic who knows anything ever intended to, or actually did, worship a piece of mere bread or a cup of mere wine as God, which would indeed be idolatry.

Thus, this entire line of argument, insofar as it is applied to the Catholic Mass, is wrongheaded and a complete straw man. The statement above is a non sequitur, because the non-host items are never idolatrously worshiped by Catholics as God. Turretin seems confused about the very definition of idolatry. And this is elementary, so I must say that we appear to see an irrational and unbiblical bias affecting his thought processes. As so often with anti-Catholics, he is more so overreacting to Catholicism and its falsely alleged errors than arguing from the actual Bible.

Nor is eucharistic realism or adoration solely Catholic, by any stretch of the imagination. Martin Luther believed in the eucharistic real presence and even adoration of the consecrated host (he would bow before it), and regarded those who denied it, like Zwingli (and by logical extension, Calvinists and Turretin himself) as non-Christians and damned (e.g., “blasphemers and enemies of Christ”: Luther’s Works, Vol. 39, 302). This is why Calvin once referred to him as “half-papist,” and why Luther stated, “sooner than have mere wine with the fanatics, I would agree with the pope that there is only blood” (Confession Concerning Christ’s Supper, 1528, in Luther’s Works, Vol. 37, 317).

II. The question is not whether the saints piously dying in the Lord are to be held in any respect and honor. We do not deny that they are to be honored by us according to the degree of their excellence, both by thinking highly of them as servants of God most happy and admitted into the fellowship of the Lord and by cherishing their memory with a grateful and pleasant recollection (Lk. 1:48; Mk. 14:9), extolling their conflicts and victories, preserving their doctrine, celebrating and imitating their virtues (Heb. 12:1), praising God in and for them and giving him thanks for raising up such for the good of his church. Rather the question is whether they are to be reverenced with religious worship properly so called.

Here we see a classic methodological and presuppositional error of anti-Catholics that I have observed a thousand times. They will accurately describe what we actually believe (the above virtually is a definition of Catholic veneration of saints), and then without missing a beat go on to falsely describe what they vainly imagine “Catholic beliefs” to be, and pretend that our actual beliefs are not what they are. In other words, they prefer to war against a straw man. It’s almost as if they want there to be more differences than there actually are, and to refuse to admit common ground when it exists. So they quixotically battle against fictional windmills of their own making. It gets very tiresome as an apologist having to deal with such nonsense over and over, even from very sharp and learned men like Turretin, but the good news is that it fully and decisively demonstrates the great weakness of the anti-Catholic polemic and enterprise.

. . . we think that care should be diligently taken that they be not worshipped to the injury of God.

No disagreement there. What we differ on is the definition of “injury of God.” We say that honoring God’s creatures is, in fact, ultimately honoring Him as their Creator and enabler — by His grace — of every good thing that they do. The praising of a masterpiece of art is the same as praising its creator. If we praise the Mona Lisa, we praise da Vinci, etc. But Protestant “either/or” thinking can’t comprehend this Or rather, precludes it), oddly enough.

Nay, we think grievous injury is done to them by those who turn them into idols and abuse the friends of God to provoke him to jealousy.

He’s assuming what he needs to prove. I await such proof as I read on, but doubt that I will see it. I’ve been through this routine many times before. Anti-Catholic polemics is usually like an onion. One keeps peeling it, hoping to get to a core, only to find out that there is none. Catholic apologetics has a core, like an apple. The anti-Catholic slings around the word “idolatry” so ubiquitously, yet often neglects proving what he asserts by rational argument and example. He knows his readers will accept without question any accusation levied against the Catholic Church, and this is a large part of the problem. Not enough critical feedback is received or interacted with. Consequently, the methodology and the thinking become very sloppy, and is, therefore, easily refuted.
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The question is whether they are to be reverenced, not with that respect of love and fellowship exhibited to holy men of God in this life on account of imitation, but with a sacred worship of piety on account of religion . . . 
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Turretin refers to “the sacrifices and invocations presented to” saints and then cites St. Augustine, from Contra Faustus, Book XX, 21. If we take a look at that, we see that Augustine is a good Catholic, as always (even though Calvinists invariably pretend that he is “one of them”).
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Augustine states that Catholics are “paying honor to the memory of the martyrs” over against “the accusation of Faustus, that we worship them.” Faustus is arguing just as Protestants do. The heretic is analogous to Protestants, as Newman famously argued in his Apologia pro vita sua. Turretin claimed that Catholics make “sacrifices . . . to the saints. Augustine refutes this false accusation:
It is true that Christians pay religious honor to the memory of the martyrs, both to excite us to imitate them and to obtain a share in their merits, and the assistance of their prayers. But we build altars not to any martyr, but to the God of martyrs, although it is to the memory of the martyrs. No one officiating at the altar in the saints’ burying-place ever says, We bring an offering to you, O Peter! Or O Paul! Or O Cyprian! The offering is made to God, who gave the crown of martyrdom, while it is in memory of those thus crowned. The emotion is increased by the associations of the place, and love is excited both towards those who are our examples, and towards Him by whose help we may follow such examples. We regard the martyrs with the same affectionate intimacy that we feel towards holy men of God in this life, . . .
Augustine then distinguishes between adoration and worship of God and the veneration of saints:
What is properly divine worship, which the Greeks call latria, and for which there is no word in Latin, both in doctrine and in practice, we give only to God. To this worship belongs the offering of sacrifices; as we see in the word idolatry, which means the giving of this worship to idols. Accordingly we never offer, or require any one to offer, sacrifice to a martyr, or to a holy soul, or to any angel. Any one falling into this error is instructed by doctrine, either in the way of correction or of caution. For holy beings themselves, whether saints or angels, refuse to accept what they know to be due to God alone.
[T]he question is whether they are to be invoked as our mediators and intercessors. Nor only as intercessors who may obtain for us by their prayers and merits the blessings asked from them; but as the bestowers of them . . . 
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This gets into the massive scriptural motif of the prayers of righteous men having greater power (Jas 5:14-18), which I examined at great length. This is why we ask saints in heaven to intercede, because their prayers to God have a far greater effect or efficacy than ours do. I summarized the biblical data as follows:
We conclude that it’s best to “go straight to God” in prayer, unless there happens to be a person more righteous than we are, who is willing to make the same prayer request. Then the Bible recommends that we ask them to intercede for us or any righteous cause, rather than asking God directly.
Turretin questions whether anyone but God can be involved. The Bible contains a very clear, undeniable example of this, straight from the mouth of Jesus. It’s in the story (not parable) of Lazarus and the rich man (Luke 16). It presents the rich man making two petitionary requests to Abraham, not God. I recently summarized what is to be concluded from the information we have in this remarkable passage, and it is very unProtestant indeed:

Luke 16:24 And he called out, ‘Father Abraham, have mercy upon me, and send Lazarus to dip the end of his finger in water and cool my tongue; for I am in anguish in this flame.’

Abraham says no (16:25-26), just as God will say no to a prayer not according to His will. He asks him again, begging (16:27-28). Abraham refuses again, saying (16:29): “They have Moses and the prophets; let them hear them.’” He asks a third time (16:30), and Abraham refuses again, reiterating the reason why (16:31).

How this supposedly does not support the principle of saints interceding and being able to intercede is a mystery to me. If we were not supposed to ask saints to pray for us, I think this story would be almost the very last way to make that supposed point. Abraham would simply have said, “you shouldn’t be asking me for anything; ask God!” In the same way, analogously, angels refuse worship when it is offered, because only God can be worshiped [I cited Rev 19:9-10 and 22:8-9].

St. Peter did the same thing [Acts 10:25-26]. So did St Paul and Barnabas [Acts 14:11-15]. If the true theology is that Abraham cannot be asked an intercessory request, then Abraham would have noted this and refused to even hear it. But instead he heard the request and said no. Jesus couldn’t possibly have taught a false principle.

Game, set, match, right in the Bible, from Jesus Himself. . . .

It’s not that Abraham couldn’t intercede (if that were true, he would have said so and Jesus would have made it clear), but that he wouldn’t intercede in this instance (i.e., he refused to answer the request). Refusing a request is not the same thing as not being able to grant the request. Otherwise, we would have to say that God is unable to answer a prayer request when He refuses one. . . .

Luke 16 (from Jesus) clearly teaches them. Hence lies the dilemma. It matters not if both men are dead; the rich man still can’t do what he did, according to Protestant categories of thought and theology.

Whether Dives [the “rich man”] was dead or not is irrelevant, since standard Protestant theology holds that no one can make such a request to anyone but God. He’s asking Abraham to send Lazarus to him, and then to his brothers, to prevent them from going to hell. That is very much prayer: asking for supernatural aid from those who have left the earthly life and attained sainthood and perfection, with God. . . .

Jesus told this story, and in the story is a guy praying to a dead man, to request things that the dead man appears to be able to fulfill by his own powers. That is quite sufficient to prove the point. . . .

In fact, God is never mentioned in the entire story (!!!) . . .

So why did Jesus teach in this fashion? Why did He teach that Dives was asking Abraham to do things that Protestant theology would hold that only God can do? And why is the whole story about him asking Abraham for requests, rather than going directly to God and asking Him: which would seem to be required by [Protestant] theology? . . .

This just isn’t how it’s supposed to be, from a Protestant perspective. All the emphases are wrong, and there are serous theological errors, committed by Jesus Himself (i.e., from the erroneous Protestant perspective).

In another similar paper, I described the import of this story as follows:
Abraham is not supposed to be able to fulfill intercessory requests in the manner of Jesus, according to Protestant theology.

Why, then, does Jesus describe Dives praying to Abraham for precisely that? Note also that Abraham in turn never rebukes Dives, nor tells him that he shouldn’t be praying to him; that he should only pray to God. He merely turns down his request (which in turn proves that he had the power to do it but chose not to). Otherwise, he would or should have said (it seems to me), “I can’t do that; only God can” or “pray only to God, not to me.”

Turretin brought up his objection, and I just refuted it. I would give up a lot if it were possible to bring back Turretin for an hour and persuade him to try to refute what I just wrote. Protestants rarely do that because they simply ignore most of our best counter-arguments against their endless criticisms of Catholicism. So, by and large, we don’t know how they would answer. They love to throw out accusations. They do not like at all having to deal with the best Catholic apologists’ replies to same. That’s not part of the plan. It doesn’t work that way. It sure doesn’t. Their anti-Catholic and anti-traditional arguments are weak and easily refuted, and from Scripture, as I just did (or the Church fathers, as the case may be). Protestants don’t own Scripture or biblical argumentation and exegesis. Often, their exegesis is quite shallow, especially when it comes to what I have called the “Catholic verses.”
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Turretin makes reference to the “hope of salvation . . . placed in” saints and states, “Thus they are invoked, not only as intercessors, but also as protectors from evil and bestowers both of grace and glory.” This is eminently scriptural as well. But thus far, Turretin has not many many scriptural arguments. He simply rails about what he seems to think is self-evidently false (no biblical proofs needed, I guess . . .). The Bible refers to others besides God spreading His grace. In Revelation 1:4, grace is said to come from God and also “from the seven spirits who are before his throne.” God gives us partial credit for spreading His grace:

2 Corinthians 4:15 For it [his many sufferings: 4:8-12, 17] is all for your sake, so that as grace extends to more and more people it may increase thanksgiving, to the glory of God.

Ephesians 3:2 assuming that you have heard of the stewardship of God’s grace that was given to me for you . . .

Ephesians 4:29 Let no evil talk come out of your mouths, but only such as is good for edifying, as fits the occasion, that it may impart grace to those who hear.

1 Peter 4:10 As each has received a gift, employ it for one another, as good stewards of God’s varied grace:

Yet Turretin denies that anyone besides God can distribute His grace. Why? Was he unfamiliar with the above passages? Or did he choose to ignore them, since they are so unProtestant? How about creatures assisting others in being saved, though? That’s quite biblical as well:

Romans 11:13-14 . . . I magnify my ministry [14] in order to make my fellow Jews jealous, and thus save some of them.

1 Corinthians 1:21 . . . it pleased God through the folly of what we preach to save those who believe.

1 Corinthians 3:5 What then is Apol’los? What is Paul? Servants through whom you believed, . . .

1 Corinthians 7:16 Wife, how do you know whether you will save your husband? Husband, how do you know whether you will save your wife?

1 Corinthians 9:22 I have become all things to all men, that I might by all means save some.

2 Corinthians 1:6 If we are afflicted, it is for your comfort and salvation; . . .

1 Timothy 4:16 Take heed to yourself and to your teaching: hold to that, for by so doing you will save both yourself and your hearers.

2 Timothy 2:10 Therefore I endure everything for the sake of the elect, that they also may obtain salvation in Christ Jesus with its eternal glory.

James 5:19-20 My brethren, if any one among you wanders from the truth and some one brings him back, [20] let him know that whoever brings back a sinner from the error of his way will save his soul from death and will cover a multitude of sins.

1 Peter 3:1 Likewise you wives, be submissive to your husbands, so that some, though they do not obey the word, may be won without a word by the behavior of their wives

That’s ten biblical passages. Was Turretin unfamiliar with all of them, too? If men on earth can help in bestowing God’s gift of salvation, how much more can saints, who are perfected in heaven and without sin, do so, because their prayers are unimaginably effective, per James 5. Turretin then mentions two Catholic prayers:
Thus invocation is directed to all the saints: “Also ye happy hosts of souls in heaven; Let present, past and future ills from us be driven” (cf. “Festa Novembris: Ad Vesperas,” in Breviarium Romanum [1884], 2:817). And to the apostles: “O happy apostles, deliver me from sin, Defend, comfort and lead me into the kingdom of heaven” (Hortulus Animae [1602], pp. 450–51).”
Yeah, that’s biblical too. Moses was able to do that:
Exodus 32:30 On the morrow Moses said to the people, “You have sinned a great sin. And now I will go up to the LORD; perhaps I can make atonement for your sin.”
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Numbers 11:1-2 And the people complained in the hearing of the LORD about their misfortunes; and when the LORD heard it, his anger was kindled, and the fire of the LORD burned among them, and consumed some outlying parts of the camp. [2] Then the people cried to Moses; and Moses prayed to the LORD, and the fire abated.
Numbers 14:13, 19-20 But Moses said to the LORD, . . . [19] “Pardon the iniquity of this people, I pray thee, according to the greatness of thy steadfast love, and according as thou hast forgiven this people, from Egypt even until now.” [20] Then the LORD said, “I have pardoned, according to your word;
Numbers 21:7-9 And the people came to Moses, and said, “We have sinned, for we have spoken against the LORD and against you; pray to the LORD, that he take away the serpents from us.” So Moses prayed for the people. [8] And the LORD said to Moses, “Make a fiery serpent, and set it on a pole; and every one who is bitten, when he sees it, shall live.” [9] So Moses made a bronze serpent, and set it on a pole; and if a serpent bit any man, he would look at the bronze serpent and live.
He can do this by the power and will of God, but no one in heaven can? That makes no sense. Of course they can do so. We ask them to pray for our deliverance from sin, and their powerful prayers help make it possible. This is how God designed things. Otherwise, all of these “Catholic verses” simply wouldn’t be in the Bible in the first place. Turretin doesn’t refute them; he ignores them.
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Moses’ brother Aaron atoned for his people and stopped a plague (Num 16:46-48). Phinehas likewise atoned and prevented God’s wrath from “consum[ing] the people of Israel” (Num 25:11-13). But Turretin denies that this could happen (these are his false premises, before he even gets to saints in heaven), and appears to think that only God can do these things. God says otherwise in His revelation!
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Also: “I seek to be saved by you in the last judgment.”
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Ho hum. Paul casually noted at least four times that he “saved” people (Rom 11:14; 1 Cor 9:22; 2 Cor 1:6; 2 Tim 2:10: all seen above). James wrote that “whoever brings back a sinner from the error of his way” will do the same (Jas 5:20). Paul told Timothy that he could “save” his “hearers” (1 Tim 4:16). These Catholic prayers are to be understood in the same sense: a biblical sense. It’s not rocket science. Turretin is the one being unbiblical, in denying clear biblical affirmations.
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To Peter: “O Shepherd Peter, mild and good, receive My prayers—from bonds of sin my soul relieve; By that great power which unto thee was given Who by thy word dost open and shut the gate of heaven” (“Festa Junii: SS. Petri et Pauli,” in Breviarium Romanum [1884], 2:499).
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The apostles (including Peter: Mt 16:19) were given the power to forgive sins and relieve people of their sins (what we call absolution):

Matthew 16:19 I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven, and whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.

Matthew 18:18 Truly, I say to you, whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven.

John 20:21-23 Jesus said to them again, “Peace be with you. As the Father has sent me, even so I send you.” And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and said to them, “Receive the Holy Spirit. If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven; if you retain the sins of any, they are retained.”

This was later delegated to the “elders of the church”:

James 5:14-15 Is any among you sick? Let him call for the elders of the church, and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord; [15] and the prayer of faith will save the sick man, and the Lord will raise him up; and if he has committed sins, he will be forgiven.
Where’s the beef? All of this stuff is so eminently biblical that no Christians should have to argue about it at all. But because Protestants ignore or seek to rationalize away all of this Scripture (and it’s a lot, as we see above), we have to engage in these should-be-unnecessary conflicts, in order that the Bible doesn’t get trampled underfoot and neglected: ironically by those who always claim to be its exemplary expositors and champions.
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Photo credit: Landauer Altar (1511), by Albrecht Dürer (1471-1528) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

Summary: As part of my series of replies to Calvinist expositor Francois Turretin, I address the topic of the communion of saints, particularly their powerful intercession.

October 31, 2023

vs. Nathan Rinne

Including St. Augustine’s View on the Rule of Faith & the Perspicuity of Scripture; Luther & Lutherans’ Belief in Falling Away

Nathan Rinne is a “Lutheran layman with a theology degree.” He knows enough theology to be able to preach a sermon (“Still Justified by Faith Alone, Apart from Works of the Law”), which he did at the Clam Falls Lutheran Church in Wisconsin on October 29, 2023, in celebration of the Protestant Revolt, or what Protestants call “Reformation Day” (October 31st, when Luther tacked up his 95 Theses in 1517). This congregation is a member of the American Association of Lutheran Churches (AALC), which is a breakaway traditional Lutheran denomination (since Lutheranism as a whole is largely theologically liberal today). It had 16,000 members as of 2008, and is in friendly fellowship with the much larger Lutheran Church – Missouri Synod (1.8 million members). Nathan and I engaged in several substantive and cordial dialogues about a dozen years ago. His words will be in blue. I use RSV for Bible citations.

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“For we maintain that a person is justified by faith apart from the works of the law.”

– Romans 3:28

The phrase “works of the law” here (a technical phrase that St. Paul uses seven times) is not referring to all good works whatsoever (which is what most think it means), but rather, certain ceremonial Jewish laws. This is what is called the “New Perspective on Paul” (NPP): a Protestant scholarly movement that has a significant affinity with traditional Catholic doctrine in this respect. The Wikipedia article by this title provides a good summary:

The old Protestant perspective claims that Paul advocates justification through faith in Jesus Christ over justification through works of the Law. After the Reformation, this perspective was known as sola fide; this was traditionally understood as Paul arguing that Christians’ good works would not factor into their salvation – only their faith would count. In this perspective, first-century Second Temple Judaism is dismissed as sterile and legalistic.

According to [this view], Paul’s letters do not address general good works, but instead question observances such as circumcision, dietary laws, and Sabbath laws, which were the “boundary markers” that set the Jews apart from the other ethnic groups. . . . first-century Palestinian Judaism was not a “legalistic community,” nor was it oriented to “salvation by works.” . . .

The “new perspective” is an attempt to reanalyze Paul’s letters and interpret them based on an understanding of first-century Judaism, taken on its own terms. . . .

There are certain trends and commonalities within the movement, but what is held in common is the belief that the historic Lutheran and Reformed perspectives of Paul the Apostle and Judaism are fundamentally incorrect. . . .

The historic Protestant perspectives interpret this phrase [“works of the law”] as referring to human effort to do good works in order to meet God’s standards (Works Righteousness). . . . By contrast, new-perspective scholars see Paul as talking about “badges of covenant membership” or criticizing Gentile believers who had begun to rely on the Torah to reckon Jewish kinship. . . .

“New-perspective” interpretations of Paul tend to result in Paul having nothing negative to say about the idea of human effort or good works, and saying many positive things about both. New-perspective scholars point to the many statements in Paul’s writings that specify the criteria of final judgment as being the works of the individual.

Final Judgment According to Works… was quite clear for Paul (as indeed for Jesus). Paul, in company with mainstream second-Temple Judaism, affirms that God’s final judgment will be in accordance with the entirety of a life led – in accordance, in other words, with works.

— N. T. Wright

. . . in the perspective of Luther and Calvin, God graciously empowers the individual to the faith which leads to salvation and also to good works, while in the “new” perspective God graciously empowers individuals to the faith (demonstrated in good works), which leads to salvation.

Catholics, who also believe in merit (a biblical concept itself, which Protestants, including NPP advocates, deny), hold that faith and works cannot be separated, and that the latter is an intrinsic part of the former, without which faith is “dead” (see James 2:17, 26).

Yes, the church had always had to deal with relatively small break-off groups…

And Lutheranism: concocted by Martin Luther in 1517 and especially in his writings in 1521, is one of these. But it was different in that it was still trinitarian and Christian, alongside its errors.

But for the most part, the church was one body, catholic, that is universal – being found across the nations. 

Yes, and it remains so today, and has been so since the time that Jesus Christ established it with St. Peter as the first leader (Mt 16:18-19).

Then there was the Eastern schism some 1000 years ago, when the Eastern churches split from Rome, the Western half of the church.

That’s exactly what happened, as opposed to the Catholic Church departing Orthodoxy, as if it were the one true Church by itself. Eastern Christianity had in fact split off of Rome at least five times before, and in every occurrence they were on the wrong side of the dispute, as Orthodox today concede:

1. The Arian schisms (343-98)
2. The controversy over St. John Chrysostom (404-415)
3. The Acacian schism (484-519)
4. Concerning Monothelitism (640-681)
5. Concerning Iconoclasm (726-87 and 815-43)

1054 was simply a larger and sadly lasting instance of the same schismatic, “contra-Catholic” mentality.

Following this, about 500 years ago, the Protestant Reformation occurred, with Rome expelling Martin Luther and then other Protestants for their perceived rebellion. 

Let no one fool themselves: this was undeniably a schism, just as the Orthodox departure was. Nathan calls that split a “schism” but is reluctant to call the Protestant Revolt the same thing. But what is the essential difference? There is none. He even uses the qualifying term “perceived” in referring to Luther’s rebellion, implying that it wasn’t that, and is wrongly thought to be so by Catholics. It certainly was a revolt or rebellion. In fact, Luther departed from Catholic teaching in at least fifty ways before he was ever excommunicated, as I documented over 17 years ago. I commented upon this, after listing the fifty items:

So that is 50 ways in which Luther was a heretic, heterodox, a schismatic, or believed things which were clearly contrary to the Catholic Church’s teaching or practice, up to and including truly radical departures (even societally radical in some cases). Is that enough to justify his excommunication from Catholic ranks? Or was the Church supposed to say, “yeah, Luther, you know, you’re right about these fifty issues. You know better than the entire Church, the entire history of the Church, and all the wisdom of the saints in past ages who have believed these things. So we will bow to your heaven-sent wisdom, change all fifty beliefs or practices, so we can proceed in a godly direction. Thanks so much! We are forever indebted to you for having informed us of all these errors!!”

Is that not patently ridiculous? What Church would change 50 things in its doctrines because one person feels himself to be some sort of oracle from God or pseudo-prophet: God’s man for the age? Yet we are led to believe that it is self-evident that Luther was a good, obedient Catholic who only wanted to reform the Church, not overturn or leave it, let alone start a new sect. He may have been naive or silly enough to believe that himself, but objectively speaking, it is clear and plain to one and all that what he offered – even prior to 1520 – was a radical program; a revolution. This is not reform. And the so-called “Protestant Reformation” was not that, either (considered as a whole). It was a Revolt or a Revolution. I have just shown why that is.

No sane, conscious person who had read any of his three radical treatises of 1520 could doubt that he had already ceased to be an orthodox Catholic. He did not reluctantly become so because he was unfairly kicked out of the Church by men who would not listen to manifest Scripture and reason (as the Protestant myth and perpetual propaganda would have it) but because he had chosen himself to accept heretical teachings, by the standard of Catholic orthodoxy, and had become a radical, intent also on spreading his (sincerely and passionately held) errors across the land with slanderous, mocking, propagandistic tracts and even vulgar woodcuts, if needs be.

Therefore, the Church was entirely sensible, reasonable, within her rights, logical, self-consistent, and not hypocritical or “threatened” in the slightest to simply demand Luther’s recantation of his errors at the Diet of Worms in 1521, and to refuse to argue with him (having already tried on several occasions, anyway), because to do so would have granted his ridiculous presumption that he was in a position to singlehandedly dispute and debate what had been the accumulated doctrinal and theological wisdom of the Church for almost 1500 years.

No doubt such an argument sounds “harsh” and utterly unacceptable to Lutheran and other Protestant ears, but it’s nothing personal, and hey, their endless oppositional rhetoric against Catholicism (usually filled with caricatures and historical whoppers; even theological inaccuracies) also sounds quite harsh to us, too. It works both ways. The Catholic must respond — and cannot be faulted for responding — to the basic Protestant critique of us, just as Nathan is attempting to do in this sermon. Protestants have a well-honed perspective, but rest assured that we have ours, too, and it is at least as reasonable as theirs. Protestants are so used to no or feeble defenses of the Catholic Church over against “Reformation” rhetoric that they think their view of the Protestant Revolt is the only possible one available. I used to be of the same mind myself, until I actually read both sides. There are always two sides to every human conflict, and both need to be fairly considered.

Was the Reformation necessary? 

If it was a necessity – even one that God deemed necessary – was it a tragic necessity? 

No. What was necessary was a reform within the existing Catholic Church (which is always necessary at any given time, as we say: human beings being the sinners that we are).

Or, should we, perhaps feeling some blame for causing a rupture in the body, feel some shame for being Lutherans?

Current-day Lutherans are not to blame for the sin of schism, as the Catholic Church made clear at Vatican II, but Luther and the original Lutheran — and larger Protestant — movement were responsible for that sin. Lutheranism contains a great deal of truth, as all Protestant denominations do, and that is a very good thing. I thank God and am very grateful for what I learned when I was an evangelical, from 1977-1990.

Catholics contend that Catholicism is the fullness of theological and spiritual truth. It doesn’t have to run down Protestants as wicked and evil (as the tiny anti-Catholic wing of Protestants think of us). Rather, it is a “very good” and “best” scenario, as we see it, rather than “good vs. evil” or “light vs. darkness.” We’re not the ones making the accusation of “antichrists” and mass apostasy from Christianity itself, and supposed idolatry and blasphemy and all the rest. We would say, “we have much more to offer to you, our esteemed separate brethren, that can benefit you in your Christian walk with Jesus.” Its somewhat like the “pearl of great price” in the Bible.

Martin Luther also said some very good and “traditional-sounding” words about the Catholic Church, as I have documented. These came mostly after he was shocked by the further (and I would say, inevitable) inter-Protestant schisms of the Anabaptists, Zwingli, Carlstadt, iconoclasts, and others; as well as the Peasants’ Revolt of 1524-1525. Luther utterly detested these splits, saying that “there are as many sects as there are heads.” His rhetoric was much less fiery and volatile and “anti-traditional” after that; at least some of the time. But he refused to ever admit that he started all of this with his own schism and the new and false premises and presuppositions entailed (such as sola Scriptura and private judgment). How blind we all are to our own faults! When Zwingli was killed in battle, Luther wrote:

And recently God has notably punished the poor people of Switzerland, Zwingli and his followers, for they were hardened and perverted, condemned of themselves, as St. Paul says. They will all experience the same.

Although neither Munzerites nor Zwinglians will admit that they are punished by God, but give out that they are martyrs, nevertheless we, who know that they have gravely erred in the sacrament and other articles, recognize God’s punishment and beware of it ourselves. (Preserved Smith, The Life and Letters of Luther, Boston and New York: Houghton Mifflin Company, 1911, 291-292; letter from Wittenberg, “February or beginning of March, 1532)

In the same letter Luther decried the notion that anyone would “teach against the long and unanimously held doctrine of the Church” and stated that “we must not trifle with the articles of faith so long and unanimously held by Christendom.” In his mind, Catholicism was superior to the Protestants who deemed fit to split off against his own movement (using the same justification that he used to depart from Catholicism).

You see, even admirable men like Sir Thomas More (see the excellent movie A Man for All Seasons!) said that since the church basically owned the Bible they could decide how it was to be used and interpreted!

This needs to be documented, so one can consult the context. I just wrote yesterday about the Catholic Church and the interpretation of Scripture, knocking down the usual numerous myths But even if St. Thomas More — great as he was, as a saint and martyr — is shown to have expressed something contrary to official Church doctrine, he had no authority anyway, compared to the magisterium. Lutherans, in fact, argue the same way. Many times if I cite Luther, they will note that it’s not his view that counts, but rather that of the Book of Concord (and I understand this; I usually cite Luther in the historical sense, of how the early Protestants developed; as I have done in this article). Likewise, with us. Protestant critics need to properly consult ecumenical councils or papal encyclicals if they wish to critique our view, not individual scholars or theologians.

Some of Rome’s highest-ranking theologians, like the Court theologian Prier[i]as for example, even claimed the authority of the Gospel existed because of the Pope’s authority. He stated: 

“In its irrefragable and divine judgment the church’s authority is greater than the authority of Scripture…the authority of the Roman Pontiff…is greater than the authority of the Gospel, since because of it we believe in the Gospels.”)” (see Tavard’s Holy Writ on Holy Church)…

Again, one theologian doesn’t speak for the whole Church (and shouldn’t be presented as supposedly having done so). Not even any given Church father — including the great Augustine — can do so. The authoritative magisterium of the Church in harmonious conjunction with sacred tradition and Sacred Scripture determines these matters. An individual (and not a bishop) is cited, even though he has no binding authority in Catholicism. This is not the way to disprove anything in Catholicism.

Prierias died in 1523, 22 years before the Council of Trent began. Theologians are not even part of the magisterium (it is popes and bishops together in ecumenical councils in harmony with popes). He was simply wrong. The Decree Concerning the Canonical Scriptures, from the Fourth Session of the Council of Trent in 1546 (the year of Luther’s death), doesn’t approach Holy Scripture like Prierias did:

. . . keeping this always in view, that, errors being removed, the purity itself of the Gospel be preserved in the Church; which (Gospel), before promised through the prophets in the holy Scriptures, our Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God, first promulgated with His own mouth, and then commanded to be preached by His Apostles to every creature, as the fountain of all, both saving truth, and moral discipline . . . (the Synod) following the examples of the orthodox Fathers, receives and venerates with an equal affection of piety, and reverence, all the books both of the Old and of the New Testament–seeing that one God is the author of both . . . as having been dictated, either by Christ’s own word of mouth, or by the Holy Ghost, and preserved in the Catholic Church by a continuous succession. (my italics)

The Catholic Church “receives” and “preserves” and “venerates” the Bible. It doesn’t claim authority over the Bible or the gospel. It’s two different concepts. One statement by one non-authoritative theologian doesn’t change this fact. Vatican I (1870) and Vatican II (1962-1965) elaborated upon this understanding and made it even more crystal clear that the Catholic Church doesn’t consider itself superior to or “over” the Bible:

These the Church holds to be sacred and canonical; not because, having been carefully composed by mere human industry, they were afterward approved by her authority; not because they contain revelation, with no admixture of error; but because, having been written by the inspiration of the Holy Ghost, they have God for their author, and have been delivered as such to the Church herself. (Vatican I, Dogmatic Constitution on the Catholic Faith, chapter II; emphasis added)

The divinely-revealed realities which are contained and presented in the text of sacred Scripture, have been written down under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. For Holy Mother Church relying on the faith of the apostolic age, accepts as sacred and canonical the books of the Old and New Testaments, whole and entire, with all their parts, on the grounds that they were written under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit (cf. Jn. 20:31; 2 Tim. 3:16; 2 Pet. 1:19-21; 3:15-16), they have God as their author, and have been handed on as such to the Church herself. (Vatican II, Dogmatic Constitution on Divine Revelation [Dei Verbum], Chapter III, 11; emphasis added)

Nathan himself stated later on, that “the Church, in it’s truly God-given authority, had recognized, and zealously guarded and passed down its primary tradition, the Holy Scriptures. Exactly! This is precisely what Vatican I and Vatican II clarified.    Likewise, Lutheran Carl E. Braaten wrote eloquently about the relationship of the Bible and the Church: thoughts that Catholics can wholeheartedly accept:

Scripture principle exists only on account of the church and for the sake of the church…The Scripture principle of Reformation theology and its hermeneutical principles make sense only in and with the church . . . The authority of Scripture functions not in separation from the church but only in conjunction with the Spirit-generated fruits in the life of the church, its apostolic confession of faith and its life-giving sacraments of baptism, absolution and the Lord’s Supper. (“The Problem of Authority in the Church,” in: Carl E. Braaten and Robert W. Jenson, editors, The Catholicity of the Reformation, Grand Rapids, Michigan: William B. Eerdmans, 1996, 61-62)

This, to say the least, is a far cry from what Augustine meant. 

He, for one – like many others before and after him – also said things like, “Let us… yield ourselves and bow to the authority of the Holy Scriptures, which can neither err nor deceive…”

A citation would be nice for this one, too (many people online also cite it without documentation). But there is nothing contrary to Catholicism in these words, even without consultation of context. Every Christian ought to do so. Since we’re now gonna engage in the rather common exercise of “competing” St. Augustine citations, I’m more than happy to cull from the book that I edited, The Quotable Augustine (2012). It devotes six-and-a-half pages to the question of thoroughly Catholic Augustine‘s view of the rule of faith. Here are some of his words:

There is a third class of objectors who either really do understand Scripture well, or think they do, and who, because they know (or imagine) that they have attained a certain power of interpreting the sacred books without reading any directions of the kind that I propose to lay down here, will cry out that such rules are not necessary for any one, but that everything rightly done towards clearing up the obscurities of Scripture could be better done by the unassisted grace of God. . . . No, no; rather let us put away false pride and learn whatever can be learned from man; . . . lest, being ensnared by such wiles of the enemy and by our own perversity, we may even refuse to go to the churches to hear the gospel itself, or to read a book, or to listen to another reading or preaching, . . . Cornelius the centurion, although an angel announced to him that his prayers were heard and his alms had in remembrance, was yet handed over to Peter for instruction, and not only received the sacraments from the apostle’s hands, but was also instructed by him as to the proper objects of faith, hope, and love. [Acts x] And without doubt it was possible to have done everything through the instrumentality of angels, but the condition of our race would have been much more degraded if God had not chosen to make use of men as the ministers of His word to their fellow-men. For how could that be true which is written, “The temple of God is holy, which temple you are,” [1 Corinthians 3:17] if God gave forth no oracles from His human temple, but communicated everything that He wished to be taught to men by voices from heaven, or through the ministration of angels? Moreover, love itself, which binds men together in the bond of unity, would have no means of pouring soul into soul, and, as it were, mingling them one with another, if men never learned anything from their fellow-men. (On Christian Doctrine, Preface, 2, 5-6)

The authority of our books, which is confirmed by the agreement of so many nations, supported by a succession of apostles, bishops, and councils, is against you. (Against Faustus the Manichee, xiii, 5; cf. xi, 5; xiii, 16; xxxiii, 9)

[W]e hold most firmly, concerning our Lord Jesus Christ, what may be called the canonical rule, as it is both disseminated through the Scriptures, and has been demonstrated by learned and Catholic handlers of the same Scriptures . . . (On the Trinity, ii, 1, 2)

My opinion therefore is, that wherever it is possible, all those things should be abolished without hesitation, which neither have warrant in Holy Scripture, nor are found to have been appointed by councils of bishops, nor are confirmed by the practice of the universal Church, . . . (Epistle 55 [19, 35] to Januarius [400] )

St. Augustine also wrote about the perspicuity (clearness) of Scripture:

[L]et the reader consult the rule of faith which he has gathered from the plainer passages of Scripture, and from the authority of the Church, . . . (On Christian Doctrine, 3, 2, 2)

For many meanings of the holy Scriptures are concealed, and are known only to a few of singular intelligence . . . (Explanations of the Psalms, 68:30 [68, 36] )

For him, the authority of the church was embodied in the living tradition, admittedly spearheaded by the Pope, and that was because the Scriptures were also the ultimate wellspring of that authority, the sum and substance of that authority. 

The Catholic Church wholeheartedly agrees, in affirming that the Catholic “teaching office is not above the word of God, but serves it, teaching only what has been handed on, listening to it devoutly, guarding it scrupulously and explaining it faithfully in accord with a divine commission and with the help of the Holy Spirit . . .” (Vatican II, Dei Verbum, ch. II, 10).

The same document stated that “Easy access to Sacred Scripture should be provided for all the Christian faithful” (ch. 6, 22); “the study of the sacred page is, as it were, the soul of sacred theology” (ch. 6, 24); “all the clergy must hold fast to the Sacred Scriptures through diligent sacred reading and careful study . . . The sacred synod also earnestly and especially urges all the Christian faithful, especially Religious, to learn by frequent reading of the divine Scriptures the ‘excellent knowledge of Jesus Christ’ (Phil. 3:8); “For ignorance of the Scriptures is ignorance of Christ.” (ch. 6, 25); “we may hope for a new stimulus for the life of the Spirit from a growing reverence for the word of God, which ‘lasts forever’ (Is. 40:8; see 1 Peter 1:23-25).” (ch. 6, 26); “the force and power in the word of God is so great that it stands as the support and energy of the Church, the strength of faith for her sons, the food of the soul, the pure and everlasting source of spiritual life.” (ch. 6, 21)

And the church in Luther’s day was failing, to say the least. In his day, the Pope was going so far as to say things like “since God has given us the papacy, let us enjoy it.” 

How is this inconsistent with what St. Paul wrote: “let every one lead the life which the Lord has assigned to him, and in which God has called him” (1 Cor 7:17)? Is the pope supposed to go around with a long face, and not “enjoy” his work? It’s a mere drudgery? Paul asserted that God “richly furnishes us with everything to enjoy” (1 Tim 6:17). Yet somehow the office of the papacy is to be devoid of such joy? Biblically, this makes no sense. “Joy” is mentioned 60 times in the NT. The disciples were “filled with joy” (Acts 13:52; cf. Rom 14:17; 15:13; 2 Cor 2:3; Gal 5:22; Phil 1:25; Col 1:11; 1 Thess 1:6; 1 Pet 1:8). This should be the case even when we “meet various trials” (Jas 1:2). James says to “Count it all joy.”

Clearly, here was a leader of God’s church who – so taken up with worldly power – was culpably ignorant of not understanding what God really intended for him to do. 

How does this follow from the words cited? Nathan attempts to judge a man’s heart, and for no sufficient reason: a thing which we ought never do. If these words (assuming they are authentic) indeed carry some nefarious or sinister meaning, then we would have to have some context, to judge that. Prima facie, I see nothing wrong or unbiblical about them. But whatever the man’s real faults, we point out that impeccability is not the same as papal infallibility. There were a few “bad popes.” Just as sinners wrote the inspired revelation of the Bible, so can sinners make infallible pronouncements. Most popes, however, have been good, pious Christians and holy men.

Luther . . . brought nothing new.

To the contrary, as I have documented, he brought at least fifty novel, new things into Christian theology: and all before he was ever excommunicated.

We can therefore never emphasize enough that Luther and the “Lutherans” – Rome’s term of abuse – never intended to leave the Roman Catholic Church but were ejected by them.

If “Lutherans” is a “term of abuse” then why was it retained by the denomination [s] that continued Luther’s split? Lutherans free to reject the term, just as we are to reject “papism” or “Romanism,” etc. Until they do, the above objection is a non sequitur.

The intention to leave is clearly latent in the fact that Luther came to espouse fifty things contrary to existing Catholic tradition, which showed his spirit of rebellion and arrogance (thinking he knew better than the Church and all of Church history and doctrinal precedent), just as lust in the heart precedes actual physical adultery. He spread these radical ideas far and wide, with the help of the printing press. It’s how every radical movement has functioned ever since: start promulgating ideas, to get people to believe them, and then appeal to the fact that they have (the ad populum fallacy).

And then, over and against their Roman Catholic opponents, the claim of these “first evangelicals” who agreed with Luther was not that they were doing anything new, but that their teachings truly were “holy, catholic and apostolic…” 

This claim is a demonstrable falsehood. Many things remained the same (thank God), but there were also many novel innovations and inventions, and no one who knows the facts of the matter can possibly deny that. It was a “mixed bag” from the Catholic perspective.

“The churches among us do not dissent from the catholic church in any article of faith,” they insisted. 

Right. And what would they call Luther’s fifty dissenting opinions, that Lutheranism largely followed? Permissible variations?

In addition to the nonsense about the role the Scriptures played in the church,

What’s “nonsense” is this accusation against the Catholic Church, as I thoroughly explained above.

the Pope had insisted he had full authority over temporal political matters and one had to believe this to be saved.

This was a widespread medieval understanding, and not exclusive to Catholicism. Luther thought that the Anabaptists were “seditious” and subverted not only the theological and ecclesial, but also civil order. He thought the same about the violent hordes of the Peasants’ Revolt, and Carlstadt and his image-smashers, Zwingli’s shocking rejection of the eucharistic Real Presence, etc. The medieval mind didn’t make much of a separation between the realms of Church and state.

In fact, Luther — along with Butcher Henry VIII — brought in the Church state, so that people were required in Germany to be a Lutheran simply by being born in a Lutheran-controlled territory of Germany. He treated princes as if they had authority in the Church, as if they were bishops (the old error of caesaropapism to some degree). How is that not meddling in temporal affairs? Yet Protestant polemicists so often have tunnel vision and a double standard, contending that only the Catholic Church had all these (real or merely imagined) problems, while ignoring the myriad of scandals and problems and endless sectarianism and radical mentalities and doctrinal errors / contradictions of many in the young Protestant movement and ever since.

Priests were forbidden to marry, in direct contradiction to Scripture.

This is not unscriptural at all. The Catholic Church was following St. Paul’s express recommendations for achieving an “undivided devotion to the Lord” (1 Cor 7:35) by celibate individuals (cf. “he who refrains from marriage will do better”: 1 Cor 7:38). Jesus said, “there are eunuchs who have made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. He who is able to receive this, let him receive it” (Mt 19:12). I guess Protestants can’t “receive” it.  They’re picking and choosing again, what will be accepted in the Bible, and what will be rejected. Priestly celibacy is a good thing, not a bad thing. We simply follow Jesus’ and Paul’s advice to a greater extent than Protestants do. But — here’s the thing — it’s difficult to be celibate, so Protestants throw it out, contrary to Scripture, which doesn’t do so, simply because something is difficult.  The Bible teaches that “I can do all things in him who strengthens me” (Phil 4:13). I add that priests are allowed to marry in the eastern rites of the Catholic Church, because this is a “disciplinary” or pastoral matter, not a doctrinal or dogmatic one.

In conjunction with secular authorities, the offices of the bishops were often given to the highest bidders. 

Yes; that was scandalous; so were Lutherans and other Protestants pretending that secular bishops (many of whom cared not a whit about Christianity or morals in general) were quasi-bishops. There is enough sin and corruption and ignoring of the Bible to go around.

People became monks specifically because the Roman church taught and promised it was the surest way to achieve salvation by their increased merit. 

Heroic, exceptionally sacrificial sanctity or what is called the “evangelical counsels” is indeed one way to be more sure that we will attain heaven. See the many Bible passages about merit and sanctification tied directly to justification.

Laypersons were told that they could eliminate thousands of years of painful purging fire for their ancestors by “prayerfully” providing donations to the church.

The Papacy had recently expanded indulgences to include the claim of granting forgiveness itself… 

The Catholic Church — in the Catholic Reformation — reformed the practice of indulgences (which is itself a notion taught in the Bible). See my article, Myths and Facts Regarding Tetzel and Indulgences (11-25-16; published in Catholic Herald).

Also, men and women were given the body of Christ, but not the blood, which was reserved for the clergy. 

There was no theological / spiritual reason to receive both. There were considerations of the sacred blood possibly dripping, etc. But Christ can’t be divided, and is fully present in both the consecrated hosts and the chalice. I myself always receive only the consecrated host. See my article, The Host and Chalice Both Contain Christ’s Body and Blood (National Catholic Register, 12-10-19). Of course, we now allow both. It’s another pastoral / disciplinary matter, which can change according to place and circumstance; not doctrine.

In the Mass itself, the priests spoke of re-sacrificing Christ, and achieving salvation through this and other merits…

It’s not a “re-sacrifice” but rather, the one sacrifice of Jesus Christ on the cross supernaturally made present again.

But, above all, people were told that they could not be certain that they would even be saved… even make it to purgatory (for note that if you got to purgatory, you’d eventually get to heaven…). 

No one can be absolutely certain of what the future holds, because we are in time and simply can’t know that information. That includes the question of our own eternal destiny. Even John Calvin stated that no one but God can know who is of the elect. It’s folly and unbiblical (as well as irrational) to pretend otherwise.  We know that people fall away from the faith. We can’t be certain that we won’t. Catholics believe in what we call a “moral assurance of salvation.” I’ve always said that I am just as confident of my salvation (without being certain) as a Catholic, as I was when I was a Protestant. Catholics examine their consciences to make sure they are not in a state of mortal sin, that separates them from God and could possibly lead to damnation, if not repented of and absolved.

Right around the same time that Luther nailed the 95 theses to the Church doors in Wittenberg, the theologian Johann Altenstaig (in his Vocabularius theologiae, Hagenau 1517) was saying that the devil led people astray by making them think there was good evidence for their being saved. 

“No one, no matter how righteous he may be”, Altenstaig said, “can know with certainty that he is in the state of grace, except by a revelation”.

We can believe there is good evidence that we will be saved if we die in the next minute, through the examination of our consciences and confession if necessary (moral assurance) and the absence of subjective mortal sin, but it’s not certainty. He’s correct. Anyone who thinks they are absolutely certain of this is deluding themselves, short of an extraordinary revelation, just as he says. St. Paul argues the same way many times. He doesn’t assume he is saved once and for all time. That’s just Protestant man-made tradition. Martin Luther agrees with us: “one cannot say with certainty who will be [called] in the future or who will finally endure . . .” (Sermon on John 17; Luther’s Works, Vol 69:50-51). All agree that the elect will be saved and cannot not be saved, because God predestined it (yes, we believe in the predestination of the elect, too). But we can’t know with certainty who is in their number. That’s the problem.

In like fashion, one of the most important movers and shakers in the church, Cardinal Cajetan, wrote a few weeks before confronting Luther at Augsburg, wrote that “Clearly almost all come to the sacraments of penance and the Eucharist in reverent fear of the Lord and uncertain of being in grace. In fact theologians praise their continuing uncertainty and ordinarily attribute its opposite to presumption or ignorance” (both quotes from Cajetan Responds, a footnote from p. 269 and p. 66).

Once again, one Cardinal is cited; nothing from Trent or earlier ecumenical councils or papal encyclicals (which constitute the magisterium). So it carries no weight. I won’t bother checking context (I appreciate the documentation), but it looks to me like he is referring to a specific situation: the penitent approaching confession, which means they are conscious of some sin, and possibly mortal sin. I could see that they might have some uncertainty until they are absolved, at which point they are restored back to grace, and have a reasonable and fairly “high” moral assurance of salvation, were they to die on the way home, etc.

I don’t know why Nathan makes this a Catholic-Protestant issue, since Lutherans agree with us that a person can fall away from the faith and grace. One Lutheran, Joseph Klotz, in a helpful article entitled, “Three Examples of How Lutherans Deny Justification by Faith Alone: A Response – Part Two of Two” (6-29-15, SteadfastLutherans.org) observed:

The fact that confessional Lutherans teach that believers can fall away from the faith, while at the same time teaching that God earnestly desires all men to be saved shows that confessional Lutherans confess what the Bible teaches, . . .

This very issue comes into play when St. Paul discusses with Timothy the case of Hymenaeus and Alexander.

This charge [Timothy’s duty to order certain teachers not stray from pure doctrinal teaching] I entrust to you, Timothy, my child, in accordance with the prophecies previously made about you, that by them you may wage the good warfare, holding faith and a good conscience. By rejecting this, some have made shipwreck of their faith, among whom are Hymenaeus and Alexander, whom I have handed over to Satan that they may learn not to blaspheme (1 Timothy 1:18-20).

St. Paul is not saying here that Hymenaeus and Alexander will be judged in the temporal realm, by dying or some such thing, and suffer a loss of reward at the judgment seat of Christ on the Last Day, but still march into the New Heavens and New Earth, “as through fire.” He is saying that the very thing through which they would be saved, their faith, has been “shipwrecked.” It has been destroyed. The faith, which they once had as members of the Ephesian congregation, is no more. They have passed from life to death, so to speak. . . .

St. Paul similarly warns the Corinthians not to fall away from their faith into idolatry. . . .

It is revealing that St. Paul [in 1 Cor 10:6-11] uses the words “fell” and “destroyed” when describing what happened to those who continued in their unbelief. Again, he is not describing merely a temporal consequence of sin. Scripture tells us that these people, who were graciously delivered from bondage, persisted in unbelief. They resisted the working of God the Holy Spirit and eventually fell from the faith they had been given and were destroyed. Why does St. Paul recount this to the Corinthians? It is to be an example to them so that they do not similarly fall into sin, away from God, and be destroyed.

James Swan, a Reformed defender of Martin Luther (hundreds of articles) documented Luther’s belief in apostasy:

Through baptism these people threw out unbelief, had their unclean way of life washed away, and entered into a pure life of faith and love. Now they fall away into unbelief (Commentary on 2 Peter 2:22).

Verse 4, “Ye are fallen from grace.” That means you are no longer in the kingdom or condition of grace. When a person on board ship falls into the sea and is drowned it makes no difference from which end or side of the ship he falls into the water. Those who fall from grace perish no matter how they go about it. … The words, “Ye are fallen from grace,” must not be taken lightly. They are important. To fall from grace means to lose the atonement, the forgiveness of sins, the righteousness, liberty, and life which Jesus has merited for us by His death and resurrection. To lose the grace of God means to gain the wrath and judgment of God, death, the bondage of the devil, and everlasting condemnation. (Commentary on Galatians, 5:4; Luther’s Works, Vol. 27).

These words, “You have fallen away from grace,” should not be looked at in a cool and careless way; for they are very emphatic. Whoever falls away from grace simply loses the propitiation, forgiveness of sins, righteousness, freedom, life, etc., which Christ earned for us by His death and resurrection; and in place of these he acquires the wrath and judgment of God, sin, death, slavery to the devil, and eternal damnation. (Ibid.)

Cajetan incidently – like all of Rome’s “court theologians” – also placed the authority of the pope above that of a council, Scripture, and everything in the church… 

He is above a council and the Church, but not above Scripture. This is Catholic teaching. So even if good ol’ Cardinal Cajetan and all these “court theologians” were wrong, it wouldn’t hurt our viewpoint in the slightest. They have no binding authority. It’s just non-magisterial opinions. We don’t determine truth by the majority vote of a bunch of pointy-head theologians, as so many Protestants in effect do. When we do count heads and take votes (such as in ecumenical councils and papal elections), it’s from the bishops, who have biblically sanctioned authority in the Church.

Luther . . . was not about to give up the teaching about confession and absolution that his spiritual father, John Staupitz, had modeled for him and shared with him – and that Luther said had made him a Christian! 

But he modified an essential aspect of them, so in fact he did give them up.  Luther appears to apply the function of hearing a confession and giving absolution to all Christians, not solely to ordained Lutheran pastors: “. . . confession, privately before any brother, . . .” (The Babylonian Captivity of the Church, 1520, in Three Treatises, 214). The Apology for the Augsburg Confession, written by Luther’s close friend Philip Melanchthon in 1531, and binding on Lutherans, describes absolution as a sacrament.

For Paul, clearly, says that we are justified by faith in many places, without mentioning anything else.

That doesn’t logically rule out a role for works, as part and parcel of faith. Initial justification by faith is a thing we agree on. Justification by faith alone all through one’s life is where we have an honest disagreement. I have compiled fifty Bible passages that teach that works play a central role at the time of the judgment and in determining who will enter heaven (as the Lutheran Braaten noted above). Faith is only mentioned once in all of them (yes, once!), alongside works. I didn’t make this up. It’s in the Bible: fifty times! I’ve also collected 150 more passages that contradict “faith alone” and connect sanctification with justification in a way that Protestantism rejects, and that teach the doctrine of merit as well.

Nathan ends by citing Joseph Ratzinger (Pope Benedict XVI), and thinks he supported faith alone. I congratulation him for finally citing a magisterial source, right before he concluded. But even this may be from the time before he was pope (hence, not magisterial, if so). He provides no documentation, so we don’t know what it’s from, but I’ll have to take his word for its accuracy. The words as he presents them, however, do not support faith alone; quite the contrary. The pope writes:

Faith is looking at Christ, entrusting oneself to Christ, being united to Christ, conformed to Christ, to his life [which entails works, which he equates with faith]. And the form, the life of Christ, is love [love involves works and action as well]; hence to believe is to conform to Christ [works] and to enter into his love. So it is that in the Letter to the Galatians in which he primarily developed his teaching on justification St Paul speaks of faith that works through love (cf. Gal 5:14). [exactly; the Catholic position, and not harmonious with Protestant soteriology! Works cannot be formally separated from the overall equation] [my bracketed comments]

Related Reading 

William of Ockham, Nominalism, Luther, & Early Protestant Thought [10-3-02; abridged on 10-10-17]

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Medieval Catholic Corruption: Main Cause of Protestant Revolt? [6-2-03; revised slightly: 1-20-04; 10-10-17]
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Luther Film (2003): Detailed Catholic Critique [10-28-03; abridged with revised links on 3-6-17]
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Critique of Ten Exaggerated Claims of the “Reformation” [10-31-17; its 500th anniversary date]
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Papal Infallibility Doctrine: History (Including Luther’s Dissent at the Leipzig Disputation in 1519) (Related also to the particular circumstances of the origins of sola Scriptura) [10-8-07]
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Practical Matters: Perhaps some of my 4,500+ free online articles (the most comprehensive “one-stop” Catholic apologetics site) or fifty-three books have helped you (by God’s grace) to decide to become Catholic or to return to the Church, or better understand some doctrines and why we believe them.
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Photo credit: Portrait of Martin Luther (1528), by Lucas Cranach the Elder (1472-1553) [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]
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Summary: I take on a sermon about the essential points of the Protestant so-called “Reformation”, by Nathan Rinne, and show that Catholicism is more biblical & historical.

 

October 26, 2023

Including the Church Fathers’ Opinion Regarding Authoritative Apostolic Oral Tradition

[see book and purchase information for The Catholic Verses]

“excatholic4christ” (Tom) was raised Catholic, lost his faith in high school, attended Mass for a while after he married and had children, and then “accepted Jesus Christ” as his Savior, leading to his sole attendance at an independent fundamental Baptist church for eight years. He claims that the “legalism” of this church and the fact that his “trust had been in men rather than God” caused him to “walk away from the Lord for 23 years.” He “returned to the Lord” in 2014. As of April 2020, Tom stated that he was “somewhere in the middle of the Calvinism-Arminianism debate,” but “closer to Calvinism.” I couldn’t determine his denomination. See Tom’s index of all of his replies. I will now systematically refute them. His words will be in blue. When he cites my words, they will be in black. I use RSV, unless otherwise specified.

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This is a reply to Tom’s article, The Authority of Sacred Tradition? – Part 1 (8-27-23).

With the four verses below, Armstrong argues for the authority of oral tradition:

2 Timothy 1:13-14 Follow the pattern of the sound words which you have heard from me, in the faith and love which are in Christ Jesus; guard the truth that has been entrusted to you by the Holy Spirit who dwells within us.

2 Timothy 2:2 And what you have heard from me before many witnesses entrust to faithful men who will be able to teach others also.

Jude 3 Beloved, being very eager to write to you of our common salvation, I found it necessary to write appealing to you to contend for the faith which was once for all delivered to the saints.

Acts 2:42 And they devoted themselves to the apostles’ teaching and fellowship, to the breaking of bread and the prayers.

Directly beneath these verses, Armstrong writes, “Catholics believe that these verses clearly set forth a notion of binding oral tradition that has as much authority as the written word of Scripture.” – p. 12.

The infant church absolutely depended on the oral teachings of Paul and the other apostles, but as the inspired Gospels and apostolic epistles were written and circulated throughout the church, apostolic oral teaching ended with the deaths of the apostles. God’s Word is the sole authority for Christians and all that we need.

The serious difficulties inherent in this viewpoint are threefold:

1) The Bible itself never states that oral tradition would come to an end with the death of the apostles. This is simply (in a great irony) an arbitrary, unsupported Protestant “tradition of men.”

2) The Church fathers (generalizing) also know of no such ending of oral tradition.

3) The Bible never teaches “inscripturation“: the arbitrary Protestant man-made tradition which holds that everything needed to be known by the Church (including knowledge previously preserved solely or primarily through oral teachings and preaching) is included in Scripture and that no source outside of it could be authoritative and infallible (which is one of the key tenets of the definition of sola Scriptura: the Protestant rule of faith). See my articles:

Oral Tradition: More Biblical (Pauline) Evidence (. . . and an Examination of the False and Unbiblical Protestant Supposed Refutation of “Inscripturation”) [2-27-21]

The One-Legged Stool Called ‘Inscripturation’ is Not Taught in the Bible [National Catholic Register, 3-15-21]

Catholicism claims that it has preserved many of the mysterious, unwritten, extra-Biblical oral teachings of Jesus and the apostles down through the centuries, but how was that done? By word of mouth?

At first, obviously it was by word of mouth, that were “heard” (2 Tim 1:13-14; 2:2 above; cf. Luke 11:28; Acts 4:4; 13:46; 15:7; Eph 1:13; Phil 4:9; Col 1:5-6; 1 Jn 1:5; 2:7, 24; 2 Jn 1:6; Rev 3:3). Hence, St. Paul also wrote:

1 Thessalonians 2:13 . . . you received the word of God which you heard from us, you accepted it not as the word of men but as what it really is, the word of God, which is at work in you believers.

2 Thessalonians 2:15 So then, brethren, stand firm and hold to the traditions which you were taught by us, either by word of mouth or by letter.

The existence of such an ongoing tradition is plainly seen in these two passages:

John 20:30 Now Jesus did many other signs in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book;

John 21:25 But there are also many other things which Jesus did; were every one of them to be written, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written.

Clearly, if all the world couldn’t contain the books if all the deeds and words of Jesus were “written,” then the amount of oral tradition was very huge indeed: far far greater than the length of the New Testament. Later, much or all of this would be written down, by the Church fathers and others, just as the Jewish oral Torah (also substantiated by the Bible) was, in rabbinical writings. Catholics didn’t invent this idea. There it is, right in the inspired, inerrant revelation of Holy Scripture.

Readers can observe how I ground all of my arguments in the Bible (as well as solid patristic testimony), whereas Tom mostly produces biblically unsubstantiated Protestant traditions of men (how ironic, since Protestantism is supposed to be so much more “biblical” than Catholicism), and playbook propaganda. Jesus rebuked the Pharisees for doing the same thing Tom is doing (Tom tried to cite the same passage against me):

Mark 7:6-8 . . . “Well did Isaiah prophesy of you hypocrites, as it is written, ‘This people honors me with their lips, but their heart is far from me; [7] in vain do they worship me, teaching as doctrines the precepts of men.’ [8] You leave the commandment of God, and hold fast the tradition of men.”

One would think that, by now, all of those oral teachings would have been collected and published, but you won’t find a “Compendium of the Oral Teachings/Sacred Traditions of Jesus Christ and the Apostles” at your local Catholic bookstore.

Many if not most of them have eventually been written down, and are incorporated into the sacred tradition preserved by the Catholic Church. To learn what doctrines Catholics accept, see Denzinger’s Enchiridion symbolorum, the standard source; now available in a 2012 edition; edited and translated in part by my good friend, systematic theologian Dr. Robert Fastiggi). Accordingly, St. Augustine wrote:

And this custom, coming, I suppose, from tradition (like many other things which are held to have been handed down under their actual sanction, because they are preserved throughout the whole Church, though they are not found either in their letters, or in the Councils of their successors), . . . (On Baptism, Against the Donatists, II, 7, 12)

For if none have baptism who entertain false views about God, it has been proved sufficiently, in my opinion, that this may happen even within the Church. “The apostles,” indeed, “gave no injunctions on the point;” but the custom, which is opposed to Cyprian, may be supposed to have had its origin in apostolic tradition, just as there are many things which are observed by the whole Church, and therefore are fairly held to have been enjoined by the apostles, which yet are not mentioned in their writings. (Ibid.., V, 23, 31)

Protestant Church historian Heiko Oberman notes concerning St. Augustine:

Augustine’s legacy to the middle ages on the question of Scripture and Tradition is a two-fold one. In the first place, he reflects the early Church principle of the coinherence of Scripture and Tradition. While repeatedly asserting the ultimate authority of Scripture, Augustine does not oppose this at all to the authority of the Church Catholic . . . The Church has a practical priority: her authority as expressed in the direction-giving meaning of commovere is an instrumental authority, the door that leads to the fullness of the Word itself.

But there is another aspect of Augustine’s thought . . . we find mention of an authoritative extrascriptural oral tradition. While on the one hand the Church “moves” the faithful to discover the authority of Scripture, Scripture on the other hand refers the faithful back to the authority of the Church with regard to a series of issues with which the Apostles did not deal in writing. Augustine refers here to the baptism of heretics . . . (The Harvest of Medieval Theology, Grand Rapids, Michigan: Eerdmans, revised 1967 version, 370-371; my bolding)

Patristic scholar J. N. D. Kelly described how St. Irenaeus (130-202) accepted such oral tradition:

His most characteristic thought, however, is that the Church is the sole repository of the truth, and is such because it has a monopoly of the apostolic writings, the apostolic oral tradition and the apostolic faith. . . . [haer. (i.e., Against Heresies) 1, 10, 2]. (Early Christian Doctrines, San Francisco, Ignatius, 1978 edition, 192; my bolding and italics)

[T]he identity of oral tradition with the original revelation is guaranteed by the unbroken succession of bishops in the great sees going back lineally to the apostles [Cf. haer. 3, 2, 2; 3, 3, 3; 3, 4, 1]. Secondly, an additional safeguard is supplied by the Holy Spirit, for the message was committed to the Church, and the Church is the home of the Spirit [E.g. ib. 3, 24, 1]. Indeed, the Church’s bishops are on his view Spirit-endowed men who have been vouchsafed ‘an infallible charism of truth’ (charisma veritatis certum [Ib. 4, 26, 2; cf. 4, 26, 5] ). (Ibid., 37; my bolding and italics)

Protestant Church historian Philip Schaff summarizes the patristic consensus in the time of St. Athanasius (c. 297-373):

The church view respecting the sources of Christian theology and the rule of faith and practice remains as it was in the previous period, except that it is further developed in particulars. The divine Scriptures of the Old and New Testaments, as opposed to human writings; and the oral tradition or living faith of the catholic church from the apostles down, as opposed to the varying opinions of heretical sects together form the one infallible source and rule of faith. Both are vehicles of the same substance: the saving revelation of God in Christ; with this difference in form and office, that the church tradition determines the canon, furnishes the key to the true interpretation of the Scriptures, and guards them against heretical abuse. The relation of the two in the mind of the ancient church may be illustrated by the relation between the supreme law of a country (such as the Roman law, the Code Napoleon, the common law of England, the Constitution of the United States) and the courts which expound the law, and decide between conflicting interpretations. (History of the Christian Church, Vol. 3, Chapter IX, section 118: “Sources of Theology: Scripture and Tradition,” 606-608; my bolding and italics)

Every time that a doctrine was formulated that had no basis in Scripture, the Catholic hierarchy was able to invoke its sacred tradition “wild card.” Incredulous Catholics were unable to object because the proof allegedly rested upon undocumented and unverifiable oral traditions known only to a privileged few. From this dark hole came such doctrines as purgatory, indulgences, the immaculate conception and assumption of Mary, praying to canonized saints, the pope, the seven sacraments, etc., etc.

Untethered from the sole authority of God’s Word, Catholicism has been able to propagate one un-Biblical teaching after another. In contrast, throughout God’s Word, believers are exhorted to adhere to the sure teachings of Scripture. Yes, there are examples in Scripture when believers were encouraged to obey doctrines that were taught orally, but that was always in connection to teachings that came directly from Paul and the other apostles, not handed down mysteriously over many centuries and made manifest out of the clear blue.

These topics have to be dealt with individually. I don’t play the cynical, sneering game of “101 topics at once”: with its ridiculous “appearance of strength” (i.e., to the relatively ignorant and uneducated masses and those inclined to an anti-Catholic standpoint from the outset). I have written entire books — concentrating on biblical support — about all the subjects Tom mentions above: Bible & tradition, purgatory, indulgences, & the saints, Marian doctrines, and papal & Church infallibility (as well as about the Eucharist). I also have written about the historical / patristic / traditional corroboration of Catholic doctrines:

Development of Catholic Doctrine: Evolution, Revolution, or an Organic Process? (June 2002)

Catholic Church Fathers: Patristic and Scholarly Proofs (Nov. 2007 / rev. Aug. 2013)

The Quotable Eastern Church Fathers: Distinctively Catholic Elements in Their Theology (July 2013)

The Quotable Augustine: Distinctively Catholic Elements in His Theology (Sep. 2012)

Orthodoxy and Catholicism: A Comparison (July 2004 / 3rd rev. ed. July 2015; co-author, Byzantine Catholic priest, Fr. Daniel Dozier)

I have shown, conversely, how Protestant distinctive doctrines are unbiblical: and contrary to the history of the Christian Church:

Pillars of Sola Scriptura: Replies to Whitaker, Goode, & Biblical “Proofs” for “Bible Alone” (July 2012)

Biblical Catholic Salvation: “Faith Working Through Love” (Oct. 2010)

Martin Luther: Catholic Critical Analysis and Praise (April 2008)

Biblical Catholic Answers for John Calvin (March 2010)

A Biblical Critique of Calvinism (Oct. 2012)

A very long and in-depth book chronicling my debate on justification with Brazilian Calvinist Francisco Tourinho is currently in process. While we await that, the entire debate is available online, in English.

Moreover, in addition to my book that was critiqued by Tom, I have several other books that provide biblical arguments for any and all of the Catholic distinctives that anyone might bring up:

A Biblical Defense of Catholicism (May 1996 / June 2003)

Proving the Catholic Faith is Biblical: From Priestly Celibacy to the Rosary: 80 Short Essays Explaining the Biblical Basis of Catholicism (July 2015)

The One-Minute Apologist: Essential Catholic Replies to Over Sixty Common Protestant Claims (May 2007)

Bible Proofs for Catholic Truths (Aug. 2009)

Revelation! 1001 Bible Answers to Theological Topics (Oct. 2013)

The Catholic Answer Bible (Sep. 2002; the 44 apologetics inserts are my contribution)

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Summary: Anti-Catholic Tom tries to draw a wedge between oral and written tradition and the Bible. I show how the Bible plainly espouses both unwritten and written tradition.

August 23, 2023

[see book and purchase information]

Francisco Tourinho is a Brazilian Calvinist apologist. He described his theological credentials on my Facebook page:

I have the respect of the academic community for my articles published in peer review magazines, translation of unpublished classical works into Portuguese and also the production of a book in the year 2019 with more than 2000 copies sold (with no marketing). In addition I have higher education in physical education from Piauí State University and theology from the Assemblies of God Biblical Institute, am currently working towards a Masters from Covenant Baptist Theological Seminary, and did post-graduate work at Dom Bosco Catholic University. Also, I am a professor in the Reformed Scholasticism discipline at the Jonathan Edwards Seminary in the postgraduate course in Philosophical Theology. [edited slightly for more flowing English]

My previous replies:

Justification: A Catholic Perspective (vs. Francisco Tourinho) [6-22-22]

Reply to Francisco Tourinho on Justification: Round 2 (Pt. 1) [+ Part 2] [+ Part 3] [7-19-22]

Biblical Justification: vs. Francisco Tourinho (Round 3, Pt. 1) [10-20-22]

This is an ongoing debate, which we plan to make into a book, both in Portugese and English. I use Google Translate to render his Portugese text into English. Francisco’s words will be in blue. Mine from my previous installment will be in green. I will try very hard to cite my own past words less, for two reasons: 1) the sake of relative brevity, and 2) because the back-and-forth will be preserved in a more convenient and accessible way in the book (probably with some sort of handy numerical and index system).

In instances where I agree with Francisco, there is no reason to repeat his words again, either. I’ll be responding to Francisco’s current argument and noting if and when he misunderstood or overlooked something I think is important: in which case I’ll sometimes have to cite my past words. I use RSV for all Bible passages (both mine and Francisco’s) unless otherwise indicated.

His current reply is entitled, Justificação pela fé: perspectiva protestante (contra Armstrong): Rodada 3. Parte 2. [Justification by Faith: Protestant Perspective (Contra Armstrong): Round 3. Part 2] (8-12-23). Note that he is replying only to Part II of my previous Round 2 reply. When he writes his replies to my Round 2, Part III and I counter-reply, the debate will be completed, by mutual agreement, except for brief closing statements. I get the (rather large) advantage of “having the last word” because Francisco chose the topic and wrote the first installment.

First, thanks again to Mr. Armstrong for the opportunity for the debate. Mr Armstrong begins this second round with a few short remarks, directing the reader to other parts of the debate, I suggest the reader take the advice if he so chooses. The first substantive argument is against my interpretation of James 2:1. He says:

James 2:1 is not about proving our faith to other persons by works, but about treating people equally, as classic Protestant commentaries agree:
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Bengel’s Gnomen: The equality of Christians, as indicated by the name of brethren, is the basis of this admonition.
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Ellicott’s Commentary for English Readers: “Ye know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ,” wrote St. Paul to the proud and wealthy men of Corinth (2 Corinthians 8:9), “that, though He was rich, yet for your sakes He became poor, that ye through His poverty might be rich;” and, with more cogent an appeal, to the Philippians (James 2:4-7), “In lowliness of mind let each esteem other better than themselves: look not every man on his own things, but every man also on the things of others. Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God”i.e., Very God, and not appearance merely—nevertheless “thought not His equality with God a thing to be always grasped at,” as it were some booty or prize, “but emptied Himself” of His glory, “and took upon Him the shape of a slave.” Were these central, nay initial, facts of the faith believed then; or are they now? If they were in truth, how could there be such folly and shame as “acceptance of persons” according to the dictates of fashionable society and the world? “Honour,” indeed, “to whom honour” is due (Romans 13:7).
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Meyer’s NT Commentary: In close connection with the thought contained in chap. Jam 1:27, that true worship consists in the exhibition of compassionate love, James proceeds to reprove a practice of his readers, consisting in a partial respect to the rich and a depreciation of the poor, which formed the most glaring contrast to that love. . . . their faith should not be combined with a partial respect of persons.
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Calvin’s Commentaries: [H]e does not simply disapprove of honor being paid to the rich, but that this should not be done in a way so as to despise or reproach the poor; and this will appear more clearly, when he proceeds to speak of the rule of love. Let us therefore remember that the respect of persons here condemned is that by which the rich is so extolled, wrong is done to the poor, which also he shews clearly by the context . . .
It is clear that there is no contradiction between the two statements. Why would treating all people equally nullify that a Christian must necessarily have a good report before men?
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Good works are directly in play in James 2:1, as opposed to trying to bolster one’s reputation. It’s not contradictory to having a good report, etc., but the latter notion is not to be found directly in the text. It’s not the main thought, and the essence of James 2 is what we are debating.
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Furthermore, the text cannot be analyzed in isolation, as a connection was made with verse 7 which says: “Are they not the ones who slander the good name that was invoked upon you?” James 2:7,
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I replied to that last time. 
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and further on in the same chapter, Saint James says, “But someone will say, “You have faith; I have works”. Show me your faith without works, and I will show you my faith by works.” James 2:18. Note the emphasis on the word “show”, that is, what is the use of showing a faith that does nothing?
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It’s the emphasis in that verse (as a sort of sub-topic derived from the main topic), but not of the entire chapter.
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What’s the use of SAYING to have faith and not to have works? See how the whole event is directed to “one another”, the apostle places himself as a human being, limited in knowledge about the hearts of other people and provides us with a tool to know if someone who claims to have faith, really has a faith. True, namely, what is manifest by his works, by what is visible, for faith is not the work itself, nor can it be, but the way in which invisible faith can be seen before men. Mr. Armstrong is focusing on the prescribed good work itself, which is to treat everyone equally, but he forgets that in verse 18 St. James teaches us to demand that a person without works show his faith through works, and that we ourselves do so.
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Again, I feel that I have already adequately answered: particularly in my section below, starting withJames, just like Paul, . . .”
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This extends the same thought expressed in James 2:1-6: preferential treatment of the rich over the poor. Hence, James 1:6 (RSV, as throughout) states: “But you have dishonored the poor man. Is it not the rich who oppress you, is it not they who drag you into court?” The point is about Christian ethical hypocrisy and double standards, not about proving the validity of one’s faith to men, as if James supposedly isn’t talking about faith like Paul and Jesus do.
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I repeat the previous argument, one thing does not cancel the other, in fact, the act of treating everyone equally is already a demonstration of true faith through good works.
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If good works are this organically connected to faith (which is what James is plainly teaching), then how is it that Protestants try to separate what the New Testament does not separate? It reminds me of Matthew 19:6, where Jesus says: “What therefore God has joined together, let not man put asunder.”
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The Bible is always very condemning of two-faced hypocrisy. I don’t see how this proves that James is operating with an entirely different conception of works (“before men only, and not before God”). It doesn’t logically follow. To the contrary, James, just like Paul, ties both faith and works into salvation, not just flattering and God-honoring appearances before men. They are connected to salvation itself (1:12, 21-22; 2:14) as well as to justification (2:21, 24-25); both things directed “Godward” and not merely towards other persons.
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In Mr. Armstrong’s conception, justification is the very process of salvation, for man, through good works, gradually becomes righteous. In the Reformed conception man is justified before God by a single work, the work of Christ, and good works are the effects of divine grace and a means of salvation, but not its cause.
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We’ve been through this over and over. Catholics believe in an initial monergistic justification, just as Protestants do. But unlike them, we think there is a continuing sense of the word, too, and when the process continues, works are necessarily present and part and parcel of justification, since faith without works is dead (per James). In this way, good works cannot be abstractly separated from faith, according to the Bible. In other words, the grace-filled and grace-enabled works have something directly to do with salvation, too, as I have shown again and again throughout this debate, with tons of biblical indications provided.
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But no matter how much clear scriptural support we provide (mine add up to 200 at least), Protestants continue to argue that sanctification and works are optional in terms of supposedly not being inherently tied to eschatological salvation. 
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Having said that, it is important to note that these two assumptions are at issue when analyzing these verses, for when I say that I am justified by the work of Christ and not by my work, it does not make sense that a work, even if seen by God as good, can justify myself before Him, for the justifying work was Christ’s. I do not deny that good works must be done for God, not to boast of one’s deeds before men, but I do say that good works justify us in man’s sight, and are a proper means of salvation, but are not the cause of it, nor even justifies man before God, for we have the righteousness of Christ in us who believe.
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It’s interesting to me to see the phrase,
a proper means of salvation, but . . . not the cause of it.” This is close to the Catholic position and a place where perhaps significant common ground can be found. If we say that good works are a “means of salvation,” then they are not  separated from salvation altogether. “Means” in English (at Dictionary.com) is defined as “the medium, method, or instrument used to obtain a result or achieve an end.” We can wholeheartedly agree that God’s grace and His death on the cross on our behalf are the ultimate causes (or “means”) of our salvation; yet if works are one of the “means” then they are included in the entire process. And that’s what Catholics are saying. I see at least two instances where the New Testament uses the word “means” in this sense:
John 11:4 But when Jesus heard it he said, “This illness is not unto death; it is for the glory of God, so that the Son of God may be glorified by means of it.”
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1 Corinthians 9:22 To the weak I became weak, that I might win the weak. I have become all things to all men, that I might by all means save some.
A lot (if not most) of “all things” that Paul became in order to save others, were good works. Hence, he wrote, “by the grace of God I am what I am, and his grace toward me was not in vain. On the contrary, I worked harder than any of them, though it was not I, but the grace of God which is with me” (1 Cor 15:10). He doesn’t separate faith and works or grace and works. To him they are organically intertwined. Paul does the work but at the same time it was “by the grace of God” which was “with” him (ultimate cause). It’s biblical / Hebraic paradox. Paul, in the same context, referred to his own good works not only helping to save others, but also to save himself:
1 Corinthians 9:27 . . . I pommel my body and subdue it, lest after preaching to others I myself should be disqualified.
Compare:
2 Timothy 4:5-7 As for you, always be steady, endure suffering, do the work of an evangelist, fulfil your ministry. [6] For I am already on the point of being sacrificed; the time of my departure has come. [7] I have fought the good fight, I have finished the race, I have kept the faith.
Paul didn’t just abstractly believe in the faith; he kept it, which is good works. He did “the work of an evangelist,” just as he is exhorting Timothy to do in his footsteps. The “good fight” and finishing “the race” are also good works. I wrote:
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Just because God knew what would happen (being omniscient and timeless), it doesn’t follow that Abraham didn’t prove himself. To say that the “the test was not in relation to God, but in relation to men” makes little sense, seeing that no one was else was around at the time, and likely would not have even been told by Abraham what happened. Moreover, it’s very likely very few if any knew about it until Moses recorded the incident several hundred years later. Thirdly, does the immediate text indicate what Francisco claims? No. It indicates a relationship of his action to God, not other men:
Genesis 22:15-18 And the angel of the LORD called to Abraham a second time from heaven, [16] and said, “By myself I have sworn, says the LORD, because you have done this, and have not withheld your son, your only son, [17] I will indeed bless you, and I will multiply your descendants as the stars of heaven and as the sand which is on the seashore. And your descendants shall possess the gate of their enemies, [18] and by your descendants shall all the nations of the earth bless themselves, because you have obeyed my voice.” [my bolded and red emphases]
This action of Abraham — far from being simply a witness before men — is made the very basis upon which God makes a covenant with Abraham, and makes him the father of three major world religions, and the exemplar ever-after of faith itself.
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First, I never said that Abraham was not tried by God, on the contrary, I said that Abraham was indeed tried, but in relation to himself, because for God there is no test, what test can there be for Abraham if God already knows if Abraham will pass or not?
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God all through Scripture tests and tries and refines His followers (see many verses about that) and all the while He knows everything, including the future. So yes, there can indeed be a divine test, which remains true alongside the fact that God always knows what will be the result.
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To say that a public justification makes little sense because no one was around is not a good argument, for there was Abraham, there was Isaac,
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Abraham didn’t need to justify himself before Isaac, who already had full trust in him.
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and there is God himself who anthropopathically acts like a man when he says, “Now I know that you fear God.” (Gn 22.12),
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Yes, it is anthropopathism, but then this proves my point. Abraham didn’t have to prove anything to God. He simply had to be obedient and do the works that he was called to do, including moving to where God told him to go and being willing to sacrifice Isaac if indeed God commanded him to do that. And so the Bible says,
James 2:20-26 Do you want to be shown, you shallow man, that faith apart from works is barren? [21] Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he offered his son Isaac upon the altar? [22] You see that faith was active along with his works, and faith was completed by works, [23] and the scripture was fulfilled which says, “Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness”; and he was called the friend of God. [24] You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone. [25] And in the same way was not also Rahab the harlot justified by works when she received the messengers and sent them out another way? [26] For as the body apart from the spirit is dead, so faith apart from works is dead.
This directly ties works inexorably into faith, as part and parcel of it, complete with a rather delightful express condemnation of “faith alone” (2:24). Man can and should be justified by works as well as faith. The two cannot be separated. And this is Catholic, biblical teaching. None of this is simply showing men that we have faith, which is rather elementary Christianity. In fact, Jesus condemns acts of piety for the sole purpose of impressing other men:
Matthew 6:1-6 “Beware of practicing your piety before men in order to be seen by them; for then you will have no reward from your Father who is in heaven. [2] “Thus, when you give alms, sound no trumpet before you, as the hypocrites do in the synagogues and in the streets, that they may be praised by men. Truly, I say to you, they have received their reward. [3] But when you give alms, do not let your left hand know what your right hand is doing, [4] so that your alms may be in secret; and your Father who sees in secret will reward you. [5] “And when you pray, you must not be like the hypocrites; for they love to stand and pray in the synagogues and at the street corners, that they may be seen by men. Truly, I say to you, they have received their reward. [6] But when you pray, go into your room and shut the door and pray to your Father who is in secret; and your Father who sees in secret will reward you.”

We simply do our good works in faith, and God, Who sees all, rewards us accordingly (which is merit).

and most importantly, we have this testimony today, without this proof, we would know an unbelieving Abraham, as described in the moment when the angel announces Sarah’s pregnancy.

Abraham proved that he feared God and believed. But it was not “before men.” It was a thing that was in and of itself, whether anyone saw it or not, and before God (for His sake, not God’s). But referring to works as a “means of salvation” offers hope that we can fundamentally agree on a key point in this vexed debate.
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Francisco continues his answer to my biblical argument above:
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We know that theologically it is impossible for God to have any cause outside of himself, as that would make him imperfect. The text has an anthropopathic character, as when God says that he repents or suggests an ignorance of information (Gen 3.9). Abraham’s action cannot be the basis for a divine action, but it certainly serves as a means to the fulfillment of a promise. The point is that in this particular verse, the author is not referring to justification, but to the moment when a covenant is made. Abraham justified only himself, as the covenant is for the blessing of all his offspring. Furthermore, the covenant or a covenant is also a public testimony of what has already been wrought spiritually, so that there being a covenant does not alter the fact that there was justification before men and that this attitude serves as a witness for us, since God cannot be caused, nor be surprised. After that I stated that: “Men who were ignorant of Abraham’s faith were given evidence that he was a righteous man.”
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Francisco says that Genesis 22:15-18 does not refer to justification and tries to make it merely a thing having to do with God’s covenant with Abraham. The big problem with this is that it is explicitly contradicted by James 2:21-24, which states in no uncertain terms that Abraham was “justified by works, when he offered his son Isaac upon the altar” (2:21) and that this extraordinary work was precisely what proved that Abraham “believed” and that the working out of his faith “was reckoned to him as righteousness” (2:22-23). Then, if the reader has still not grasped what is being taught, James reiterates: “You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone” (2:24).
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Francisco claims that Genesis 22 isn’t about justification, but Scripture elsewhere states plainly that it is. In those cases, I go by the principle of “clear related passages interpret the less clear” rather than an unbiblical notion (justification merely before men).
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Then why is it that the text that James refers to, doesn’t express that thought. Rather, it states that “because you have done this, and have not withheld your son, your only son, I will indeed bless you, . . . And your descendants shall possess the gate of their enemies, and by your descendants shall all the nations of the earth bless themselves, because you have obeyed my voice” (Gen 22:16-18) [my bolded emphases].
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As so often, the Catholic interpretation is far more grounded in the Bible.
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Mr. Armstrong forgets that if the testimony were not public, it would not have reached us, in fact, once again Mr. Armstrong’s interpretation places divine attitudes based on human attitudes, which is theologically and philosophically impossible.
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This confuses two things: supposed justification before men only, and public revelation. The first is an unbiblical falsehood and the second a great gift and necessary blessing.
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The text takes on an anthropopathic character, just like the test that Abraham passed. Certainly, before a predicamental order (of creatures) it is correct to say that God blessed Abraham for his test of faith, but this is not the same transcendental angle, because in the angle of creatures, our attitudes precede grace, in the angle of God, grace precedes our attitudes.
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In Catholic theology, all good things must be precede and caused by God’s grace, too.

Francisco then takes on my citations of James 2:14, 17, 20, 24, 26:

I have already touched on this and it proves my point, as Mr. Armstrong arbitrarily refused to comment on the highlighted parts where the heart of the matter it is not only an admonition to be holy, but also a public profession of faith.

I have addressed this repeatedly, including in my present reply.

Let’s see the verses that Mr. Armstrong quotes and pay attention to the highlighted parts:

Let’s!

[2:14, 17, 20] Note that St. James admonishes us to demand visible proof from those who believe. Believing is subjective, it cannot be proved, but the work is objective, although it is not an absolute proof, it is a proof superior to speech alone.
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I say that this is not James’ point (which is that faith without works is dead). The only one that needs to be “shown” anything is the one described by James as a “shallow man” (2:20). Humorously (given the historic debate), James, throughout the passage, defines the shallow person as the one who believes in “faith alone” (the standard Protestant position). I can certainly understand how it would be embarrassing to have one’s position described in the Bible as “shallow”. Christians must always — we are duty-bound to — follow the Bible wherever it leads, whether it follows our predispositions and preferences or not. The latter must be guided by the Bible.
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Francisco says, “St. James commands us to observe this detail.” He sure does. He’s referring to James 2:24: “You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone.” That’s Catholic theology, folks.
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This verse [James 2:26] has already been commented on by me, and I repeat my comment, I repeat:
“Does anyone see the spirits? We do not see the spirits (God does; men do not), but we know that someone is alive by his body through his movements, and the same is true of faith: we only know that it is there by works of piety.”
Mr Armstrong avoided commenting on my argument.
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There was no need to, since it’s self-evident and we agree, as far as it goes.
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[I also sadly note again at this point that Francisco decided in his prior reply to ignore many parts of my reply, which went against our initial agreement: which I lamented and protested]
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James states: “I by my works will show you my faith” (2:18). It’s not our dispute, which is, rather, whether works are to be considered as necessary for salvation alongside faith: both caused by grace.
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My opponent again quotes several verses, however, all of them dealing with sanctifying regeneration, and for this to speak in his favor, he must first prove that sanctification and justification are the same things, which he has already admitted to have his distinction.
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Having just noted again that my opponent chooses to ignore portions of my argument (all of which I believe are important, or else I wouldn’t have written them!), he goes on to do this very thing, by choosing to ignore and not respond to no less than 18 passages (!!!). The whole point of them was to show that works were directly tied to salvation, and sanctification to justification and/or salvation (precisely what we are presently debating). Here are the portions that most clearly show that:
Acts 26:18 . . . those who are sanctified by faith in me. [Phillips: “made holy by their faith in me”]
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Romans 6:22 But now that you have been set free from sin and have become slaves of God, the return you get is sanctification and its end, eternal life.

1 Corinthians 1:30 . . . our righteousness and sanctification and redemption;

1 Corinthians 6:11 And such were some of you. But you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God.

2 Thessalonians 2:13 . . . God chose you from the beginning to be saved, through sanctification by the Spirit and belief in the truth. [perhaps the clearest verse in the New Testament that directly connects sanctification to salvation itself: contrary to Protestant teaching]

Hebrews 10:10 And by that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all. [cf. 10:14]

Since Francisco chose to ignore 18 passages last time, I suppose he will again ignore the selected six best ones above in his next reply. I don’t see how that shows that he has a superior case to mine. But his practice of ignoring whatever he wants to ignore (making out that it is off-topic or whatever . . .) violates the third of four principles we agreed to abide by in our first round (I wrote them; he agreed):

3) Both of us should try to actually interact point-by-point rather than picking and choosing; a serious debate where all the opponent’s arguments are grappled with.

He just did it again, folks.

I began this debate by affirming this connection between faith and works, citing the example of light and heat, an analogy praised by Mr. Armstrong himself. Of course, I assert again, faith is absolutely not to be separated from good works, for both faith and good works are an effect of regenerating grace. Whoever has faith must have good works, but good works and faith are different things, so we can indicate different effects without entering into contradiction.

I understand that Protestants think good works must follow from faith, lest it be a counterfeit faith. I posted articles — years ago — documenting how both Luther and Calvin taught that. That’s all water under the bridge. What I am discussing and seeking to prove from Scripture is that works cannot be totally separated from salvation.

We may put Mr Armstrong’s proposition as follows: Faith is never alone, therefore it does not justify alone. To which we reply, that it does not follow, for it would be like saying that the eye is never alone in the head, and therefore does not see alone, which is absurd. While as far as substance is concerned the eye is never alone, as far as vision is concerned it is alone. And so, although faith does not subsist without God’s love, hope, and other graces, yet, so far as the act of justification is concerned, it is unique.

This is an articulate description of the Reformed position, but it doesn’t disprove all the Bible passages I have set forth in favor of Catholic soteriology.

There is indeed a sense in which we prove the genuineness of our faith in the world and the Church, and provide a good witness. But this sense doesn’t exclude the organic connection between faith and works / justification and sanctification: directly tied to salvation:

That was my introduction to the 18 Bible passages that he chose to ignore, against our initial agreement. Instead of grappling with those, he made the following reply:
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I repeat that I agree that there is a relationship between faith, good works, justification, sanctification and salvation, but this relationship is not always causal. We Reformed understand that there are multiple causes of salvation, but works are not included, as John Calvin states:

“If, however, we pay attention to the four types of causes that philosophers prescribe that must be considered in the effectuation of things, none of them will be found to fit works so that our salvation is consummated. For the Scripture everywhere proclaims that the heavenly Father’s mercy and gracious love to us are the Efficient Cause for purchasing us eternal life; the Material Cause is through Christ with his obedience, whereby he purchased righteousness for us; and what shall we say is the Formal Cause, or also instrumental, if not faith? And John understands these three at once in one sentence, when he says, ‘God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life’ (John 3 :16).

The problem is that the Bible also states (at least fifty times) that works are directly tied to ultimate salvation, eternal life, and entrance into heaven (as a “formal” or “instrumental” cause). St. Paul ties grace, faith, and works together in a harmonious whole: fifty times. All of that simply can’t be ignored. Scripture speaks too loudly.
“But the Apostle testifies that the Final Cause is not only the manifestation of divine justice, but also the praise of his goodness, where he also brings to remembrance, in eloquent terms, the other three. For thus he speaks to the Romans: ‘All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God; but they are justified freely by his grace’ (Rom 3:23,34)” (John Calvin, Institutes 3.15.17)
As we can see, the same thing can be seen from several angles. No Reformed teaches that only faith, without works, can save, because if you have faith, you will have works, but we deny that good works are causes of salvation, but a consequence of it. Faith alone justifies, but faith in action is sanctification. I ask Mr. Armstrong, what are the efficient, material, formal, and final causes of man’s salvation? Where can good works be properly placed? Anxious for the answer.
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They are placed alongside faith because faith without works is dead. It’s as simple as that. Scripture (fifty times) shows that they play a crucial role in man’s salvation.
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Mr Armstrong, after citing several verses on sanctification, makes an interesting observation:
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The word for “cleanse” in 1 John 1:7, 9 is katharizo, which is used to describe the cleansing of lepers throughout the Gospels (e.g., Matt. 8:3, 11:5; Mark 1:42; Luke 7:22). This is indisputably an “infused” cleansing, rather than an “imputed” one. Why should God settle for anything less when it comes to our sin and justification? 
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The text mentioned is this:
1 John 1:6-8 If we say we have fellowship with him while we walk in darkness, we lie and do not live according to the truth; [7] but if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus his Son cleanses us from all sin. [8] If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
This is an interpretative error, because St. John is dealing with people already converted who need to sanctify themselves. Justification takes place at the moment of conversion through faith. The greatest proof that this text does not deal with a justification along the Roman Catholic lines, is that in the theology of Rome, a person who is actually justified is someone who is completely free of sins, however, the text itself states that it is impossible to be in this world completely sinless, for if it were possible, why would it be forbidden to say that he has no sin (verse 8), if that were true?
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It’s a process. We fail, repent, confess, and try to do better, then fail and sin again, etc. But we can seek by God’s grace to do better and better. The sin that remains when we die gets cleansed in purgatory. The very next verse (1:9) says that we can at least potentially and/or temporarily be totally righteous: “he . . . will forgive our sins and cleanse us from all unrighteousness.”
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In my favor I invoke the XV Council of Carthage, begun on May 1, 418, convened to refute the heresies of the Pelagian Celestius, when interpreting the text quoted by Mr. Armstrong, it says:
“Can. 6. It was also decided, with regard to the passage of Saint John the Apostle: “If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us” [1 Jn 1,8]: Whoever judges can interpret this in the sense that out of humility it is necessary to say that we have sinned, not because it is true, it is anathema. The Apostle, in fact, goes on to argue: “If we have confessed our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all iniquity” [1 Jn 1:9]. Here it appears quite clearly that this is not said merely out of humility, but in the true sense. The Apostle, indeed, might have said, “If we said that we had no sin, we would exalt ourselves, and there is no humility in us.” But as he says, “We deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us,” it is clear enough that he who says he has no sin, speaks not what is true, but what is false.
Then he continues, now defending my interpretation of the text of James, where he presents himself as imperfect, even though he is a saint:
“Can. 7. It was also decided: Whoever claims that the saints, when in the Lord’s prayer they say: “Forgive us our debts” [Mt 6,12], say no in favor of themselves, since for them this prayer already it is not needed, but for the rest of your people, who are sinners; and that every saint does not say: “Forgive me my sins”, but “Forgive us our sins”, so that it may be understood that the just person asks this for others rather than for himself, it is anathema. Holy and righteous indeed was the Apostle James when he said: “We all err in many things” [James 3:2]. For why was “all” added, if not because this statement also agrees with the Psalm where it reads: “Do not enter into judgment with your servant, for not one living person will be justified in your sight” [Ps 143,2] ? And in the prayer of the most wise Solomon: “There is no human being who has not sinned” [1 Kings 8:46]. And in the book of holy Job: “In every man’s hand he puts a mark, that every man may know his weakness” [Job 37:7]. Therefore, also the holy and just Daniel says, in the prayer in plural form: “We have sinned, we have committed iniquity” [Dn 9,5.15] and the other things that he confesses with truth and humility; <and> Lest it be thought, as some understand, that he had spoken of his sins and not of those of the people, he says further on: “While I… was praying and confessing my sins and the sins of my people” [Dan 9 ,20] to the Lord my God; he did not mean “our sins,” but spoke of the sins of his people and his own, for as a prophet he foresaw that there would be those who misunderstood him so.”
Canon 8. It was also decided: Whoever claims that the words of the Lord’s prayer, when we say “Forgive us our debts” [Mt 6,12], are uttered by the saints in the sense of humility, not of truth, let him be anathema. For who could bear a person praying who lies, not to men, but to God himself, when with his lips he says that he wants to be forgiven, but with his heart that he has no debts to be forgiven him?” (XV Synod of CARTHAGE (others: XVI), started 1 May 418. Denzinger 0043-0090)

These things are true in a general sense, but can have exceptions. See my related article:

Sinless Creatures in the Bible: Actual & Potential (Including a Listing of Many Biblical Passages About Sin, Holiness, Blamelessness, Righteousness, Godliness, Perfection, and Sanctity) [10-20-22; greatly expanded on 7-27-23]

If Mr. Armstrong invokes some biblical commentators, I invoke the interpretation of a Synod of several Bishops of Carthage of the ancient Church. The Synod anathematizes the idea of Christian perfection as taught by Roman Catholics today, and therefore by Mr. Armstrong. The Council ratifies Augustine’s ideas against Celestius, a famous Pelagian of the time, and reveals to us where the origin of this idea of justification is a process of improvement. I can also invoke the greatest theologian of the Christian Church – Saint Augustine, who teaches that it is impossible for anyone to reach a state of Christian perfection:
“Dearest son Marcellin, I have recently prepared, at your request, works on infant baptism and the perfection of holiness in man. It seems that no one reached this perfection or will reach it in this life, with the exception of the only Mediator, who, immune from all sin, experienced human frailty in the likeness of the flesh of sin. After having read the aforementioned treatises, you wrote to me again confessing that what I said in the second of them caused you concern about the possibility of a human being living without sin, if he does not lack the will and divine help. However, this perfection did not and will not have any human being here in the world, except the one in which all will receive life (1 Cor 15,22).” (The Spirit and the Letter. Chapter 1.1.)
When Catholics talk about justification, we don’t talk about being perfect or free from absolutely any sin. This is quite obvious, in, for example, the section in the Catechism of the Catholic Church, on justification (#1987-1995). Likewise, Servant of God Fr. John A. Hardon, S. J., defined justification similarly in his Pocket Catholic Dictionary (New York: Doubleday Image, 1980, 214-215):

Justification is a true removal of sin, and not merely having one’s sins ignored or no longer held against the sinner by God . . .

An infant is justified by baptism and the faith of the one who requests or confers the sacrament. Adults are justified for the first time either by personal faith, sorrow for sin and baptism, or by the perfect love of God . . . Adults who have sinned gravely after being justified can receive justification by sacramental absolution or perfect contrition for their sins.

“Perhaps you will answer me that these facts mentioned, which did not happen, but which could happen, would be divine works. But the fact that the human being lives without sin belongs to the human sphere and is the most excellent action, since through it full and perfect holiness is realized in its maximum expression. Therefore, it is unbelievable that there has been or could be someone who has performed this action, assuming that a human being can perform it.” (Augustine, The Spirit and the Letter. Chapter 2.2.)

The same St. Augustine also wrote about infused justification as follows:
Certainly this renewal does not take place in the single moment of conversion itself, as that renewal in baptism takes place in a single moment by the remission of all sins; for not one, be it ever so small, remains unremitted. But as it is one thing to be free from fever, and another to grow strong again from the infirmity which the fever produced; and one thing again to pluck out of the body a weapon thrust into it, and another to heal the wound thereby made by a prosperous cure; so the first cure is to remove the cause of infirmity, and this is wrought by the forgiving of all sins; but the second cure is to heal the infirmity itself, and this takes place gradually by making progress in the renewal of that image: which two things are plainly shown in the Psalm, where we read, Who forgives all your iniquities, which takes place in baptism; and then follows, and heals all your infirmities; and this takes place by daily additions, while this image is being renewed. (On the Trinity, xiv, 17, 23)
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These are the diseases of a man’s old nature which, however, if we only advance with persevering purpose, are healed by the growth of the new nature day by day, by the faith which operates through love. (The Spirit and the Letter, 59)
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[I]t is that we may cleave to Him, that we are cleansed from all stain of sins and evil passions, and are consecrated in His name. (City of God, x, 3)
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[I]t is our duty at once to be thankful for what is already healed within us, and to pray for such further healing as shall enable us to enjoy full liberty, in that most absolute state of health which is incapable of addition, the perfect pleasure of God. For we do not deny that human nature can be without sin; nor ought we by any means to refuse to it the ability to become perfect, since we admit its capacity for progress—by God’s grace, however, through our Lord Jesus Christ. By His assistance we aver that it becomes holy and happy, by whom it was created in order to be so. (On Nature and Grace, 68 [LVIII] )
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If God wished not that man should be without sin, He would not have sent His Son without sin, to heal men of their sins. This takes place in believers who are being renewed day by day, [2 Corinthians 4:16] until their righteousness becomes perfect, like fully restored health. (On Man’s Perfection in Righteousness, 3, 7)
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[H]e has kept God’s ways who does not so turn aside as to forsake them, but makes progress by running his course therein; although, weak as he is, he sometimes stumbles or falls, onward, however, he still goes, sinning less and less until he reaches the perfect state in which he will sin no more. For in no other way could he make progress, except by keeping His ways. (On Man’s Perfection in Righteousness, 11, 27)
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“And every man that has this hope towards Him purifies himself, even as He is pure,” [1 John 3:3] — purifies himself, not indeed by himself alone, but by believing in Him, and calling on Him who sanctifies His saints; which sanctification, when perfected at last (for it is at present only advancing and growing day by day), shall take away from us for ever all the remains of our infirmity. (On Man’s Perfection in Righteousness, 18, 39)
If Francisco wants to “cherry-pick” Augustine, to find what sounds at first glance most “Protestant” I’ll be more than happy (as an editor of a book of his quotations) to fill out the fuller picture of his teaching on infused justification and actual righteousness (not merely declared). Francisco cited two Augustine statements from one book. I cite him once from the same book and six more times from four other of his books.
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If justification is a process of gradual improvement to perfection, the only solution for the Roman Catholic is despair, for there would be no salvation for him, since such perfection is impossible, if such perfection is impossible, we are left with that perfection is not ontological, but imputed on us. The text invoked by Mr Armstrong, 1 John 1:6-8, actually teaches the exact opposite of Roman Catholic doctrine.
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Purgatory takes care of that. There is no despair here. The Lord chastens and refines those whom He loves. The real despair lies in those whom supralapsarian Calvinists claim are predestined to hell from all eternity, by God’s decree, or whom infralapsarian Calvinists declare predestined to damnation in light of the fall of man. Don’t just take my word for that. Read what John Calvin himself wrote:
The human mind, when it hears this doctrine, cannot restrain its petulance, but boils and rages as if aroused by the sound of a trumpet. . . . there could be no election without its opposite reprobation. . . . Those, therefore, whom God passes by he reprobates, and that for no other cause but because he is pleased to exclude them from the inheritance which he predestines to his children. (Institutes, III, 23:1)
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[T]he Lord has created those who, as he certainly foreknew, were to go to destruction, and he did so because he so willed. Why he willed it is not ours to ask, as we cannot comprehend, nor can it become us even to raise a controversy as to the justice of the divine will. (Institutes, III, 23:5)
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Now, since the arrangement of all things is in the hand of God, since to him belongs the disposal of life and death, he arranges all things by his sovereign counsel, in such a way that individuals are born, who are doomed from the womb to certain death, and are to glorify him by their destruction. (Institutes, 23:6)
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Nor, indeed, is there any probability in the thing itself—viz. that man brought death upon himself merely by the permission, and not by the ordination of God; as if God had not determined what he wished the condition of the chief of his creatures to be. (Institutes, III, 23:8)
If my efforts and decisions are causes of justifying grace, that is, if good works produce justification before God and not just for men, it follows that something in God is caused by these works, therefore ignorant of what would happen, for a cause always grants to the caused something that the caused does not have, therefore every cause perfects the caused. If it is true, not only from the creaturely point of view, but also from the divine point of view, that it was Abraham’s attitudes that caused the divine attitude to bless him; if it is true that there has been a true test concerning God, as Mr Armstrong claims, then, however much my opponent may deny it, he cannot escape the logical consequence that his argument presupposes divine ignorance, hence passive potency in God. It will take much more than a mere assertion to prove that Mr. Armstrong’s argument does not make God passive.
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This doesn’t follow. God ordains from all eternity the fact that a person will respond to His grace and perform works in order to merit salvation, in conjunction with grace and his faith. Augustine famously stated that merit was “God crowning His own gifts.” None of that entails any change, limitation, or ignorance in God. It was all in His providence from all eternity (see Gen 50:20; Ezra 6:22). Francisco is confused in his theology proper and thinks that human free will would actually limit God.
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St. Paul concludes that Abraham cannot boast precisely because he was not justified by any work. Mr Armstrong cannot agree with St. Paul’s conclusion without agreeing with its premise, which he does. If no one can boast before God, then there is no merit in good works. The answer that logically follows from God’s mercy being our all is that nothing comes from us that causes salvation. In the process of salvation, man enters with sin and God with mercy.
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Paul didn’t think there was nothing he could boast about. He teaches that we can boast about our works and that they are simultaneously caused by the grace of God. He doesn’t play the “either/or” and false dichotomy game:
Romans 15:17 In Christ Jesus, then, I have reason to be proud of my work for God.
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2 Corinthians 1:12 For our boast is this, the testimony of our conscience that we have behaved in the world, and still more toward you, with holiness and godly sincerity, not by earthly wisdom but by the grace of God. (cf. 1:14; 5:12)
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2 Corinthians 7:14 For if I have expressed to him some pride in you, I was not put to shame; but just as everything we said to you was true, so our boasting before Titus has proved true. (cf. 10:8, 13; 11:10; 12:9)
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Galatians 6:4 But let each one test his own work, and then his reason to boast will be in himself alone and not in his neighbor.
Our good works enabled by God’s grace are equated with God’s own works. It’s for this reason that they are meritorious and put us in good stead with God:
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I want to explain the reasons why it is impossible for there to be merit before God in any good human work. The great Francis Turretin lists five conditions for one to have merit, they are:
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1 – that the “work is undue” – for no one deserves, upon payment, what he owes (Luke 17.10), he only satisfies;
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2 – let it be ours – because it cannot be said that someone deserves what belongs to another;
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3 – that it be absolutely perfect and free from all stain – for where sin is, there can be no merit;
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4 – that it is equal and proportionate to the reward and payment; otherwise it would be a gift, not merit;
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5 – that reward is due to that work on the basis of justice – hence an “undue work” is commonly defined as one that “makes a reward due in the order of justice”
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After listing these five conditions, he explains why good human works do not fit the aforementioned conditions:
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1 – They are not undue, but due; for all that we are and can do, all this we owe to God, to whom we are, for that reason, called debtors (Luke 17:10; Romans 8:12).
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Of course we owe it all to God, but we still get credit for such works (biblical “both/and” paradox):
Matthew 6:6 But when you pray, go into your room and shut the door and pray to your Father who is in secret; and your Father who sees in secret will reward you. (cf. 6:1, 4, 18)
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Matthew 10:41-42 He who receives a prophet because he is a prophet shall receive a prophet’s reward, and he who receives a righteous man because he is a righteous man shall receive a righteous man’s reward. [42] And whoever gives to one of these little ones even a cup of cold water because he is a disciple, truly, I say to you, he shall not lose his reward. (cf. Mk 9:41)
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Matthew 25:20-21 And he who had received the five talents came forward, bringing five talents more, saying, `Master, you delivered to me five talents; here I have made five talents more.’ [21] His master said to him, `Well done, good and faithful servant; you have been faithful over a little, I will set you over much; enter into the joy of your master.’
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Mark 10:29-30 Jesus said, “Truly, I say to you, there is no one who has left house or brothers or sisters or mother or father or children or lands, for my sake and for the gospel, [30] who will not receive a hundredfold now in this time, houses and brothers and sisters and mothers and children and lands, with persecutions, and in the age to come eternal life.
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Luke 6:35 But love your enemies, and do good, and lend, expecting nothing in return; and your reward will be great, and you will be sons of the Most High; for he is kind to the ungrateful and the selfish.
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Luke 14:13-14 But when you give a feast, invite the poor, the maimed, the lame, the blind, and you will be blessed, because they cannot repay you. You will be repaid at the resurrection of the just.
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Romans 2:10 . . . glory and honor and peace for every one who does good . . .
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1 Corinthians 3:14 If the work which any man has built on the foundation survives, he will receive a reward
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1 Corinthians 15:10 . . . I worked harder than any of them, though it was not I, but the grace of God which is with me.

The Bible repeatedly states that God even shares His glory with His creatures.

2 – None is ours, but they are all gifts of grace and fruits of the Spirit (James 1:17; Phil 2:13; 2Co 3:5).

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A gift, by definition, becomes ours, once we receive it. If I get a gift of a new suit for my birthday, it’s mine after my birthday party is over. This is simply more Protestant unbiblical “either/or” reasoning. Accordingly, Paul writes, “Having gifts that differ according to the grace given to us, let us use them: if prophecy, in proportion to our faith” (Rom 12:6). We make these gratuitous divine gifts our own and appropriate them, and do something with them:
Philippians 2:12-13 . . . work out your own salvation with fear and trembling; [13] for God is at work in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure.
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1 Timothy 4:14-16 Do not neglect the gift you have, which was given you by prophetic utterance when the council of elders laid their hands upon you. [15] Practice these duties, devote yourself to them, so that all may see your progress. [16] Take heed to yourself and to your teaching; hold to that, for by so doing you will save both yourself and your hearers.
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1 Peter 4:1 As each has received a gift, employ it for one another, as good stewards of God’s varied grace:
3 – They are not perfect, but are admitted despite their various impurities (Rm 7.18; Gl 5.17,18; Is 64.6).
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Of course; no one ever said otherwise.
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4 – They are not equal to future glory, because there is no proportion between the finite and temporal and the infinite and eternal (Rm 8.18; 2 Co 4.17).
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People receive differential rewards in heaven (just as we receive differing levels of grace):
Daniel 12:3 And those who are wise shall shine like the brightness of the firmament; and those who turn many to righteousness, like the stars for ever and ever.
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Matthew 6:20 but lay up for yourselves treasures in heaven, where neither moth nor rust consumes and where thieves do not break in and steal.

Matthew 16:27 For the Son of man . . .  will repay every man for what he has done.

Romans 2:5-6 But by your hard and impenitent heart you are storing up wrath for yourself on the day of wrath when God’s righteous judgment will be revealed. [6] For he will render to every man according to his works: (cf. Prov 24:12)
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2 Corinthians 5:10 For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, so that each one may receive good or evil, according to what he has done in the body.

5 – The reward promised by them is merely free and undue and is to be expected not on the basis of the internal merit of the work and its intrinsic dignity, but solely on the very free esteem of it by him who crowns it (Rom 6.23; 4.4; 11.6 ). Hence also it appears, that there is no merit, properly so called, of man before God, no matter what state he may be in. Thus Adam himself, if he had persevered, would not have merited life in strict justice, though (by a certain condescension [synchatabasin]) God covenantally promised him life on condition of perfect obedience (which is called meritorious on that ground). covenant in a wider sense, because it was to be, as it were, the foundation and meritorious cause in view of which God had bestowed upon him life).

Once again, Francisco ignored commenting upon the six passages I provided, that back up my last-cited statement above. My general answer to this argument that merit is unbiblical are the following articles:

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Given the above reasons, human works cannot match divine work.
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No one ever said they could!
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In short, if there is no merit, it also does not justify.
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In short, there is such a thing as merit, as I have shown with tons of Scripture, and it plays a role in justification and salvation.
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Mr. Dave Armstrong has spared himself from commenting on the several parallel verses I have used in which I abundantly prove that the term can be properly used of a justification before men, as, when I said that St. Luke narrates that, after hearing Christ, the people justified to God (Luke 7:29).

I have covered that topic in great depth; surely a sufficient answer.

St. Luke never meant that the people impute or infuse justice to God, which would be absurd, since God is justice itself, but they have given God and his doctrine the praise they deserve.

Amen!

Mr. Armstrong does not attack the relationship I make with the use of the term, he diverts the focus and uses a quotation that does not contradict what I say, but that makes a more pastoral analysis of 2.24. He writes:
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Kittel’s Theological Dictionary of the New Testament (one-volume edition, pp. 172-173) disagrees as to the meaning of James 2:24:

How we can be righteous before God is dealt with in 2:23-24. The concern here is to combat a dead orthodoxy that divides faith and works. The works that justify are not legalistic observances but the works of loving obedience that Paul calls the fruit of the Spirit. Abraham was justified by a faith which found fulfillment in works. . . . the practical concern, namely, that the only valid faith is one that produces works, is very much in line with the total proclamation of the NT, including that of Paul himself.

After that, I quote Luke 16.15, with proof that there is a justification before men: “You are those who justify yourselves before men, but God knows your hearts; for what is exalted among men is an abomination before God.”

Francisco wants to argue that there is a positively encouraged justification before men, but here Jesus is condemning (not commending) the Pharisees for wanting to do this, as I elaborated upon last time (I won’t repeat it).

Mr Dave Armstrong did not understand the crux of the matter. When I say that the text proves that there is justification before men (something that even Mr. Armstrong assumes exists), I do not cite as an example of someone who succeeded in trying to do so, but I say that the text presents someone who tries to do so. doing it precisely because it is true, but doing it the wrong way. And the reason is what I mentioned in the previous article: the Pharisees tried to show works without faith, that is, they tried to justify themselves before men for their own ego, not to glorify God.I claim that the text proves that Scripture teaches both justifications, as Dave Armstrong himself has already confirmed.

Fair enough, but this isn’t the same dynamic as in James 2, which is the case Francisco was trying to make: to try to differentiate that from what Protestants regard as “standard” Pauline soteriology. They have to do so because James includes works in the equation. But of course, Paul also teaches the same thing, many times.

After that, I quote Hebrews 11 to prove that there is a need for a public testimony of faith, a justification before men, but that the works quoted there do not justify before God.

To the contrary, the writer states that “by it [faith] the men of old received divine approval” (11:2) and that “Abel offered to God a more acceptable sacrifice than Cain, through which he received approval as righteous, God bearing witness . . .” (11:4) and that “Enoch . . . was attested as having pleased God” (11:5). We “please” God by means of faith (11:6) and works of faith, just as these heroes of the faith did.

The ancient Hebrews and biblical writers thought in both/and terms and, often, paradoxical terms. God saves us, but we save ourselves and others (many passages). We work together with God and His work is ours in a sense. He blesses us with His grace to do good works, and then gives us credit for it. God even shares His glory with us, and the Bible makes the extraordinary statement that we “suffer with” Christ (Rom 8:17) and “become partakers of the divine nature” (2 Pet 1:4).

I agree that divine action does not destroy the nature of the second cause, but when the same work is attributed to God and men, it is never in the same sense, it is never taken univocally. If God does good and man does good, the two works have different meanings, since God acts as the First Cause and man acts as the Secondary Cause.

We totally agree. But by the same token, Francisco is in effect granting the presence of merit on man’s part; just in a far lesser sense than what God does for us, in enabling us to be able to achieve merit and reward in the first place.

It is true that according to the angle of creatures, we have merits, we can be good and receive credit for it, because in this vector, good works precede grace, so we have merits, but it is not the same from the angle of God, except when Scripture presents Him in an anthropopathic way, because in this vector, grace precedes good works, so we have no merits.

Francisco makes this statement, but I have contradicted it over and over with explicit Scriptural counter-arguments. Readers must choose what they prefer: Francisco’s assertions, or my contentions that I massively back up with Holy Scripture at every turn.

Francisco replied to my extended commentary on Hebrews 11 in my previous reply, as follows:

Certainly, when we work faith through good works, because it is a commandment, God is pleased with those who fulfill it, but it does not follow that God justifies that person through these works.

Alert for the following point: we are talking about justification before God. We are talking about the work of God towards man and from the divine perspective. In all texts, in addition to presenting a perspective of creatures, it does not report God justifying a man because of his work.

James disagrees:

James 2:21-25 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he offered his son Isaac upon the altar? [22] You see that faith was active along with his works, and faith was completed by works, [23] and the scripture was fulfilled which says, “Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness”; and he was called the friend of God. [24] You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone. [25] And in the same way was not also Rahab the harlot justified by works . . . 

This doesn’t fit with Protestant soteriology, so they try to reinterpret the passage, but it doesn’t fly, as I have been showing. The language is too clear. I have often noticed (to my delight) that God makes passages very clear and straightforward when it comes to refuting Protestant errors. God knew these errors would arise fifteen centuries after Christ, so He provided the refutations and remedies in crystal clear Bible passages. Nothing is more clear than “a man is justified by works and not by faith alone” or “faith by itself, if it has no works, is dead” (Jas 2:17).

In Hebrews 11.4, quoted by Mr. Armstrong, the text says that by faith Abel’s sacrifice was greater than that of Cain, and therefore he obtained testimony that he was righteous, faith was the great driving force of justification.

He made a “sacrifice” by “faith” and the combination (not faith alone) was what brought about his “approval as righteous” by God. Once again, it’s faith and works: precisely as in the Catholic understanding. See how the work was directly involved and not secondary and optional? Otherwise, the sacrifice wouldn’t be mentioned. Abel would simply be described as having faith in God, by which he was made righteous.

Throughout the 11th chapter the testimony is unanimous that however good the works of the saints were, it was by faith that they gained their value, their dignity, and all their excellencies; hence it follows, that the fathers pleased God by faith alone, for the work of Cain and Abel were the same, but the difference was faith. In addition, the text says that Abel is dead, but speaks, that is, because of his faith, although he is dead “he is still spoken”, his testimony remained for generations as a public example of faith.

Faith is clearly the focus of the chapter, but it’s not separated from works. This is always the Catholic point in this debate, and what we relentlessly, ubiquitously see in Scripture. I already proved this from Hebrews 11 last time, as far as I am concerned, and to a lesser extent again this time.

Francisco discusses Galatians 2:21: “I do not nullify the grace of God; for if justification were through the law, then Christ died to no purpose.”

There is a disagreement on the meaning of “law” used in the verse, which changes a lot. For Mr. Armstrong, the law mentioned by St. Paul is the Mosaic sacramentalist laws, it is not a matter of every good work, as repeated several times by him. So what I mean is that no good work, none at all, can justify it. What Mr. Armstrong means is that no works of the Mosaic ceremonial law can justify, but that such good works as love, hope, and righteousness can justify. For this he used the text of Galatians 5:6: “For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision avails, but faith working through love.” with faith.

This is true. I agree with the “new perspective on Paul,” which is a Protestant trend in theology, that corresponds nicely with traditional Catholic teaching. See N. T. Wright’s in-depth exposition on that topic.

To refute the first part, I will once again invoke the greatest of all theologians, Saint Augustine of Hippo, as he says about the separation between Mosaic law and the law of love:

“But say the Pelagians, “We praise God, the author of our justification, acknowledging that he has given us the law, under the view of which we know how to live.” They do not pay attention to what they read: For in his sight no man will be justified by the deeds of the Law (Rm 2,20). This justification can be given before men, but not before God, who searches hearts and the most hidden will, in which he sees what he would like, if it were lawful, he who fears the Law, although he practices something else. . And, to avoid a distorted interpretation, stating that the Apostle was referring in that sentence to that law which in the ancient sacraments included in figure many precepts, among which the circumcision of the flesh that children should receive on the eighth day after birth (Lev. 12,3), adds in the continuation to which law he was referring and said: For by the Law is the knowledge of sin (Rm 20,22). Therefore, it is a question of that Law of which he later said: For I did not know concupiscence except through the Law. I would not have known concupiscence, if the Law had not said: You shall not covet (Rm 7,7). What else does it mean, Through the law comes only the knowledge of sin?” (The Spirit and the Letter. Chapter 8.14)

I thoroughly documented St. Augustine’s Catholic view of infused justification above; no need to repeat that. I have many passages from Augustine (who Francisco calls “the greatest of all theologians”) about the falsity of faith alone and faith without works, and how works ties into salvation, in my book, The Quotable Augustine. For the sake of brevity and readers’ patience, I’ll cite only some of the most clear ones:

Who is he that believes not that Jesus is the Christ? He that does not so live as Christ commanded. For many say, “I believe”: but faith without works saves not. Now the work of faith is Love, . . . (Homilies on the First Epistle of John, 10, 1)

What the Lord Himself, to pass over other things, when that rich man sought of Him, what good thing he should do, that he might attain life eternal, let them call to mind what He answered; If thou wilt come, said He, unto life, keep the Commandments. [Matthew 19:17] But he said, What? Then the Lord made mention of the Commandments of the Law, Thou shall not kill, Thou shall not commit adultery, and the rest. Whereupon when he had made answer that he had performed these from his youth, He added also a Commandment of perfection, that he should sell all that he had, and give in alms unto the poor, and have treasure in heaven, and follow the same Lord. Let them then see that it was not said unto him that he should believe and be baptized, by the aid of which alone those men think that a man comes unto life; but commandments of morals were given unto the man, which certainly without faith cannot be guarded and observed. Neither, however, because in this place the Lord appears to have been silent as to the suggestion of faith, do we lay down and contend, that we are to state commandments of morals alone to men who desire to attain unto life. For both are connected the one with the other, as I said before; because neither can the love of God exist in a man who loveth not his neighbour, nor the love of his neighbour in him who loveth not God. And so at times we find that Scripture makes mention of the one without the other, either this or that, in place of the full doctrine, so that even in this way we may understand that the one cannot exist without the other: because both he who believes in God ought to do what God commands; and he who therefore does it because God commands it, must of necessity believe in God. (On Faith and Works, 20)

And the apostle himself, after saying, “By grace are you saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God: not of works, lest any man should boast;” [Ephesians 2:8-9] saw, of course, the possibility that men would think from this statement that good works are not necessary to those who believe, but that faith alone suffices for them; and again, the possibility of men’s boasting of their good works, as if they were of themselves capable of performing them. To meet, therefore, these opinions on both sides, he immediately added, “For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God has before ordained that we should walk in them.” [Ephesians 2:10] . . . Now, hear and understand. “Not of works” is spoken of the works which you suppose have their origin in yourself alone; but you have to think of works for which God has moulded (that is, has formed and created) you. For of these he says, “We are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works.” (On Grace and Free Will, 20)

Let us therefore not flatter the Catholic who is hemmed in with all these vices, nor venture, merely because he is a Catholic Christian, to promise him the impunity which holy Scripture does not promise him; nor, if he has any one of the faults above mentioned, ought we to promise him a partnership in that heavenly land. (On Baptism, Against the Donatists, iv, 19, 27)

He wills not to distinguish faith from work, but declared faith itself to be work. For it is that same faith that works by love. [Galatians 5:6] (Lectures on the Gospel of John, 25, 12)

[B]y means of the free-will naturally implanted within him, he enters on the way which is pointed out to him, and by persevering in a just and pious course of life, deserves to attain to the blessedness of eternal life. (On the Spirit and the Letter, 4)

I have written a book on this subject, entitled Of Faith and Works, in which, to the best of my ability, God assisting me, I 98 have shown from Scripture, that the faith which saves us is that which the Apostle Paul clearly enough describes when he says: “For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision avails anything, nor uncircumcision, but faith which works by love.” [Galatians 5:6] But if it works evil, and not good, then without doubt, as the Apostle James says, “it is dead, being alone.” [James 2:17] The same apostle says again, “What does it profit, my brethren, though a man say he has faith, and have not works? Can faith save him?” [James 2:14] And further, if a wicked man shall be saved by fire on account of his faith alone, and if this is what the blessed Apostle Paul means when he says, “But he himself shall be saved, yet so as by fire;” [1 Corinthians 3:15] then faith without works can save a man, and what his fellow-apostle James says must be false. And that must be false which Paul himself says in another place: “Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners; shall inherit the kingdom of God.” [1 Corinthians 6:9-10] For if those who persevere in these wicked courses shall nevertheless be saved on account of their faith in Christ, how can it be true that they shall not inherit the kingdom of God? (Enchiridion: Handbook on Faith, Hope, and Love, 67)

St. Augustine also firmly held to the notion of merit (which Calvin, Calvinists, Protestants, and Francisco vehemently deny). I have compiled no less than 25 of his statements about that, but I’ll restrict my citation here to the crystal-clear, undeniably “Catholic” portions:

We disapprove the error of those, who think that there are no merits of souls before You. (The Soliloquies, i, 3)

And according to the cleanness of My deeds He will recompense Me, who has given Me to do well by bringing Me forth into the broad place of faith. (Explanations of the Psalms, 18:20 [18:21] )

[N]ot only for the breadth of faith, which works by love; but also for the length of perseverance, will the Lord reward Me according to My righteousness. (Explanations of the Psalms, 18:24 [18:25] )

. . . cures more frequent by the merits of Martyrs. (Explanations of the Psalms, 119:157 [119, 155] )

The personal merit . . . was different in the two cases. (Against the Letters of Petilian the Donatist, ii, 47, 110)

For I would ask whether you use the Lord’s prayer in your devotions? For if you do not use that prayer, which our Lord taught His disciples for their use, where have you learned another, proportioned to your merits, as exceeding the merits of the apostles? (Against the Letters of Petilian the Donatist, ii, 104, 237)

For if the sanctity of baptism be according to the diversity of merits in them that administer it, then as merits are diverse there will be diverse baptisms; . . . (Lectures on the Gospel of John, 6, 8)

Merit is accumulating now to the believer, and then the reward is paid into the hand of the beholder. . . . As far as each one has been a partaker of You, some less, some more, such will be the diversity of rewards in proportion to the diversity of merits . . . (Lectures on the Gospel of John, 68, 3)

. . . persons whose merits are so good, . . . (On the Care of the Dead, 2)

Therefore, it is in this life that all the merit or demerit is acquired, which can either relieve or aggravate a man’s sufferings after this life. (Enchiridion: Handbook on Faith, Hope, and Love, 110)

The good, indeed, shall receive their reward according to the merits of their own good-will, but then they received this very good-will through the grace of God . . . (Epistle 215 [1]: to Valentinus [426] )

“I am now ready to be offered, and the time of my departure is at hand. I have fought a good fight; I have finished my course; I have kept the faith.” [2 Timothy 4:6-7] He enumerates these as, of course, now his good merits; so that, as after his evil merits he obtained grace, so now, after his good merits, he might receive the crown. . . . (On Grace and Free Will, 14)

If, then, your good merits are God’s gifts, God does not crown your merits as your merits, but as His own gifts. (On Grace and Free Will, 15)

[S]ince even that life eternal itself, which, it is certain, is given as due to good works, is called by so great an apostle the grace of God, although grace is not rendered to works, but is given freely, it must be confessed without any doubt, that eternal life is called grace for the reason that it is rendered to those merits which grace has conferred upon man. (On Rebuke and Grace, 41)

So — sorry to inform Francisco — Augustine is not some sort of proto-Calvin. He’s a thoroughgoing Catholic.

Augustine attributes to the Pelagians the interpretation that deduces from Paul’s texts a separation between sacramental/preceptual Mosaic law and the good work, whatever it may be, since adultery, covetousness and all sin comes through the knowledge of the law, and not doing good works is sin, therefore it is also part of the law. St. Augustine’s thinking refutes Mr. Armstrong on several fronts, supporting my thinking about justification before men and not before God through good works, it also supports my interpretation that good works belong to what St. Paul calls “works of the law” ”which do not justify, which can be applied to the texts of Romans, James and Galatians. Now Mr. Armstrong’s whole argument rests on this distinction between the Mosaic law and the good work, where he sets good works apart from the Mosaic law in every text where St. Paul says that the works of the law do not justify. By proving this distinction to be exegetically impossible, every one of Mr Armstrong’s arguments fall down like a house of cards. Unless Mr. Armstrong proves that he has a better interpretation of these texts than St. Augustine, I would not need to write another line in this debate.

Jason A. Myers, author of the article, “Law, Lies and Letter Writing: An Analysis of Jerome and Augustine on the Antioch Incident (Galatians 2:11–14)”, Scottish Journal of Theology, published by Cambridge University Press, 10 April 2013, disagrees with Francisco’s interpretation of Augustine:

[C]ritics of the NPP [“New Perspective on Paul”] often turn to the reformers such as Calvin and Luther to defend the traditional reading of Paul and trace this traditional reading back to Augustine. For the critics, church tradition stands on the side of the traditional reading.

This article seeks to highlight an often neglected early church view on one aspect of the NPP, that of Paul and the Law. This article highlights one of the fiercest exchanges between two church fathers. Through a series of letters, Jerome and Augustine corresponded on Jerome’s interpretation of Galatians 2 and the Antioch incident. For Augustine the pastor, nothing less than the veracity of scripture was at stake and Augustine mounts a defence of Paul’s actions in Galatians 2 in response to Jerome’s insistence of an agreed-upon lie between Peter and Paul. In the process of Augustine’s rebuttal of Jerome, he notes that Paul followed the law without ‘pretence’ and that there was a period in early Christianity where Jewish Christians practised law observance. Augustine highlights the divine origin of the Mosaic law, which renders a positive role for the law in early Christianity, and notes that the negative critique of the law comes within the context of a Gentile audience, but did not have implications for Jewish Christians. Augustine rightly notices and raises the important context of Paul’s negative statements on the law and offers a nuanced discussion of Paul’s treatment of the law.

Augustine notes some of the important conclusions drawn by the NPP, namely a positive view of the law and its practice by Paul and other Jewish Christians. He also notes the various ways the law functions in Jewish and Gentile contexts. Such a positive view of Paul and the law may appear striking to many, but must be considered by those who are otherwise critical of the NPP. This article shows that there was at least one voice, among others, within the early church which advocated for a positive reading of Paul and the law. The history of interpretation of Galatians 2 offers many insights for contemporary Pauline scholars which ought to be heeded in future discussions. This article, by highlighting the exchange between Jerome and Augustine, seeks to give the NPP a historical ‘rootedness’ and placement within the history of interpretation.

My argument, still unanswered, is that knowing that justification, according to the Church of Rome, is an infusion of righteousness and the merits of Christ, and, if there is a distinction between good work and the works of the law, and if the works of the law cannot justify, that is, it cannot merit Christ’s merits, but other good works are justifying, therefore they can merit Christ’s merits, then Christ’s work would become imperfect. I explain: justification is not only an improvement, but also a process of removal of blame.

I answered this last time by stating: “They can merit reward” (as opposed to “meriting Christ”). Here is a further reply, from the article “Merit” in the Catholic Encyclopedia (1911):

Christian faith teaches us that the Incarnate Son of God by His death on the cross has in our stead fully satisfied God’s anger at our sins, and thereby effected a reconciliation between the world and its Creator. Not, however, as though nothing were now left to be done by man, or as though he were now restored to the state of original innocence, whether he wills it or not; on the contrary, God and Christ demand of him that he make the fruits of the Sacrifice of the Cross his own by personal exertion and co-operation with grace, by justifying faith and the reception of baptism. It is a defined article of the Catholic Faith that man before, in, and after justification derives his whole capability of meriting and satisfying, as well as his actual merits and satisfactions, solely from the infinite treasure of merits which Christ gained for us on the Cross (cf. Council of Trent, Sess. VI, cap. xvi; Sess. XIV, cap. viii).

Trent specifically denied that we could “merit Christ’s merits.” So this whole line of argument is a straw man and non sequitur.

If even after we have Christ in our heart, the guilt remains in us, having to be expiated through our good works, this makes the work of Christ imperfect, for it was not able to expiate all the guilt and make me righteous before God in the moment I receive it. Either we have Christ, or we don’t have Christ. That is the argument, and it remains unanswered.

Servant of God Fr. John A. Hardon, S.J. (died 2000), who received me into the Church, wrote the Foreword of my first book, and baptized my first two sons, wrote about what Catholics believe baptism does:

The first and most practical effect of Baptism is to remove the guilt of original sin and restore the corresponding title to heavenly glory. What does this mean? It means that all the guilt of all the sin a person may have on his soul is taken away. A baptized child who has not reached the age of reason, if it dies, has an immediate title to the beatific vision. After the age of reason, a baptized person is freed not only from original sin but all the sins committed, and all the punishment due to even a lifetime of personal sins. (“The Sacraments of Baptism and Confirmation,” 1998)

That sounds quite identical to Francisco’s description of howthe work of Christ” is “able to expiate all the guilt and make [us] righteous before God in the moment [we] receive it.” We simply place this event at baptism. Any guilt after that is the result of actual sin, and St. John addresses that, and its remedy:

1 John 1:8-10 If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. [9] If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just, and will forgive our sins and cleanse us from all unrighteousness. [10] If we say we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.

1 John 2:1-2 My little children, I am writing this to you so that you may not sin; but if any one does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous; [2] and he is the expiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

Francisco then cites verses I set forth, as follows:

It [righteousness] ultimately and always comes from Christ alone and then we also make it our own as well (both/and):

Mark 16:20 And they went forth and preached everywhere, while the Lord worked with them . . .

Romans 15:17-19  In Christ Jesus, then, I have reason to be proud of my work for God. [18] For I will not venture to speak of anything except what Christ has wrought through me to win obedience from the Gentiles, by word and deed,

1 Corinthians 1:21 . . . it pleased God through the folly of what we preach to save those who believe.

1 Corinthians 3:5 What then is Apol’los? What is Paul? Servants through whom you believed, as the Lord assigned to each.

1 Corinthians 3:9 . . . we are God’s fellow workers . . . (KJV: “labourers together with God”)

1 Corinthians 15:10  But by the grace of God I am what I am, and his grace toward me was not in vain. On the contrary, I worked harder than any of them, though it was not I, but the grace of God which is with me.

2 Corinthians 6:1 Working together with him, then, we entreat you not to accept the grace of God in vain.

2 Corinthians 13:3 . . . Christ is speaking in me . . .

Philippians 2:13 for God is at work in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure.

1 Timothy 4:16 Take heed to yourself and to your teaching: hold to that, for by so doing you will save both yourself and your hearers.

James 5:20 . . .  whoever brings back a sinner from the error of his way will save his soul from death . . .

Now let’s see how many of these passages he will address and deal with.

I disagree and reject the charge that we are doing an unnecessary either/or. Dichotomies exist in Scripture, but this is not the case. While I do not interpret it in the same way as Mr Armstrong does, this does not mean that I am excluding any part of any verse from my explanations.

Good and fair enough; duly noted. Then I will look closely to see exactly how you interpret these passages.

When Mr. Armstrong says that righteousness “ultimately and always comes from Christ alone and then we also make it our own as well (both/and)”, I see no reason to disagree with this sentence, for indeed, through faith we appropriate the works of Christ , but this requires further explanation, it is obvious that there are differences between what I am saying and what Mr Armstrong has in mind.

Glad to hear it. We do differ somehow, though, and whatever the difference is will be examined now.

First, that there is cooperation between God and man, that is a fact, but creatures are like subordinate agents, men subordinate to God, not like equal agents with God.

We completely agree.

I have already explained and I repeat, there is human merit when we look only to men, but none of the apostles dare, at any time, to boast before God.

To the contrary, Paul wrote:

Galatians 6:4 But let each one test his own work, and then his reason to boast will be in himself alone and not in his neighbor.

This is simply a man examining himself. It has nothing to do with other men observing. He is testing his own work, which value God will judge, as Paul notes three verses later:

Galatians 6:7-9  Do not be deceived; God is not mocked, for whatever a man sows, that he will also reap. [8] For he who sows to his own flesh will from the flesh reap corruption; but he who sows to the Spirit will from the Spirit reap eternal life. [9] And let us not grow weary in well-doing, for in due season we shall reap, if we do not lose heart.

So it’s all before God, and Paul stated that it was a legitimate reason for him to “boast.”

If anyone is proud, it is in front of other men,

That’s not always true, either:

Philippians 2:16 holding fast the word of life, so that in the day of Christ I may be proud that I did not run in vain or labor in vain.

Hebrews 3:6 . . . And we are his house if we hold fast our confidence and pride in our hope.

Romans 15:17 In Christ Jesus, then, I have reason to be proud of my work for God.

but always emphasizing that his works would not be possible without God.

As Paul does in the next verse, in the following example:

Romans 15:18 For I will not venture to speak of anything except what Christ has wrought through me to win obedience from the Gentiles, by word and deed,

If the apostles cannot and do not boast of such works,

But they do, so the premise is wrong.

neither can they say that these works are causes of justification.

I’ve gone over this subject matter many times by now. The Bible teaches (as I have shown more than hundred times now) that works contribute as the cause of our justification, alongside grace and faith.

Francisco cites 1 Corinthians 15:10 and comments:

It is clear that Paul ascribes nothing to himself in regard to this work, though he may do it before men, but in relation to God he claims to have done nothing. At the same time, in which he works, this work is as if it were not him.

He does say that he did something, in asserting, “I worked harder than any of them.” If in fact he thought that he did absolutely nothing, the verse would be half as long as it is, and would read, “But by the grace of God I am what I am, and his grace toward me was not in vain.” There would be no reason whatsoever to include the clause I just noted. It would confuse readers. But it’s “both/and” biblical paradox. Paul reiterates that he did something; that he was not passive or without free will, in the next verse, too: “so we preach and so you believed.” That is not ascribing nothing to himself”; sorry!

Francisco then decided (thank you kind sir!) to address another of my passages, Philippians 2:13 (for God is at work in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure”):

this verse shows us, contrary to what Mr. Armstrong tries to insinuate, not a synergism in which there is cooperation between two equal parts, but a subordinate synergism, in which human cooperation generates an effect in reality, but only because God operated the will and the doing, that is, everything comes from God to man, nothing goes from man to God, the cause is God

We largely agree, but we disagree with Calvinists (as do most Protestants and the Orthodox) that man has no free will. I didn’t do it in this specific context, but I have, many times, noted that man is a totally inferior, subordinate cooperator with God. It’s self-evident, I would say, but we must often point this out, so we don’t get falsely accused of making man equal to God.

human works are an effect of the divine operation, how can they be causes of justification, which is a divine act, “from above downwards”, from God to man?

They can because the inspired revelation of the Bible says that they do. We must adjust our theologies accordingly.

it can be argued a partial operation on the part of God, due to the previous verse that says: “Work out your salvation with trembling” (verse 12), which, I think, is a thought which may properly be attributed to Mr. Armstrong.

Indeed, here’s a classic case where context helps explain the meaning of the verse.

However, St. Paul does not speak here of a collaboration of partial causes, synergistic, where God plays a part and the creature another, as complementary, which would be appropriate for the work of man to be meritorious and could be the cause of justification.

“work out your own salvation with fear and trembling” sure sounds to me like the man is doing something and that it will be meritorious if he does end up saved and in heaven.

The reason is that while in Phil 2:13 the word used for operate is “energeo”, while the word used for “cooperate” is the Greek word synergeo (Strong’s 4903), and in the same letter, in the same chapter, in Philippians 2:25, Paul uses the word synergeo for cooperating: “Nevertheless, I think it will be necessary to send back to you Epaphroditus, my brother, fellow worker (synergeo) and fellow soldier, the messenger whom you sent to minister to my needs” (Philippians 2:25). If, in Philippians 2.13, St. Paul wanted to convey an idea of cooperating, as partial causes, he would know very well what word to use, it would not be energeo, but synergeo. We then affirm that both the primary cause and the secondary cause are total during the event that happened, and that they collaborate, but not as partial and simultaneous causes, but as total causes, the primary being prior to the secondary. The second cause is always subordinate, therefore, it cannot cause a divine attitude, however much it collaborates subordinately.

Here, Francisco gets an “E” for effort, but he proves too much. If synergeo is the word that would signify cooperating, and God can supposedly never do that with man, then we need merely find it in other similar verses where God and man are working together (superior and subordinate, but still together). If we can do that, Francisco’s attempted linguistic argument would be seen to be self-refuting. There are in fact such verses, found under a web page on the word. One was the first example I provided:

Mark 16:20 And they went forth and preached everywhere, while the Lord worked [synergeo] with them . . .

A second verse from my list is also included:

2 Corinthians 6:1 Working together [synergeo] with him, then, we entreat you not to accept the grace of God in vain.

The same page cites Thayer’s Greek Lexicon, commenting on the above passage: “to work together, help in work, be a partner in labor.” And regarding Mark 16:20, it states that the word means “to put forth power together with and thereby to assist.” Case closed, and I heartily thank Francisco for providing Catholics with one of the many hundreds of scriptural and linguistic arguments that we can bring to bear.

As St. Paul states: “And there are diversities of operations, but it is the same God who works (energeo) all in all” (1 Cor 12:6).

Absolutely; He certainly does, but this is not the same thought as my passages, which are about man cooperating with God as an infinitely lesser partner, but still a partner.

Mr. Armstrong’s proposal runs into not only exegetical errors, but metaphysical ones.

Well, it doesn’t, because I just produced two verses that did what Francisco just argued could and would never happen. We must follow inspired, inerrant biblical teachings as our “master”. Catholics never have a problem doing that because our teachings are always in harmony with Scripture. I know, and am in a position to make such a summary statement, because “biblical evidence for Catholicism” has been my biggest emphasis in my Catholic apologetics, these past 33 years.

The other verses follow the same line of what has already been explained.

Note again that this is — sadly – Francisco’s technique to ignore my other biblical evidences with a line (one of the oldest evasive tactics in the book). He chose to deal with two of the eleven verses (18%) that I presented. I counter-answered the two that he cherry-picked to discuss (because he thought he had a good argument for them). If he is so confident in his case, then surely he could have refuted my contentions about the other nine. As it is, he again broke our agreed-to rules at the outset of this debate: “3) Both of us should try to actually interact point-by-point rather than picking and choosing; a serious debate where all the opponent’s arguments are grappled with.”

If Mr. Armstrong says that the answer to my argument is the explanation of his model of justification, then I will give more reason for the reader to be convinced that the Roman Catholic model of justification is biblically false.

But that’s not all that Armstrong does, of course. Armstrong also provides exponentially more biblical passages in support of Catholic theology than Francisco does for his theology, that Francisco then decides to ignore, as we just saw in the latest example: just one of many. It’s disappointing and bad for the debate, but hey, if he wishes to in effect concede the argument in this way (by not addressing large chunks of my presentation), that only helps our side and doesn’t provide much support for his. You readers out there who may be on the fence, or willing to look at both sides (especially former Catholics who have become Protestant), pay close attention in your determination of which view is more biblical and sensible!

For Mr Armstrong, as I understand it from his explanations, before justification there is an operation of the Holy Spirit which is a preparation for justification, wrought in part by divine power, and in part by the power of human free will, by which a man disposes itself for its own future justification.

The Council of Trent, on the other hand, taught (more precisely):

If any one saith, that without the prevenient inspiration of the Holy Ghost, and without his help, man can believe, hope, love, or be penitent as he ought, so as that the grace of Justification may be bestowed upon him; let him be anathema. (Canon III on Justification)

This is also taught in the Decree on Justification: chapter 5:

The Synod furthermore declares, that in adults, the beginning of the said Justification is to be derived from the prevenient grace of God, through Jesus Christ, that is to say, from His vocation, whereby, without any merits existing on their parts, they are called; that so they, who by sins were alienated from God, may be disposed through His quickening and assisting grace, to convert themselves to their own justification, by freely assenting to and co-operating with that said grace: in such sort that, while God touches the heart of man by the illumination of the Holy Ghost, neither is man himself utterly without doing anything while he receives that inspiration, forasmuch as he is also able to reject it; yet is he not able, by his own free will, without the grace of God, to move himself unto justice in His sight.

The rest of his description of our view is adequate.

An important point is that Mr. Armstrong concedes that the first, or initial, justification is the fruit of God’s mercy alone through the merit of Christ, without human work.

It’s not a “concession.” The Catholic Church has always taught this. Protestants, as a result, received it from us.

And this is where the question I asked comes in: “What exactly is it that makes a man stand right with God and be accepted into eternal life?” I replied that nothing but the righteousness of Christ, which consists partly in His sufferings and partly in His active obedience in carrying out the strictness of the law, hence we call it Solus christus (Christ alone).

Christ ultimately is the cause. No one disagrees with that. But in terms of the immediate instrumental cause, I devoted a paper to just that question. According to Holy Scripture, the following things are what causes God to declare that human beings are saved and worthy of heaven. Our answer to Francisco’s question and to God when we stand before Him, could incorporate any one or all of the following fifty responses: all perfectly biblical, and straight from the words of God Himself:

1) I am characterized by righteousness.

2) I have integrity.

3) I’m not wicked.

4) I’m upright in heart.

5) I’ve done good deeds.

6) I have good ways.

7) I’m not committing abominations.

8) I have good conduct.

9) I’m not angry with my brother.

10) I’m not insulting my brother.

11) I’m not calling someone a fool.

12) I have good fruits.

13) I do the will of God.

14) I hear Jesus’ words and do them.

15) I endured to the end.

16) I fed the hungry.

17) I provided drink to the thirsty.

18) I clothed the naked.

19) I welcomed strangers.

20) I visited the sick.

21) I visited prisoners.

22) I invited the poor and the maimed to my feast.

23) I’m not weighed down with dissipation.

24) I’m not weighed down with drunkenness.

25) I’m not weighed down with the cares of this life.

26) I’m not ungodly.

27) I don’t suppress the truth.

28) I’ve done good works.

29) I obeyed the truth.

30) I’m not doing evil.

31) I have been a “doer of the law.”

32) I’ve been a good laborer and fellow worker with God.

33) I’m unblamable in holiness.

34) I’ve been wholly sanctified.

35) My spirit and soul and body are sound and blameless.

36) I know God.

37) I’ve obeyed the gospel.

38) I’ve shared Christ’s sufferings.

39) I’m without spot or blemish.

40) I’ve repented.

41) I’m not a coward.

42) I’m not faithless.

43) I’m not polluted.

44) I’m not a murderer.

45) I’m not a fornicator.

46) I’m not a sorcerer.

47) I’m not an idolater.

48) I’m not a liar.

49) I invited the lame to my feast.

50) I invited the blind to my feast.

Where all this comes from is Bible passages: documented in my article, Final Judgment in Scripture is Always Associated with Works and Never with Faith Alone (50 Passages). So once again, I answer the probing question of my opponent with fifty passages directly cited from the Bible.

Mr. Armstrong answers that the thing which makes us right with God, and leads us to be accepted into eternal life, is the remission of sins, and the habit of inward righteousness, or charity with the fruits thereof.

Exactly! And why do I believe that? It’s because the Bible (oftentimes, God Himself speaking) explicitly states it, at least fifty times that I have found. The Bible asserting a proposition fifty times is pretty compelling evidence for any Christian looking for an answer to some theological question. What more could we expect or demand, pray tell?

I grant that there is a habit of righteousness, but I call it sanctification

Whatever someone wants to call it, it’s necessary for salvation and eternal life and entrance into heaven, per the Bible.

I also grant that it is an excellent gift of God, with its reward on his part, but I maintain that this justification is before man alone, because it serves to declare that we are reconciled to God.

The fifty passages I produced are not just “before man alone.” So, for example, we have the passages in Matthew 25:

“When the Son of man comes in his glory, and all the angels with him, then he will sit on his glorious throne. Before him will be gathered all the nations, and he will separate them one from another as a shepherd separates the sheep from the goats, and he will place the sheep at his right hand, but the goats at the left. Then the King will say to those at his right hand, `Come, O blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world; for I was hungry and you gave me food, I was thirsty and you gave me drink, I was a stranger and you welcomed me, I was naked and you clothed me, I was sick and you visited me, I was in prison and you came to me.’ . . . And they will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.”

See the bolded, italicized word “for” there? It indicates cause and means “because.” These people are allowed to enter heaven because (or, “for”) they did all these good works (six different ones mentioned). That’s what the Bible teaches, recording the words of our Lord and Savior and Redeemer Jesus, at the Last Judgment. It couldn’t be any more clear than it is. The word “faith” never even appears. But I’m not saying that faith isn’t part of it. I’ve never ever argued that. I’m saying that the fact of works also playing a key role cannot possibly be denied without rejecting plain biblical teaching.

However, I do not concede that the habit of righteousness and good works changes us from sinners to good men.

He doesn’t have to because we don’t believe that. We believe that both initial justification and baptism are monergistic.

The main reason I have given, to which, I insist, I have not received a proper answer, though Mr. Armstrong says otherwise, is this, based on the following verse: “He who knew no sin was made sin for us, that we might be made righteousness. of God which is in him” (2 Corinthians 5:21). From this it is easily deduced that as Christ was made sin for us, so we also are made the righteousness of God in Him. But Christ was made sin, or, a sinner by the imputation of our sins, He being in Himself most holy; therefore, a sinner is justified before God because the righteousness of Christ is imputed and applied to him.

Exactly. That’s what happens in initial justification and baptism. If we fall into sin, then we have to repent and confess, be granted absolution, and get back in right relationship with God. The Bible teaches that we have to be vigilant and make sure that we don’t fall from grace and salvation.

For although Mr. Armstrong agrees that both righteousness and forgiveness of sins come from Christ alone, this applies only to the initial justification, but does not apply to the permanence of that state of righteousness, namely, the second justification.

This is incorrect. It applies to any instance of justification, whether initial or subsequently after losing it through sin and rebellion. But the difference is that we are — after initial justification — commanded to do good works, which play into the determination of our ultimate salvation.

If justification has to do with having peace with God, as St. Paul says, “Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ;” Rm 5.1, when will we have peace with God if Christian perfection is something unattainable?

I’ve already addressed the question of perfection, holiness, righteousness, etc.

And even if we understand the Roman Catholic view of the possibility of Christian perfection,

Not just our view, but the biblical view, which we merely follow.

it doesn’t solve the problem, for we know that Christian perfection is extremely difficult, so that only a very few people would be endowed with the true justification that bestows peace. The logical consequence is that the work of Christ is imperfect, as it does not forgive all human sins, which depend on good works, penances and a series of additional ones to obtain the benefits of the work that Christ conquered on the cross.

I’ve dealt with this, too, It’s merely repeating, which doesn’t advance the discussion.

Francisco then addresses Philippians 3:11-14, which is one of nine passages I present in favor of the view that justification is a process.

In this case, Mr. Armstrong mutilates the text to appear to agree with his arguments, omitting verse 9, where St. Paul says: “And be found in him, not having my righteousness which is of the law, but that which is by faith.” in Christ, that is, the righteousness which is from God by faith;”

I didn’t “mutilate” anything (nice try). I simply didn’t cite that portion (every biblical citation has to “cut off” somewhere). And I didn’t, because Catholics and Protestants agree about that, and it has nothing directly to do with the question of whether justification is instant or ongoing. It’s a non sequitur: outside of the topic immediately under consideration. Verses 11-14, on the other hand, make it undeniably clear that justification (prior to its initial phase) is a process.

St. Paul certainly excludes any and all work when he says that righteousness comes from faith, not from the law. There is no distinction here between Mosaic law and good work, for as Augustine says, this is a distortion of the apostle’s words, for if it were true, sin would no longer exist, since it is through the law that we know sin, therefore, all sin it involves the transgression of the law, so if not to love is a sin, then all good works are included in the law to which St. Paul refers.

I’ve dealt with this over and over, but again, it’s not the immediate topic at this point, which is whether justification is a process and whether it can be lost.

But St. Paul seems to anticipate Mr. Armstrong’s argument when he says, “Not that I have already attained it, or that I am perfect; but I press on to obtain what I was also arrested for by Christ Jesus.” Philippians 3:12, adding that he himself, an apostle of Christ at the end of his life, had not reached perfection, yet St. Paul considers himself justified, for it is simply possible to be perfect in the merits of Christ and not to be ontologically perfect.

He is talking about initial justification, which he probably had never lost up to that point. But then he talks about how he might lose it if he isn’t vigilant. That possibility means that it’s a process, without yet a known outcome. Even the holy Paul thinks so. He ends the passage by asserting, “let us hold true to what we have attained” (3:16). In other words, it could possibly be lost; otherwise it makes no sense to referring to holding “true” to it.

It’s like saying to one’s spouse: “I’ll be true to you forever.” That’s the stated goal, but no one knows whether it will be carried out until the time passes (up until death) and the spouse is still there, being true. If justification couldn’t possibly be lost, it makes no sense whatsoever for Paul to exhort his followers to “hold true” to it. This wasn’t even in my original argument, but since Francisco wants to disagree, now my argument has become stronger.

Francisco then decided to tackle a second of my nine proofs for the process of justification: Colossians 1:21-23, which states in part:  “. . . provided that you continue in the faith, stable and steadfast, not shifting from the hope of the gospel . . .”

Here Mr Armstrong errs again in confusing the transcendental order with the predicamental order. Now, one thing is the way in which creatures are spoken of, another is the way in which God sees these same creatures. An admonition about the loss of salvation rests on ignorance either of the hearer, or of the speaker and hearer, for it is obvious that it is extreme absurdity to apply to God a particle of indeterminacy, as if God were ignorant. How can the phrase be applied univocally to God and man: “IF you persevere to the end, you will be saved”, if in God there is no particle of indeterminacy, therefore there is no “IF”?

It’s not applied to God at all. It’s a conditional warning, expressing the thought: “if you [a human being] don’t continue in the faith and shift away from the gospel you have received, you won’t be saved.”

Now, here it is not up to Mr. Armstrong to simply state that he does not deny divine omniscience, but he must, for the sake of the debate and the coherence of his argument, under penalty of not sustaining it, explain how this text can be explained without using anthropopathy, therefore, of a metaphorical language for God, although real for man, cannot be used as a base text for justification, since justification is not a human work, but a divine one.

The passage has to do with man’s responsibility to persevere. Of course, one of the false Calvinist dogmas holds that God will always make a Christian persevere. I’ve refuted that in several ways elsewhere. This passage is talking precisely about man’s part in justification (which I’ve already massively proven from the Bible), and his responsibility to hold firm.

The next passage of mine that he addresses is this one:

1 Timothy 4:1 Now the Spirit expressly says that in later times some will depart from the faith by giving heed to deceitful spirits and doctrines of demons.

This text does not even speak of the faith that saves, but of faith as a doctrine.

Christian faith entails belief in a system of doctrines or theology, which can be rejected and “fallen away from” just as one can reject and fall away from God Himself. If someone ceases to believe in the Holy Trinity or the redemptive death of Jesus on the cross he or she is not a Christian and can’t be saved; and if not saved; not justified, either. Therefore, this passage is perfectly relevant to our discussion. 

He then addresses 2 Timothy 2:12: “if we endure, we shall also reign with him; if we deny him, he also will deny us;”:

Note that St. Paul poses as ignorant of the facts of the future.

He didn’t know the future any more than anyone else did (unless God revealed it to him, as with the prophets). He is saying that salvation is conditional upon our endurance.

This only proves that Mr. Armstrong regards God as ignorant, as a consequence, although he denies this fact, he still needs to explain how God does not become ignorant if we apply this text in a transcendental view.

The passage and my use of it has nothing whatsoever to do with some supposed blasphemous notion that God is “ignorant” of anything. God warns us out of love, through the inspired writing of Paul, that we must be vigilant and persevering if we are to be saved in the end. We can lose our salvation and heaven through sin and rebellion and disobedience. It’s as obvious as the nose on one’s face.

I commend Francisco for at least making some attempt to refute my use of each of these Bible passages. Bravo! He did make some response for all of them.

Next, he addresses Hebrews 3:14: “For we share in Christ, if only we hold our first confidence firm to the end.”

Same as above. Conditionals do not exist for God, for God does not ignore future acts in order for a condition to exist outside Him, to be actualized, this destroys divine simplicity.

The conditional in the passage is not about God at all. Francisco simply assumes the Calvinist view. That’s not the same as defending it and showing that it follows from biblical texts. Then he tackles Hebrews 6:15: “. . . Abraham, having patiently endured, obtained the promise.” He does so by reiterating the previous “argument” which is simply an irrelevant non sequitur.

Here’s his reply to Hebrews 10:39: “But we are not of those who shrink back and are destroyed, but of those who have faith and keep their souls”:

Paul is asserting that he and others do not lose their salvation, for they are not backsliding people. The text states the opposite of what Mr. Armstrong intends.

Of course, my argument flows from the fact that Paul casually asserts that there are those who “shrink back”; that is, leave the faith and the God they once believed in. This means that they exist; the thing exists (those who fall away). The fact that Paul and his followers are not (at least at the time he wrote) part of that crowd is irrelevant to my argument.

Francisco then addresses my prooftext Revelation 3:11: “I am coming soon; hold fast what you have, so that no one may seize your crown” with his by now common obscurantist philosophical analysis, which again goes down the rabbit trail of discussing God’s attributes (already wholeheartedly agreed-upon) rather than exegeting the text in question:

An admonition is a will of sign, not of consent. The will of a sign is proper to the human being, not to God. It is an admonition based on human ignorance, the hidden mysteries of God for us are not being taken into account, his plans and desires that only he himself knows and that he will make happen regardless of our works, because God does not depend on men to carry out his plans . The logical consequence of Mr. Armstrong’s arguments is to make God a great human being, a kind of superman, while God is Pure Act, the most perfect, therefore lacking nothing, not even the attitudes of creatures.

There is nothing to say in reply here because it has nothing to do with the verse I brought up as proof of the ongoing nature of justification and the possibility of losing it. Francisco is in an impenetrable Calvinist bubble: apparently unable to conceive of anything different from it.

Nor does the text of Galatians 5:6 prove justification by works and faith. Faith in Christ in its very beginning is justifying. The growth or formation of faith through love is about sanctification, not justification.

The clause “faith working through love” is a clear description of the organic relationship of faith and works. Francisco simply plays the abstract game of separating the “working” part into a separate non-salvific category of sanctification. This won’t do, because the Bible itself doesn’t make this arbitrary distinction.

I have already proved with various analogies that if one thing is with another, it does not mean that the two produce the same effect. I have already cited the example of light and heat, also of the eye and the head.

That’s not biblical evidence, like my argumentation always involves.

The curious thing here (for the Protestant), is the seemingly instantaneous change of sanctification, which would accompany justification. If “all things are new” (as in the King James Version), how does this square with mere declaratory, forensic, extrinsic justification? The whole drift of the passage seems to be actual transformation in the person now in Christ, whereas in Protestant justification only the individual’s “legal” standing with God is changed. In fact, justification and sanctification are intimately related aspects of our ultimate salvation.

In the same way that when we look at sunlight, we cannot see it without heat, however, can I really say that they are the same things or that light and heat generate the same effects? Now light illuminates and heat warms, it is not appropriate to say that light warms and heat illuminates, just because the two are always together. Mr Armstrong’s syllogism does not work, in fact his syllogism is fallacious, as it does not necessarily follow from the premises.

Again, Tourinho doesn’t directly grapple with the text (i.e., do exegesis), but merely descends to philosophy. This is a theological and exegetical debate.

Galatians 5.6 does not deal with justification before God.

It sure does, because it refers to what happens “in Christ Jesus” and (in the previous verse) “through the Spirit, by faith.” That is a “Godward” perspective, not man-to-man comparisons. The larger context refers to “walk by the Spirit” (5:16, 25) and “those who belong to Christ Jesus” (5:24).

When the text says “in Christ Jesus”, it is talking about someone holy, who is in Christ, and who works love through faith, this is not about justification, but about sanctification.

Again, this involves the sub-discussion of whether justification is ongoing, and the relationship of faith and works. I’ve addressed this over and over, but Tourinho usually ignores my biblical evidences and resorts to Protestant slogans and mere philosophy. The debate is winding down and we are mostly just “spinning our wheels” at this point.

Here, we must consider that we have different concepts of justification, and that we are using these optics to interpret the texts.

Exactly right. That’s what everyone does, so entire systems have to be compared.

In my favor, I say that the text does not cite justification, it does not cite the good work as the source or cause of a justification, it points to the perfecting of a man’s faith through love, but through love in the right object, which is Christ.

Now he is actually directly addressing the text. Good! Protestants say that faith is what brings about justification. Initially it does. But later, works are also involved, and that’s what this verse shows. It’s not necessary for the word “justification” to appear because we are dealing in biblical concepts. In using the phrase, “faith working through love” Paul connects the two things, so that no one can attempt to separate them and argue that they produce different effects. It’s like a scrambled egg, which has eggs and milk, which cannot be separated again, after the scrambling. As for works being a cause of justification, I have already directed readers several times to fifty biblical passages that teach that, and fifty more from St. Paul that teach the organic relationship of grace, faith, and works. Those are the proofs of our position.

St. Paul himself, at the end of his life, says that he did not obtain perfection, but continued to achieve it, however, the same man says in Romans 5:1 that he is justified and has peace with God.

The first thing is ongoing justification and striving after holiness; the second is initial justification.

“Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ;” (Romans 5:1), even without having reached perfection, it follows that justification coexists with imperfections

We have never claimed otherwise.

and that the process of personal improvement does not justify, but sanctifies.

If a person has fallen into mortal sin (which is an explicit biblical concept), separating them from God, then they have to be justified again. Obviously, since the Calvinist denies that a believer can ever fall away from God and from grace, to them this notion is meaningless, and they can’t allow it into their thinking and belief-system as a result. But they have a false, unbiblical premise, which is the root of their problem in this respect.

If you want to use the word justify in the sense of sanctifying, I am not against it, as long as you specify the meaning and do not remove its forensic meaning.

It has two aspects, as I have shown.

I have to not reply to some of the material that Francisco brings up at this point, not because I am ignoring it, but because I have already dealt with it, and we risk alienating readers with extreme repetition and tedium.  We still have part 3 of this round to go. I am trying to bring in fresh biblical passages, so the debate continues to move forward, and so readers can see how deep and rich and eminently biblical the Catholic position is. 

Tourinho notes that justification can’t be “increased.” Catholics are saying, rather, that it can be lost and regained, which is different from saying that it is (potentially or actually) constantly increased. The question comes down to whether justification can be lost. If it can, then it can and should rightly be seen as ongoing or lifelong, in the sense that we don’t know if we will never fall away, and therefore must be vigilant, as Paul constantly warns (and which makes no sense if we can never lose our justification and right relationship with God).

Catholics believe in a category of sanctification as well, which is not all that different from the Protestant conception of it, in its main outlines. We agree on much. But unlike them, we connect it directly with justification. Servant of God Fr. John A. Hardon S.J. defined it as follows:

Being made holy. The first sanctification takes place at baptism, by which the love of God is infused by the Holy Spirit (Romans 5:5). Newly baptized persons are holy because the Holy Trinity begins to dwell in their souls and they are pleasing to God. The second sanctification is a lifelong process in which a person already in the state of grace grows in the possession of grace and in likeness to God by faithfully corresponding with divine inspirations. The third sanctification takes place when a person enters heaven and becomes totally and irrevocably united with God in the beatific vision. (Pocket Catholic Dictionary, New York: Doubleday Image, 1980, 393)

I have, elsewhere, noted (back in the early 90s) Protestant definitions of sanctification and of justification, by the Reformed Baptist Augustus Strong and Reformed Presbyterian Charles Hodge. We must correctly understand them, just as Protestants must accurately understand our definitions. Then we can each defend them from Scripture.

Assuming it to be true that Christ never said that faith alone saves, and that absence proves that faith alone does not save.

He said that belief in Him would save (and that the Eucharist also saved), but it must be interpreted in conjunction with scores of passages where He said that works also play a role in salvation. He never cited belief or faith in the sense of being utterly alone, as pertaining to salvation.

I can argue that Jesus never called Mary mother, how strange, isn’t it? Does it follow that the Lord Jesus did not have her for a mother? Let’s see how far Mr. Dave Armstrong will be consistent with his own argument.

This is just silly and a very bad and ineffective attempted analogy. The Bible happens to not have a passage where He called her “mother” (because it doesn’t include much discourse with her at all), but He certainly did so in His 33 years or so: the first thirty living with her. No one would foolishly argue that He never called her “mother” or “mom” or whatever the Aramaic address was, in all that time.

On the other hand, with the issue of salvation and faith we are dealing with one of the “pillars” of the so-called “Reformation”: “faith alone.” If it is supposedly so central to soteriology and theology, and so important, certainly we should reasonably expect Jesus to explicitly teach it. But He never does; nor does Paul or anyone else. And they explicitly deny it.

Now, I do not agree that Mr Armstrong’s statement is true. The Lord Jesus does not mention any work for those who have actually been saved, but only faith. . . . The right question is, When were works cited as meritorious or as the cause of salvation during Christ’s ministry? Answer: never.

That’s simply false, and rather spectacularly so. Jesus spoke the following words to His disciples, who were presumably saved (minus Judas):

John 14:12 . . . he who believes in me will also do the works that I do; and greater works than these will he do, because I go to the Father.

John 14:15 If you love me, you will keep my commandments.

John 14:21 He who has my commandments and keeps them, he it is who loves me; and he who loves me will be loved by my Father, and I will love him and manifest myself to him. [here, the questions of who loves Jesus, and even the indwelling (cf. 16:7, 13) are dependent upon not just faith, but on whether one keeps the commandments]

John 15:4-6, 8 Abide in me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit by itself, unless it abides in the vine, neither can you, unless you abide in me. [5] I am the vine, you are the branches. He who abides in me, and I in him, he it is that bears much fruit, for apart from me you can do nothing. [6] If a man does not abide in me, he is cast forth as a branch and withers; and the branches are gathered, thrown into the fire and burned. . . . [8] By this my Father is glorified, that you bear much fruit, and so prove to be my disciples. [“fruit” is, of course, good works]

John 15:10 If you keep my commandments, you will abide in my love . . . [note the conditional, implying a state of affairs where they could cease abiding in His love, and being justified and eschatologically saved. Judas was, in fact, an example of this happening (see 17:12). Jesus alluded to such a possibility also when He said, “I have said all this to you to keep you from falling away”: 16:1]

John 15:12 This is my commandment, that you love one another as I have loved you. (cf. 15:17)

John 15:14 You are my friends if you do what I command you.

To be sure, in the same discourse at the Last Supper (John 14-17), Jesus also said “believe also in me” (14:1; cf. 16:27, 30-31; 17:8), but eleven verses later, He coupled this belief with inexorable good works: “he who believes in me will also do the works that I do; and greater works than these will he do, because I go to the Father” (14:12). So again, Francisco’s “universal negative” (and his overall soteriology) is shown to be incorrect. I think he could have figured this out without my help, but he went ahead and made the statement. I’m delighted to have the opportunity to be able to refute it from Jesus’ own words. 

Moreover, Jesus, in praying to the Father at the Last Supper, says, “they have kept thy word” (17:6).

Mr. Armstrong did not understand that Christ knew the rich young man’s heart, and knew that he was possessed of the Pharisaic spirit of good works. Jesus challenges him, showing him his inability to be saved through good works.

This is the very opposite of what the passage teaches. Asked by the rich young ruler how he could attain eternal life, Jesus’ answer was two kinds of works: keeping the commandments and giving all his money to the poor. He said not a word about faith, let alone, faith alone. This was how he would be saved; clear as day! Then Francisco comes along and says (in direct opposition to what Jesus stated) that the passage supposedly teaches theinability to be saved through good works.” Wow! Such brazen opposition to Jesus’ plain teaching is downright frightening and even close to blasphemous.

It’s fascinating, also, in light of what I have just shown from the Last Supper Discourse, that Jesus says the same thing to His disciples, in His last major teaching to them (i.e., that we know of)  before He was crucified. They had already given up “everything” to follow Him (Mt 19:27), so He didn’t need to mention that. But He told them no less than six times (14:15, 21; 15:10, 12, 14, 17) to keep His commandments. Talk about “repetition” being a good teacher! Therefore, He taught the same thing to both non-believers and believers / followers. He also said to the masses in His Sermon on the Mount: 

Matthew 5:16-20 “Let your light so shine before men, that they may see your good works and give glory to your Father who is in heaven. [17] Think not that I have come to abolish the law and the prophets; I have come not to abolish them but to fulfil them. [18] For truly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the law until all is accomplished. [19] Whoever then relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but he who does them and teaches them shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven. [20] For I tell you, unless your righteousness exceeds that of the scribes and Pharisees, you will never enter the kingdom of heaven.”

On the other hand, He never mentions belief in Him during the Sermon, or faith, excepting His statement, “O men of little faith” (6:30). But there are all kinds of works mentioned and urged. Jesus showed Himself to be quite the “legalistic, Pharisaical ‘Catholic'” didn’t He?!

He pulled the same stunt at the Final Judgment in Matthew 25: talking only about works and never about faith in Him, when the biblical text is specifically teaching how one enters into heaven. As I’ve said many times, Jesus would have flunked out of any Protestant seminary, with His worst grades achieved in classes on soteriology (D at best, but more likely an E).

But faith is cited, always omitting the work: “Then Jesus said to him, “Get up and go! Your faith has saved you.” The Coming of the Kingdom of God” Luke 17:19 “Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life, does not come into judgment, but has passed from death to life.” John 5.24 It is important to note that the Reformed do not defend that a person can enter heaven being a wanton, but that the saved person will remain in good works, sanctify himself through them, but will not be saved by them.

Faith in Jesus is mentioned many times, and is crucial. But Jesus (like Paul and James and Peter) also teaches that works are involved in salvation. Catholics fully accept the “faith” passages” but we don’t ignore the works passages that tie works into salvation, too (scores and scores of which I have repeatedly  presented in this debate). That’s the thing. All of the relevant biblical teachings need to be taken into account, not just a few selected “pet” verses. A half-truth is no better than a lie.

Francisco alluded to and cited our previous discussion on the rich young ruler and then added more analysis:

The young man thought he was good before God because he did a lot of good work, and in that sense, no one is good.

He was right about that (as Jesus affirmed, by saying, “If you would enter life, keep the commandments”: Mt 19:17), except that he rebelled against the notion of doing the most important work in his own case,: giving up all that he had (precisely necessary because his idol was riches).

The young man comes to Christ full of self-righteousness, and Christ, knowing his heart, converses with the intention of showing that this righteousness will not take him to heaven,

Again, this is the opposite of what Jesus said. I just showed how Jesus tied keeping the commandments with [eternal] “life.” The man had asked, remember, about how to attain “eternal life” (19:16). Then He said that if he gave away all of his possessions, he would “have treasure in heaven” (19:21). So yes, righteousness plays a key, indispensable role in attaining heaven and salvation, according to Jesus.

putting him in a situation of inability to keep the law.

Jesus never said that He was unable to keep the law. He merely noted that he was unwilling to fully follow one aspect of it: not having an idol (riches) in place of God. Jesus assumes in the Sermon on the Mount (my citation not far above) that the law could not only be kept, but that it was necessary to “enter the kingdom of heaven.” He employs the same exact reasoning with the rich young ruler, as He does with His disciples at the Last Supper and with those who stand at the Last Judgment.

Christ shows that the young man’s heart is evil, even though he boasts of doing so many good works.

He didn’t “boast” as far as we can determine from the text); he simply stated that he had “observed” the Ten Commandments. As the old 1930s baseball pitcher Dizzy Dean said, “it ain’t braggin’ if you can do it.” Nor does Jesus imply that he is evil through and through. But he had an idol. Many of us have an idol, whether it be riches, or sex, or pride, or fame, or any number of other things. It was the primary sin of Israel all through the Old Testament.

Even though Christ fulfilled all the law, he still claims not to be good, this shows that fulfilling the law or good works does not make us good

Of course Christ is totally good. His statement, “Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone” (Mk 10:18) was obvious rhetorical. He can’t be literally saying He isn’t good because He is God the Son.

In fact it is impossible for a camel to pass through the eye of a needle, just as how impossible it is for a man to be saved by his good works.

Jesus was specifically talking about how riches are so commonly regarded as an idol by rich people; hence, their difficulty in being saved. He wasn’t making a general statement against good works as a means to salvation, too (which is what Francisco wrongly injects — or eisegetes – into the text because of his prior dispositions).

Jesus non-hostility to works and “Catholic” soteriology is in fact stated five verses later, when He said that good works will lead to eternal life (precisely as He had told the rich young ruler):

Matthew 19:29 And every one who has left houses or brothers or sisters or father or mother or children or lands, for my name’s sake, will receive a hundredfold, and inherit eternal life. 

The disciples had given up everything, thus proving that their attachment to material goods — and even family (see Mt 10:37) — were not  idols and more important than following Christ, which they were called to. As a result, they received eternal life, as we know from Christ’s express statement that this gave them eternal life (or at the very least played a role among other things in that salvation). But the rich young ruler refused to do the same thing, so it’s strongly implied in Jesus’ comment on it, that he wouldn’t attain eternal life as a result. Thus, we rightly conclude that a good work that the disciples performed, in leaving their families and jobs, led them to eternal life, while the refusal to do the same good work led to the loss of eternal life for the rich young ruler (unless, of course, he later changed his mind).

The text does show human inability to enter heaven through his works,

Quite the contrary, as just proven.

The conclusion drawn from this text by Mr. Armstrong would lead us to believe that a person can be saved by works alone.

Nonsense. I have reiterated over and over (in this debate and in my Catholic apologetics for 33 years) that grace and faith are also necessarily involved in salvation. But at the same time, the scores and scores of striking, clear passages about works also playing a role simply cannot be dismissed. I’m not minimizing faith and grace at all; not one iota. But I am not ignoring works, as Francisco vainly and foolishly attempts to do, in the face of the overwhelming biblical data. I have the biblical “both/and” view; he takes “either/or” unbiblical, Protestant view in these matters. False dichotomies rule the day for him.

If he becomes a Catholic he can get out from under that burden and strain of unbiblical and illogical false teaching. I hope and pray that he — and many readers of this debate — will do just that, by God’s grace. We Catholics want to share the fullness of the faith and the “pearl of great price” that we have found with others. so that they can share in the joy, peace, and truth of the teachings of Holy Mother Church.

What I said was that if faith and works are necessary to inherit eternal life, and if Jesus really intended to teach the rich young man how to inherit eternal life, then he should have cited faith. But if he does not cite faith,

For whatever the reason, Jesus tends to speak of each factor alone, rather than together. But there were a few times when He spoke of both things in the same context or sentence. In John 14:15, 21 and 15:14 He connected love for Him with works, as proof of that love. And (also seen above), He connected belief in Him and works in John 14:12. And He said:

Matthew 7:17-21, 24 So, every sound tree bears good fruit, but the bad tree bears evil fruit. [18] A sound tree cannot bear evil fruit, nor can a bad tree bear good fruit. [19] Every tree that does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire. [20] Thus you will know them by their fruits. [21] “Not every one who says to me, `Lord, Lord,’ shall enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.. . . [24] “Every one then who hears these words of mine and does them will be like a wise man who built his house upon the rock;”

Note here that He rebuked faith alone, or faith without the requisite, required works, as He also did when he stated: “Why do you call me ‘Lord, Lord,’ and not do what I tell you?” (Lk 6:46). In the same context, He went on to also rebuke works alone for salvation, which is the heresy of Pelagianism:

Matthew 7:22-23 On that day many will say to me, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and do many mighty works in your name?’ [23] And then will I declare to them, ‘I never knew you; depart from me, you evildoers.’

They didn’t “know” Him because that is done by grace through faith, So Jesus — when His whole teaching is understood — taught faith alongside the inevitable works or “works of faith” that make faith alive, for salvation. He had a Catholic soteriology, not a Protestant one. Works cannot be separated from faith, as Protestants try to do by making all works strictly optional with regard to salvation itself. And both flow from God’s amazing and enabling grace.

The real kicker for Francisco and Calvinists to explain is how it is that it’s “the doers of the law who will be justified” (Rom 2:13)? If no work whatever has anything to do with any kind of justification, how in the world can Paul write this? It’s devastating to the Protestant soteriological position. According to Francisco and Calvinist theology, Paul should have written “saved” in Romans 2:13 instead of “justified.” 

Here, Mr Armstrong has isolated the text from its context. The previous verses say the following:

Romans 2:4-13 Or do you presume upon the riches of his kindness and forbearance and patience? Do you not know that God’s kindness is meant to lead you to repentance? [5] But by your hard and impenitent heart you are storing up wrath for yourself on the day of wrath when God’s righteous judgment will be revealed. [6] For he will render to every man according to his works: [7] to those who by patience in well-doing seek for glory and honor and immortality, he will give eternal life; [8] but for those who are factious and do not obey the truth, but obey wickedness, there will be wrath and fury. [9] There will be tribulation and distress for every human being who does evil, the Jew first and also the Greek, [10] but glory and honor and peace for every one who does good, the Jew first and also the Greek. [11] For God shows no partiality. [12] All who have sinned without the law will also perish without the law, and all who have sinned under the law will be judged by the law. [13] For it is not the hearers of the law who are righteous before God, but the doers of the law who will be justified.

I see nothing there that is in conflict with Catholic soteriology at all. Works again play a crucial role in achieving eternal life (2:6-10 and again in 2:13). It’s expressed very eloquently and forcefully, so that no one can possibly deny it.

The text deals with the day of judgment. The text does not deal with justification by faith that happens in time, but with the judgment of the last day in which God will give his sentence and his reward. From verse 5, the apostle Paul talks about current virtues and sins and how people who do good and evil will be judged on the last day.

Whether it has to do with the Day of Judgment or not is secondary to the concepts that are taught, and how works are regarded. The Last Day does have to do with eschatological salvation, so it is very relevant to our present discussion. And we see again here that it is all works which are mentioned.: “works” (2:6), “well-doing” leading to “eternal life” (2:7), “not obey” (2:8), “does evil” (2:9), “does good” (2:10), “sinned” 2:12), and “doers of the law” who are “justified” (2:13). “Faith” and “belief” are never mentioned. How this in any way, shape, or form supports Francisco’s position, is, I confess, a great mystery.

It’s not mainly about the law, but about good works, generally speaking. This is shown in two ways: the reference to “every man” (2:6)
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I agree.
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“Faith” is never mentioned in Romans 2, but several times in chapter 3, so we know he is not excluding it in chapter 2.

That’s the same point I made about Jesus. Paul is here basically doing the same thing: centering on works in one long passage and faith in another; the conclusion being that neither is optional in salvation.

Here [Eph 2:8-10] Paul asserts the necessity of faith in salvation (we agree), and the inadequacy of works salvation (again we agree). He then proceeds to present the Catholic both/and view. God preordains works, and we walk in them. Works are necessary (and in many other Pauline passages, central in the equation of salvation). Thus, faith and works, just as we have maintained all along . . .

Notice how Mr. Armstrong simply did not address the argument. It is true that Paul speaks of the necessity of faith in salvation, but what he says right after is devastating for the theology of Rome, he states: “Not of works, lest anyone should boast”. St. Paul is clear, salvation it does not come from good works, but from faith alone, and Mr. Armstrong simply ignored my argument in this regard. The text says that it is by faith and not by works,

We agree that salvation is ultimately by grace through faith; we deny that works alone save (Eph 2:9), but that post-initial justification, post-regenerative good works are essential in the whole process (Eph 2:10): always joined to grace and faith. There is no falsely perceived “problem” here at all, let alone some supposed scenario of this being devastating for the theology of Rome.” Francisco still has to explain why Romans 2 is so different, with Paul talking all about works (and why Jesus makes a very strong emphasis on works as well). Obviously, works are in play along with grace and faith. Our theology takes into account both motifs; his does not, and it does so by attempting to ignore works in the salvific process, which won’t do. The Bible is too clear to allow that ploy.

We have no difference as to prayer and how God treats us when we pray, so no need to further address that, and it’s not the topic, anyway (justification is).

I pass over a lot of Francisco’s text — again — not because I am trying to avoid it (against our agreed-to rules), but because it is either off-topic (e.g., God’s nature, which Francisco for some unknown reason keeps repeating even though we are in total agreement) or has already been dealt with and answered (usually many times over). If we do publish a successful book of this debate, the now extreme repetition will have to be helpfully dealt with by an editor. I’m trying to do my part to make that editor’s job easier, by refusing to endlessly repeat myself.

And it is God who saves, we do not save ourselves,

No; we participate as lesser causes alongside God, the primary cause:

Matthew 10:22 . . . he who endures to the end will be saved. (cf. 24:13; Mk 13:13)

Acts 2:40 And he testified with many other words and exhorted them, saying, “Save yourselves from this crooked generation.” 

1 Corinthians 7:16 Wife, how do you know whether you will save your husband? Husband, how do you know whether you will save your wife?

Philippians 2:12 . . . work out your own salvation with fear and trembling;

1 Timothy 2:15 Yet woman will be saved through bearing children, if she continues in faith and love and holiness, with modesty.

1 Peter 3:1 Likewise you wives, be submissive to your husbands, so that some, though they do not obey the word, may be won without a word by the behavior of their wives,

Francisco responded to my use of 2 Peter 2:15, 20-21 as proof of the possible loss of salvation:

2 Peter 2:22 It has happened to them according to the true proverb, The dog turns back to his own vomit, and the sow is washed only to wallow in the mire.

After describing all their attitudes, he now shows us what the events reveal, that they were not sheep, but he says that the DOG RETURNED to his vomit, . . . The text is clear, these men went astray, but none of them left a dog or a pig, which, according to Jewish tradition, were filthy animals, that is, they never ceased to be filthy, a washed pig only disguises its bad smell, but doesn’t become pure. The text is a description of earthly events and an admonition for the same to not happen to others, but it does not prove loss of salvation from the divine perspective, as it is revealed to us that these false prophets were washed pigs, that is, they were never pure, therefore, they were never justified or sanctified before God, though they appeared so before men. God always knew they were pigs and dogs, men didn’t, so St. Peter, who was a man, describes the events as a detour and a loss.

This is desperate special pleading, and illogical. First of all, the man described by St. Peter clearly was a Christian, since he is described as having “escaped the defilements of the world through the knowledge of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ” (2 Pet 2:20). One can’t be described as having escaped a thing if in fact they never left it. That makes no sense at all. But it’s what Francisco wants to argue. 2 Peter 2:20 then states that “they are again entangled in them,” which means that they once were, then they were not (the preceding clause) and then were again, as opposed to never leaving their first state. The text then reiterates this by referring to a “last state” and a “first”: as opposed to one continual state.

In 2 Peter 2:21 Peter states that “it would have been better for them never to have known the way of righteousness.” Quite obviously, then, they must have known it because Peter is saying that it would have been “better” (i.e., a different scenario from what actually happened: a compare and contrast) if they never had. Ergo: they did indeed experience being a Christian and being in Christ. He expresses this in another way by writing that “after knowing it” they decided “to turn back” (to their unsaved, unjustified prior state). In 2:22 he wraps it up by noting that they turned “back” to their “own vomit”: not that they never left it. Yet Francisco pretends that the opposite scenario from what is presented is what actually happened. It’s a sad case study of textbook eisegesis.

Philippians 1:6 And I am sure that he who began a good work in you will bring it to completion at the day of Jesus Christ.

Of course He is able to do so. But this doesn’t wipe out human free will and rebellion against God’s will, that will always be carried out, provided we accept it and conform our will to His.

If Mr. Armstrong is right, St. Paul is lying in assuming that he who begins a good work in us, what Armstrong would call initial justification, will complete it until the last day, and who would dare not believe in the power of God? Who can doubt if God himself says that the work he started he will finish? Now, God is able to deliver us from all temptations and stumbling blocks, “Now to him who is able to keep you from stumbling, and to present you blameless before his glory with joy,” (Jude 1:24). Speaking of loss of salvation from the divine perspective is the same as saying that God is not powerful to deliver man from stumbling blocks, to keep us, and that he is flawed in his work. Therefore, Reformed theologians see the loss of salvation only from a human perspective, but we declare and believe in the sovereignty of God and his omnipotence, something that all other traditions declare only with their mouths, but deny with their hearts.
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As always, we must take into consideration all of the relevant biblical texts on a given topic (which is systematic theology). And these include several where God’s will is opposed by man: which God allows because He willed that men — and angels — had free will, which included the possibility of rebellion, which in turn goes back to the rebellion of Satan and his demons, and Adam and Eve’s rebellion, and in them, the whole human race (1 Cor 15:22). Here are two of those passages:
Matthew 23:37 “O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, killing the prophets and stoning those who are sent to you! How often would I have gathered your children together as a hen gathers her brood under her wings, and you would not!”
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John 17:12 While I was with them, I kept them in thy name, which thou hast given me; I have guarded them, and none of them is lost but the son of perdition, that the scripture might be fulfilled.

Man can either serve God or reject Him:

Deuteronomy 30:15, 19 . . .I have set before you this day life and good, death and evil. . . . [19] . . . I have set before you life and death, blessing and curse; therefore choose life, that you and your descendants may live, 

Joshua 24:15 “And if you be unwilling to serve the LORD, choose this day whom you will serve, whether the gods your fathers served in the region beyond the River, or the gods of the Amorites in whose land you dwell; but as for me and my house, we will serve the LORD.”

God doesn’t predestine anyone to hell, since the Bible states: 

1 Timothy 2:3-6 . . . God our Savior, [4] who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. [5] For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, [6] who gave himself as a ransom for all, . . .

2 Peter 3:9 The Lord is . . . not wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance.

Yet they don’t all repent. Therefore, the cause is their own rebellion, which God allowed, and it follows that God didn’t predestine them to hell because inspired revelation informs us that this is not His desire or wish, which is that all be saved.

Psalm 51:12 [RSV] Restore to me the joy of thy salvation, and uphold me with a willing spirit.

How could King David ask to have the joy of a salvation he did not yet have?

I previously replied: It can just as easily be interpreted as “give me back the salvation that included joy.”

No. It couldn’t be interpreted that way, because that’s not what the text says. That simple. Language is not like mathematics, because in mathematics the order of the factors does not change the product, but in language the order of the factors can change the product.

First of all, for the OT Jew, joy and salvation went hand-in-hand (see seven examples in the Protestant OT). Secondly, we must take into consideration the dramatic context of Psalm 51. David had had a man killed so he could commit adultery with his wife, and the prophet Nathan confronted him with his sin, leading David to repent: which he expressed in Psalm 51. So if ever a man had lost salvation and fallen from grace, it was David at that time. 

But David repented and wanted to be back in the fold with God. This is the Catholic view of loss of initial justification and regaining it by repentance and confession (51:3-4) and forgiveness (throughout the Psalm). We could, therefore, plausibly interpret David as saying “please restore to me your salvation, which brings about joy.” David fell away, repented, and was brought back into justification and right relationship with God. The prophet Samuel had described David as “a man after” God’s “own heart” (1 Sam 13:14). God Himself referred to “my servant David, who kept my commandments, and followed me with all his heart, doing only that which was right in my eyes,” (1 Kgs 14:8). And the author of the book referred to “the heart of David” as being “wholly true to the LORD his God” (1 Kgs 15:3). Yet he sinned and fell and had to be restored.

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Summary: This is my reply (3rd round, part 2) in an in-depth debate on justification and comparative soteriology, with Brazilian Reformed Presbyterian apologist Francisco Tourinho.

May 26, 2023

Visible Church; Apostolic Succession; Protestant “Dogmatism”; Ever-Changing Rome?; Vatican II “Conciliarism”?; Doctrinal Development; Mary’s Assumption in Catholic Thought Prior to 1950

The late Steve Hays (1959-2020) was a Calvinist (and anti-Catholic) apologist, who was very active on his blog, called Triablogue (now continued by Jason Engwer). His 695-page self-published book, Catholicism a collection of articles from his site — has graciously been made available for free. On 9 September 2006, Hays was quite — almost extraordinarily — charitable towards me. He wrote then:

I don’t think I’ve ever accused him of being a traitor or apostate or infidel. . . . I have nothing to say, one way or the other, regarding his state of grace. But his sincerity is unquestionable. I also don’t dislike him. . . . I don’t think there’s anything malicious about Armstrong—unlike some people who come to mind. In addition, I don’t think I’ve ever said he was unintelligent. For the record, it’s obvious that Armstrong has a quick, nimble mind. 

Two-and-a-half years later, starting in April 2009 and up through December 2011 (in the following quotations) his opinion radically changed, and he claimed that I have “an evil character,” am “actually evil,” “ego-maniac, narcissist,” “idolater,” “self-idolater,” “hack who pretends to be a professional apologist,” given to “chicanery,” one who doesn’t “do any real research,” “a stalwart enemy of the faith . . .  no better than [the atheists] Richard Dawkins or Christopher Hitchens,” with an intent to “destroy faith in God’s word,” “schizophrenic,” “emotionally unhinged,” one who “doesn’t trust in the merit of Christ alone for salvation,” “has no peace of mind,” “a bipolar solipsist,” “split-personality,” and a “bad” man. He wasn’t one to mince words! See more gory details.

I feel no need whatsoever to reciprocate these silly and sinful insults. I just wanted the record to be known. I’ve always maintained that Hays was a very intelligent man, but habitually a sophist in methodology; sincere and well-meaning, but tragically and systematically wrong and misguided regarding Catholicism. That’s what I’m addressing, not the state of his heart and soul (let alone his eternal destiny). It’s a theological discussion. This is one of many planned critiques of his book (see my reasons why I decided to do this). Rather than list them all here, interested readers are directed to the “Steve Hays” section of my Anti-Catholicism web page, where they will all be listed. My Bible citations are from the RSV. Steve’s words will be in blue.

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[Chapter 4: Catholic Apologetics]

Catholicism of the mind

They don’t convert to Catholicism based on evidence for Catholicism. Rather, they convert to Catholicism despite evidence to the contrary. [p. 166]

This is self-refuting. I just wanted my readers to see it.

As the world slept

This dovetails with the claim of Catholic apologists that Jesus founded a visible church (i.e. unified hierarchical organization). It has a visible head (the pope). But compare that to Christ’s kingdom parable about the seed growing at night. In that respect, God’s kingdom is invisible. It grows at night while the farmer sleeps. It grows at night while the world sleeps. . . . In that respect, the church represents a silent revolution. It grows and spreads under cover of darkness. [p. 167]

That doesn’t describe the following passage about a visible Church:

Matthew 5:14-16 You are the light of the world. A city set on a hill cannot be hid. [15] Nor do men light a lamp and put it under a bushel, but on a stand, and it gives light to all in the house. [16] Let your light so shine before men, that they may see your good works and give glory to your Father who is in heaven. (cf. Mk 4:21; Lk 11:33]

In the Synoptics, the church and the kingdom of God are closely related categories. [p. 167]

Here Hays confirms an earlier argument of mine, from Reply #12. He had written,

Where do we find “the church” in the Gospel of Mark? Mark’s Gospel never mentions “the church”. Where do we find “the church” in the Gospel of Luke? Luke’s Gospel never mentions “the church”. Where do we find “the church” in the Gospel of John? John’s Gospel never mentions “the church”. The only Gospel that even mentions “the church” is Matthew’s Gospel. And it mentions “the church” just two times. That’s it! [p. 99]

My answer was that “kingdom of God / heaven” was massively found in the Gospels (84 times, in fact) and that it was basically a synonym for “church.” Thus, Hays contradicts himself. On page 99 of his book he can barely find “the church” in the Gospels. Now on page 167, he can. We all live and learn, I reckon. At least he was half-right in his book.

Prooftexting apostolic succession

[Choosing Matthias to replace Judas was] maintaining the symbolism of the Twelve after Judas defected. . . . there can’t be more or less than Twelve at a time. . . . The Twelve is a closed number. Judas was replaced to maintain the symbolism. By definition, you can’t extrapolate from a closed number (the Twelve) to an indefinite number beyond twelve at a time. The Twelve constitute a self-contained unit. There can only be
changes within that unit. [p. 168]

The twelve disciples are also called “apostles” (Mt 10:2; Rev 21:14). There are more apostles than twelve (e.g., St. Paul). So much for this argument. But there’s more:

Luke 10:1 the Lord appointed seventy others, and sent them on ahead of him, two by two, into every town and place where he himself was about to come.

The classic Protestant commentators acknowledge these as further “disciples” and they seem to be called “disciples” in Luke 10:23 too. Benson Commentary states that “He . . . sent out seventy of his disciples” and “It is remarkable that our Lord assigns the same reason for the mission of the seventy which he had assigned for the mission of the twelve disciples.” Ellicott’s Commentary for English Readers refers to “the seventy disciples.” So does Matthew Henry. and Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary. Gill’s Exposition of the Entire Bible states that “besides the twelve, whom he chose and called out, from among the multitude of the disciples, and ordained them apostles, he selected and ordained seventy others.” Meyer’s NT Commentary adds:

That Jesus in general had around Him a larger circle of constant disciples, besides the Twelve, from whom He could appoint seventy for a special commission, is in itself, and from the evidence of such passages as Acts 1:15Acts 1:211 Corinthians 15:6, as well as John 6:60, not to be doubted.

My argument, then, is that neither “disciples” nor “apostles” are confined in the Bible to twelve people alone (though there is definitely a strong sense of “the [original] twelve”). Acts 6:1 states that “the disciples were increasing in number.” Hays’ argument that the original twelve always had to be twelve falls flat as a result. We even see the seventy disciples doing the exact same sorts of evangelistic things that the original twelve did. Matthias is an example of true apostolic succession in the Bible. Since Protestants reject apostolic succession, Hays had to find some sort of way to discount that, and this desperate answer is what he came up with.

You then play a shell game by switching from that to apostles appointing elders, as if that flows out of the appointment of Mathias. But that’s categorically different. [p. 168]

It is a different category, but this is sanctioned in the passage itself, since Luke cites Psalms 108:8 in Acts 1:20: “His office let another take.” The Greek for “office” is episkopé (Strong’s word #1984): the word for “bishop” and the root of “episcopal.” Thayer’s Greek Concordance writes about its use in this passage:

c. after the analogy of the Hebrew פְּקֻדָּה (Numbers 4:161 Chronicles 24:19 (here the Sept. ἐπίσκεψις), etc.), oversight i. e. overseership, office, chargeVulg. episcopatusActs 1:20, from Psalm 108:8; specifically, the office of a bishop (the overseer or presiding officer of a Christian church): 1 Timothy 3:1, and in ecclesiastical writings

In KJV, it’s translated “bishoprick” at Acts 1:20 and “bishop” at 1 Timothy 3:1. This clinches the case for apostolic succession from the Bible itself, since Judas was in effect called a bishop or elder, and this is the office that Matthias would assume, and which would be perpetual throughout Church history. The cognate episkopos (Strong’s word #1985) is defined by Strong (with obvious Protestant bias — not wanting to say the word “bishop”), as “overseer, supervisor, ruler, especially used with reference to the supervising function exercised by an elder or presbyter of a church or congregation.”

That’s still quite sufficient, however, to make the argument for apostolic succession. The word appears five times in the NT. KJV translates it as “bishop(s)” four out of five times, and “overseer” in the remaining appearance. If we consult English translations for 1 Timothy 3:2, which has episkopos, we see that bishops is used 26 times in one particular listing, while “overseer” also appears 26 times, “leader” eight times, and “elder” twice.  No problem for the Catholic and larger “episcopal Church government” view. “Overseer” and “leader” are synonyms for “bishop” anyway.

Moreover, Acts 1:25 states that Matthias would “take the place in this ministry . . . from which Judas turned aside.” The word there is diakonia (Strong’s word #1248): from which deacon derives (Acts 1:17 applies the same word to Judas, too). It’s usually translated “ministry” in English translations, and the same word is applied to Christian work of non-apostles (e.g., Acts 6:4; 1 Cor 12:5: “varieties of service”; 1 Cor 16:15: “the household of Stephanas . . . have devoted themselves to the service of the saints”).

No transfer of office. To the contrary, the Twelve is, in the nature of the case, a self-enclosed numerical unit. You can’t legitimately expand from that to more than twelve at a time. [p. 168]

As I already proved, the Bible and Jesus — contrary to Pope Steve Hays III — did indeed do that (both “disciple” and “apostle” are applied to many more people than the original “twelve”). Hence, in John 6, when Jesus teaches Real Presence in the Eucharist, the “proto-Protestants” who had followed Him couldn’t handle that and left Him (“After this many of his disciples drew back and no longer went about with him” — John 6:66: an appropriate number for such apostasy!). This is immediately opposed to the twelve, since the next verse states, “Jesus said to the twelve, ‘Do you also wish to go away?’ ” Again, none of this refutes the biblical reasoning for apostolic succession. It’s just grasping at straws.

The fact that each of the Twelve might be classified as an apostle doesn’t imply that all apostles are disciples in the exclusive sense of the Twelve. [p. 169]

We agree, but it still doesn’t rebut our argument for apostolic succession, which I made above, and which Hays (as so often) seems blissfully unaware of.

But Catholics don’t think there’s a permanent apostolic office with successive incumbents. They don’t think apostolic succession means one apostle succeeding another apostle. Rather, they think bishops in union with the pope are the true successors to the Apostolate. . . . apostolic succession involves a shift from apostles to bishops. Different principle. Replacing one apostle with another apostle isn’t any kind of precedent for replacing an apostle with a bishop. [p. 170]

Precisely as I showed through biblical Greek words (transfer from apostles to bishops and deacons and elders . . . There was only one Apostle Paul, too, yet he appears to pass on his office in some sense to Timothy:

2 Timothy 1:6, 11, 13-14 Hence I remind you to rekindle the gift of God that is within you through the laying on of my hands; . . . [11] For this gospel I was appointed a preacher and apostle and teacher, . . . [13] Follow the pattern of the sound words which you have heard from me, in the faith and love which are in Christ Jesus; [14] guard the truth that has been entrusted to you by the Holy Spirit who dwells within us.

2 Timothy 2:2 and what you have heard from me before many witnesses entrust to faithful men who will be able to teach others also.

2 Timothy 4:1-2 I charge you in the presence of God and of Christ Jesus who is to judge the living and the dead, and by his appearing and his kingdom: [2] preach the word, be urgent in season and out of season, convince, rebuke, and exhort, be unfailing in patience and in teaching.

Hays was obviously unfamiliar with the entire classical argument from Matthias for apostolic succession. He never delved into the relevant Greek words. I did. My argument was thoroughly, deeply biblical; his was only biblical in a superficial, “surfacey” sense and a mere knee-jerk false tradition of men. We see this again and again in anti-Catholic polemics. They pick-and-choose. We go deep and incorporate all relevant cross-references. I have many more articles on this topic (with additional arguments):

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Apostolic Succession as Seen in the Jerusalem Council [National Catholic Register, 1-15-17]
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Answers to Questions About Apostolic Succession [National Catholic Register, 7-25-20]
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A New Biblical Argument for Apostolic Succession [National Catholic Register, 4-23-21]
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A difference, to be a difference, must make a difference

Catholicism takes the position that in addition to Biblical revelation, I’m duty-bound to believe Catholic dogmas. It is sinful to disbelieve them. [p. 171]

Is this unique to Catholicism? Nope. We also see it in the infamous Calvinist Synod of Dort in the Netherlands in 1618–1619, which required all Calvinists to believe in the five tents known by the acronym TULIP. The thirteen Arminian ministers (the “Remonstrants”) refused, and were ordered to stop preaching, which they also refused to do. On July 5, 1619 they were sentenced as “disturbers of the public peace” and ordered to leave the country. Wikipedia describes what then occurred:

There followed the political condemnation of the statesman Johan van Oldenbarnevelt who had been the protector of the Remonstrants. For the crime of general perturbation in the state of the nation, both in Church and State (treason), he was beheaded on 13 May 1619, only four days after the final meeting of the Synod. As consequence of the Arminian defeat, the jurist Hugo Grotius was given a life sentence in prison; but he escaped with the help of his wife. Both Van Oldenbarnevelt and Grotius had in fact been imprisoned since 29 August 1618.

These Dutch Calvinists played the game that they learned from the Lutherans, Calvin, and the Anglicans: simply redefine religious differences as treason and kill anyone who proclaims them. Only Catholics believe(d) in dogmas, and only they persecuted outsiders? Think again. Protestantism has a massive history of persecution and intolerance. Lutherans and Calvinists alike murdered the Anabaptists, folks who — like Steve Hays — believed in adult “believer’s” baptism. In that utterly intolerant Protestant world with the beloved State-Churches, Hays and his comrade, fellow Reformed Baptist James White could very well have been executed (usually by drowning, in mockery of adult baptism). I, on the other hand, as a Catholic, would merely be exiled.

Indeed, it may be a mortal sin. [p. 171]

Well, I guess old poor Johan van Oldenbarnevelt must have committed a mortal sin, then, since he lost his head over the crime of not believing in doctrinaire Calvinism. Many hundreds of Catholics were murdered in England under Butcher Henry VIII (430 martyrs) and Evil Queen Bess (312 victims) — often by being hanged, drawn, and quartered: disemboweled, hearts cut out, etc. –, for the “treasonous” view of not accepting the saintly inveterate adulterer and murderer Henry VIII — instead of wicked, evil popes — as the Supreme Head of the Christian Church.

The church of Rome is like Neurath’s ship, which undergoes constant remodeling after it leaves dry dock. You can no longer say what Catholicism is or means because that’s subject to some unforeseeable future revision or reinterpretation. What is ever truly definitive? What is ever truly authoritative? [p. 174]

As I’ve reiterated again and again, Catholics know exactly what we believe. We’re far more precise and definite than any Protestant denomination. Hays never takes one Catholic doctrine and proves beyond doubt (from our sources) that it has fundamentally changed. It’s all empty rhetoric and baseless hyper-polemics. On the one hand we are blasted and derided because we believe in dogmas that must be adhered to. Then Hays, without missing a beat, will turn around and claim that no one knows what Catholics believe (“What is ever truly definitive?”), or will have to believe in the future. Which is it? He couldn’t comprehend development of doctrine to save his life. And because of that gross deficiency in his understanding, he was doomed to never grasp the nature of historical theology and its consistent progression over time.

Hays does vainly attempt, however (pp. 174-175), to assert that “no salvation outside the Church” has changed and that the Church supposedly taught in the past that every non-Catholic was inevitably, irrevocably damned to hell. I’ve already addressed that, and so need not do it again.

What’s the official ecclesiology in Vatican II? Is it the more collegial, conciliarist model that the majority of bishops voted for, or is it the more ultamontane model in the “explanatory note” of Paul VI? [p. 175]

It’s the same as it has always been: the pope as supreme head; bishops in council must ultimately agree with the pope. Unlike Hays’ usual modus operandi, I will actually cite the council. The Dogmatic Constitution on the Church (Lumen Gentium) taught that “This teaching concerning the institution, the permanence, the nature and import of the sacred primacy of the Roman Pontiff and his infallible teaching office, the sacred synod proposes anew to be firmly believed by all the faithful” (18). Next question? It also strengthened the concept of conciliar infallibility more than ever, but not with any implication that they could oppose the pope (the error of conciliarism).

Paul VI was clearly alarmed by what the bishops promulgated, so he overruled it with his explanatory note. Yet these two competing models of ecclesiology bump up against each other in the final edition. Both were codified at the same council. . . . wouldn’t we expect a divine teaching office to be able to head off that train wreck in advance, rather than letting the two trains collide, . . .? [p. 175]

They do not. If Hays was so sure they did, why in the world wouldn’t he nail it down once and for all with documentation? Instead, we get his usual bald assertion without demonstration. His research abilities are about equal to a nine-year-old writing a book report. He just didn’t get it. Poor fellow . . .

To begin with, the particular doctrine (Assumption of Mary) is a theological innovation. It was unknown before the 5C. [p. 176]

As shown, it was present (implied) in Revelation 12 and follows deductively from the logical end of Mary’s Immaculate Conception or sinlessness. The latter is explicitly stated in Luke 1:28, closely scrutinized. After the biblical period, it took a while to develop fully, as is the case with many doctrines (where Catholics and Protestants agree), including trinitarianism and the Two Natures of Christ.

In addition, the theory of development is a theological innovation. It represents a fundamental break with how the church of Rome used to define sacred tradition. [p. 176]

Sheer nonsense (I’m tempted to use a much stronger description!). It was very explicit in St. Vincent of Lerins in the 5th century and almost as much in St. Augustine. See my article, Development of Doctrine: Patristic & Historical Development (Featuring Much Documentation from St. Augustine, St. Vincent of Lerins, St. Thomas Aquinas, Vatican I, Popes Pius IX, Pius X, Etc.) [3-19-02]. This is exactly what Hays desperately needed to learn and understand, but alas, he never did.

Notice that the Assumption of Mary was promulgated despite unanimous opposition of Catholic theological faculties at the time. That’s not just because the doctrine itself lacks traditional pedigree, but because the justification is yet another theology innovation. [p. 176]

More poppycock. Catholic theologian Alan Schreck observed:

In the hundred years before Pope Pius’ declaration, the popes had received petitions from 113 cardinals, 250 bishops, 32,000 priests and religious brothers, 50,000 religious women, and 8 million lay people, all requesting that the Assumption be recognized officially as a Catholic teaching. Apparently, the pope discerned that the Holy Spirit was speaking through the people of God on this matter. (Catholic and Christian, Ann Arbor, Michigan: Servant Books, 1984, 180)
Of the bishops consulted by Ven. Pope Pius XII, only 22 were against declaring the doctrine to be dogma. Of these, only six questioned whether the Assumption was a divinely revealed truth. The rest were what is called “inopportunists” who felt that the proper time had not yet come for the definition. That’s what I am myself regarding the doctrine of Mary Mediatrix. I firmly believe it and defend it, but I don’t think the time is right yet to define it. That’s different from disbelieving in the doctrine or belief itself.

I don’t know how many Catholic scholars (or “Catholic” in name only) rejected the Assumption in 1950. I haven’t found anything. But then again, as usual, Steve hasn’t give us any documentation so why bother? It’s his burden to establish his claim.

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Photo credit: The Whore of Babylon (workshop of Lucas Cranach): colorized illustration from Martin Luther’s 1534 translation of the Bible [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

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Summary: The late Steve Hays was a Calvinist and anti-Catholic writer and apologist. This is one of my many critiques of Hays’ “Catholicism”: a 695-page self-published volume.

May 25, 2023

Eucharist & Sacrifice; Baptism; Salvation of Non-Christians(?); Confession; Theological Liberals (& Pope Francis); Ordination; Church Indefectibility 

The late Steve Hays (1959-2020) was a Calvinist (and anti-Catholic) apologist, who was very active on his blog, called Triablogue (now continued by Jason Engwer). His 695-page self-published book, Catholicism a collection of articles from his site — has graciously been made available for free. On 9 September 2006, Hays was quite — almost extraordinarily — charitable towards me. He wrote then:

I don’t think I’ve ever accused him of being a traitor or apostate or infidel. . . . I have nothing to say, one way or the other, regarding his state of grace. But his sincerity is unquestionable. I also don’t dislike him. . . . I don’t think there’s anything malicious about Armstrong—unlike some people who come to mind. In addition, I don’t think I’ve ever said he was unintelligent. For the record, it’s obvious that Armstrong has a quick, nimble mind. 

Two-and-a-half years later, starting in April 2009 and up through December 2011 (in the following quotations) his opinion radically changed, and he claimed that I have “an evil character,” am “actually evil,” “ego-maniac, narcissist,” “idolater,” “self-idolater,” “hack who pretends to be a professional apologist,” given to “chicanery,” one who doesn’t “do any real research,” “a stalwart enemy of the faith . . .  no better than [the atheists] Richard Dawkins or Christopher Hitchens,” with an intent to “destroy faith in God’s word,” “schizophrenic,” “emotionally unhinged,” one who “doesn’t trust in the merit of Christ alone for salvation,” “has no peace of mind,” “a bipolar solipsist,” “split-personality,” and a “bad” man. He wasn’t one to mince words! See more gory details.

I feel no need whatsoever to reciprocate these silly and sinful insults. I just wanted the record to be known. I’ve always maintained that Hays was a very intelligent man, but habitually a sophist in methodology; sincere and well-meaning, but tragically and systematically wrong and misguided regarding Catholicism. That’s what I’m addressing, not the state of his heart and soul (let alone his eternal destiny). It’s a theological discussion. This is one of many planned critiques of his book (see my reasons why I decided to do this). Rather than list them all here, interested readers are directed to the “Steve Hays” section of my Anti-Catholicism web page, where they will all be listed. My Bible citations are from the RSV. Steve’s words will be in blue.

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[Chapter 4: Catholic Apologetics]

The counsel of Trent, part 2.

The NT sometimes uses sacrificial language for the eucharist because the eucharist is the new covenantal counterpart to the Passover. That doesn’t imply that the eucharist is sacrificial. Rather, that draws attention to the fact that Passover prefigures the eucharist. The eucharist replaces the Passover. [p. 120]

Let me try to follow this: if the NT language for the Eucharist uses sacrificial language, it proves that it’s not sacrificial, because it is the NT counterpart for the sacrificial Passover? Huh? If it didn’t have sacrificial language, then Hays would no doubt argue, “see! It’s not sacrificial!” But if it does use such language, Hays argues, “see! It’s not sacrificial!” Makes perfect sense, right? See my book chapter, The Sacrifice of the Mass: A Lamb . . . Slain [3-8-92; rev. May 1996]. St. Paul is quite clear:

1 Corinthians 10:16-21 The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not a participation in the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not a participation in the body of Christ? [17] Because there is one bread, we who are many are one body, for we all partake of the one bread. [18] Consider the people of Israel; are not those who eat the sacrifices partners in the altar? [19] What do I imply then? That food offered to idols is anything, or that an idol is anything? [20] No, I imply that what pagans sacrifice they offer to demons and not to God. I do not want you to be partners with demons. [21] You cannot drink the cup of the Lord and the cup of demons. You cannot partake of the table of the Lord and the table of demons.

1 Corinthians 11:23-30 For I received from the Lord what I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus on the night when he was betrayed took bread, [24] and when he had given thanks, he broke it, and said, “This is my body which is for you. Do this in remembrance of me.” [25] In the same way also the cup, after supper, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in my blood. Do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of me.” [26] For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the Lord’s death until he comes. [27] Whoever, therefore, eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty of profaning the body and blood of the Lord. [28] Let a man examine himself, and so eat of the bread and drink of the cup. [29] For any one who eats and drinks without discerning the body eats and drinks judgment upon himself. [30] That is why many of you are weak and ill, and some have died.

Protestants (as with John 6) try to undermine and ignore the obvious realism of these passages, but they fail. It’s too obvious.

Moreover, Scripture makes metaphorical usage of sacrificial imagery. For instance, Paul uses sacrificial language in Rom 12:1, but that’s figurative rather than literal. He’s not advocating that Christians commit self-immolation. [p. 120]

But that’s a different use of the word “sacrifice” altogether, and so is irrelevant to this discussion. It’s similar to Hebrews 13:16: “Do not neglect to do good and to share what you have, for such sacrifices are pleasing to God.” W. E. Vine’s Expository Dictionary of NT Words defines the latter instance as “doing good to others and communicating with their needs.”

Jn 6 foreshadows the crucifixion (Jn 19) rather than the eucharist. Jesus is forecasting his death on the cross. [p. 120]

How does eating Jesus’ flesh and drinking His blood relate to the crucifixion? Hays is really straining at gnats here. Jesus in John 6 compares Himself to the manna in the wilderness:

John 6:48-51 I am the bread of life. [49] Your fathers ate the manna in the wilderness, and they died. [50] This is the bread which comes down from heaven, that a man may eat of it and not die. [51] I am the living bread which came down from heaven; if any one eats of this bread, he will live for ever; and the bread which I shall give for the life of the world is my flesh.”

Jn 6 can’t refer to communion because Jesus says eating-drinking/believing-coming terminates hunger and thirst (v35). But communion doesn’t put an end to physical appetite. [p. 120]

John 6:35 Jesus said to them, “I am the bread of life; he who comes to me shall not hunger, and he who believes in me shall never thirst.

Jesus is obviously talking about spiritual things: whoever comes to Him (believes in Him, partakes in the Eucharist) won’t have spiritual thirst and hunger any longer. Hays, in his woodenly literal, fundamentalist-type “exegesis” completely misses this. Compare:

Matthew 5:6 Blessed are those who hunger and thirst for righteousness, for they shall be satisfied.

John 4:14 but whoever drinks of the water that I shall give him will never thirst; the water that I shall give him will become in him a spring of water welling up to eternal life.”

John 7:37 . . . Jesus stood up and proclaimed, “If any one thirst, let him come to me and drink.”

So it must have reference to figurative consumption, which is permanently quenched and satiated. It other words: a metaphor for eternal life. [p. 120]

This is closer to the truth. Yes, those who come to and believe in Jesus will have eternal life. But they also obtain it through the Holy Eucharist; not merely belief in one’s head:

John 6:51 . . . if any one eats of this bread, he will live for ever; and the bread which I shall give for the life of the world is my flesh.

John 6:53-54 . . . unless you eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in you; [54] he who eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life . . .

John 6:56-58 He who eats my flesh and drinks my blood abides in me, and I in him. [57] As the living Father sent me, and I live because of the Father, so he who eats me will live because of me. [58] This is the bread which came down from heaven, not such as the fathers ate and died; he who eats this bread will live for ever.”

For that matter, Catholics don’t think one-time communion is spiritually sufficient. Rather, Catholics are supposed to attend Mass at least once a week. It doesn’t put an end to spiritual hunger and thirst. [p. 121]

Jesus didn’t say it was a one-time thing. He was saying that this was a means to eternal life: partaking of His flesh, made present again at the Sacrifice of the Mass. Hays again employs a silly wooden literalism.  Jesus and Paul talked of partaking in the Eucharist “often” (1 Cor 11:25-26, above). And it’s done in “remembrance” of Jesus, which also strongly implies a regular observance (1 Cor 11:24-25, see above).

[M]odern Catholicism doesn’t regard baptism as essential to salvation. [p. 121]

Nonsense. Nothing has changed, as usual. Only in Hays’ head has the Catholic Church supposedly evolved into totally different belief-systems. It’s a fantasy of his own making. The Church has always held to baptismal regeneration and its being essential to salvation because it’s clearly and repeatedly taught in the Bible. See also the Catholic Catechism on baptism. At the same time the Church has always also recognized rare exceptions to the rule, and baptism of desire, etc.

Indeed, in modern Catholicism, Muslims, Hindus, Buddhists, and atheists can be saved. [p. 121]

Indeed, in the Bible, Paul alludes to the possibility of salvation for non-Christians:

Romans 2:13-16 For it is not the hearers of the law who are righteous before God, but the doers of the law who will be justified. [14] When Gentiles who have not the law do by nature what the law requires, they are a law to themselves, even though they do not have the law. [15] They show that what the law requires is written on their hearts, while their conscience also bears witness and their conflicting thoughts accuse or perhaps excuse them [16] on that day when, according to my gospel, God judges the secrets of men by Christ Jesus.

There are many other “ecumenical” motifs in the Bible, such as Jesus and the Roman centurion:

Matthew 8:5-12 As he entered Caper’na-um, a centurion came forward to him, beseeching him [6] and saying, “Lord, my servant is lying paralyzed at home, in terrible distress.” [7] And he said to him, “I will come and heal him.” [8] But the centurion answered him, “Lord, I am not worthy to have you come under my roof; but only say the word, and my servant will be healed. [9] For I am a man under authority, with soldiers under me; and I say to one, `Go,’ and he goes, and to another, `Come,’ and he comes, and to my slave, `Do this,’ and he does it.” [10] When Jesus heard him, he marveled, and said to those who followed him, “Truly, I say to you, not even in Israel have I found such faith. [11] I tell you, many will come from east and west and sit at table with Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven, [12] while the sons of the kingdom will be thrown into the outer darkness; there men will weep and gnash their teeth.”

We also have the story of Cornelius, the Roman centurion in Acts 10. He is described as “a devout man who feared God with all his household, gave alms liberally to the people, and prayed constantly to God” (10:2), and it’s recorded that an “angel of God” spoke to him (10:3, 7, 30-32), saying, “Your prayers and your alms have ascended as a memorial before God” (10:4). The Holy Spirit Himself told Peter that He had sent Cornelius’ three friends to him (10:17-20), and indeed the Holy Spirit “fell on” Cornelius and his friends (10:44-46). All of this was before he was baptized (10:47-48). Peter testifies: “Truly I perceive that God shows no partiality, but in every nation any one who fears him and does what is right is acceptable to him” (10:34-35).

So none of this is “new” (supposedly only after Vatican II) at all. It’s right in the Bible. The Church fathers (especially Augustine) wrote about it, and so did St. Thomas Aquinas (13th c.). If Hays had actually taken time to study these matters, he would have known this. But here I am correcting him, and educating those who have only learned about Catholicism from Hays or other anti-Catholics. Hays knows the truth now.

There is general agreement that there is no firm evidence for infant baptism before the latter part of the second century. This fact does not mean that it did not occur, but it does mean that supporters of the practice have a considerable chronological gap to account for. Many replace the historical silence by appeal to theological or sociological considerations. [p. 121]

I don’t know who’s agreeing to that, seeing that infant baptism is taught in the Bible (a strong deduction, but still, I contend, taught).

[P]ublic confession . . . [is] hardly equivalent to confessing your sins to a priest in private. [p. 122]

As so often, Hays can’t see the forest for the trees. The essence of confession is declaring sins and repentance to a clergyman. Whether it is public or private is secondary and not of the essence. So public confession is a legitimate evidence for confession. For the true-blue Protestant (with some exceptions), any confession to men at all is senseless, unnecessary, and anathema; all must confess to God only. But the Bible teaches the former, so they have to grapple with it somehow.

You just pick a parish with a sympathetic priest or bishop. That’s easy to find. Lots of liberal priests and bishops to choose from. [p. 123]

See how Hays always has to highlight the liberal dissidents (that every group is blessed with)? Why is it he never seems to say, “lots of orthodox, faithful priests and bishops to choose from”? If I were recommending a Protestant denomination to someone intent to remain Protestant, I would tell him to avoid liberal denominations like the plague, and I’d direct him to one that is honest and actually follows its own stated beliefs; that is, one that is serious about the Christian faith and not just playing games. But for Hays, when he thought of “Catholic” all he could see in his head — for whatever inexplicable reason — was “liberals / heterodox / dissidents.” It’s like shopping for tomatoes at the grocery store and always picking out the squishy, blemished, half-rotten ones, and saying “those represent what tomatoes are supposed to be! They’re the real tomatoes.”

He [Trent Horn] tries to prooftext holy orders from 1 Tim 4:14. But that inference is complicated by alternative explanations: [p. 123]

The passage talks about the “gift” that Timothy had, which “was given” to him “by prophetic utterance when the council of elders laid their hands upon” him. Sounds like it could be ordination to me. But if Hays wants to discount it, then we have “And his gifts were that some should be apostles, some prophets, some evangelists, some pastors and teachers, to equip the saints for the work of ministry, for building up the body of Christ” (Eph 4:11-12). Those offices are called “gifts” as well, and “ministry” and working for the Church is present in context. Did Hays wish to argue that no one is ordained; that there are no pastors, elders, etc.?

One sinking ship–or many lifeboats?

Protestants were hellbound. And that’s the position Rome used to take regarding everybody who wasn’t in communion with Rome. [p. 127]

That’s a lie, as already explained.

But nowadays, the Magisterium is flirting with hopeful universalism. [p. 127]

That’s a lie, too. There is no universalism taught in Catholicism. Universal atonement, however, is taught (the possibility of any individual to obtain salvation, given certain conditions).

Another problem with his [some Catholic real or alleged apologist’s] tweets is bigotry. To judge by what he said, it seems highly unlikely that he’s had many, if any, conversations, with evangelical philosophers, theologians, Bible scholars, and church historians. His uninformed comments are a textbook case of prejudice. In addition, he’s like a man standing in front of a burning house, which happens to be his own house, while he lectures the neighbors on how their house is an eyesore. We watch him stand there, scolding us, while right behind him we see his own house in flames. [p. 127]

Another problem with Steve Hays’ critiques of Catholicism is bigotry. To judge by what he said, it seems highly unlikely that he’s had many, if any, conversations, with Catholic philosophers, theologians, Bible scholars, apologists, or church historians. His uninformed comments are a textbook case of prejudice. In addition, he’s like a man standing in front of a collection of burning houses, which happens to be his own neighborhood, while he lectures the neighbors on how their house is an eyesore. We watch him stand there, scolding us, while right behind him we see his own row of houses in flames.

Pope Francis is an aggressive modernist . . . [Catholicism] is on fire, and the sitting pope is the arsonist. . . . Francis is unweaving the Catholicism of Benedict XVI and John-Paul II. [pp. 127-128]

He’s not a “modernist” at all, which is, I guess, the reason that Hays doesn’t document this beyond all doubt. It’s what he wishes to be the case, and so he believes it in the face of the facts. First Hays asserts that post-Vatican II Catholicism is already modernist, universalistic, etc. Now he does an about-face and makes out that Popes John Paul II and Benedict XVI were orthodox and traditional, while Francis is a flaming liberal revolutionary. Whatever works! Facts be damned! Consistency: what’s that?

Hays cited a Catholic claiming that Protestants did not have a valid Eucharist, but that the Orthodox did, and asked, “Is that the position of post-Vatican II theology?” [p. 129] Yes it is. That’s why Protestants are not allowed to receive Holy Communion at a Catholic Mass, because they have a different view and don’t agree with the Catholic view.

By the way, why does the Eucharist require a Catholic priest to be valid, but baptism does not? What’s the principle? Or is the distinction ad hoc? [p. 129]

Because the priest represents Jesus at the Last Supper (in persona Christi / alter Christus), and then presides over transubstantiation and the eucharistic sacrifice, whereby the one redeeming, sacrifice on the cross is supernatural made present. Baptism, on the other hand, was done by people other than Jesus from the beginning (“Jesus himself did not baptize, but only his disciples”: Jn 4:2).

“Ecclesial deism”

[N]on-Catholics don’t believe God protects his denomination [Catholicism] from heresy or apostasy. [p. 131]

Non-Catholics don’t believe God protects any denomination or Christian communion from heresy or apostasy. This is a big problem, because the Bible teaches that the one true Church is indefectible.

We don’t believe Christ founded the Roman Catholic church in the first place. [p. 131]

What “church” did He found, then, since we know that He did so, by the words, “I will build my church, and the powers of death shall not prevail against it” (Mt 16:18). All in one fell swoop, then, we know that there is such a thing as a “church” and it is Jesus’ own, and that it is indefectible. And we know that its first leader was Peter (the early part of the same verse).If the Catholic Church isn’t the one that Jesus is, which claimant is that? Hays could hardly deny that Jesus established a Church, when the text is so clear. The problem then becomes figuring out how the powers of death can’t touch the true Church, when Hays and Protestants deny that any Protestant denomination is infallible or indefectible (which is part and parcel of the definition of sola Scriptura). Quite the conundrum!

Protestants like me don’t believe that God withdrew his protection of his people from apostasy. To the contrary, God preserves the elect from apostasy. [p. 132]

That’s a meaningless abstract notion, since we don’t know for sure who the elect are, and those who think they are in the elect can’t agree on all doctrines anyway. So any sense of observable non-apostasy is nonsensical apart from a claimed denomination that “has it all right.” And that’s exactly what most Protestants will refuse to identify, because their own presuppositions disallow it.

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Photo credit: The Whore of Babylon (workshop of Lucas Cranach): colorized illustration from Martin Luther’s 1534 translation of the Bible [public domain / Wikimedia Commons]

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Summary: The late Steve Hays was a Calvinist and anti-Catholic writer and apologist. This is one of my many critiques of Hays’ “Catholicism”: a 695-page self-published volume.

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